Preview Extract
Module 15—Motivation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Erik Welhenmayer’s climb up Mount Everest was unique because he is:
a. blind
b. a paraplegic
c. only eight years old
d. moderately mentally retarded
Answer: A
2. The psychological or physiological factors that cause humans to act in a specific way at a
particular time are called:
a. motivation
b. energy
c. instinct
d. drive
Answer: A
3. When we are motivated, we typically show three characteristics. Which of the following is
not one of the three characteristics?
a. energized to do something
b. directed to reach a specific goal
c. different intensities of feelings about reaching a specific goal
d. increased arousal after reaching a specific goal
Answer: D
4. Brian is experiencing an increased level of motivation. According to the textbook, what
must he show to be motivated?
a. Brian’s behavior must be instinctive.
b. He must direct his energies toward a specific goal.
c. As he reaches his goal, his arousal must subside.
d. The goal that Brian is working towards must be general and not specific.
Answer: B
5. “I have lots of motivation to do something. I want to do something with my life, but I’m
not sure what.” This person shows ____ but lacks ____.
a. intensity towards a goal; direction
b. goal-directed behavior; drive reduction
c. energized behavior; direction
d. instinct; incentive
Answer: C
6. Which word best summarizes the study of motivation?
a. when
b. why
c. what
d. where
Answer: B
7. An innate or biological force that determines behavior is the definition of:
a. motivation
b. emotion
c. drive
d. instinct
Answer: D
8. McDougall listed curiosity and self-assertion as examples of:
a. learned goals
b. biological needs
c. human instincts
d. personality traits
Answer: C
9. The notion of instincts received quite a bit of criticism because instincts:
a. are not found in humans
b. require both learning and experience
c. were used to account for general behaviors
d. are not useful in explaining behavior
Answer: D
10. The concept of instinct has been redefined with the idea of:
a. fixed action patterns
b. homeostatic mechanisms
c. extrinsic motives
d. intrinsic motives
Answer: A
11. Animals have been found to have innate biological forces that predispose them to behave
in a fixed way in the presence of specific environmental conditions. These forces are called:
a. fixed action patterns
b. incentive mechanisms
c. extrinsic motivators
d. self-actualization needs
Answer: A
12. The fixed action patterns of animals predispose them to behave in a fixed way:
a. in order to return their body to homeostasis
b. in the presence of a specific environmental condition
c. in order to develop intrinsic motivation
d. in order to develop extrinsic motivation
Answer: B
13. The fact that a bird builds a nest in the spring is an example of a(n):
a. extrinsic behavior
b. self-actualization need
c. fixed action pattern
d. drive-reduction
Answer: C
14. John believes that women make better parents than men because women have an inborn
tendency to “mother” children. John’s statement would reflect which of the following
theories of motivation?
a. instinct
b. incentive
c. cognitive
d. expectation-attribution
Answer: A
15. In studying how animals adapt to their environment, ethologists focus on how animals
use:
a. homeostasis
b. fixed action patterns
c. incentives
d. social roles
Answer: B
16. According to ethologists, imprinting in birds illustrates:
a. homeostasis
b. an instinct
c. a fixed action pattern
d. a social need
Answer: C
17. You eat because you like to. This best illustrates the idea that motivation is due to:
a. unconscious desires to reduce anxiety
b. instinct
c. the reward/pleasure centers in the brain
d. a drive
Answer: C
18. In what brain areas have researchers found pleasure centers?
a. thalamus and amygdala
b. nucleus accumbens and ventral tegmental area
c. hypothalamus and cerebral cortex
d. thalamus and corpus callosum
Answer: B
19. ____ theory states that we are motivated to seek out activities that provide us with the
optimal level of stimulation that will keep us engaged and active.
a. Arousal
b. Self-determination
c. Locus
d. Instinct
Answer: A
20. According to the _____ law, we should be only slightly aroused when conducting a
difficult task, and we should be highly aroused when conducting an easy task.
a. James-Lange
b. Yerkes-Dodson
c. Lazarus-Plutchik
d. Darwin-Izzard
Answer: B
21. Which of the following is probably the best explanation for why people choose to engage
in “bungee jumping”?
a. the fear of failure
b. the overjustification effect
c. sensation seeking
d. the self-handicapping strategy
Answer: C
22. According to the _____ theory, we try to fulfill several different basic psychological
needs in order to experience either autonomous or controlled motivation.
a. sensation-seeking
b. psychobiological
c. self-determination
d. motivational schema
Answer: C
23. External stimuli or rewards that we desire and can motivate behavior are called:
a. needs
b. drives
c. incentives
d. peripheral cues
Answer: C
24. A race car driver wants to win the prize money and feels as if the money is pulling him to
win. Which of the following would explain this behavior?
a. pleasure-center theory
b. fixed action patterns
c. incentive theory
d. instinct theory
Answer: C
25. “I want to get good grades so I can get a good job and make lots of money.” This
individual best illustrates:
a. the instinct theory
b. the incentive theory
c. intrinsic motivation
d. self-actualization needs
Answer: B
26. Which of the following behaviors could be explained by incentive theory and not by
pleasure/reward center theory?
a. drinking when thirsty
b. studying hard for a subject you dislike
c. buying clothes for work in a cold environment
d. eating when full
Answer: B
27. Which of the following words best explains the incentive theory of motivation?
a. pulling us
b. pushing us
c. helping us
d. hurting us
Answer: A
28. Beliefs, expectations, and goals are important concepts in which of the following theories
of motivation?
a. instinct theory
b. drive-reduction theory
c. self-actualization
d. cognitive theory
Answer: D
29. Intrinsic motivation influences us to engage in behaviors that:
a. obtain rewards or incentives important for survival
b. are personally rewarding
c. satisfy biological needs
d. are instinctual fixed action patterns
Answer: B
30. Intrinsic is to ____ as extrinsic is to ____.
a. biological; psychological
b. instinct; social
c. biological; internal
d. internal; external
Answer: D
31. Carl works hard to get As on his report card because his mother pays him 25 dollars.
Carl’s behavior is being influenced by:
a. fixed action patterns
b. a hierarchy of needs
c. extrinsic motivation
d. drive-reduction theory
Answer: C
32. Carla works hard to get As on her report card because it is personally rewarding. Her
behavior is being influenced by:
a. fixed action patterns
b. intrinsic motivation
c. extrinsic motivation
d. drive-reduction theory
Answer: B
33. Of the following summary statements of the theories of motivation presented in the
textbook, which one is incorrect?
