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Module 17—Infancy and Childhood
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The case of Alex, the little Romanian boy, illustrates:
a. how the legal system can fail to meet the needs of children
b. how malnutrition affects physical development
c. the importance of experiences in infancy and early childhood
d. the importance of prenatal check ups
Answer: C
2. A psychiatric disorder characterized by serious problems with a child’s emotional
attachment to others is called:
a. insecure attachment
b. difficult temperament
c. early childhood schizophrenia
d. reactive attachment disorder
Answer: D
3. Dr. Buckbee is treating a four-year-old girl with reactive attachment disorder. Which of the
following behaviors would be consistent with this girl’s diagnosis?
a. She engages in odd repetitive behavior.
b. She has a difficult time accepting comfort and affection from her parents.
c. The girl has imaginary friends and often speaks to them.
d. She is very clingy to her parents.
Answer: B
4. Is the case of Alex, the little Romanian boy, typical of adopted Romanian children in the
United States?
a. Yes—nearly all of the Romanian adoptees initially show serious developmental problems.
b. No—Alex does not show any serious developmental problems, which is unlike other
Romanian adoptees.
c. Yes—the Romanian government took steps to make sure the orphans received warm and
safe interactions with others. Alex has no serious developmental problems like most
Romanian adoptees.
d. No—most Romanian adoptees show serious developmental problems, but Alex for
unknown reasons does not have problems.
Answer: A

5. Nature is to nurture as ____ is to ____.
a. culture; society
b. genetics; environment
c. environment; genetics
d. biology; physics
Answer: B
6. Kyle is looking into buying a dog for his children. He learns that golden retrievers by their
nature are very good with children. What does “by their nature” mean?
a. It refers to how the dog is trained by the owner.
b. Nature refers to how his children will interact with the dog.
c. It refers to the children’s genetic makeup.
d. “By their nature” refers to the dogs’ genetic predisposition.
Answer: D
7. The influence of genetic versus environmental factors on development is addressed via:
a. the nature-nurture question
b. stages versus continuity
c. the case study method
d. amniocentesis
Answer: A
8. Individuals interested in biological, emotional, cognitive, personal, and social factors
across the life span are called:
a. humanistic psychologists
b. behavioral psychologists
c. developmental psychologists
d. psychoanalytic psychologists
Answer: C
9. Professor Rose’s most recent book describes the changes seen in the drawings of children
from four to 10 years of age. Professor Rose is most likely a:
a. developmental psychologist
b. behavioral psychologist
c. humanistic psychologist

d. biological psychologist
Answer: A
10. Samantha, a five-year-old, shows extraordinary musical ability. She is of average
intelligence, can play the piano very well, and comes from a very musical family. Samantha
is a(n):
a. mnemonist
b. autistic child
c. prodigy
d. savant
Answer: C
11. Prodigies demonstrate the interaction between:
a. developmental psychology and music
b. biology and genetics
c. art and social science
d. genetic and learned influences
Answer: D
12. What percent contribution does the father make to a child’s genetic instructions?
a. depends if the instructions are for behavior or biological functioning
b. depends on the age of the father
c. 50%
d. 75% for male children; 25% for female children
Answer: C
13. Which statement best summarizes the current thinking on the nature versus nurture issue?
a. Nature is more important than nurture.
b. Nurture is more important than nature.
c. We can never really know which is most important.
d. There is an interaction between nature and nurture.
Answer: D
14. The case of Yo-Yo Ma best illustrates that:
a. Nature is more important than nurture.
b. Nurture is more important than nature.

c. Nature and nurture interact.
d. Neither nature nor nurture is critical in developing musical ability.
Answer: C
15. You are listening to a talk show on television discussing intelligence. Right before a
commercial, the host says, “When we return to our discussion of nature and nurture, we will
find out which one is more important.” What is your learned reaction to his statement?
a. “The question should not be ‘which is more important’ but how nature and nurture
interact.”
b. “Everyone knows that nurture is more important than nature.”
c. “Everyone knows that nature is more important than nurture.”
d. “How can we know which is more important, since psychologists do not study these
topics?”
Answer: A
16. Maurice is interested in studying the manner in which environmental factors result in
changes in gene activity that do not involve alterations to the genetic instructions that are
passed down to the next generation. You should advise him to get his degree in
a. behavioral genetics
b. epigenetics
c. hereditary neurology
d. developmental teratology
Answer: B
17. The period that lasts nine months, extending from conception to birth, is called the ____
period.
a. prenatal
b. embryonic
c. germinal
d. fetal
Answer: A
18. The three phases of the prenatal period in the correct order are:
a. germinal, fascia, zygote
b. embryonic, preoperational, operational
c. mitosial, chromosomal, fetal
d. germinal, embryonic, fetal

Answer: D
19. Which of the following is not a stage in prenatal development?
a. placental
b. embryonic
c. germinal
d. fetal
Answer: A
20. The germinal period starts at ____ and lasts ____.
a. conception; 4 weeks
b. 4 weeks; 8 weeks
c. 8 weeks; until birth
d. conception; 2 weeks
Answer: D
21. ____ refers to the release of an ovum, or egg cell, from a woman’s ovaries.
a. Conception
b. Ovulation
c. Amniocentesis
d. Fertilization
Answer: B
22. The Curtis family is made up of mom and dad, eight-year-old Susan, five-year-old Grant,
and the identical twins Christopher and Carson. With regard to genetic make-up, Christopher
is most similar to his:
a. mother
b. father
c. identical twin
d. brother
Answer: C
23. If two ova are released and fertilized, what will be the result?
a. identical twins
b. fraternal twins
c. a baby with Down syndrome

d. a baby with fetal alcohol syndrome
Answer: B
24. Identical twins result from:
a. the release and fertilization of two ova
b. the release of more than 23 strands of chromosomes
c. a single ovum that splits into two parts after fertilization
d. an extra 21st chromosome produced by the father’s sperm
Answer: C
25. Conception occurs when:
a. ova are released by the fallopian tubes
b. the baby is born
c. a sperm penetrates the ovum’s membrane
d. the embryo develops
Answer: C
26. Following fertilization, the single cell is called a(n):
a. embryo
b. germinal
c. fetus
d. zygote
Answer: D
27. Which of the following marks the end of the germinal period?
a. fertilization of the ovum
b. the zygote attached itself to the wall of the uterus
c. cells divide and differentiate into bone, muscle, and organs
d. the birth of the fetus
Answer: B
28. During the embryonic period:
a. the ovum is fertilized
b. the zygote attaches itself to the wall of the uterus
c. cells divide and differentiate into bone, muscle, and organs

