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Module 22—Assessment & Psychological Disorders I
1. A talk radio host says that the BTK killer, who tortured and killed 10 people, must be
insane. After reading Module 22, what’s your correct reaction?
a. You agree that the BTK killer is insane.
b. The person is only insane if he did not know the difference between right and wrong.
c. Someone is only insane if they hallucinated during the crime.
d. Insanity is only appropriate if the person has a mental disorder.
Answer: B
2. Which of the following characteristics is not true of Dennis Rader, the BTK Killer?
a. he was a law-abiding person in his public life
b. he was found to be insane
c. he was very a respected church elder
d. he was a loving husband and father
Answer: B
3. A common characteristic of serial killers is:
a. a traumatic childhood event
b. being an only child
c. college-educated
d. close relationships with a few friends
Answer: A
4. According to the textbook, the typical serial killer:
a. has stable, intact family backgrounds
b. is middle aged
c. enjoys torturing victims
d. was popular in elementary school, but a loner in junior high school
Answer: C
5. Dennis Rader, the BTK killer, was:
a. found guilty of 10 counts of murder and judged to not know the difference between right
and wrong
b. guilty of 10 counts of murder, but the verdict was later overturned on a technicality

c. found guilty of 10 counts of murder by reason of insanity
d. found guilty of 10 counts of murder, and sentenced to 10 life sentences in jail
Answer: D
6. The legal definition of insanity is:
a. having a diagnosed mental disorder
b. not knowing the difference between right and wrong
c. the inability to remember the crime which was perpetrated
d. having a problem that interferes with the ability to function in society
Answer: B
7. Charles has been judged insane. What does that mean?
a. Charles has paranoid schizophrenia.
b. Charles has a mental disorder that prevents him from controlling his own behavior.
c. Charles is crazy.
d. Charles does not know the difference between right and wrong.
Answer: D
8. A prolonged or recurring problem that interferes with a person’s ability to live a satisfying
life and function in society is called:
a. insanity
b. a neurosis
c. a mental disorder
d. a diagnosis
Answer: C
9. Leo has a recurring problem that interferes with his ability to live a satisfying life. This
problem also prevents him from functioning in society. Leo is most likely to:
a. have a mental disorder
b. be insane
c. suffer from a brain malfunction
d. have a mental condition
Answer: A
10. In the Middle Ages, mental disorders were thought to be caused by:
a. failure to self-actualize

b. biological dysfunction
c. unresolved conflicts
d. demonic possession
Answer: D
11. Professor Kaurala is giving a lecture on the causes of abnormal behavior. It’s time for
class to end and he previews the topic for the next meeting. He says, “We’ll consider that
mental disorders are unlearned tendencies next time.” What cause will he focus on at the next
a. environmental factors
b. failures to self-actualize
c. genetic factors
d. cognitive factors
Answer: C
12. A neurological explanation for social phobia is a problem in the:
a. amygdala
b. person’s cognitive processes
c. way the person handles stress
d. corpus callosum
Answer: A
13. Joan suffers from social phobia. Maria is very outgoing. If we could look inside each of
their amygdalae as they look at pictures of angry faces, what would we notice?
a. Joan’s amygdala would have greater activity than Maria’s amygdala when looking at
female faces.
b. Joan’s amygdala would have greater activity than Maria’s amygdala when looking at male
c. Maria’s amygdala would have greater activity than Joan’s amygdala.
d. Joan’s amygdala would have greater activity than Maria’s amygdala.
Answer: D
14. When the BTK Killer, Dennis Rader, was a teenager he would fantasize about:
a. playing professional sports
b. controlling and torturing women
c. killing evil spirits

d. killing his parents
Answer: B
15. “Depression is caused by such things as war, a serious accident, or a serious illness.” A
statement like that is most likely to reflect:
a. psychosocial factors
b. cognitive factors
c. behavioral factors
d. environmental factors
Answer: D
16. Sue told Paul that his habit of putting ketchup on all his food (including spaghetti and
meatballs) was abnormal, as very few people engage in that kind of behavior. Her definition
of abnormality depends on which of the following criteria?
a. delinquent behavior
b. maladaptive behavior
c. destructiveness
d. statistical frequency
Answer: D
17. Which of the following behaviors would be considered abnormal, based upon the
statistical frequency approach?
a. buying groceries
b. answering the telephone
c. winning a multimillion dollar lottery
d. getting married
Answer: C
18. If a behavior such as stealing a neighbor’s possessions is considered normal in one culture
and abnormal in another, the normality or abnormality of the behavior is probably being
judged according to:
a. statistical frequency
b. social norms
c. maladaptive behavior
d. destructiveness
Answer: B