a. Instinct theory explains the behavior of humans
b. Pleasure can motivate us
c. We can use the incentive theory to explain behavior done to obtain some external reward
d. Self-determination theory says that we can experience either autonomous or controlled
motivation
Answer: A
34. According to Maslow, we satisfy our needs:
a. in a somewhat random order
b. with the overall goal of increasing our self-esteem
c. in a certain order based on a set hierarchy
d. only when we feel competent in doing so
Answer: C
35. Understanding how people decide which needs to satisfy first is the goal of:
a. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
b. peripheral cues
c. drive-reduction theory
d. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
Answer: A
36. Food, sleep, and sex are examples of:
a. social needs
b. safety needs
c. biological needs
d. self-actualization needs
Answer: C
37. Variables that motivate you because of their importance to our survival and physical wellbeing are called:
a. social needs
b. safety needs
c. biological needs
d. self-actualization needs
Answer: C
38. What is the disorder that affects the hypothalamus, which results in abnormal eating
behavior?
a. Epstein-Barr syndrome
b. Prader-Willi syndrome
c. Turner syndrome
d. Klinefelter syndrome
Answer: B
39. Social needs are acquired through:
a. heredity
b. homeostatic mechanisms
c. peripheral cues
d. learning and experience
Answer: D
40. Becky and Jeff recently got married. One reason they got married was to form a longlasting relationship with each other. Therefore, marriage for them satisfied their:
a. need for affiliation
b. self-actualization
c. need for autonomy
d. need for order
Answer: A
41. Which of the following social needs has been found to be important in determining
physical health and psychological well-being?
a. avoidance of pain
b. need for food
c. need for affiliation
d. need for shelter
Answer: C
42. The need for affiliation is satisfied by:
a. forming lasting and positive interpersonal attachments
b. getting good grades in college
c. keeping one’s life orderly and predictable
d. receiving recognition for hard work
Answer: A
43. Arrange Maslow’s needs in the correct ascending order.
a. physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization
b. self-actualization, physiological, esteem, belongingness, safety
c. safety, esteem, physiological, self-actualization, belongingness
d. belongingness, self-actualization, physiological, safety, esteem
Answer: A
44. Maslow defined self-actualization as:
a. affiliation with others
b. achievement, competency, gaining approval, and recognition
c. fulfillment of one’s unique potential
d. the perception of one’s own body
Answer: C
45. Ruben has reached his fullest potential as a human being. According to Maslow, Ruben
has achieved:
a. physiological fullness
b. self-esteem
c. incentiveness
d. self-actualization
Answer: D
46. Which of the following book titles would best illustrate the topic of self-actualization?
a. “Meeting Your Goals”
b. “Satisfying Your Body”
c. “Following Your Instincts”
d. “Be All That You Can Be”
Answer: D
47. Steven is satisfying self-actualization needs, but his basic needs are not satisfied. Steven
will most likely:
a. continue to advance up the hierarchy
b. remain at the self-actualized level
c. try and satisfy his esteem needs
d. return to a lower level
Answer: D
48. To be achieving, competent, and to gain approval and recognition from others is to reach
the ____ level of Maslow’s hierarchy.
a. incentive
b. esteem
c. self-actualization
d. intrinsic
Answer: B
49. Carlo lives in a high-crime neighborhood. Of all of Maslow’s needs, he is most concerned
about:
a. safety needs
b. esteem needs
c. belongingness needs
d. extrinsic needs
Answer: A
50. “I am a member of the college’s chess club and we often get together and talk about life
and chess. My best friends are also members.” This best illustrates what Maslow called:
a. safety needs
b. esteem needs
c. belongingness needs
d. self-actualization
Answer: C
51. One advantage of Maslow’s hierarchy is that it:
a. has a strong empirical database to support it
b. establishes a priority for taking care of various needs
c. explains differences among people
d. is universally accepted
Answer: B
52. Researchers have criticized Maslow’s hierarchy of needs because:
a. it integrates biological and social needs
b. it is difficult to assess some of his proposed needs
c. people satisfy social needs before physiological needs
d. it ignores the notion of basic needs
Answer: B
53. According to the textbook, the one level of Maslow’s hierarchy that is particularly
difficult to assess accomplishment of is:
a. physiological needs
b. safety needs
c. self-actualization needs
d. incentive needs
Answer: C
54. When the organism has reached a perfect balance between the amount of food consumed
and amount of energy needed, the organism is said to have:
a. self-actualization
b. optimum or ideal weight
c. desired weight
d. caloric-energy balance
Answer: B
55. What term is used to describe how much energy food contains?
a. calorie
b. homeostasis
c. fuel quantity
d. glucose potential
Answer: A
56. The two primary reasons for being overweight are:
a. eating more food than needed and social support for being overweight
b. eating more food than needed and genetic predisposition
c. eating more food than needed and lack of exercise
d. eating foods with high fat content and genetic predisposition
Answer: C
57. A researcher wishes to investigate the eating patterns of people who would be defined
medically as obese. If he uses the definition of obesity provided in the text, his subjects will:
a. be males having a waist size over 46 and females over 38
b. have a fat cell to muscle tissue ratio that is greater than 2 to 1
c. be in the top 20 percent for weight in their age, sex, and height category
d. have a body mass index (BMI) of 30 or higher
Answer: D
58. In 2012, if you randomly selected 100 adults, how many would be obese?
a. 10
b. 36
c. 54
d. 72
Answer: B
59. The yearly medical costs associated with obesity is _____.
a. $53.2 million
b. $523.9 million
c. $14 billion
d. $147 billion
Answer: D
60. The “when,” “where,” and “how much” we eat are influenced by three factors. Which of
the following is not among the three factors cited in your textbook?
a. biological hunger factors
b. psychosocial hunger factors
c. genetic hunger factors
d. cognitive hunger factors
Answer: D
61. If human hunger was entirely regulated by biological factors, what would happen to your
weight?
a. Your weight would remain at the optimum weight.
b. Your weight would randomly fluctuate.
c. Your weight would stay about the same.
d. Your weight would probably increase.