d. the fetus is born
Answer: C
29. Why do most major birth defects occur during the embryonic stage?
a. The amniotic fluid can “leak” into the embryo and cause damage.
b. The placenta is still developing and does a poor job of protecting the embryo.
c. Most women do not know they are pregnant until the fetal stage.
d. Most of the basic organs are being formed during the embryonic stage.
Answer: D
30. Linda, who is pregnant, and Fred, her husband, visit her doctor. Upon examination, the
doctor concludes that the baby’s spinal cord and eyes have appeared and the features of the
face are evident for the first time. What stage of the prenatal development is the baby most
likely in?
a. germinal stage
b. embryonic stage
c. fetal stage
d. proximodistal stage
Answer: B
31. Most miscarriages occur:
a. during the fetal stage
b. during the embryonic stage
c. during the germinal stage
d. during conception
Answer: B
32. The fetal stage is characterized by:
a. conception and fertilization
b. attachment to the wall of the uterus
c. functioning vital organs and human physical characteristics
d. the beginnings of the spinal cord, heart, and other organs
Answer: C
33. Denise is pregnant and has an ultrasound to “see” her unborn baby. Denise’s doctor can
clearly identify the baby as a female. This suggests that the baby is in the ____ stage of
prenatal development.

a. zygote
b. embryonic
c. fetal
d. germinal
Answer: C
34. A six-month-old fetus has a good chance of surviving if born prematurely. Why?
a. the lungs are functional
b. it has enough body fat to maintain body temperature
c. its nervous system is functional
d. the heart begins to beat around this time
Answer: A
35. The organ that connects the mother’s blood supply to that of the fetus is called the:
a. germinal
b. teratogen
c. placenta
d. blood-baby barrier
Answer: C
36. The blood supply of the fetus is partially protected by the:
a. germinal
b. placenta
c. teratogen
d. amniotic fluid
Answer: B
37. Chemicals that can cause birth defects are called:
a. biohazards
b. teratogens
c. amniocentesis
d. biochemoses
Answer: B
38. Teratogens can interfere with prenatal development and harm the unborn child by:

a. creating toxins in the mother’s body and being passed to the child through the amniotic
fluid
b. passing from the mother’s lymphatic system to the child
c. being directly mixed with the child’s blood system
d. passing from the placenta into the fetus’s blood vessels
Answer: D
39. Down syndrome and similar genetic abnormalities can be identified during prenatal
development through:
a. amniocentesis
b. ovulation
c. the Lamaze method
d. the proximodistal procedure
Answer: A
40. Gwen is 16 weeks pregnant. She is undergoing a medical test that involves analyzing
amniotic fluid to detect any genetic problems. What test is Gwen undergoing?
a. FAS indexing
b. amniocentesis
c. placentaltesis
d. teratogenic analysis
Answer: B
41. The substance that is analyzed in amniocentesis is:
a. the blood plasma of the mother
b. the cerebrospinal fluid of the baby
c. the blood of the baby
d. amniotic fluid
Answer: D
42. Bryan is born with Down syndrome. If we could look at his chromosomes, we would find
that:
a. some of the chromosomes would be missing
b. there was an extra 21st chromosome instead of the normal two
c. there was some measurable damage or abnormality in each chromosome pair
d. his chromosomes were normal; Down syndrome is caused by an oxygen deficiency at birth

Answer: B
43. About how many inherited disorders can be tested for and identified prenatally?
a. around 450
b. slightly more than 500
c. just under 800
d. over 1,000
Answer: D
44. At a local coffee house, you see a pregnant woman drinking a large coffee. At what risk is
she placing her unborn child with consuming caffeine?
a. being born underweight
b. Down syndrome
c. preterm delivery
d. SIDS
Answer: A
45. Short-term effects of exposure to nicotine during prenatal development is associated with:
a. poor muscle control
b. loss of reflexes
c. temporary liver damage
d. low birth weight
Answer: D
46. What teratogen is associated with increased risk for ADHD, SIDS, oral clefts, and
respiratory infections in infants?
a. penicillin
b. aspirin
c. caffeine
d. nicotine
Answer: D
47. Children whose mothers smoked during their pregnancy are more likely to experience
a. increased risk for SIDs
b. lower IQs
c. poorly developed brains

d. smaller than normal head size
Answer: A
48. Prenatal exposure to lead is associated with:
a. poor muscular control
b. lower IQ scores
c. liver damage
d. stunted growth
Answer: B
49. When Jason was a young child, he was exposed to large amounts of lead, since he lived in
an old house with lead paint. Which of the following outcomes during adulthood is most
likely due to lead exposure?
a. poor muscular control
b. alcoholism
c. antisocial behavior
d. FAS
Answer: C
50. Heavy drinking during pregnancy can result in:
a. chromosomal damage to the fetus
b. high levels of arousal in the newborn
c. fetal alcohol syndrome
d. a newborn with a large appetite
Answer: C
51. Which of the following is not generally seen in adolescents and adults with fetal alcohol
syndrome?
a. short stature
b. dyslexia
c. below-average IQs
d. poor socialization
Answer: B
52. The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome:
a. continue into adolescence and adulthood

b. are less severe than fetal alcohol effect
c. tend to lessen in adulthood
d. are reduced by vitamin therapy
Answer: A
53. A less severe form of fetal alcohol syndrome is called:
a. Fetal Alcohol Effect
b. Fetal Alcohol Dysfunction
c. Alcohol-Related Prenatal Effect
d. Alcohol Toxin Effect
Answer: A
54. The mother of six-year-old Larry moderately drank when she was pregnant with him. He
shows some mild effects of the moderate drinking, such as hyperactivity and poor
socialization. Larry is most likely to be diagnosed with:
a. Partial Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
b. Fetal Alcohol Dysfunction
c. Alcohol-Related Prenatal Effect
d. Alcohol Toxin Effect
Answer: A
55. A woman who is in the habit of having two drinks every day after work discovers that she
is pregnant. If she follows the advice of medical findings, she will:
a. cut her drinking in half
b. completely abstain from alcohol for the duration of her pregnancy
c. maintain her drinking behavior, since it is good for her heart
d. drink beer after work, since it will help her maintain valuable protein levels
Answer: B
56. The best piece of advice given to pregnant women regarding drug use would be:
a. recreational drug use is probably okay
b. use of all drugs should be avoided
c. we do not know enough about the effects of drugs on prenatal development to give solid
advice
d. social drinking does not seem to have any effect on the unborn child
Answer: B

