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Chapter 2—Biological Foundations: Heredity, Prenatal Development, and Birth
1. You are currently experiencing severe pain in your leg and go to your physician for a
checkup. During the examination, your physician says, “The pain you are experiencing
appears to be due to misshapen blood cells that are blocking the flow of oxygen to your leg.”
This would indicate that the most accurate diagnosis of your condition would be
a. cerebral palsy.
b. Huntington’s disease.
c. sickle-cell disease.
d. hemophilia.
Answer: C
2. The threadlike structures in the nucleus of a cell that contain genetic material are called
a. chromosomes.
b. germ discs.
c. ectoderms.
d. phenotypes.
Answer: A
3. If you were looking through a microscope at a normal sperm cell, you should see ____
a. 2
b. 22
c. 23
d. 46
Answer: C
4. The first ____ pairs of chromosomes are called autosomes.

a. 2
b. 10
c. 22
d. 46
Answer: C
5. Igor is approached by a mad scientist who says he will pay Igor either $100 for each pair of
his autosomes or $500 for each pair of his sex chromosomes. Assuming Igor wants to make
as much money as possible, which offer should he take?
a. $100 for each pair of autosomes
b. $500 for each pair of sex chromosomes
c. Either one, because Igor will make the same amount with both offers
d. Neither one, because humans have neither autosomes nor sex chromosomes
Answer: A
6. When looking through a microscope at an entire set of human male chromosomes, how
would you be able to differentiate an autosome pair from a sex chromosome pair?
a. The sex chromosome pair would be about 10 times larger than the autosome pair.
b. The circular-shaped cells would be the autosomes and the square shapes would be the sex
c. There would be three cells in the autosome “pair” and two cells in the sex chromosome
d. The shape of the sex chromosomes would differ, whereas each autosome pair would look
Answer: D
7. A sperm cell contains a total of 22
a. genes.
b. chromosomes.

c. autosomes.
d. sex cells.
Answer: C
8. What combination would result in a boy?
a. A 17th pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y
b. A 23rd pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y
c. A17th pair of chromosomes with two Xs
d. A 23rd pair of chromosomes with two Xs
Answer: B
9. How many DNA molecules are typically contained in each human chromosome?
a. 1
b. 46
c. 468
d. 100,000
Answer: A
10. Thymine and cytosine are types of
a. genes.
b. neurotransmitters produced in the brain.
c. autosomes.
d. basic chemical compounds that form the double helix of a DNA molecule.
Answer: D
11. Human DNA is composed of a total of _____ different nucleotide bases.
a. 4
b. 23

c. 444
d. 30,000
Answer: A
12. Genes provide the cell with a specific set of _________ instructions.
a. hormonal
b. biochemical
c. in vitro
d. bioelectric
Answer: B
13. Within a typical human cell, which number is the greatest?
a. The number of chromosomes
b. The number of autosomes
c. The number of genes
d. The number of different types of nucleotide bases
Answer: C
14. Who has created a gene?
a. Tom, who has strung together four adenine “beads”
b. Dick, who has just removed the sex chromosome from a cell
c. Harry, who has just generated a single bead of guanine
d. Sally, who has added an extra chromosome to a fertilized egg
Answer: A
15. The average child has approximately ____ genes.
a. 25
b. 25,000

c. 25,000,000
d. 25,000,000,000
Answer: B
16. Kyoko is 5 feet, 11 inches tall, plays tennis, and is an all-around nice person. This is a
description of Kyoko’s
a. allele.
b. genotype.
c. homozygosity.
d. phenotype.
Answer: D
17. Genotype is to phenotype as
a. homozygous is to heterozygous.
b. nurture is to nature.
c. DNA is to RNA.
d. chromosome pattern is to physical features.
Answer: D
18. Which is an example of only your genotype?
a. Your complete set of genes
b. Your physical appearance
c. Your behaviors
d. Your personality
Answer: A
19. Which process can best be explained by alleles?
a. The fact that phenotypes produce genotypes
b. The formation of identical twins through the splitting of a fertilized egg

c. The instructions for hair color come from two sources on the chromosome
d. The teratogenic effects associated with fetal alcohol syndrome
Answer: C
20. Homozygous is to heterozygous as
a. same is to different.
b. recessive is to dominant.
c. genotype is to phenotype.
d. many is to few.
Answer: A
21. Linda has one allele for curly hair and another for straight hair. Linda’s alleles are
a. polyzygotic.
b. dizygotic.
c. homozygous.
d. heterozygous.
Answer: D
22. Joseph is homozygous for normal blood cells. This means that he
a. is an identical twin.
b. has matching alleles.
c. has recessive alleles.
d. is likely to develop sickle-cell anemia.
Answer: B
23. How would you create an individual who will definitely have blue eyes?
a. Make sure he has a pair of homozygous chromosomes for blue eyes.
b. Make sure he has a pair of heterozygous chromosomes for eye color.