Answer: A
62. With regard to hunger, blood chemistry is to watching TV as ____ is to ____
a. PYY; CKK
b. CCK; set point
c. biological; psychosocial
d. genetic; environmental
Answer: C
63. You are doing a Google search for information related to biological hunger factors. Which
set of search words would you use?
a. genetics, heredity, set point
b. depression, body image
c. sociocultural, personality
d. blood chemistry, digestion, peripheral cues, CCK
Answer: D
64. Peripheral cues for hunger come from ____, whereas central cues come from ____.
a. learning; experience
b. body image; actual weight
c. digestive organs; the brain
d. the hypothalamus; hormones
Answer: C
65. After a large lunch, Karlie sits in her early afternoon class. Her stomach signals the ____
about its fullness.
a. liver
b. bile duct
c. digestive organs
d. hypothalamus
Answer: D
66. Which option lists parts of the body that provide peripheral cues?
a. stomach, liver, intestines, and fat cells
b. galanin, intestines, liver, and lateral hypothalamus
c. hypothalamus, fat cells, liver, and stomach
d. hypothalamus, lateral hypothalamus, ventromedial hypothalamus, and fat cells
Answer: A
67. If you could shrink yourself and enter someone’s liver, what would you see the liver do
when it detects rising glucose levels?
a. produce norepinephrine
b. stimulate the stomach to produce galanin
c. signal fullness
d. signal hunger
Answer: C
68. The intestines secrete hormones called:
a. norepinephrine and leptin
b. ghrelin, PYY, and CCK
c. dopamine and estrogen
d. androgens
Answer: B
69. You are watching an infomercial on TV that describes an “amazing weight loss” drug.
You know that the product is a sham because the first thing the spokesperson says is wrong.
What did she say?
a. “Leptin maintains a constant level of body fat.”
b. “Through a hormone, the intestines signal the hypothalamus to stop eating.”
c. “There are peripheral cues and central cues for hunger.”
d. “Signals for hunger just come from the stomach.”
Answer: D
70. What effect do falling levels of leptin have on hunger?
a. appetite for fats increase
b. appetite for sweets increase
c. appetite is decreased
d. appetite is increased
Answer: D
71. A part of the brain that seems to be directly involved with hunger and eating is the:
a. cerebellum
b. hypothalamus
c. thalamus
d. occipital lobe
Answer: B
72. If we were to destroy the ventromedial hypothalamus in a group of rats, what would we
expect to find when these rats were compared to a group of control rats?
a. The experimental rats would die of starvation.
b. The experimental rats would be much larger than the control rats.
c. The experimental rats would be dehydrated.
d. The experimental rats would sleep much less than the control rats.
Answer: B
73. A person begins to suffer weight loss for no apparent reason. All organs are intact. Also,
the person does not want to lose weight. However, he claims that he is rarely hungry. Which
diagnosis would be most likely in this case?
a. damage to the lateral hypothalamus
b. hyperphagia
c. anorexia nervosa
d. bulimia
Answer: A
74. The ‘start eating’ center in the hypothalamus is the ____. The ‘stop eating’ center is the
____.
a. hyperphagia; hypophagia
b. lateral hypothalamus; ventromedial hypothalamus
c. CCK, stomach
d. lateral hypothalamus; anterior hyperphagia
Answer: B
75. Research with obese-prone rats shows cells in the _____ don’t grow much and are less
sensitive to _____.
a. thalamus; CCK
b. ventromedial hypothalamus; leptin
c. lateral hypothalamus; PYY
d. medulla; PYY
Answer: B
76. The ventromedial hypothalamus interprets the hormones PPY and CCK as:
a. dehydration signals
b. signals to eat more carbohydrates
c. hunger signals
d. full signals
Answer: D
77. If an adopted adult’s weight is more strongly correlated with the weight of their biological
parents rather than their adopted parents, then this provides evidence for:
a. environmental factors
b. psychosocial hunger factors
c. peripheral cues
d. genetic hunger factors
Answer: D
78. What describes the role of genes in increased risk for obesity?
a. there are as many as 100 fat genes
b. there are as many as 3 fat genes
c. there are as many as 500 fat genes
d. there is no evidence that there are obesity genes
Answer: A
79. Researchers estimate that in maintaining a particular body size and weight, inherited
factors contribute about ____ while environmental factors contribute about ____.
a. 40%; 60%
b. 50%; 50%
c. 70%; 30%
d. 30%; 70%
Answer: C
80. Which of the following is a genetic hunger factor that regulates body weight?
a. peripheral cues
b. fixed action patterns
c. number of fat cells
d. pheromones
Answer: C
81. When do fat cells multiply?
a. when the individual is obese
b. hours after an individual eats large quantities of food
c. when the set point decreases
d. when the fat gene produces hyperphagia
Answer: A
82. A person’s metabolic rate refers to the:
a. amount of oxygen taken in with one deep breath
b. rate at which food is broken down into energy and how fast the energy is used
c. rate at which glucose is stored
d. rate at which fat stores are burned off
Answer: B
83. If a person has a low metabolic rate, they will:
a. burn more energy
b. store excess energy as fat
c. store less fat
d. have few fat cells
Answer: B
84. Why do smokers gain weight when they quit smoking?
a. nicotine raises metabolic rate
b. CCK is released during smoking
c. nicotine increases the number of fat cells
d. nicotine increases the set point
Answer: A
85. The only known ways to raise metabolic rates are:
a. exercise and consuming sugar
b. exercise and dieting
c. exercise and smoking cigarettes
d. exercise and reducing fat intake
Answer: C
86. The higher one’s metabolic rate, the:
a. less fuel burned and more likely that excess fuel is stored as fat
b. more fuel burned and more likely that excess fuel is stored as fat
c. more fuel burned and less likely that excess fuel is stored as fat
d. less fuel burned and less likely that excess fuel is stored as fat
Answer: C
87. ____ refers to a certain level of body fat that the body strives to maintain constant
throughout our lives.
a. Homeostasis
b. Set point
c. Metabolic rate
d. Weight point
Answer: B
88. It is believed that Troy has a high set point. Dieting will be difficult for him because:
a. hypothalamus dysfunction prevents Troy from feeling full
b. when Troy diets, his metabolic rate may slow down
c. Troy is particularly susceptible to learned cues to eating
d. Troy will experience hunger more often than someone with a low set point
Answer: B
89. Why will an overweight person be unsuccessful with long-term dieting without exercise?
a. Most people stop dieting after one month of weight loss.
b. The metabolic rate increases after one month of weight loss.
c. The body loses its ability to make CCK.
d. The body’s set point is rigorously maintained.