57. Chromosomes consist of:
a. zygotes
b. sperm
c. DNA
d. phenotypes
Answer: C
58. ____ consist of DNA.
a. Ova
b. Chromosomes
c. Zygotes
d. Phenotypes
Answer: B
59. Which statement is most accurate in describing the order from smallest to largest?
a. zygote, genes, DNA, chromosomes
b. genes, DNA, chromosomes, zygote
c. DNA, zygote, genes, chromosomes
d. DNA, genes, chromosomes, zygote
Answer: B
60. In what specific structure is the “chemical alphabet” found—the alphabet that will
provide the instructions for growth and development?
a. zygotes
b. genes
c. DNA
d. chromosomes
Answer: C
61. One reason offered by your textbook for the increase in the weight of a baby’s brain from
birth to 2 years of age is:
a. the expanding skull bones
b. new neurons forming
c. many new neural connections
d. increased production of cerebrospinal fluid

Answer: C
62. As you listen to a talk show on the radio, a developmental psychologist says, “With
regard to recognizing faces, the infant can distinguish his or her mother’s face from that of a
stranger by age ...” And then suddenly all you hear is static. Of the following, what is the
most likely statement the psychologist would have said?
a. 1 to 2 days
b. 3 to 6 weeks
c. 7 to 8 months
d. 1 year
Answer: B
63. With regard to visual abilities, the child will see as well as an adult by:
a. 2–3 months
b. 6–8 months
c. 12–14 months
d. 3–44 years
Answer: D
64. One-month-old Bethany can tell the difference between:
a. the odors of her mother and those of a stranger
b. a short distance and long distance
c. the sounds bah and pah
d. her mother’s face and a stranger’s face
Answer: C
65. At what age could an infant distinguish between the sounds bah and pah?
a. one week
b. one month
c. two months
d. six months
Answer: B
66. Tara is babysitting a six-month-old girl. Since Tara has taken a psychology course, she
knows about infancy. Tara says that the baby will need another couple of months to make all
the sounds that are necessary to learn English. Is Tara right?
a. No—children are born with the ability to make all the necessary sounds of their language.

b. No—by six months, infants have developed the ability to make all the necessary sounds of
their language.
c. Yes—around 10 months of age, the infant will be able to make all the necessary sounds of
the language.
d. It is impossible to say, since all infants are different.
Answer: B
67. What are the youngest infants researchers have found who can discriminate between a
citrus odor and a floral odor?
a. one-day-old
b. one-week-old
c. four-week-old
d. six-week-old
Answer: A
68. Newborns have a preference for ____ tasting things.
a. cool/acidic
b. sour
c. sweet/salty
d. bitter/cool
Answer: C
69. The visual cliff allowed Gibson and Walk to study:
a. the proximodistal principle
b. preference for complex patterns
c. visual acuity
d. depth perception
Answer: D
70. If a child stops on the shallow side of the visual cliff and refuses to cross the deep side,
what is your most likely conclusion?
a. The child is fatigued because crawling uses much energy.
b. Depth perception prevents the child from crossing the cliff.
c. The child has been distracted by something else.
d. There is not enough incentive for the child to move.
Answer: B

71. By six months of age, the child should be able to do all of the following except:
a. see as well as an adult
b. hesitate when they reach the clear glass dropoff on the visual cliff
c. develop depth perception
d. make all the sounds necessary in their language
Answer: A
72. Motor development involves the acquisition of:
a. sensory abilities, including hearing and taste
b. reflexive movements and abilities
c. the muscular control necessary for coordinated movement
d. language and speech patterns necessary for communication
Answer: C
73. The proximodistal principle states that parts of the body that are ____ develop before
parts of the body that are ____.
a. close to the center of the body; farther away
b. close to the head; close to the feet
c. internal; external
d. used for processing information; used for motor skills
Answer: A
74. Parts of the body which are close to the head develop before the parts closer to the feet
according to the:
a. proximodistal principle
b. cephalocaudal principle
c. visual cliff
d. sensorimotor stage of development
Answer: B
75. Development occurs in a sequential and orderly fashion because of a genetic plan called:
a. proximodistal
b. cephalocaudal
c. maturation
d. norms for development

Answer: C
76. Should a parent be concerned if their 10-month-old is not crawling?
a. No—development norms represent average ages and not absolute ages
b. No—development norms have been shown to be false
c. Yes—the norms represent absolute ages
d. No—maturation typically does not influence motor skills
Answer: A
77. Chadaron, a one-year-old boy, is having his motor development checked. The doctor says
that his motor skills are normal for his age and says that motor skills development is
biologically programmed. The doctor is most likely referring to:
a. proximodistal development
b. cephalocaudal development
c. temperament
d. maturation
Answer: D
78. Jon and Linda, who are both psychology majors, are looking at photographs of their son
Dakota. A number of pictures show Dakota’s motor development. Jon comments on the
orderly changes in Dakota’s development. Linda points out that this orderly sequence of
changes in motor development is mostly due to:
a. the cephalocaudal principle
b. the proximodistal principle
c. experience
d. maturation
Answer: D
79. In the early stages of motor development, ____ seems to be the major force guiding
development.
a. maturation
b. learning
c. experience
d. genetics
Answer: A
80. Development norms refer to:

a. parts of the body growing at differing rates
b. the genetic plan by which individuals are created
c. development occurring in a sequential and orderly fashion
d. the average age at which individuals perform skills
Answer: D
81. Gail and Janelle are talking about the differences between their children. Janelle’s
youngest, who is one year old, has not yet crawled. Gail says that Janelle should be worried.
Should Janelle be worried about her son’s motor development?
a. yes—normal children crawl by 10 months according to norms of development
b. no—norms for development refer to an average age and not absolute age
c. no—motor development at this age is controlled by experience, and so Janelle should just
spend more time playing with her son
d. yes—10 months is late for crawling
Answer: B
82. Nature and nurture interact. Which of the following best illustrates that interaction?
a. Early in life, maturation determines motor development.
b. There is a predictable order to developmental norms for motor development.
c. Infants need environmental stimulation for proper motor development.
d. Motor development follows cephalocaudal and proximodistal principles.
Answer: C
83. Emotional development is an interaction among:
a. temperament and cognitions
b. maturation and norms for development
c. genetic, cognitive, and cultural factors
d. cephalocaudal and proximodistal principles
Answer: C
84. In the weeks shortly after birth, infants showed signs of all of the following except:
a. disgust
b. interest
c. distress
d. guilt

Answer: D
85. One-month-old Zachary cries and fusses a great deal when the pediatrician gives him a
shot. It can be predicted that at four months of age:
a. Zachary will still show a great deal of anger when given a shot
b. Zachary’s anger will lessen as he becomes more emotionally mature
c. the amount of anger Zachary displays will have changed, but no one knows in what
direction
d. Zachary will actually enjoy his trips to the pediatrician
Answer: A
86. An infant’s stable and characteristic mood, activity level, and attention span are referred
to as components of the infant’s:
a. temperament
b. personality
c. genotype
d. phenotype
Answer: A
87. Brenda gave birth to fraternal twins. After a few months, Brenda notices that one twin is
always happy and energetic, whereas the other twin is always fussy and fearful. Brenda’s
twins are showing differences in:
a. vulnerability
b. maturation
c. resiliency
d. temperament
Answer: D
88. According to longitudinal data, the majority of babies examined had ____ temperaments.
a. easy
b. difficult
c. slow-to-warm-up
d. moderate
Answer: A
89. Tony and Julie describe their newborn, Carson, as happy and cheerful, with regular
sleeping and eating habits, and the ability to adapt quickly. Carson has a(n) ____
temperament.