c. Make sure he has a pair of alleles for eye color.
d. Make sure he has one recessive gene for blue eyes.
Answer: A
24. Kirk is heterozygous for cheek dimples but is born with big dimples in both cheeks.
Apparently, the allele for cheek dimples is
a. dominant.
b. sex-linked.
c. recessive.
d. polygenetic.
Answer: A
25. If a person had a dominant allele for blonde hair and a recessive allele for red hair, the
probability of that person having red hair would be closest to ____ percent.
a. 0
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100
Answer: A
26. If tallness is dominant and designated as “T,” and shortness is recessive and designated as
“s,” who would likely be short?
a. Bing, who is “sT”
b. Crosby, who is “Ts”
c. Danny, who is “ss”
d. Kay, who is “TT”
Answer: C

27. If obesity is dominant and designated as “O” and thinness is recessive and designated as
“t,” how many of the following individuals would likely be obese: Ginger who is “OO,”
Mary Ann who is “Ot,” Thurston who is “tO,” and Gilligan who is “tt”?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: C
28. Which best exemplifies the concept of incomplete dominance?
a. An individual with two alleles for baldness who has long hair
b. An individual with two alleles for shyness who is shy
c. An individual with one allele for obesity and another for thinness who is of average weight
d. An individual with a single allele for aggression who is violent
Answer: C
29. Which statement concerning the sickle-cell trait is true?
a. Individuals with the trait have the dominant phenotype but possess the recessive genotype.
b. Individuals with the trait have both a dominant and recessive allele for the disorder.
c. Individuals with the trait are genetically predisposed to the disorder but cannot display any
d. Individuals with the trait tend to have the most severe form of the disease.
Answer: B
30. Dr. Fry has just been informed that his son has sickle-cell trait. As a knowledgeable
physician, Dr. Fry would realize that his son’s body is most likely to experience
a. excess levels of body fat.
b. serious oxygen deprivation.

c. decreased lung capacity.
d. blindness.
Answer: B
31. What should Danko do when he is informed that his newborn son has PKU
a. Panic, since PKU is an incurable genetic disorder that results in severe mental retardation
b. Don’t panic, since PKU can be cured with drug treatments
c. Don’t panic, since PKU is a sex-linked disorder that affects only females
d. Don’t panic, since despite being a genetic disorder, it can be controlled through proper diet
Answer: D
32. Janaka’s two-year-old daughter is mentally retarded due, in part, to a diet that included
fish, bread, and dairy products. The most likely diagnosis for Janaka’s daughter is that she
a. Turner’s syndrome.
b. Huntington’s disease.
c. Tay Sachs disease.
d. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
Answer: D
33. Huntington’s disease is an unusual genetic disorder in that it is a fatal disease caused by
dominant alleles that
a. impact late enough in life so that the individual can reproduce.
b. are controllable through diet.
c. both must come from the mother.
d. strike only males.
Answer: A

34. _____ is characterized by progressive degeneration of the nervous system.
a. Huntington’s disease
b. Down syndrome
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Sickle-cell disease
Answer: A
35. Which physical characteristic is most indicative of an individual with Down syndrome?
a. Enlarged head
b. A fold of skin over each eyelid
c. Small tongue
d. Taller than same-age peers
Answer: B
36. Following a prenatal exam, your physician remarks, “It appears as if your fetus has 47
chromosomes.” What would be the most likely response to this information?
a. Concern, as this may indicate that your child has Down syndrome
b. Concern, as this may indicate that your child has sickle-cell anemia
c. Concern, as this may indicate that your child has phenylketonuria (PKU)
d. Relief, since this is a normal number of chromosomes
Answer: A
37. Which maternal characteristic is most strongly associated with giving birth to a baby with
Down syndrome?
a. Low levels of intelligence (i.e., mental retardation)
b. Consumption of alcohol
c. Higher maternal age
d. Exposure to lead or mercury