Answer: D
90. Lara is so thin, yet she eats high-calorie foods and fatty foods. Based on information
presented in the textbook, why can Lara stay so thin?
a. Lara has a gene that increases metabolism.
b. Lara has a gene that decreases metabolism.
c. Lara’s set point is very high.
d. Lara has a gene that causes an overproduction of neuropeptide Y.
Answer: A
91. Wayne eats a seven-course dinner and claims he cannot eat another bite of food. Then the
waiter brings the dessert tray to the table, and Wayne finds that he’s hungry for the pecan pie
with whipped cream. His hunger is most likely due to:
a. a drop in blood sugar
b. a surge in blood sugar
c. the production of galanin
d. psychosocial hunger factors
Answer: D
92. “I really should not go to that all-you-can eat buffet. If I see food, I’ll eat it.” What
psychosocial hunger factor does this self-awareness best represent?
a. mood factor
b. personality traits
c. learned associations
d. modesty
Answer: C
93. “It’s noon, so it’s time to eat.” This person illustrates the role of ____ in hunger.
a. PYY
b. genetic factors
c. learned associations
d. leptin
Answer: C
94. What effect have cultural pressures regarding hunger had on women in China?
a. women are less likely to overestimate their weight
b. women are more likely to eat high-calorie foods
c. women are more likely to be concerned with their weight
d. women are less likely to be concerned with their weight
Answer: C
95. Barbara wants to lose weight because when she looks at fashion magazines, she sees that
all the attractive models are very thin. Which of the following factors is motivating Barbara
to diet?
a. social-cultural factors
b. under-responsiveness to food
c. calories and metabolism
d. set point
Answer: A
96. The Czech Republic has the highest death rate from heart disease. Module 15 argues that
this is due to:
a. social-cultural factors
b. under-responsiveness to food
c. calories and metabolism
d. genetics
Answer: A
97. Given the pressures in the United States, which person is most likely to be dissatisfied
with their weight?
a. a person who works in the fast food industry
b. a teenager who participates in sports
c. an individual who has a boring job
d. a female college student
Answer: D
98. Regarding social-cultural factors involved in body weight, which of the following is true?
a. Being 20% over the recommended range of weights is considered normal in the United
States.
b. Social-cultural standards have little influence on perceptions of weight.
c. Because of government subsidies of fatty sausage and dairy products, slightly less than half
of all adult Czechs are obese.
d. Personality does not influence overeating.
Answer: C
99. “Whenever I am depressed or bored, I tend to eat even when I’m not hungry.” This
statement best illustrates the role of ____ in hunger.
a. CCK
b. genetic factors
c. personality and mood factors
d. self-handicapping
Answer: C
100. Which emotion is most often related to overeating in otherwise healthy people?
a. joy
b. anxiety
c. happiness
d. disgust
Answer: B
101. “Whenever I have a bad day at work, I come home and I just want to pig out!” Why?
a. it is called emotional eating
b. it is a common cultural norm
c. the availability of high-fat foods at home versus work
d. people want to celebrate with food
Answer: A
102. The sexual motivation of animals is regulated chiefly by:
a. social-cultural factors
b. genetic and biological factors
c. the four stages of sexual response
d. the hypothalamus
Answer: B
103. Inherited instructions for the development of sexual organs, the secretion of sex
hormones, and the wiring of the neural circuits that control sexual reflexes are examples of:
a. biological sex factors
b. genetic sex factors
c. social-cultural factors
d. learned associations
Answer: B
104. If you look in the table of contents of John’s paper, you will see topics such as secondary
sexual characteristics, sexual motivation, and development of ova and sperm. This paper is
most likely on:
a. biological sex factors
b. genetic sex factors
c. social cultural factors
d. learned associations
Answer: A
105. Dr. Gonzales is studying gender identity and sexual orientation. Based on her areas of
study, where is Dr. Gonzales most likely to work?
a. The Center for Genetic Influences on Sex
b. The National Institute for Biological Sex Factors
c. The Institute for the Study of Psychological Sex Factors
d. The Center for the Study of Neuropeptide Y
Answer: C
106. Sperm and egg cells each contain ____ chromosomes.
a. 23
b. 46
c. 48
d. 64
Answer: A
107. What determines the sex of an individual?
a. the egg
b. the number of zygotes
c. the interaction between the sex chromosome and the prenatal environment
d. the sex chromosomes
Answer: D
108. An individual with XX sex chromosomes is:
a. a male
b. a female
c. red-green colorblind
d. likely to be born intersexed
Answer: B
109. The result of a sperm fertilizing an egg is called a ____.
a. chromosome
b. fetus
c. zygote
d. DNA
Answer: C
110. Greg has five young daughters. One time when he went shopping with his five girls, a
stranger came up to Greg and said, “Wow, five girls! What’s the matter? Didn’t your wife
want sons?” In regard to the determination of sex, what was incorrect with the assumption of
the stranger’s question?
a. It assumes that the Y chromosome is the sex chromosome for a male.
b. The question assumes that the Y chromosome is a dominant allele.
c. It assumes that the female determines the sex of the child, when, in fact, it’s the male.
d. It assumes that the Y chromosome is the sex chromosome for a female.
Answer: C
111. The presence of testosterone triggers the development of ____; the absence of
testosterone triggers the automatic development of ____.
a. the female sex organ; the male sex organ
b. the female hypothalamus; the male hypothalamus
c. the male sex organ; the female sex organ
d. homosexuality; heterosexuality
Answer: C
112. During the fifth week of prenatal development, if there is testosterone, the developing
child will be ____, but if there is a lack of it the child will be ____.
a. male; female
b. female; male
c. red-green colorblind; blue-green colorblind
d. heterosexual; homosexual
Answer: A
113. Estrogens are secreted by the ____, whereas androgens are secreted by the ____.
a. ovaries; testes
b. brain; body organs
c. lateral hypothalamus; ventromedial hypothalamus
d. male; female
Answer: A
114. The male sex hormones are called ____. The female sex hormones are called ____.
a. ovaries; testes
b. estrogens; androgens
c. androgens; estrogens
d. testosterone; androgens
Answer: C
115. Bethany is nearing puberty. What role will the hormone kisspeptin play in her life?
a. It is preparing the body for reproduction.
b. It will stimulate the release of PYY.
c. It is preparing the body for the production of leptin.
d. It will stimulate the release of dopamine.