19. Kristin was dismayed when her son returned from college with his hair dyed purple and
his ears pierced in four places. Her first thought was “What will the neighbors think?” Her
fear that her neighbors will think her son abnormal is probably based on which criterion of
a. maladaptive behavior
b. destructiveness
c. deviation from social norms
d. statistical frequency
Answer: C
20. As you wait for a bus, you notice a naked man casually walking down the sidewalk. This
behavior is not acceptable, and therefore is abnormal based upon the ____ definition of
abnormal behavior.
a. maladaptive behavior
b. destructiveness
c. deviation from social norms
d. statistical frequency
Answer: C
21. Which way of defining abnormal behavior is most likely to change as society changes
over time?
a. social norms approach
b. statistical frequency approach
c. cognitive-behavioral approach
d. maladaptive behavior approach
Answer: A
22. Why is defining abnormality based solely on social norms risky?
a. Most of us, including researchers, do not know what social norms are.
b. Many behaviors that are desirable then would be considered abnormal.
c. It is hard to operationally define a social norm.
d. Social norms change over time.
Answer: D
23. The maladaptive behavior approach defines abnormality based on an individual’s:
a. unconscious conflicts

b. behavior compared to the behaviors of the general population
c. ability to function in his or her personal life or in society
d. social norms
Answer: C
24. One criterion for the diagnosis of alcoholism is that consumption of alcohol prevents the
person from being productive at work. This criterion is based on:
a. the statistical frequency approach
b. the maladaptive behavior approach
c. social norms
d. destructiveness
Answer: B
25. Most mental health professionals agree that the most useful definition of abnormal
behavior comes from the ____ approach.
a. Freudian
b. maladaptive behavior
c. statistical frequency
d. psychoanalytic
Answer: B
26. Dr. Guspierre, a mental health professional, finds that the most useful definition of
abnormal behavior is statistical frequency. Is she typical of other mental health professionals?
a. No—most find the maladaptive behavior approach most useful.
b. No—most find the social norm approach most useful.
c. No—most find the psychoanalytic approach most useful.
d. Yes—she is very typical of most mental health professionals.
Answer: A
27. What would a clinician use to evaluate a person’s psychological, biological, and social
a. clinical assessment
b. clinical overview
c. analysis of functioning
d. applied behavioral analysis
Answer: A

28. What is the name given to the systematic evaluation of an individual’s functioning and
a. clinical interview
b. psychosocial assessment
c. diagnostic assessment
d. clinical assessment
Answer: D
29. Of the following, which best described what mental health professionals did to determine
why Susan Smith killed her children?
a. dream analysis
b. clinical assessment
c. psychosocial assessment
d. psychoanalytic assessment
Answer: B
30. In order to rule out abnormal behaviors caused by brain tumors or disease, psychologists
often utilize:
a. clinical interviews
b. psychological tests
c. the Rorschach inkblot test
d. neurological tests
Answer: D
31. Reggie’s assessment involves measuring his reflexes, motor coordination, brain
structures, and functions. Most likely, Reggie is taking:
a. clinical interviews
b. psychological tests
c. the MMPI-2
d. neurological tests
Answer: D
32. The doctor says to her patient, “We need to determine if the memory changes are due to
some physical or psychological causes.” What type of test is most likely to be done on this
a. the MMPI-2

b. neurological tests
c. the TAT
d. psychological tests
Answer: B
33. You’ve just taken an MRI. What type of test is that?
a. a projective test
b. a neurological test
c. an objective test
d. a psychological test
Answer: B
34. A common and popular technique used by mental health professionals to evaluate a
person’s background and emotions is most likely to be:
a. neurological testing
b. psychological testing
c. the clinical interview
d. the CAT scan
Answer: C
35. Sean was experiencing some adjustment problems and went to see a psychologist. The
therapist talked to Sean and made him feel comfortable, so that he was able to say very
personal things and not feel embarrassed. The psychologist learned many important things
about Sean in this manner. What assessment technique was the therapist using?
a. clinical interview
b. psychological test
c. neurological test
d. CAT scan
Answer: A
36. The Rorschach inkblots and the MMPI are both:
a. clinical interviews
b. neurological tests
c. personality tests
d. tests of intelligence
Answer: C