a. easy
b. positive
c. optimal
d. optimistic
Answer: A
90. A baby who is more withdrawn, moody, and tends to take more time to adapt to new
situations has a(n) ____ temperament.
a. easy
b. difficult
c. slow-to-warm-up
d. moderate
Answer: C
91. A baby who is fussy and fearful of new situations has a ____ temperament.
a. negative
b. difficult
c. slow-to-warm-up
d. pessimistic
Answer: B
92. Research has indicated that the majority of infants develop distinct temperaments by:
a. 2–3 days
b. 2–3 weeks
c. 2–3 months
d. 2–3 years
Answer: C
93. You are observing a four month old in a local day care. You notice the child is highly
reactive and has a fearful temperament. As a result, this child is more likely to develop
______ during adulthood.
a. depression
b. substance abuse
c. schizophrenia
d. stress disorder

Answer: A
94. What areas of the brain are overdeveloped in adults who were highly emotionally reactive
as infants?
a. brain areas that are associated in dreaming
b. those areas involved in emotional responding
c. those areas involved in judgment and planning
d. brain areas that govern visual perception and interpretation
Answer: B
95. Tina is introducing her topic by saying, “Today I will be talking about the fundamental
emotional bond that develops between the infant and the caregiver.” What is the topic of her
presentation?
a. psychosocial development
b. closeness
c. temperament
d. attachment
Answer: D
96. Which of the following individuals has contributed to our understanding of attachment?
a. Eleanor Gibson
b. Jean Piaget
c. Mary Ainsworth
d. Carol Jacklin
Answer: C
97. What behavior can a newborn perform that triggers care and sympathy from the parent?
a. eye contact
b. first words
c. crying
d. smiling
Answer: C
98. What can a six-month-old child do that will be effective in giving her parent a happy
greeting?
a. The child becomes able to focus on objects about seven inches away from the face.
b. The child learns to walk.

c. The child learns his or her first words.
d. The child demonstrates social smiling.
Answer: D
99. Baby Michael has just started to smile when his father or mother enters the room, but he
does this for no one else. It is likely that Michael is:
a. one week old
b. between four and six weeks old
c. six months old
d. nine months old
Answer: C
100. Jane and John were always able to leave baby Rebecca with a babysitter, but now, at six
months of age, she begins to cry loudly when they leave. This separation anxiety indicates
that Rebecca:
a. is somewhat retarded in her development
b. must have suffered some type of birth defect
c. has formed a close attachment with her parents
d. will be a child who always clings to her parents
Answer: C
101. When one-year-old Terrace is in new surroundings, he will explore freely if his mother
watches him. If she leaves the room he begins to cry, but when she returns he smiles and
stops fussing. Terrace would be considered a(n) ____ infant.
a. securely attached
b. insecurely attached
c. unattached
d. disturbed
Answer: A
102. One difference between a securely attached infant and one who is insecurely attached is
that securely attached infants:
a. explore their environments more freely
b. nurse less
c. show more indifference toward their principal caretakers
d. are less active and alert

Answer: A
103. What is the best reason why attachment in infancy is important for later life?
a. It is related to the level of cognitive development seen in adulthood.
b. It is related to the probability of mental disorders in adulthood.
c. The type attachment seen in infancy is associated with the types of attachment the person
has as an adult.
d. Attachment in infancy influences physical development.
Answer: C
104. A study in which the same group of individuals is repeatedly studied across many years
is known as a ____ study.
a. longitudinal
b. multilevel
c. repetitional
d. cross-sectional
Answer: A
105. A group of children are initially interviewed at age 7 and then reinterviewed every seven
years until age 28. This is the ____ type of study.
a. multilevel
b. cross-sectional
c. repetitional
d. longitudinal
Answer: D
106. The fact that researchers must wait many years for their subjects to grow older, and that
subjects may drop out of the study for a variety of reasons, are disadvantages of:
a. cross-sectional designs
b. amniocentesis
c. longitudinal methods
d. the nature-nurture question
Answer: C
107. Which of the following is a disadvantage in the use of a longitudinal study in
developmental research?
a. It only allows for immediate comparisons of developmental differences.

b. It does not allow for the assessment of long-term developmental patterns.
c. It does not focus on the same subjects.
d. Over time some of the subjects may drop out.
Answer: D
108. A study in which a group of individuals of different ages is studied at the same time is a
____ study.
a. longitudinal
b. multilevel
c. repetitional
d. cross-sectional
Answer: D
109. You are reviewing a study that was done on emotional development. After you have read
it, you wonder if the subjects will remain the same or change across time. You are reading a
study that used the ____ method.
a. longitudinal
b. multilevel
c. repetitional
d. cross-sectional
Answer: D
110. A disadvantage of the cross-sectional method is that:
a. subjects tend to drop out of the study
b. it is difficult to track people over several years
c. it prevents the study of people across their life spans
d. it does not examine the development in each person over time
Answer: D
111. Kagan, in his study of fear reactions, identified two distinct temperaments that are
called:
a. slow-to-warm-up and warm
b. inhibited/fearful and fearless
c. easy and difficult
d. mature and immature
Answer: B

112. Two-year-old Jeremy is cautious, tentative, and shy in new situations. Jeremy would be
considered a(n) ____ child.
a. unemotional
b. inhibited
c. uninhibited
d. problem
Answer: B
113. Which statement is incorrect regarding inhibited and uninhibited children?
a. There is no difference between these two groups in IQ scores.
b. About 10–15% of the population have an inhibited temperament.
c. 90% of children do not change their temperament.
d. There is a strong genetic component in the inhibited temperament.
Answer: C
114. According to Kagan, what percentage of children retained their inhibited temperament
from the ages of 21 months to 7 years?
a. 18%
b. 37%
c. 60%
d. 80%
Answer: A
115. Sophia is a very shy and inhibited six-year-old. What should her parents do?
a. provide her with support and encouragement
b. show their anger at her shyness
c. nothing—she’ll outgrow it
d. protect her from any situation that may prove to be anxiety-provoking
Answer: A
116. Zach is 20 years old, but when he was two years old, he was classified as being fearful.
Based on the study described in Module 17, what would occur in his brain when viewing a
novel face?
a. His prefrontal cortex would be less active than normal.
b. His prefrontal cortex would be more active than normal.
c. His amygdala would be more active than normal.