Answer: A
116. Puberty is marked by the release of the hormone:
a. dopamine
b. PYY
c. leptin
d. kisspeptin
Answer: D
117. Klinefelter’s syndrome can be effectively treated with:
a. testosterone given at birth
b. testosterone given at puberty
c. estrogen given at puberty
d. estrogen given at birth
Answer: B
118. The fact that Klinefelter’s syndrome can be treated suggests that sexual motivation can
be influenced by:
a. changes in testosterone
b. psychological factors
c. availability of partners
d. changes in estrogens
Answer: A
119. Your subjective experience and feelings of being either a male or a female is called:
a. sexual acceptance schema
b. gender identity
c. gender role
d. sex roles
Answer: B
120. Nathan, a four-year-old boy, exclaims, “I’m a boy!” Nathan has achieved:
a. gender expectations
b. a sex role
c. gender identity
d. a gender role
Answer: C
121. If an individual’s gender identity does not match his or her external sex organs, the
individual might have:
a. gender identity disorder
b. transvestism
c. negative symptoms of gender identity
d. asexualism
Answer: A
122. Mitch insists that he feels trapped in a female’s body and wants to be a complete man.
Mitch could be considered exhibiting:
a. insufficient testosterone syndrome
b. body dysphoric disorder
c. homosexuality
d. transsexualism
Answer: D
123. The research on gender identity disorder indicates that:
a. transsexual individuals have a normal genetic makeup and hormonal function
b. abnormal levels of estrogen
c. defects in the sex chromosome
d. abnormal levels of testosterone and defects in the sex chromosome
Answer: A
124. When we learn traditional behaviors, attitudes, and personality traits that our society
regards as masculine or feminine, we have acquired:
a. gender identities
b. gender roles
c. gender labels
d. gender markers
Answer: B
125. When Alyssa was five, she enjoyed playing house, taking care of her dolls, and cooking
food. Alyssa’s ____ was that of a stereotypic female.
a. gender orientation
b. gender marker
c. gender label
d. gender role
Answer: D
126. Andy, a five-year-old boy, gets a doll from his grandmother for his birthday. He yells, “A
doll? Dolls are for girls. I want a baseball!” Andy is exhibiting:
a. gender identities
b. gender roles
c. gender labels
d. gender markers
Answer: B
127. During a visit to a kindergarten, you ask the children about being boys and girls. One of
the students says, “Boys and dads are noisy, like to play football, and can do what they want.”
This student has learned about:
a. gender roles
b. gender labels
c. gender identities
d. gender markers
Answer: A
128. Two-year-old Jennifer has not yet shown stereotypically feminine behavior. Should her
parents be concerned?
a. Yes—gender roles emerge around six months of age.
b. Yes—gender roles emerge around 2 years of age.
c. No—gender roles emerge around 3 or 4 years of age.
d. No—gender roles emerge around 5 or 6 years of age.
Answer: C
129. A major function of gender roles is that they:
a. influence how hormones interact with body tissue
b. cause sexual dysfunction
c. influence how we think and behave
d. determine sexual orientation
Answer: C
130. Your ____ refers to which sex of others for whom you experience sexual interest and
arousal.
a. sexual orientation
b. gender identity
c. sex role
d. gender role
Answer: A
131. Though Susan and Larry regularly have sex, Larry is also involved sexually with another
man. Larry’s sexual orientation is best characterized as:
a. homosexual
b. bisexual
c. heterosexual
d. polysexual
Answer: B
132. If you ask 100 randomly selected people about their sexual orientation, about ____ will
have a homosexual orientation.
a. 1.7%
b. 2.9%
c. 5.3%
d. 8.1%
Answer: A
133. If you ask 100 randomly selected people about their sexual orientation, about ____ will
have a bisexual orientation.
a. 1.8%
b. 2.9%
c. 5.3%
d. 11.1%
Answer: A
134. If you argue that genetic/biological factors and psychological factors influence the
development of sexual orientation, you adhere to the:
a. Home-hetero likelihood model
b. Kinsey theory of sexual arousal
c. interactive model of sexual orientation
d. Masters and Johnson model of sexual response
Answer: C
135. Why is the term sexual preference preferred over sexual orientation by some
researchers?
a. There is strong evidence that sexual orientation is influenced by genetic factors.
b. They think that sexual orientation is within a person’s choice and not due to genetic or
biological factors.
c. Sexual orientation does not reflect the vast diversity of sexual behavior in humans.
d. Political correctness evident in our society.
Answer: B
136. The term “sexual preference” suggests:
a. freedom in choosing a particular sexual orientation
b. genetic and biological factors play the major role in sexual orientation
c. an interaction among biological and psychological factors in determining sexual orientation
d. freedom in changing biology and genetic factors
Answer: A
137. More young men than young women report thinking about sex daily. This may be
related to:
a. different levels of sex hormones
b. the double standard for sexual behavior
c. physiological responsiveness
d. levels of kisspeptin in the blood
Answer: B
138. Which theory focuses on social and cultural forces that create sexual differences by
different divisions of labor?
a. evolutionary theory
b. sociobiology theory
c. biosocial theory
d. double standard for sexual behavior
Answer: C
139. According to the biosocial theory, males and females have different roles because:
a. of genetic differences
b. social and cultural forces dictate these differences
c. evolutionary pressures
d. these roles helped the species survive
Answer: B
140. In selecting a mate, males’ top preference was for a mate ____, while for females, a mate
____ is preferred.
a. who is physically attractive; who could protect and provide
b. with good earning potential; broad shoulders
c. who is honest; who is sensitive and compassionate
d. who is physically attractive; who is honest
Answer: A
141. The genetic influence on sexual orientation has been supported in research suggesting
that:
a. parents cause their children to be either heterosexual or homosexual
b. homosexual men have larger areas in their hypothalamus than do heterosexual men
c. homosexual men have fewer chromosomes and genes than do heterosexual men
d. among identical twins, if one sibling is homosexual, the other has between a 31 and 65
percent chance of being homosexual
Answer: D
142. In a study examining over 900 men and sexual orientation discussed in Module 15, the
only factor related to having a homosexual orientation was:
a. the presence of a hormone among homosexual men that is not generally found in straight
men
b. different EEG readings for the majority of homosexual males
c. having several older biological brothers
d. differences in MRI scans in the hippocampus among homosexual males
Answer: C
143. A recent study found that the brain area known as the ____ becomes activated when
homosexual men smelled ____ odor.