37. Personality tests include which two types of tests?
a. clinical and social
b. objective and projective
c. objective and clinical
d. self-report and projective
Answer: B
38. You are taking a personality test in which you must respond with specific answers. This is
the ____ type of personality test.
a. subjective
b. objective
c. clinical
d. projective
Answer: B
39. Dr. Steinmetz is giving a personality test to Samuel. The test consists of ambiguous
pictures that Samuel makes up a story about. What type of test is he taking?
a. subjective
b. objective
c. clinical
d. projective
Answer: D
40. In clinical diagnosis, the goal is to:
a. match the individual’s symptoms to a particular mental disorder
b. determine the cause(s) of a mental disorder
c. evaluate the effectiveness of a particular therapy
d. collect information about the person
Answer: A
41. When an individual’s specific symptoms are matched to those that define a particular
mental disorder, ____ has taken place.
a. personality assessment
b. clinical diagnosis
c. psychoanalysis

d. axis construction
Answer: B
42. In order to have a uniform method of dealing with mental disorders, the American
Psychiatric Association developed the:
a. Rorschach inkblot test
b. Psychological Medical Dictionary of Mental Disorders
c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
d. Freudian Manual of Psychoanalytical Therapy
Answer: C
43. The number of mental disorders has increased from about ____ in DSM-I to nearly ____
a. 75; 100
b. 5; 100
c. 10; 30
d. 100; 300
Answer: D
44. DSM-IV-TR is a:
a. type of psychotherapy
b. drug commonly used to treat depression
c. uniform system for assessing symptoms and matching them to mental disorders
d. measure of environmental stress
Answer: C
45. What Freudian terminology was originally used in the DSM?
a. psychoses and neuroses
b. conscious and unconscious
c. mental and psychological
d. objective and projective
Answer: A
46. The DSM has been modified to drop Freudian terminology. What were Freud’s concepts
in the DSM based upon?
a. research findings

b. clinical opinion
c. scientific experiments
d. commonsense reasoning
Answer: B
47. Which of the following was the first classification system based more on research and
evidence than on clinical opinion?
a. the DSM-II
b. the DSM-III
c. the DSM-IV-TR
d. the DSM-V
Answer: C
48. An advantage of DSM 5 over earlier editions is that it:
a. uses dimensional over categorical assessment strategies
b. includes definitions of neuroses
c. defines proper treatment for each problem
d. specifies the underlying causes for the various disorders
Answer: A
49. Mental disorders, according to the DSM-IV-TR, are assessed based on:
a. neurological functioning
b. the statistical frequency of abnormal behavior
c. five separate axes
d. three types of psychological disorders
Answer: C
50. What information is presented on Axis I?
a. Major Clinical Syndromes
b. Personality Disorders
c. Psychosocial and Environmental Problems
d. Neurological Functioning
Answer: A
51. If Phyllis has a mood disorder, the DSM-IV-TR would indicate the diagnosis on:
a. Axis I

b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Section II
Answer: A
52. Using the DSM-IV-TR, Susan Smith could be diagnosed on ____ with ____.
a. Axis I; schizophrenia
b. Axis II; personality disorder
c. Axis III; major depressive disorder
d. Axis I; major depressive disorder
Answer: D
53. If Daniel suffers from antisocial personality disorder, on what axis does this diagnosis
a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV
Answer: B
54. A patient suffers from diabetes. On what axis should the clinician make note of this
medical condition?
a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV
Answer: C
55. As a clinical psychologist, you note that one of your clients has AIDS. Where does this
piece of information go on the DSM-IV-TR axes?
a. Axis II—Major Clinical Syndromes
b. Axis IV—Psychosocial and Environmental Problems
c. Axis VI—General Medical Conditions
d. Axis III—General Medical Conditions
Answer: D

56. You are a clinical psychologist. You are currently interviewing a 52-year-old male who is
severely depressed. You learn that this man has recently lost his wife to cancer. Where should
the information about his loss be placed?
a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV
Answer: D
57. Axis IV refers to information about:
a. personality disorders
b. medical problems
c. psychosocial and environmental problems
d. general functioning
Answer: C
58. On what DSM-IV-TR axis do we place information concerning the person’s overall
a. Axis III—General Evaluation of Functioning
b. Axis IV—Psychosocial and Environmental Problems
c. Axis VI—Global Assessment of Psychosocial Functioning
d. Axis V—Global Assessment of Functioning
Answer: D
59. There are a number of advantages of the DSM-IV-TR. Which of the following is not an
advantage of DSM-IV-TR’s uniform system?
a. it facilitates communication among mental health professionals
b. it provides labels for patients such as “mentally ill” and “schizo”
c. it facilitates the study of the causes of abnormal behavior
d. it influences the type of treatment program used
Answer: B
60. One problem associated with using a uniform system for diagnosing mental disorders is
a. communication between professionals is hampered
b. diagnosis can interfere with the selection of an appropriate treatment