d. His amygdala would be less active than normal.
Answer: C
117. Your five-year-old nephew thinks about and understands the world differently than you
do. This difference illustrates:
a. cognitive development
b. nature versus nurture
c. social development
d. accommodation
Answer: A
118. Which of the following theorists is most noted for his/her studies of the cognitive
development of children?
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Erik Erikson
c. Carroll Izard
d. Jean Piaget
Answer: D
119. The work of Jean Piaget led to the current view that children:
a. do not hypothesize about the world
b. are actively involved in their cognitive development
c. accommodate as a result of assimilation
d. solve abstract problems in the sensorimotor stage
Answer: B
120. Piaget argued that a child acts like a(n):
a. uncivilized and unregulated individual
b. bucket, holding knowledge and wisdom
c. tiny scientist, making hypotheses about how the world works
d. computer, attempting to solve problems
Answer: C
121. Piaget called the incorporation of new objects into existing knowledge:
a. assimilation
b. object permanence

c. conservation
d. formal operations
Answer: A
122. A parent throws a beach ball to a young child. After a few throws, the parent switches to
a smaller plastic ball. If the child assimilates, she will:
a. adjust her hands to the size of the ball, but not the new weight
b. adjust her hands to the new weight of the ball, but not the new size
c. wait until her parent throws the beach ball again
d. try to catch the plastic ball the same way she tried to catch the beach ball
Answer: D
123. An infant is being weaned to drink out of a cup. She continues to suck the cup as if
sucking on her mother’s breast. This best illustrates:
a. accommodation
b. assimilation
c. preoperations
d. conservation
Answer: B
124. A three-year-old sees a skunk, but calls it a “kitty.” This best illustrates:
a. maturation
b. conservation
c. accommodation
d. assimilation
Answer: D
125. When an existing method is changed because of new information being taken in, the
process called ____ has taken place.
a. assimilation
b. object permanence
c. accommodation
d. conservation
Answer: C

126. A child is used to riding her own bicycle. Then she tries her friend’s bike, which is
slightly larger. Piaget would call the changes she makes in her riding when she tries to ride
her friend’s bike:
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. adjustment
d. insight
Answer: B
127. Which of the following is the correct sequence for Piaget’s cognitive stages?
a. preoperational, formal operations, sensorimotor, concrete operations
b. preoperational, permanent operations, egocentrism, formal operations
c. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations
d. sensorimotor, egocentrism, concrete operations, permanent operations
Answer: C
128. Piaget called the knowledge that an object continues to exist even after it has been
removed from view:
a. existential constancy
b. substance constancy
c. item memory
d. object permanence
Answer: D
129. Hannah is playing with her seven-month-old niece, Elie. She rolls a toy truck toward her
and she tries to roll it back. One time the truck rolls behind a chair and is out of sight. Elie
seems to forget about the truck and about the game they had both enjoyed playing. This is
because Elie has not achieved:
a. conservation
b. sensorimotor memory
c. object permanence
d. egocentrism
Answer: C
130. Children begin to use words to think about things that are out of sight during the ____
stage.
a. object permanence

b. conservation
c. preoperational
d. formal operations
Answer: C
131. Use of symbols such as words and mental images, simple problem solving, and talking
about things not present characterizes the:
a. sensorimotor stage
b. preoperational stage
c. classical stage
d. attachment stage
Answer: B
132. The term conservation refers to the fact that:
a. the amount of a substance remains the same even though its shape changes
b. children see and think about the world from other people’s viewpoints
c. infants interact with and learn about their environment through sensory experiences
d. symbols and words can be used to think about things that do not exist
Answer: A
133. A child is shown two identical balls of clay. Then an adult squashes one ball into a
pancake shape. She then asks the child if one of the shapes contains more clay and the child
answers, “Yes, the pancake does.” In Piagetian terms, the child has not yet reached:
a. sensorimotor stage
b. concrete operations stage
c. object permanence
d. decentricity
Answer: B
134. Mothers learn quickly that when serving ice cream to siblings, they must put the ice
cream in identically sized bowls. Even if the same amount of ice cream is scooped out in
front of the children, putting ice cream in a large bowl will make it appear that there is less
ice cream than if it is in a smaller bowl, and this will surely generate arguments. This is
because young children do not demonstrate which of the following?
a. egocentrism
b. object permanence
c. conservation

d. assimilation
Answer: C
135. ____ refers to seeing and thinking of the world from your own viewpoint and having
difficulty appreciating another’s viewpoint.
a. anomic thinking
b. egocentrism
c. personalization
d. conservation
Answer: B
136. Kerry is talking to his grandfather about Kerry’s father and says: “He can’t be your son
because he is my father!” This inability to see a situation from another person’s point of view
is called:
a. egotistical thinking
b. egocentric thinking
c. conceited thinking
d. conservation
Answer: B
137. Six-year old Kerry is talking to his grandfather about Kerry’s father and says: “He can’t
be your son because he is my father!” This inability to see a situation from another person’s
point of view indicates that Kerry is in which stage of cognitive development?
a. formal operations
b. sensorimotor
c. preoperational
d. concrete operations
Answer: C
138. During the ____ stage of cognitive development, children are capable of logical mental
operations, but only on physically present objects.
a. concrete operations
b. sensorimotor
c. preoperational
d. formal
Answer: A

139. During the concrete operations stage, children can figure out relationships between:
a. hypothetical objects and situations
b. imaginary objects
c. abstract concepts
d. objects that are physically present
Answer: D
140. You need to sort toys based upon their use and age. What stage of cognitive
development would a child have to be in before they would be able to do this kind of
classification?
a. sensorimotor
b. preoperational
c. concrete operations
d. primary
Answer: C
141. Lisa asks her nine-year-old daughter Erica the following hypothetical question: “How
would the world change if people woke up tomorrow and discovered they could fly?” Erica
immediately responded: “But people can’t fly!” Erica’s answer indicates that she has not
reached the stage of:
a. conservation
b. preoperations
c. concrete operations
d. formal operations
Answer: D
142. According to Piaget, the ability to solve abstract problems in a logical manner is
characteristic of which of the following stages?
a. concrete operations
b. preoperational
c. formal operations
d. sensorimotor
Answer: C
143. In what stage can an individual consider abstract ideas and hypothetical concepts?
a. conservation

b. preoperations
c. concrete operations
d. formal operations
Answer: D
144. “Joan is older than Helen. Helen is older than Chris. Is Joan older or younger than
Chris?” To solve this problem, a child must have reached which of the following stages?
a. formal operations
b. sensorimotor
c. preoperational
d. concrete operations
Answer: A
145. “They’ll all laugh at me,” says Mindy, a 13-year old, after discovering a large pimple on
her nose. Mindy’s comment best illustrates a characteristic known as:
a. preconventional thinking
b. inferiority
c. the imaginary audience
d. the personal fable
Answer: C
146. Two senior citizens are discussing their teenage grandsons. Both agree that the teens
think that they should have the same concerns as them and this is called ______.
a. egocentrism
b. assimilation
c. role confusion
d. centering
Answer: A
147. As Candy, a 16-year old, is talking to her parents about her boyfriend Brian, she yells at
them, “You just don’t understand what I’m going through!” Candy is demonstrating:
a. centering
b. the personal fable
c. separation anxiety
d. accommodation
Answer: B