a. cerebellum; male
b. nucleus accumbens; female
c. hypothalamus; female
d. hypothalamus; male
Answer: D
144. One of the problems in interpreting research that finds different brain areas activated
among homosexual males compared to heterosexual males is that:
a. it is not known whether these differences are the cause or result of homosexuality
b. a small number of subjects are used in the research
c. classifying people as homosexual or heterosexual depends on different definitions
d. the truthfulness of subjects’ reports of their sexual orientation
Answer: A
145. In studying the brains of both men and women who are attracted to women, research has
found:
a. the left hemisphere to be slightly larger than the right hemisphere
b. the right hemisphere to be slightly larger than the left hemisphere
c. the right and left hemisphere to be symmetrical in size
d. the right and left occipital lobe to be symmetrical in size
Answer: B
146. Studies on the childhoods of male homosexuals have shown that they:
a. were no different from heterosexuals
b. were more likely to have engaged in opposite sex behaviors and activities than
heterosexuals
c. were often abused
d. come more often from single-parent families than heterosexuals do
Answer: B
147. With regard to homosexuality, most professional health organizations consider:
a. homosexuals to experience higher rates of depression
b. homosexuality to be outside the range of normal sexual behavior
c. homosexuality to be within the range of normal sexual behavior
d. homosexuality to be superior to the heterosexual lifestyle
Answer: C
148. Which of the following behaviors in a boy’s childhood is associated with developing a
homosexual orientation?
a. acting overly “masculine”
b. preferring same-sex playmates
c. wearing girls’ clothing
d. wanting to rough-and-tumble play with other boys
Answer: C
149. ____ are characterized by repetitive or preferred sexual fantasies involving nonhuman
objects.
a. Fetishes
b. Sexual dysfunctions
c. Sexual disorders
d. Paraphilias
Answer: D
150. ____ refers to problems of sexual arousal or orgasm that interfere with adequate
functioning during sexual behavior.
a. Psychosomatic disorders
b. Sexual dysfunctions
c. Fetishes
d. Paraphilias
Answer: B
151. What are the two main causes of sexual dysfunction?
a. organic and psychological factors
b. conscious and unconscious causes
c. excitement- and resolution-related causes
d. biological and organic causes
Answer: A
152. Kirk is sexually aroused by holding and rubbing women’s shoes. He sometimes
fantasizes about shoes when he masturbates or is engaged in sexual activities with his partner.
Based upon this deviation, Kirk could be diagnosed with a(n):
a. plateau disorder
b. sexual dysfunction
c. paraphilia
d. inhibited sexual disorder
Answer: C
153. Liz and Rich have had sexual relations on a regular basis since they were married.
According to Masters and Johnson, they have likely experienced all of the following stages of
sexual response except:
a. engagement
b. plateau
c. orgasm
d. excitement
Answer: A
154. During a long airplane flight, Jack thinks of his girlfriend Juanita and soon notices that
he has an erection. According to Masters and Johnson, Jack is in which stage of sexual
response?
a. plateau
b. resolution
c. activation
d. excitement
Answer: D
155. In females, an increase in vaginal lubrication is characteristic of which of Masters and
Johnson’s stages of sexual response?
a. excitement
b. plateau
c. resolution
d. orgasm
Answer: A
156. Ejaculation occurs in males during which of Masters and Johnson’s stages of sexual
response?
a. resolution
b. plateau
c. excitement
d. orgasm
Answer: D
157. With regard to Masters and Johnson’s model of sexual response, sexual problems occur
at all but which of the four stages?
a. resolution
b. excitement
c. orgasm
d. plateau
Answer: A
158. The first step in Masters and Johnson’s treatment for sexual problems is:
a. assigning the couple homework involving touching one’s partner
b. giving the couple information about sexual response
c. asking the couple to perform sensate focusing
d. assigning the couple to have a romantic dinner
Answer: B
159. A technique developed by Masters and Johnson that involves nongenital pleasuring is
called:
a. rapid touching
b. paraphilia
c. the “squeeze”
d. sensate focus
Answer: D
160. The most common sexual dysfunction disorder in males is:
a. male orgasmic disorder
b. paraphilia
c. premature or rapid ejaculation
d. inhibited sexual disorder
Answer: C
161. Charles has experienced persistent problems with voluntary control over ejaculation
upon penetration. Charles most likely has:
a. a sexual deviation
b. paraphilia
c. premature or rapid ejaculation
d. inhibited sexual disorder
Answer: C
162. A disorder among women that is characterized by a persistent delay or absence of
experiencing orgasm after arousal is called:
a. plateau disorder
b. sexual deviation disorder
c. paraphilia
d. inhibited female orgasm
Answer: D
163. The new definition of AIDS is:
a. having HIV antibodies and at least two infectious diseases
b. having HIV antibodies and engaging in risky behaviors
c. having HIV antibodies and a level of T-cells below 200
d. having HIV antibodies
Answer: C
164. As of 2008, there were about ____ people infected with HIV in the world.
a. 6 million
b. 22 million
c. 40 million
d. 78 million
Answer: C
165. The riskiest behavior for contracting AIDS in the United States is:
a. male-to-male sexual contact
b. high-risk heterosexual contact
c. intravenous drug use
d. casual contact, such as kissing, with a person infected with HIV
Answer: A
166. As compared to the transmission of AIDS in the United States, transmission in the rest of
the world occurs more often through:
a. heterosexual intercourse
b. homosexual intercourse
c. blood transfusions
d. intravenous drug uses
Answer: A
167. Rich has just been exposed to HIV. According to your textbook, it will not be possible to
confirm whether he has or has not been infected with the virus for at least
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
Answer: B
168. Harold has HIV. If his case is average, it will take about ____ for him to develop AIDS.
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 7 years
d. 9 years
Answer: C
169. How does HIV affect the immune system?
a. it destroys T-cells
b. it causes growth of too many T-cells
c. it inhibits the development of leukocytes
d. it destroys CCK
Answer: A
170. The current approach to treating patients with AIDS is to give them:
a. AZT alone
b. a “cocktail” of drugs
c. radiation therapy
d. antibiotics
Answer: B
171. Why did the number of AIDS-related deaths decrease in the late 1990s?
a. the incidence of homosexuality decreased
b. a change in the definition of AIDS
c. several breakthroughs in drug treatment
d. breakthroughs in discovering a cure
Answer: C
172. Since the early 1990s, the decline in the death rate from AIDS has slowed. Why?
a. drug treatments designed to treat AIDS can cause other fatal diseases
b. a change in the definition of AIDS
c. the incidence of homosexuality has started to increase again
d. HIV has developed resistance to many of the drug treatments
Answer: D
173. The drug cocktail given to AIDS patients is effective in:
a. killing T-cells
b. killing AIDS
c. causing the virus to “hide” in the body
d. killing HIV
Answer: C
174. When a woman’s external genitalia are removed and the remaining edges are sewn
together, she has undergone:
a. a hysterectomy
b. a technique that will heighten her sexual pleasure
c. genital cutting
d. a necessary medical procedure
Answer: C
175. The stated purpose of genital cutting is to make a woman:
a. clean and virginal until marriage
b. marked as ineligible for marriage
c. more likely to bear children
d. more likely to experience sexual pleasure
Answer: A
176. Among women who have had female circumcision, many:
a. stop menstruating
b. have left their communities in shame
c. have reported a reduction in pain during childbirth
d. suffer from anxiety and depression
Answer: D
177. What has been the effect of the United Nation’s endorsement of laws banning the
practice of genital cutting?
a. Many African societies now recognize it as cruel mutilation.
b. Genital cutting is still practiced because of its strong sociocultural tradition.
c. The practice of genital cutting has been greatly reduced.
d. The practice has become even more common in Africa.
Answer: B
178. The motivation to set challenging goals and persist in meeting those goals, despite
obstacles or setbacks is the definition of:
a. the achievement need
b. self-determination
c. attribution
d. self-handicapping
Answer: A
179. Ellen is shown a somewhat ambiguous picture of a person in a lab coat studying what
looks like a medical chart. Ellen is then asked to tell a story about this person. She says that
this person is a new resident in a hospital and is working very long hours, but is happy to
have finally reached his goal of becoming a doctor. In this story, Ellen is exhibiting:
a. a low need for achievement
b. a high need for achievement
c. high fear of failure
d. a self-handicapping strategy
Answer: B
180. The need for achievement differs from the need for sex because achievement
motivation:
a. is a social rather than a biological need
b. is only found among white males
c. ranks low on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
d. cannot be measured
Answer: A
181. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) can be used to measure:
a. sexual motivation
b. hunger and thirst motivation
c. the need for achievement
d. the need for self-actualization
Answer: C
182. The test that involves giving subjects ambiguous pictures to measure achievement need
is called the:
a. MMPI-II
b. Maslow Test of Needs
c. Rorschach Test
d. Thematic Apperception Test
Answer: D
183. Paper-and-pencil tests have replaced the TAT as measures of need for achievement
because:
a. the TAT has limited reliability and validity
b. paper-and-pencil tests can be self-administered
c. need for achievement requires a test of performance
d. paper-and-pencil tests are easier to develop
Answer: A
184. Which of the following is a personality characteristic of a person with a high need for
achievement?
a. verbally aggressive behavior while completing group tasks
b. an inability to see the easy solutions to tasks
c. setting unrealistic goals
d. attraction to careers that require initiative
Answer: D
185. A(n) ____ motivates students to set higher goals and study hard to get good grades. A(n)
____ motivates students to study just enough to avoid failing exams, but not enough to get
good grades.
a. self-handicapping strategy; overjustification effect
b. need for achievement; fear of failure
c. extrinsic motivation; intrinsic motivation
d. peripheral cue; cognitive cue
Answer: B
186. Which of the following is an advantage of using self-handicapping strategies?
a. They keep our positive self-image intact.
b. They help us to take responsibility.
c. They force us to correct a situation.
d. They cause too much pressure to excel.
Answer: A
187. “I don’t put my best effort forward. If I do and fail, I’ll find out that I’m not smart
enough to succeed.” Sounds like this student engages in:
a. image defense
b. overjustification effect
c. attribution bias
d. self-handicapping
Answer: D
188. Making up excuses for failure is referred to as:
a. self-attributing
b. self-handicapping
c. delusional attribution
d. image defense
Answer: B
189. Eric is a smart person and has scored 115 on an IQ test, yet he does poorly in school.
Eric could be:
a. experiencing fear of failure
b. lacking in extrinsic motivation
c. an underachiever
d. a slacker
Answer: C
190. Which statement about underachievers is not consistent with the research?
a. They have low self-esteem.
b. They have the abilities to succeed.
c. Most underachievers are female.
d. About 15% of all students are underachievers.
Answer: C
191. An underachiever is likely to:
a. have a poor self-concept
b. lack the ability to succeed
c. inflate their self-concept
d. be female
Answer: A
192. Chris sings in a volunteer community chorus, because he enjoys the feeling he gets
when he masters a complicated piece of music. His behavior reflects:
a. self-handicapping strategy
b. intrinsic motivation
c. overjustification
d. extrinsic motivation
Answer: B
193. In a piece called “Work and Play,” Mark Twain points out that London cabbies used to
take beautiful care of their carriages and horses without receiving so much as a penny. Then,
when the city started paying these men for their labor, the carriages started to look shoddy
and many of the men quit doing the job. Twain has cited an example of:
a. how expectancy can lead to extrinsic motivation
b. lack of motivation
c. misattribution in achievement
d. how important cognitive factors are in achievement
Answer: D
194. A talented potter, who has always done the work as a hobby, is asked by a local boutique
to produce 10 pieces per month. The potter usually produces about 15 pieces per month.