c. any labels that result may have negative connotations
d. the diagnoses may mean different things to different people
Answer: C
61. Which disorder did women protest in the 1980s because it was included in earlier editions
of the DSM?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. self-defeating personality disorder
c. psychogenic amnesia
d. major depressive disorder
Answer: B
62. Labels for mental disorders have a negative connotation in Japan. A consequence of this
is that:
a. substance abuse is very common
b. health insurance does not cover therapy
c. there are very few psychologists doing therapy in Japan
d. there is a disproportionately high rate of suicide
Answer: D
63. Which of the following best explains the very high suicide rate in Japan?
a. There is a lack of adequate therapy in Japan.
b. Suicide in Japan is more accepted than in the United States.
c. The Japanese avoid labels for depression and consequently treatment.
d. There are no laws against suicide in Japan.
Answer: C
64. In a wide-scale study of mental disorders among Americans, about ____ of the sample
reported having had at least one mental disorder during their lifetime.
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 35%
d. 50%
Answer: D
65. The wide-scale study of the frequency of mental disorders in the United States found that:

a. the most common disorder reported was schizophrenia
b. women report more personality disorders than men
c. most people with active disorders were in therapy
d. about 50% of people will develop a disorder in their lifetime
Answer: D
66. Data indicate that the most common type of mental disorders are:
a. anxiety disorders
b. substance-related disorders
c. mood disorders
d. personality disorders
Answer: A
67. Which of the following mental disorders has a very negative connotation in Japan?
a. substance abuse
b. psychosexual disorders
c. anxiety disorders
d. depression
Answer: D
68. How common are the anxiety disorders among adults in the United States?
a. Anxiety disorders are the most common mental disorder.
b. Anxiety disorders are the second most common mental disorder.
c. Anxiety disorders are the third most common mental disorder.
d. Anxiety disorders are the fourth most common mental disorder.
Answer: A
69. Which of the following is not considered an anxiety disorder?
a. panic disorder
b. phobias
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. dissociative identity disorder
Answer: D
70. A patient visits his doctor with complaints of headaches, a pounding heart, and muscle
tension. With some prodding, the patient begins to talk about his extreme worry about the

success of his work, the constant fear that his wife will leave him, and his apprehension about
losing other important things in his life. The doctor may feel that this patient’s symptoms are
due to:
a. a phobic disorder
b. hypochondriasis
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. somatization disorder
Answer: C
71. A songwriter is composing a song describing his brother’s experiences with suffering
from generalized anxiety disorder. Knowing the symptoms of the disorder, what should be the
title of the song?
a. “The Man is Always on Edge”
b. “Fear Comes Out of the Blue”
c. “He Doesn’t Go Out in Public”
d. “Losing Control”
Answer: A
72. “I can’t seem to pinpoint why I am so afraid of things. I can’t concentrate on my studies,
can’t sleep at night, and I have headaches. I’ve felt like this for more than a year.” This
person is most likely describing:
a. conversion disorder
b. agoraphobia
c. panic disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
Answer: D
73. It is estimated that generalized anxiety disorders can be found in about ____ of the adult
population of the United States.
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 25%
Answer: A
74. Renee is diagnosed as suffering from generalized anxiety disorder. In addition to
psychotherapy, she is treated with drugs. The drugs she receives are likely to be:

a. tranquilizing but not addictive
b. tranquilizing but addictive if taken in high doses
c. stimulating and very addictive
d. placebos
Answer: B
75. During a visit to the local shopping mall, Kim suddenly found her heart pounding, had
trouble breathing, felt dizzy, started sweating, and felt as if she were going to die. She ran out
of the mall to her car. Kim has experienced a:
a. phobia
b. conversion disorder
c. panic attack
d. somatoform disorder
Answer: C
76. In the lunchroom, George is describing an experience he had last week. He said that he
suddenly felt short of breath, a pounding heart, dizziness, and a sense of losing control.
George has confided in you that he has felt depressed and has been having marital problems.
George should seek help, since his symptoms sound very much like a(n):
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. somatization disorder
c. phobic disorder
d. panic disorder
Answer: D
77. A patient is receiving therapy for panic disorder. Which of the following is most likely to
be true of this patient?
a. The patient is female.
b. The patient is male.
c. The patient also suffers from generalized anxiety disorder.
d. The patient is an extrovert.
Answer: A
78. After one year following treatment for panic disorder, the percentage of patients
symptom-free is:
a. 5–15%
b. 30–50%