Answer: C
38. “Trisomy 21” (three 21st chromosomes) best describes
a. Huntington’s disease.
b. Down syndrome.
c. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
d. sickle-cell trait.
Answer: B
39. Because of his accurate knowledge of genetics and disorders, Benson knows that his
newborn son has no chance of having
a. Turner’s syndrome.
b. Kleinfelter’s syndrome.
c. Huntington’s disease.
d. Down syndrome.
Answer: A
40. Which combination of sex chromosomes is not possible in a living human being?
a. A single X chromosome
b. XXY
c. XYY
d. A single Y chromosome
Answer: D
41. As a behavioral geneticist, Juan would most likely be studying
a. the maze-learning behavior of rats.
b. the evolution of intelligence.
c. a gene that is believed to cause shyness.
d. the physiological structure of a gene.

Answer: C
42. Which statement best exemplifies the basic premise of behavioral genetics?
a. “Your personality is all in your genes”
b. “Your personality is all in your environment”
c. “People are either very open to new experiences or avoid new experiences at all costs”
d. “Openness to new experience is not an either/or proposition but represents a wide range of
Answer: D
43. If a physician informed you that your speech disorder was the result of problems on
chromosomes 4, 7, and 15, you would rightly conclude that the disorder is always classifiable
a. recessive.
b. polygenetic.
c. dominant.
d. sex-linked.
Answer: B
44. If the four dominant alleles for intelligence are WXYZ and the recessive alleles for
intelligence are wxyz, which of the following would be the most common inheritance
a. WWwwYYyy
d. WwxxYYzZ
Answer: D
45. John and Wayne have the exact same genes. This indicates that they must be
a. dizygotic twins.

b. monozygotic twins.
c. heterozygous.
d. co-dominant.
Answer: B
46. As dizygotic twins, Jewel and Bjork
a. are genetically identical.
b. must have come from the same fertilized egg.
c. share all phenotypes.
d. share about half of their genes.
Answer: D
47. Monozygotic is to dizygotic as
a. one mother is to two mothers.
b. one egg is to two eggs.
c. dominant is to recessive.
d. heterozygous is to homozygous.
Answer: B
48. José, who was adopted at birth, is found to have personality characteristics more similar
to his biological mom than to his adoptive mom. How should you interpret this data?
a. Personality appears to be a polygenetic characteristic.
b. Personality characteristics are learned.
c. Personality characteristics are influenced by genes.
d. Personality characteristics appear to be recessive.
Answer: C
49. Which result would not support the idea that genes play a significant role in behavior?
a. Finding dizygotic twins to be more similar than monozygotic twins

b. Finding children to be more similar to their biological parents than to their adoptive parents
c. Finding similarities between biological siblings
d. Finding monozygotic twins to be more similar than pairs of unrelated individuals
Answer: A
50. The concept that genotypes are not the only things that control traits involves the fact that
a. dizygotic twins are virtually genetically identical.
b. each genotype can produce a variety of phenotypes.
c. recessive genes are more commonly expressed than dominant genes.
d. the environment has little impact on behavior.
Answer: B
51. Despite being raised in two very different environments, identical twins Tina and Gina
receive a similar score on a shyness scale. These results suggest that correlation between
genetics and shyness is
a. small.
b. large.
c. inverse.
d. polygenetic.
Answer: A
52. Genes and environments
a. interact dynamically throughout development.
b. act independently throughout development.
c. interact dynamically in childhood and independently in adulthood.
d. act independently in childhood and interact dynamically in adulthood.
Answer: A

53. As a behavioral geneticist, Professor Klink is most likely to calculate the extent to which
depression is inherited using a _____ coefficient.
a. nonshared
b. DNA
c. polygenetic
d. heritability
Answer: D
54. A heritability coefficient of _____ means about 50 percent of the difference between
people on a specific characteristic is the result of heredity.
a. .5
b. 5
c. 50
d. 500
Answer: A
55. A heritability coefficient is a derivation of a(n)
a. t-test.
b. analysis of variance.
c. correlation.
d. chi-square.
Answer: C
56. _________ occurs when an individual intentionally seeks out an environment that
matches characteristics driven by his or her genes.
a. Passive gene-environment interactions
b. Incomplete dominance
c. Niche-picking