148. From a cognitive developmental perspective, why do teenagers often engage in risky
behavior?
a. conservation
b. assimilation
c. ego integrity
d. the personal fable
Answer: D
149. A friend with a three-year-old child has decided to try to accelerate the child’s cognitive
development by teaching him how to conserve and handle hypothetical problems. The
friend’s attempts are:
a. a waste of time, since the child will not develop faster than the Piagetian stages dictate
b. potentially harmful to the child’s self-esteem and psychological well-being
c. going to work only if she is a skilled teacher of preschoolers
d. plausible, because preoperational children have been able to do such problems after
simplification of instructions
Answer: D
150. You attend a presentation on cognitive development. The speaker says that he believes
children are naturally curious and want to explore the environment. The speaker has clearly
been influenced by the theoretical ideas of _____.
a. Piaget
b. Erikson
c. Bandura
d. Freud
Answer: A
151. Evaluations of Piaget’s theory have suggested that:
a. children are passive participants in their cognitive development
b. his stages are not as rigid as he proposed
c. cognitive development should not be divided into subareas for research
d. the order in which cognitive skills are acquired is not affected by culture
Answer: B
152. Research has indicated that children can complete some tasks earlier than Piaget had
theorized if the:
a. child has developed egocentric thinking

b. child has attended day care
c. tasks are presented in different ways
d. tasks involve gender schemas
Answer: C
153. If Piaget could revise his theory of cognitive development, what might he have changed?
a. genetics and the environment influence cognitive abilities
b. children have less long-term memory
c. children are only passively involved in their own cognitive development
d. stages of cognitive development are fixed
Answer: A
154. Piaget’s theory has been criticized for:
a. not explaining why the thinking of children changes
b. overemphasizing unconscious conflicts
c. ignoring the role of cultural factors in personality development
d. being too narrow in describing cognitive development
Answer: A
155. According to Module 17, a three-year-old child who is rated high in seeking stimulation
will:
a. develop a fearful temperament later in life
b. score lower IQ scores than children rated low in stimulation seeking
c. score higher IQ scores than children rated low in stimulation seeking
d. develop a fearless temperament later in life
Answer: C
156. According to the textbook, developing a sense of self is a focus of ____ development.
a. cognitive
b. social
c. emotional
d. temperament
Answer: B
157. A child’s primary goal is to satisfy desires associated with innate biological needs. This
statement is characteristic of the theory of:

a. Sigmund Freud
b. Jean Piaget
c. Erik Erikson
d. Albert Bandura
Answer: A
158. A key component of Freud’s psychosexual theory is ____ between child and parent.
a. mutual respect
b. communication
c. conflict
d. love
Answer: C
159. If an individual’s wishes are overgratified or undergratified at any particular
psychosexual stage, Freud would argue that ____ will occur.
a. projection
b. fixation
c. displacement
d. Freudian slips
Answer: B
160. Which of the following is the correct order of psychosexual stages, according to Freud?
a. projection, fixation, displacement, genital
b. anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital
c. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete, formal
d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
Answer: D
161. The first of Freud’s stages of psychosexual development is called the:
a. oral stage
b. anal stage
c. genital stage
d. undifferentiated stage
Answer: A

162. Oscar’s mother refused to breast feed him when he was an infant. Today, Oscar talks all
the time, chews his pencils, and chain smokes. Freud would say that Oscar is:
a. fixated at the oral stage
b. utilizing the defense mechanism of rationalization
c. ignoring the needs of his id
d. overly dependent on the reality principle
Answer: A
163. The second of Freud’s stages of psychosexual development is called the:
a. anal stage
b. oral stage
c. genital stage
d. undifferentiated stage
Answer: A
164. Steven and Joe are very bad roommates. Steven is incredibly disorganized and messy
while Joe is compulsive in his work and insists that the room be completely tidy at all times.
According to Freud, it is possible that both Steven and Joe are fixated at the ____ stage.
a. oral
b. phallic
c. anal
d. latency
Answer: C
165. Five-year-old Bethany wants very much to please her Daddy while competing with her
mother. Bethany, according to Freud’s psychosexual stages, is in the ____ stage.
a. oral
b. anal
c. phallic
d. latency
Answer: C
166. Seven-year-old Noelle only plays with girls, thinks that boys are weird, and attends
second grade. She is most likely in which of Freud’s psychosexual stages?
a. oral
b. anal

c. phallic
d. latency
Answer: D
167. In Freud’s psychosexual stages, when do sexual thoughts become repressed?
a. oral
b. anal
c. latency
d. genital
Answer: C
168. The final psychosexual stage, during which the adolescent experiences sexual feelings
towards others, is called the ____ stage.
a. genital
b. phallic
c. latency
d. oral
Answer: A
169. Twelve-year-old Katelyn has started thinking more and more about boys. In which stage
is Katelyn most likely?
a. genital
b. phallic
c. latency
d. oral
Answer: A
170. In his theory of development, Erik Erikson focused on:
a. observation
b. resiliency
c. psychosocial issues
d. psychosexual issues
Answer: C
171. According to Erikson, the first major task of the child is to:
a. develop basic trust

b. form an intimate attachment with another person
c. become independent of the principal caretaker
d. overcome natural feelings of shame
Answer: A
172. Two-year-old Brian wants to try to eat and dress himself without his mother’s help.
According to Erikson, these behaviors reflect which psychosocial stage?
a. autonomy vs. shame
b. initiative vs. guilt
c. intimacy vs. isolation
d. trust vs. mistrust
Answer: A
173. If the parents of the four-year-old boy encourage his ability to plan, he will successfully
resolve the ____ stage.
a. autonomy vs. shame
b. initiative vs. guilt
c. intimacy vs. isolation
d. trust vs. mistrust
Answer: B
174. Peter is a seven-year-old. According to Erikson’s theory, if Peter has problems in school
and is unable to direct his energy, he is likely to:
a. feel ashamed of his abilities and give up
b. develop feelings of guilt
c. develop a feeling of inferiority
d. lose trust in his parents and teachers
Answer: C
175. “I don’t know what I want to be. Whatever it is, I know I’ll have to grow up some.”
According to Erikson, this individual is experiencing:
a. resiliency state
b. identity vs. role confusion
c. anal stage
d. industry vs. inferiority
Answer: B