Now, he perceives much external pressure to be creative. We would predict, based on
research on the cognitive factors in achievement, that:
a. the potter will produce about 25 pieces per month
b. the potter will enjoy the work less
c. the quality of the potter’s work will improve
d. the potter will improve both quantity and quality
Answer: B
195. Anthony enjoyed his photography hobby very much. He became so skilled that people
began buying his photographs, which put quite a bit of pressure on Anthony. Knowing the
research in this area, what likely to happened to Anthony?
a. He found that he enjoyed photography less because he began to think he was only “doing it
for the money.”
b. The quality of his photography greatly increased.
c. He experienced a fear of failure that made his pictures even better.
d. It led to a loss of self-determination.
Answer: A
196. As a teacher of six-year-olds, you have noticed that verbal praise increases intrinsic
motivation. Is this generally what happens when verbal praise is used?
a. yes—verbal praise increases intrinsic motivation
b. no—any external reward decreases intrinsic motivation
c. yes—verbal praise increases intrinsic motivation, but lowers actual performance
d. no—verbal praise, unlike other external rewards, decreases intrinsic motivation
Answer: A
197. Eric is from a middle-class family. Richard is from a family on welfare. One of the most
important differences in these two families that influences their children’s school
achievement is:
a. language use of their parents
b. the availability of computers at home
c. the number of siblings
d. the mother’s employment
Answer: A
198. Eric is from a middle-class family. Richard is from a family on welfare. One of the most
important differences in these two families that influences their children’s school
achievement is:
a. child-rearing approach used by the parents
b. the availability of computers at home
c. the number of siblings
d. the mother’s employment
Answer: A
199. According to KIPP (Knowledge is Power Program), what is the value of teaching
students proper classroom behavior?
a. It helps teachers to cope with stress in the classroom.
b. Students say that it helps them to pay attention.
c. Students learn that they set the standard for other students to follow.
d. The parents learn that the students are serious about their schooling and then become more
encouraging of their children.
Answer: B
200. The success of KIPP (Knowledge is Power Program) shows that academic achievement
is influenced by:
a. parental involvement
b. a rigorous curriculum
c. noncognitive skills
d. the availability of computers in the classroom
Answer: C
201. Talk-show host Oprah Winfrey regained all her lost weight and then some because:
a. her set point was lowered
b. she did not stay on a maintenance program
c. Oprah’s metabolism increased
d. she lost all the weight to feel good about herself
Answer: B
202. Talk-show host Oprah Winfrey’s experience with dieting is:
a. unusual, since she gained back her lost weight
b. unusual, because she kept the weight off
c. typical, because of the difficulty of keeping lost weight off
d. an example of how health benefits will only happen if extreme weight loss occurs
Answer: C
203. According to research, what is the most important factor to consider in keeping excess
weight off?
a. slow down while eating
b. going on a low-carbohydrate diet
c. changing one’s attitudes towards food
d. sticking to a diet and exercise program over a lifetime
Answer: D
204. Shelly has been on a self-inflicted starvation diet for 8 months and, as a result, weighs
only 82 pounds, yet believes that she can stand to lose a couple of more pounds. It is likely
that Shelly is suffering from:
a. anorexia nervosa
b. a hormonal imbalance
c. depression
d. bulimia nervosa
Answer: A
205. Kavitha, a young woman in her late teens, is diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. If we
could study her and the brains of others who suffer from the disorder, we would find:
a. reduced activity in the brain area that normally responds to the pleasure of eating
b. increased activity in the brain area that normally responds to the pleasure of eating
c. a large left hemisphere compared to the right hemisphere
d. increased activity in the brain area associated with fear
Answer: A
206. The disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and willful starvation is
called:
a. anorexia nervosa
b. bulimia
c. obesity
d. self-handicapping compulsion
Answer: A
207. There appear to be personality traits that are common in anorexic individuals as
children, and they include:
a. rebellious and somewhat nonresponsive to the demands of others
b. obsessed with getting approval from others and depression
c. relaxed and high standards for personal achievement
d. anxious, rigid, and compulsive
Answer: D
208. The eating disorder characterized by a minimum of two binge-eating episodes per week
for at least three months, and regularly engaging in vomiting is called:
a. anorexia nervosa
b. bulimia nervosa
c. compulsive overeating
d. distorted body image
Answer: B
209. An eating disorder that resembles bulimia nervosa and affects about 3 percent of the
general population is:
a. pica
b. rumination disorder
c. orthorexia nervosa
d. binge-eating disorder
Answer: D
TRUE/FALSE
1. Instinct theory is a useful theory to describe human behavior.
Answer: True
2. The value of incentives can change across time.
Answer: True
3. Incentives push us to act.
Answer: False
4. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs begins with safety needs.
Answer: False
5. Researchers have found a large amount of evidence to support Maslow’s hierarchy of
needs.
Answer: False
6. Psychosocial factors of hunger cannot override biological factors.
Answer: F
7. Stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus causes eating.
Answer: True
8. Stimulation of the ventromedial hypothalamus causes cessation of eating.
Answer: True
9. In most cases of obesity, the number of fat cells increases.
Answer: False
10. American men tend to underestimate their weights.
Answer: True
11. The XY chromosome pair leads to a female.
Answer: False
12. The absence of testosterone results in the development of female sexual organs.
Answer: True
13. The term “sexual preference” indicates freedom in choosing sexual orientation.
Answer: True
14. The biosocial model of sexual behavior stresses social and cultural forces.
Answer: True
15. Homosexuality has a genetic component.
Answer: True
16. A study found that when homosexual men smelled a female odor, there was an activation
of their hypothalamus.
Answer: False
17. Sexual problems only occur in the excitement and orgasm stages.
Answer: False
18. The greatest risk for contracting HIV in the world is among gay men and heterosexual
intravenous drug users.
Answer: True
19. HIV (the virus that can lead to AIDS) has mutated, making drug cocktails less effective.
Answer: True
20. If you are extrinsically motivated, you are engaging in an activity to achieve some
external reward.
Answer: True
21. External rewards always reduce intrinsic motivation.
Answer: False
22. Poor students come from homes where parents speak less than the parents of middle-class
students.
Answer: True
23. The body fights reduced food intake with lowering metabolism and increasing fat stores.
Answer: True
Test Bank for Introduction to Psychology
Rod Plotnik, Haig Kouyoumdjian
9781133939535, 9781305008113, 9781285061306