c. 60%
d. 80–90%
Answer: B
79. A phobia is:
a. a fearful response to a dangerous stimulus
b. an intense and irrational fear that is out of proportion to the object’s actual danger
c. the feeling that people or organizations are out to get us
d. mild arousal that results from being in enclosed spaces
Answer: B
80. Intense, excessive, and irrational fear characterizes:
a. phobias
b. panic disorder
c. mental disorders
d. insanity
Answer: A
81. The fear that a person experiences in a phobia is:
a. equal to the real danger associated with the object or situation
b. out of proportion to the danger associated with the object or situation
c. only physiological
d. present even when the person is away from the object or not in the situation
Answer: B
82. The intense fear associated with phobias:
a. suggests an unconscious cause
b. makes the individual go to great lengths to avoid the feared object or situation
c. cannot be avoided
d. is proportional to the danger elicited by the object or situation
Answer: B
83. With regard to cause, the majority of individuals with phobias:
a. can remember a traumatic event that triggered their phobia
b. cannot remember a traumatic event that triggered their phobia

c. have brothers and sisters with similar irrational fears
d. have an abnormally high level of a protein in their nervous system
Answer: A
84. Holly is an excellent pianist, yet she is afraid to play in front of other people because of
her fear that people will hate her music and yell at her. Holly is displaying symptoms of:
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. agoraphobia
c. social phobia
d. a conversion disorder
Answer: C
85. Michael has a social phobia. Whenever he finds himself in a social situation:
a. he experiences considerable bodily distress
b. he has a panic attack
c. he doesn’t realize that his fear is irrational
d. he understands that his fear is rational
Answer: A
86. ____ used to be called simple phobias.
a. Target phobias
b. Special phobias
c. Focused phobias
d. Specific phobias
Answer: D
87. Which of the following would not be considered a specific phobia?
a. fear of snakes
b. fear of speaking in front of large groups of people
c. fear of heights
d. fear of enclosed spaces like elevators
Answer: B
88. Agoraphobia is a fear of:
a. being in a situation where escape may be difficult or embarrassing
b. spiders

c. heights
d. enclosed spaces
Answer: A
89. What type of phobia is characterized by anxiety about being in places or situations from
which escape might be difficult?
a. obsessive-compulsive phobia
b. social phobia
c. agoraphobia
d. specific phobia
Answer: C
90. “I am afraid to have a panic attack in public—it’s very embarrassing and I may not be
able to get out before the attack starts.” The description most reflects:
a. social phobia
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. agoraphobia
d. generalized anxiety disorder
Answer: C
91. Although Linda loves to have her friends come over to her house for social events, she
declines any offers to go over to other people’s houses. In fact, she declines any offers to go
anywhere because she fears being out of her house. Linda probably suffers from:
a. a social phobia
b. agoraphobia
c. a specific phobia
d. generalized anxiety disorder
Answer: B
92. A mental disorder that involves persistent, recurring thoughts, images, or impulses and
senseless behaviors or rituals is called:
a. somatization disorder
b. agoraphobia
c. organic thought disorder
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder
Answer: D

93. A person is diagnosed as having obsessive-compulsive disorder. In what DSM-IV-TR
category would the disorder be found?
a. affective disorders
b. anxiety disorders
c. modern neurotic disorders
d. dissociative disorders
Answer: B
94. Obsession is to compulsion as:
a. wanted is to unwanted
b. control is to chaos
c. desire is to need
d. thought is to behavior
Answer: D
95. A compulsion is an unwanted, persistent:
a. emotion
b. thought
c. ritual
d. phobia
Answer: C
96. Lady Macbeth was burdened with intense guilt after her part in the murder of Duncan. As
a result, she washed her hands over and over again, trying to remove the blood she thought
she saw on them. Psychologists would call Lady Macbeth’s hand-washing:
a. a symbolic release
b. dramatic irony
c. an obsession
d. a compulsion
Answer: D
97. Imagine that you are visiting a clinic specializing in the treatment of obsessivecompulsive behaviors. If it is a modern clinic, it is likely that the treatments are based on the
assumption that:
a. the patient’s behaviors represent attempts to avoid or reduce anxiety
b. compulsive behaviors will go away on their own

c. if you eliminate the compulsions, the obsessions will disappear on their own
d. these behaviors are much more serious than was once thought and the only successful
treatment involves the use of medication
Answer: A
98. Phil is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder. The treatment involves gradually
exposing him to the anxiety-producing situation that Phil is trying to avoid. This treatment is
a. anxiety therapy
b. avoidance therapy
c. exposure therapy
d. stimulus therapy
Answer: C
99. Current treatment of obsessive-compulsive behavior involves:
a. avoidance of the objects that are believed to cause anxiety for the person
b. confrontation of the anxiety-causing objects through exposure therapy
c. intense psychoanalysis to determine the patient’s underlying conflict
d. administration of stimulant drugs
Answer: B
100. Regarding the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder, it was discovered that:
a. antidepressant drugs are only effective for compulsions involving checking
b. psychoanalysis is highly effective
c. spontaneous recovery of obsessions occurs within minutes of the therapy session
d. not all people respond to drug treatment
Answer: D
101. For those OCD sufferers who do not respond to drug treatment, an effective remaining
option is:
a. dream analysis
b. deep brain stimulation
c. exposure or cognitive-behavioral therapy
d. psychoanalysis
Answer: B
102. Recurring and disturbing memories, nightmares, fear, and anxiety are characteristic of:

a. OCD
b. mass hysteria
d. somatization disorder
Answer: C
103. “Ever since the car accident, I always feel stressed out. I can’t sleep. Even though I’m
okay physically, I’m just not doing well.” This person is most likely suffering from_____.
b. OCD
c. conversion disorder
d. taijin kyofusho
Answer: A
104. Posttraumatic stress disorder is an example of a(n) ______ disorder.
a. somatoform
b. cognitive
c. psychosomatic
d. anxiety
Answer: D
105. Chris, who suffers from PTSD, needs help. What is the most effective treatment for the
long term?
a. drugs
b. cognitive-behavior therapy
c. dream analysis
d. hypnosis
Answer: B
106. A common background among people with somatization disorder is:
a. some traumatic event in childhood
b. poor performance in elementary school
c. growing up in economically poor families
d. growing up in cold and unsupportive families
Answer: D

107. A group of mental disorders that are characterized by real, multiple, and involuntary
physical symptoms that have no known physical causes are called:
a. anxiety disorders
b. conversion disorders
c. somatoform disorders
d. dissociative disorders
Answer: C
108. In the past, somatization disorder was known as:
a. humor imbalance
b. preeclampsia
c. the vapors
d. hysteria
Answer: D
109. One explanation for somatoform disorders presented in Module 22 is that:
a. emotional complaints are used instead of physical complaints to express psychological
b. the person’s pursuit of self-actualization is blocked, which leads to the expression of
physical problems
c. the ego’s use of defense mechanisms creates additional unconscious conflicts
d. bodily complaints are used instead of emotional complaints to express psychological
Answer: D
110. Shelly complains of having a number of physical symptoms—14 to be exact. Her doctor
says there’s nothing physically wrong with her. Shelly may be diagnosed with:
a. somatization disorder
b. conversion disorder
c. psychogenic fugue
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder
Answer: A
111. Lea has somatization disorder. If you were to examine her medical records, you would
most likely find:
a. a history of infections

b. a family history of depression
c. a history of extensive use of health services
d. a history of poor eating habits
Answer: C
112. A person goes to the doctor complaining of paralysis, but no evidence of damage or
illness can be found. The person is probably suffering from:
a. a virus that is unknown to medicine
b. conversion disorder
c. an anxiety disorder
d. holistic disorder
Answer: B
113. Dana has experienced some distress recently. The distress has turned into symptoms that
have caused her to be unable to move her hands. Physically there is nothing wrong with
Dana. She must have:
a. hysteria
b. somatization disorder
c. hypochondriasis
d. conversion disorder
Answer: D
114. When people with conversion disorder attempt to move their “paralyzed” limbs, what
occurs in their brain?
a. The corpus callosum becomes overwhelmed with messages, and its effectiveness is
severely impaired.
b. Brain areas associated with memory become activated, and this confuses the motor cortex.
c. The medulla sends an excessive number of messages to the cortex
d. Brain areas associated with emotion become activated and inhibit the motor areas.
Answer: D
115. Divorce, a loss of a job, and other personal problems have plagued Anita in the last
several years. Anita has recently started to have seizures, but her doctor has found no medical
reason for the seizures. Which of the following disorders is Anita likely to have?
a. conversion disorder
b. somatization disorder
c. epilepsy

d. hysteria
Answer: A
116. When a group of people share the same fears or delusions and show similar physical
symptoms, a diagnosis of ____ can be made.
a. generalized fear disorder
b. conversion disorder
c. mass hysteria
d. somatoform disorder
Answer: C
117. Behavior attributed to possession by evil spirits or the Devil observed in the Middle
Ages is an example of:
a. mass hysteria
b. conversion disorder
c. generalized fear disorder
d. somatoform disorder
Answer: A
118. A condition where a group of people develop similar fears or other abnormal behaviors
because of suggestion or other psychological processes is known as:
a. agoraphobia
b. mass hysteria
c. taijin kyofusho
d. offensive-compulsive disorder
Answer: B
119. Module 22 describes the case of a group of girls who suddenly fainted when they all
watched one girl faint and be carried away by medical personnel. This best illustrates:
a. agoraphobia
b. taijin kyofusho
c. mass hysteria
d. offensive-compulsive disorder
Answer: C
120. The terrible fear of offending others in Asian cultures through awkward social or
physical behavior is called:

a. koro
b. amok
c. taijin kyofusho
d. ataques de nervios
Answer: C
121. The closest equivalent of taijin kyofusho that is seen in Western cultures is most
a. social phobia
b. bipolar disorder
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. conversion disorder
Answer: A
122. The term “taijin kyofusho” literally meAnswer:
a. fear of the marketplace
b. desire for interpersonal relations
c. fear of people or interpersonal relations
d. persistent irresistible thought
Answer: C
123. Which of the following is an example of taijin kyofusho?
a. major depression caused by the death of a spouse
b. a morbid fear of eye-to-eye contact
c. refusing to go out into public places
d. feeling physical pain without a physical cause
Answer: B
124. Taijin kyofusho occurs in Asian cultures like Japan because:
a. the culture places much emphasis on the appropriate way to conduct oneself in public
b. of the Japanese love of sushi
c. of the individualistic attitude of most Japanese
d. the culture has a maternal perspective towards others
Answer: A
125. The example of taijin kyofusho illustrates:

a. the influence of the popular media in Western cultures
b. the relationship between diet and behavior
c. how biochemistry can influence behavior
d. how symptoms can be influenced by one’s culture and social customs
Answer: D
126. A condition diagnosed in children where there is a repetitive and persistent pattern of
violating established social rules or the rights of others is known as:
a. conduct disorder
b. antisocial personality disorder
c. rule conflict syndrome
d. misbehavior disorder
Answer: A
127. For about a year, Barry has had problems getting along with his teenaged peers. He
picks fights, steals, lies, and has committed acts of vandalism. Of the following disorders,
which one is the most likely diagnosis for Barry?
a. misbehavior disorder
b. An external locus of control
c. rule conflict syndrome
d. conduct disorder
Answer: D
128. Questions regarding the motive behind adolescents killing others are primarily answered
a. projective tests of personality
b. the correlational approach
c. the case study approach
d. the enthographical approach
Answer: C
129. A number of similarities have been found among adolescent killers. Which of the
following is not among the similarities?
a. history of drug use
b. little parental supervision
c. gave warning signs

d. bullied their peers
Answer: D
130. A neurological reason for violent impulses in adolescents is a(n):
a. immature prefrontal cortex
b. wiring defect in the temporal lobe
c. wiring defect in the thalamus
d. underdeveloped hypothalamus
Answer: A
131. The deadliest school shooting occurred at _____, where 32 people were killed.
a. Columbine High School
b. Los Angeles Polytechnic College
c. Virginia Tech
d. The Moses Lake Montessori School, Washington
Answer: C
132. It is believed that adolescent killers commit their crime to:
a. gain the attention of their parents
b. get justice against peers or adults
c. get even with former girlfriends
d. become isolated in jail from those people whom they’ve hurt
Answer: B
133. On a TV show, you hear one person say to another with a phobia, “Don’t worry, it’s just
a stage. You’ll outgrow it.” Is that factually correct?
a. No. Even with treatment, most phobias return.
b. No. Most phobias do not disappear without some type of treatment.
c. Yes. The majority of phobias disappear with time.
d. Maybe. Some phobias do disappear. Some do not.
Answer: B
134. For the cognitive-behavioral therapist, the two most important aspects of phobia that
need to be addressed are:
a. unconscious conflicts and limiting behaviors
b. anxious thoughts and limiting behaviors

c. unconscious conflicts and early childhood experiences
d. fearful thoughts and failure to self-actualize
Answer: B
135. A couple of weeks ago, Peter sought help for his phobia. His therapist explained that the
therapy would consist of changing negative thoughts into positive thoughts and changing
disruptive behavior into adaptive behavior. Peter’s therapist must be using:
a. client-centered therapy
b. psychoanalysis
c. exposure therapy
d. cognitive-behavioral therapy
Answer: D
136. A clinic specializing in cognitive-behavioral therapy is considering the use of a slogan
for use in an advertisement. Which of the following is the most appropriate slogan, given the
process of cognitive-behavioral therapy?
a. “Changed Thoughts. Changed Behavior. Changed People”
b. “Better Living Through Dream Interpretation”
c. “Tell Us About Your Childhood Experiences. We’ll Listen”
d. “Benzodiazepines R Us”
Answer: A
137. Jerry tells Barry about his first meeting with his therapist. Jerry says that the therapist
uses exposure therapy. Suddenly Barry says, “That’s where you’re gradually exposed to the
situation or object that causes you to be anxious.” Is Barry right?
a. no—exposure therapy involves the gradual use of anti-anxiety drugs
b. no—exposure therapy immediately uses the most anxiety-producing situation or object
c. yes—Barry’s summary is correct
d. yes—Barry’s summary is correct, except that objects and not situations are used
Answer: C
138. A new therapy for those who suffer from a fear of flying, where the person is never
exposed to a real flight, is called:
a. virtual reality therapy
b. exposure therapy
c. in vivo therapy
d. systematic desensitization