176. Which of the following is true of Erikson’s theory?
a. resolving the conflict at one stage enables individuals to skip the next stage
b. one cannot compensate at a later stage for some problem left over from a previous stage
c. the first five years of life are the most critical
d. each stage builds on the others
Answer: D
177. Psychologists have evaluated Erikson’s psychosocial theory. Many psychologists agree
with Erikson that:
a. the formation of personality ceases around 35 years
b. sexuality plays a significant role in development
c. personality development continues into middle adulthood
d. a substitute caregiver can increase a child’s resiliency
Answer: C
178. Freud’s theory of development has been criticized for:
a. suggesting that development continues into adulthood
b. ignoring the role that pleasure plays in psychosexual development
c. emphasizing social factors
d. emphasizing childhood sexuality
Answer: D
179. Both Freud’s and Erikson’s theories have been criticized for being ____ and not ____.
a. descriptive; explanatory
b. explanatory; descriptive
c. specific; general
d. general; specific
Answer: A
180. The influence of learning via imitation and observation on social development is central
to:
a. Freud’s psychosexual stages
b. Erikson’s psychosocial stages
c. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development
d. Bandura’s social cognitive theory

Answer: D
181. Scotty, a six-year-old, asks his dad if they could buy some power tools. Scotty enjoys
watching his dad work with wood. Which theoretical perspective would explain Scotty’s
behavior by focusing on modeling?
a. Freud’s psychosexual stages
b. Erikson’s psychosocial stages
c. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development
d. Bandura’s social cognitive theory
Answer: D
182. Psychological and environmental problems that place children at risk for later problems
have an effect on:
a. norms for development
b. vulnerability
c. maturation
d. teratogens
Answer: B
183. A number of factors have been identified that decrease the impact of life stresses. These
factors are referred to as:
a. assimilation
b. conservation
c. androgyny
d. resiliency
Answer: D
184. The current research on resiliency has cast doubt on Freud’s belief that:
a. traumatic events always lead to emotional problems
b. the id and superego battle with each other
c. the unconscious mind influences behavior
d. defense mechanisms protect the ego
Answer: A
185. The case of Dave Pelzer illustrates that despite a disturbing childhood, one can become a
successful and competent adult. His case illustrates the concept of:
a. resiliency

b. androgyny
c. aggression
d. conservation
Answer: A
186. Children who have received social support are more likely to experience:
a. vulnerability
b. resiliency
c. androgyny
d. bidirectionality
Answer: B
187. Three-year-old Jenny knows she’s a girl. Jenny’s subjective feeling and labeling herself
as a female exemplifies:
a. gender roles
b. sex typing
c. gender identity
d. gender orientation
Answer: C
188. The combination of attitudes and behaviors considered appropriate and expected for a
particular sex in a given culture is known as:
a. gender roles
b. sex typing
c. gender identity
d. gender orientation
Answer: A
189. Denise instructs her six-year-old daughter to act like a young lady and to cross her legs
when she sits on a chair. This expectation of behavior is an example of:
a. androgynous beliefs
b. dispositional traits
c. gender roles
d. gender stereotypes
Answer: C

190. Martha tries to join the high school wrestling team. Her behavior is contrary to the
typical female:
a. cross-gender identity
b. sexual identity
c. gender role
d. character role
Answer: C
191. According to Gary, being a man means playing football, going camping, and studying to
become an engineer. Gary has developed a traditional:
a. gender role
b. gender trait
c. dispositional trait
d. androgynous trait
Answer: A
192. By what age do children develop a clear idea of which occupations are stereotypically
for men and for women?
a. 3 years
b. between ages 4 and 5 years
c. 6 years
d. between ages 7 and 8 years
Answer: B
193. When Amanda’s parents had a party, Amanda imitated her mother’s hostess behavior by
carrying around a tray of cheese and crackers. The guests commented on what a good girl she
was and that she was just like her mother. The idea that Amanda learns her gender through
modeling and reinforcement is central to ____ theory.
a. Freudian
b. vicarious learning
c. parent modeling
d. social role
Answer: D
194. Social and cognitive influences on how we interpret, organize, and use information
characterizes ____.
a. Freudian theory

b. social role theory
c. parent modeling model
d. affective-primary theory
Answer: B
195. “Boys will be boys and girls will be girls. Parents reward their children whenever they
behave like they’re supposed to.” This statement reflects which theory of gender roles?
a. Freudian theory
b. social role theory
c. parent modeling model
d. affective-primary theory
Answer: B
196. Social role theory argues that gender roles are due to:
a. the way mothers and fathers respond differently to girls and boys
b. gender schemas
c. unconscious predispositions
d. biological and hormonal differences between girls and boys
Answer: A
197. Under what conditions is the mother most likely to enforce rules?
a. when the father is absent or unresponsive to the infraction
b. there is no difference between daughter and son
c. when the daughter engages in dangerous behavior
d. when the son engages in dangerous behavior
Answer: C
198. You are reading an article in a popular magazine. The article is on gender roles. As you
read, you notice a statement that doesn’t seem to be correct. Which is the incorrect statement?
a. Gender roles are learned according to the social learning theory.
b. There are rules and knowledge about what are inappropriate gender behaviors.
c. Parents seldom reward children for their behaviors when they match traditional gender
roles.
d. The cognitive development theory argues that children play an active role in their own
gender role development.
Answer: C

199. Through observation and practice, Brent has developed an image of what a boy should
be like. He then acts according to that image. This kind of analysis of gender-role acquisition
is put forward by ____ theory.
a. cognitive developmental
b. Freudian
c. biological-physiological
d. nature-nurture
Answer: A
200. The idea of gender schema is important for the ____ theory.
a. cognitive developmental
b. Freudian
c. biological-physiological
d. nature-nurture
Answer: A
201. Social role theory stresses learning gender roles because of ____, while cognitive
developmental theory emphasizes ____.
a. child-parent conflict; outside pressure
b. cognitive rules; social variables
c. outside pressure; cognitive rules
d. biological influences; cognitive rules
Answer: C
202. Which of the following has been found to be a reliable sex difference?
a. Boys tend to show more aggressive behaviors.
b. Boys tend to perform better on tests of verbal skills.
c. Girls tend to perform better on tests of spatial skills.
d. Girls tend to perform better on tasks involving math.
Answer: A
203. An example of a psychosocial/environmental factor that contributes to boys being more
aggressive than girls is:
a. that boys are more likely to be insecurely attached
b. society rewards boys for being aggressive and settling conflicts with aggression
c. boys are more likely to have a difficult temperament