d. Polygenetic inheritance
Answer: C
57. Which individual with a genetic predisposition toward being extroverted is demonstrating
successful niche-picking?
a. Wink, who is a game-show host
b. Wilbur, who is a horse trainer
c. Sebastian, who is a hermit who lives in a cave by himself
d. Dexter, who spends a lot of time studying in the library
Answer: A
58. Nonshared environmental influences involve forces that make siblings
a. act in virtually identical ways.
b. homozygous.
c. dizygotic twins.
d. different from one another.
Answer: D
59. Jack and Jill are twins. Because he is a boy, Jack’s parents encourage him to run.
However, they discourage Jill from engaging in athletic activity. As a result, Jack is much
faster at running up a hill than Jill. The difference in Jack and Jill’s behavior is best explained
a. nonshared environmental influences.
b. active gene-environment relations.
c. polygenetic effects.
d. niche-picking.
Answer: A
60. Which statement is true?

a. Environmental influences within a family typically make children within a family different
b. Genes cannot influence the kind of environment to which a person is exposed
c. Behavioral consequences of genetic instructions are independent from environmental
d. The impact of environment on heredity wanes with age
Answer: A
61. Which is not considered part of prenatal development?
a. Period of the fetus
b. Period of the zygote
c. Period of the neonate
d. Period of the embryo
Answer: C
62. Prenatal development begins
a. with sperm production.
b. with ovulation.
c. at conception.
d. at implantation into the uterus.
Answer: C
63. The period of the _______ lasts for approximately two weeks.
a. Embryo
b. Zygote
c. Fetus
d. Neonate
Answer: B
64. The uniting of the egg and sperm (conception) typically takes place in the

a. uterus.
b. testes.
c. fallopian tube.
d. ovary.
Answer: C
65. If Agnieszka found out that she was conceived through in vitro fertilization, she would
know for certain that
a. she was conceived in a Petri dish.
b. she was conceived inside a fallopian tube.
c. her biological parents were not the same as the parents who reared her.
d. the woman who carried her as a baby was not the woman who reared her.
Answer: A
66. Which event occurs following in vitro fertilization?
a. A fertilized egg is placed directly into the uterus.
b. A sperm is injected directly into the fallopian tube.
c. A fertilized egg is directly placed in the ovary.
d. A single sperm is injected directly into a fertilized egg.
Answer: A
67. Which statement concerning in vitro fertilization is false?
a. The odds of having twins or triplets may increase.
b. About 90 percent of in vitro fertilization attempts are successful.
c. The procedure is not typically covered by insurance.
d. There is an increased risk of birth defects in infants conceived using the procedure.
Answer: B
68. Whose behavior best exemplifies eugenics?

a. Dr. Green, who uses an in vitro fertilization technique
b. Dr. Black, who allows only certain individuals to mate
c. Dr. White, who studies the effects of thalidomide on prenatal development
d. Dr. Brown, who closely monitors the nutrition of expecting mothers
Answer: B
69. The period of the zygote begins with
a. ovulation.
b. ejaculation.
c. implantation.
d. fertilization.
Answer: D
70. A developing human that is traveling from a fallopian tube to the uterus would most
accurately be described as a(n)
a. embryo.
b. fetus.
c. zygote.
d. amnion.
Answer: C
71. What began as a single fertilized egg has just separated into two distinct eggs. This
indicates the formation of ____ twins that has occurred during the ____ period of
a. fraternal; zygotic
b. fraternal; embryonic
c. identical; zygotic
d. identical; embryonic

Answer: C
72. The point at which a zygote burrows into the uterine wall is referred to as
a. fertilization.
b. implantation.
c. niche-picking.
d. dilation.
Answer: B
73. A physician has just informed pregnant Moesha that the human organism developing
inside of her has just begun to show differentiation of its cells. As a knowledgeable student,
you would know that such an organism is technically call a(n)
a. embryo.
b. zygote.
c. fetus.
d. neonate.
Answer: B
74. Pregnant Patty’s body is currently experiencing the event that triggers hormonal changes
that will prevent further menstruation. This event is called
a. implantation.
b. conception.
c. dilation.
d. effacement.
Answer: A
75. The ____ is the cluster of cells in the center of the zygote that will eventually develop
into the baby.
a. Amnion

b. stem cell
c. germ disc
d. placenta
Answer: C
76. I am the structure through which a mother and an embryo exchange waste and nutrients. I
am called the
a. amnion.
b. stem cell.
c. germ disc.
d. placenta.
Answer: D
77. The developing human organism that has just become completely embedded in the wall
of the uterus is called the
a. amnion.
b. fetus.
c. zygote.
d. embryo.
Answer: D
78. At five weeks after conception, a developing human is most accurately called a(n)
a. embryo.
b. zygote.
c. fetus.
d. neonate.
Answer: A