Answer: A
139. Kate is participating in a fear of flying program. She starts to have feelings of anxiety.
What has Kate been taught to do when this happens?
a. try to sleep
b. begin relaxation exercises
c. take a tranquilizer
d. seek out help from other passengers
Answer: B
140. Before real exposure to the feared situation or object in therapy, the person with the
a. is given antidepressant drugs
b. undergoes electroconvulsive therapy
c. imagines the feared situation or object
d. undergoes dream analysis
Answer: C
141. In the treatment of social phobia, in vivo exposure means that the patient:
a. is given antidepressant drugs
b. is told to confront the feared situation with no advance preparation
c. watches the therapist model behaviors without the patient having to engage in them
d. is exposed to the feared situation
Answer: D
142. Susan’s phobia is so intense that she cannot complete her cognitive-behavioral therapy
program. She has chosen drug therapy. Which of the following is she most likely to be given?
a. a phenothiazine
b. Tagamet
c. a benzodiazepine or antidepressant
d. Thorazine
Answer: C
143. The fact that many people with phobias who are being treated by placebo show
improvement suggests:
a. the real drugs are not effective
b. that expectations and beliefs play a role in reducing fear

c. they were misdiagnosed
d. phobias are not real mental disorders
Answer: B
144. Right when Professor Shepard is about to discuss the problems of drug treatment that are
presented in your textbook, her overhead projector stops working. What would have been
presented on the overhead screen?
a. high relapse rates and side effects
b. a high rate of overdose and low success rates
c. symptom substitution and high relapse rates
d. low success rates and side effects
Answer: A
145. According to research, the typical woman who marries a man who is currently serving
prison time:
a. can be described as unattractive
b. has little experience with romance
c. is intelligent and accomplished
d. suffers from anxiety disorders
Answer: C
146. What informal syndrome does Shelia Isenberg describe as she attempts to explain why
some women are attracted to convicted killers?
a. bad boy syndrome
b. martyr syndrome
c. anxiety syndrome
d. BTK syndrome
Answer: A
1. Dennis Rader, the BTK Killer, was considered insane.
Answer: False
2. Insanity is a legal term.
Answer: True
3. Biological factors refer to cognitive processes.
Answer: False

4. If a behavior interferes with a person’s ability to function, then it is considered abnormal
from the maladaptive approach.
Answer: True
5. If a behavior is infrequent, it could be considered to be abnormal, according to the social
norms approach.
Answer: False
6. To evaluate a person, clinicians perform clinical assessment.
Answer: True
7. The most commonly used clinical interview is the MMPI-2
Answer: False
8. DSM-IV-TR provides ideas for the treatment of mental disorders.
Answer: False
9. Mood disorders would be identified on Axis I.
Answer: True
10. Personality disorders are listed on Axis III.
Answer: False
11. Approximately 15 percent of adults in the United States will suffer from a mental disorder
at some point in their lives.
Answer: False
12. The most common type of mental disorders are mood disorders.
Answer: False
13. In generalized anxiety disorder, the person suffers from unexpected panic attacks.
Answer: False
14. Women are much more likely than men to suffer from panic disorder.
Answer: True
15. A phobia is an irrational fear that is out of proportion to any real danger in the situation or
Answer: True
16. In agoraphobia, the individual has a fear of being someplace where escape may be
difficult or embarrassing.
Answer: True
17. An obsession is a persistent recurring thought, impulse, or image.

Answer: True
18. The somatoform disorders involve bodily symptoms.
Answer: True
19. In conversion disorder, the person is faking some physical symptom.
Answer: False
20. Taijin kyofusho illustrates how genetics play a role in mental disorders.
Answer: False
21. Adolescent school shooters rarely give warning signs of their violent intentions.
Answer: False
22. Cognitive-behavioral therapy attempts to change thoughts and beliefs.
Answer: True
23. Most people relapse after they stop taking drugs to treat social phobia.
Answer: True
24. Most women who marry prisoners who are behind bars have mental disorders that cloud
their judgment.
Answer: False
25. Male prisoners who commit the most grievous crimes receive the most attention from
Answer: True

Test Bank for Introduction to Psychology
Rod Plotnik, Haig Kouyoumdjian
9781133939535, 9781305008113, 9781285061306

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