d. the amygdala found in the brains of boys is larger than in girls
Answer: B
204. Recent research on gender differences has indicated that:
a. women process language in both sides of their brains
b. women process language only on the left side of their brains
c. women process language only on the right side of their brains
d. men process language in both sides of their brains
Answer: A
205. According to the module, the brain of a woman is wired more effectively for:
a. motor skills
b. problem solving
c. emotional experiences
d. mathematical operations
Answer: C
206. According to research examining differences in gender roles around the world:
a. young children show much similarity in gender roles
b. young children show many differences in gender roles
c. western cultures show more similarity in gender roles than eastern cultures
d. cultures that emphasize strong family ties tend to show similarities in gender roles
Answer: A
207. Gender differences are based upon traditional divisions of labor according to the:
a. cognitive developmental theory
b. psychosexual theory
c. evolutionary theory
d. social role theory
Answer: D
208. Gender differences are based upon adaptation and survival according to the:
a. cognitive developmental theory
b. psychosexual theory
c. evolutionary theory

d. social role theory
Answer: C
209. The most common type of child abuse is:
a. neglect
b. physical
c. sexual
d. emotional
Answer: A
210. You are reading a news article that describes a child who was abused. If this case is
typical, what was the type of abuse suffered by the child?
a. sexual
b. physical
c. neglect
d. emotional
Answer: C
211. International studies indicate that ____ of women have been sexually abused:
a. 5%
b. 7-36%
c. 41-45%
d. 63-72%
Answer: B
212. Which set of traits best characterizes parents who abuse their children?
a. confident, arrogant, moody
b. demanding, difficult
c. shy, introverted, unsure, permissive
d. in distress, impulsive, unhappy
Answer: D
213. Researchers suggest that child abuse may be a result of:
a. the principle of bidirectionality
b. psychosexual needs
c. gender schemas

d. the proximodistal principle
Answer: A
214. As one possible explanation for child abuse, the principle of bidirectionality states that:
a. children’s emotions swing rather rapidly between extremes
b. mothers interact with their children in both play and caretaking
c. children’s behaviors influence adults’ behaviors and vice versa
d. the same caretaker treatment can produce entirely different behavior in different infants
Answer: C
215. Wendy has always been a healthy child. In contrast, Tricia battled with some serious
infections and allergies in her first year of life. All other things being equal, Wendy is:
a. more at risk for child abuse
b. less at risk for child abuse
c. more likely to be left on her own early
d. less likely to be left on her own early
Answer: B
216. Recent research has shown that child abuse can affect brain development. What is one
finding?
a. The myelin surrounding neurons starts to deteriorate.
b. The prefrontal cortex’s ability to make rational decisions becomes impaired.
c. The amygdala becomes more active, even in unemotional situations.
d. There is a reduction in brain areas involved in processing emotional cues.
Answer: D
217. What factor seems to help children make the best recovery from sexual abuse?
a. strong siblings who are not sexually abused themselves
b. a significant other like a friend or teacher who provides support and care
c. strong support and care from a caregiver
d. the father or stepfather apologizing for his behavior
Answer: C
218. According to your textbook, one goal of the treatment of parents who abuse their
children is:
a. teaching children how to recognize the signs that predict abuse

b. overcoming the parent’s personal problems
c. increasing self-concept
d. lowering vulnerability
Answer: B
219. Recent research has found that adults who were abused as children are more likely to
have moderate to severe depression if:
a. they did not inherit a gene that regulates stress
b. they have more than three siblings
c. they do not have children themselves
d. they abuse alcohol or drugs
Answer: A
220. Derrick, a father of three children, was abused as a child. But Derrick has not abused his
own children because of the presence of:
a. bidirectionality
b. reciprocal determinism
c. compensatory factors
d. assimilation
Answer: C
221. Research on child abuse indicates that abusive behavior is a function of:
a. the parent’s emotional immaturity
b. the child’s inborn temperament
c. an interaction between the child and the parent
d. media pressure to have the “perfect” family
Answer: C
222. In studying the effects of parents and peers on children’s development, Judith Harris
found:
a. the media has more influence than parents or peers
b. parents and peers have equal influence
c. parents have minimal influence
d. peers have minimal influence
Answer: C

223. According to Judith Harris’ research, the most important environment in shaping a
child’s development is:
a. outside the home environment
b. the home environment
c. the school environment
d. no environment—it is all genetic
Answer: A
224. A four year-old boy wants to be just like his dad. According to Judith Harris, what is the
most likely outcome?
a. he will find peers who reward his imitated behavior, but it won’t affect his popularity
b. the peers will tend to ignore his imitated behavior
c. his popularity will increase among his peers
d. the boy’s peers will consider his imitated behavior odd
Answer: D
TRUE/FALSE
1. Most Romanian children adoptees in the United States have serious developmental
problems.
Answer: True
2. Nature refers to the role of genetic factors in development.
Answer: True
3. The embryonic stage is the second stage of prenatal development.
Answer: True
4. A teratogen causes the disorder called amniocentesis.
Answer: False
5. Only heavy drinking during pregnancy can cause problems.
Answer: False
6. There is no safe level of alcohol use during pregnancy.
Answer: True
7. The effects of FAS tend to continue into adulthood.
Answer: True
8. Newborns have an innate preference for bitter-tasting things.

Answer: False
9. By the time a child is about one year old, their visual abilities equal that of an adult.
Answer: False
10. “Head-down” development is described in the cephalocaudal principle.
Answer: True
11. Secure attachment is associated with trust and dealing better with stress.
Answer: True
12. The cross-sectional method follows the same people over time.
Answer: False
13. In the process of assimilation, the child changes old methods to adjust to a new situation.
Answer: False
14. In formal operations, the person can think and solve abstract problems.
Answer: True
15. Children who show resiliency tend to defy expectations.
Answer: True
16. Unconscious motives play a primary role in social development according to social
cognitive theory.
Answer: False
17. Gender identity refers to the traditional or stereotypical behaviors associated with males
and females.
Answer: False
18. The cognitive developmental theory suggests that gender schemas are used in shaping
gender roles.
Answer: True
19. Division of labor influences gender roles according to the social role theory.
Answer: True
20. The most common kind of abuse is neglect.
Answer: True
21. Most sexually abused children are abused by people who know them.
Answer: True
22. The principle of bidirectionality has been suggested to explain attachment.

Answer: False
23. According to research conducted by Judith Harris, peers have more influence than parents
in shaping a child’s development
Answer: True
24. Peers often compare themselves to each other to determine their strengths and
weaknesses.
Answer: True

Test Bank for Introduction to Psychology
Rod Plotnik, Haig Kouyoumdjian
9781133939535, 9781305008113, 9781285061306

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