79. Hair and the nervous system develop during the embryonic period from cells contained in
the ____ layer.
a. mesoderm
b. endoderm
c. placenta
d. ectoderm
Answer: D
80. Damage to cells in the embryo’s ____ layer would be most likely to result in the
development of a defective digestive system.
a. endoderm
b. placenta
c. ectoderm
d. mesoderm
Answer: A
81. Dr. Proctor tells Uma that her developing embryo is showing distortions in the
development of its circulatory system. As a knowledgeable student of human development,
Uma should realize that the problem is within cells of the ____ layer.
a. placenta
b. mesoderm
c. ectoderm
d. endoderm
Answer: B
82. Ectoderm is to endoderm as
a. heterozygous is to homozygous.
b. fraternal is to identical.

c. outer is to inner.
d. bone is to muscle.
Answer: C
83. Muscle and bones develop during the embryonic period from cells contained in the _____
a. mesoderm
b. endoderm
c. placenta
d. ectoderm
Answer: A
84. While observing a special monitor, a physician tells an expectant mother, “As you can
see, the legs and arms have just begun to emerge.” From this description, you should realize
that the two are looking at a(n)
a. zygote.
b. fetus.
c. embryo.
d. germ disc.
Answer: C
85. The sac in which the embryo resides is called the
a. ectoderm.
b. amnion.
c. germ disc.
d. placenta.
Answer: B
86. One key purpose of the amniotic fluid is to

a. provide the embryo with nutrients.
b. stimulate development of neurotransmitters.
c. screen the flow of blood between mother and embryo.
d. maintain a constant temperature for the embryo.
Answer: D
87. The ____ houses the blood vessels that join the embryo and its mother.
a. umbilical cord
b. amnion
c. germ disc
d. mesoderm
Answer: A
88. The placenta
a. directly connects the blood stream of the embryo to the blood stream of the mother.
b. contains amniotic fluid.
c. helps the fetus to maintain a constant temperature.
d. allows for an exchange of nutrients and waste.
Answer: D
89. The fact that the embryonic head develops before the body illustrates the ____ principle.
a. cephalocaudal
b. incomplete dominance
c. proximodistal
d. niche-picking
Answer: A
90. A doctor could best illustrate the proximodistal principle by discussing the fact that

a. male fetuses develop faster than female fetuses.
b. identical twins tend to be smaller than fraternal twins.
c. the outside portion of the amniotic sac is thicker than the inside portion.
d. a baby can control its shoulder before it can control its fingers.
Answer: D
91. During prenatal development, the arm develops before the fingers. This most illustrates
the _____ principle.
a. Premack
b. coefficient
c. cephalocaudal
d. proximodistal
Answer: D
92. Which organism can truthfully state, “It is during my time that all body parts and organs
are first put into place?”
a. The neonate
b. The zygote
c. The fetus
d. The embryo
Answer: D
93. Marsha’s doctor informs her that her child is just entering the longest period of prenatal
development. About how long has Marsha been carrying her unborn child?
a. 1 day
b. 3 weeks
c. 9 weeks
d. 28 weeks

Answer: C
94. Which event signals the beginning of the period of the fetus?
a. The first beat of the heart
b. The first neural activity in the neocortex
c. The formation of bone from cartilage
d. The attachment of the umbilical cord to the placenta
Answer: C
95. The thick, greasy substance that covers the fetus around five to six months after
conception is called
a. placenta.
b. vernix.
c. amnion.
d. endoderm.
Answer: B
96. Currently, the earliest “age of viability” occurs around ____ weeks after conception.
a. 14
b. 22
c. 30
d. 38
Answer: B
97. Which best describes the main finding of a study in which pregnant mothers read the
story The Cat in the Hat?
a. Prior to birth, the fetus begins to mimic the sounds its mother makes.
b. After birth, infants appeared to recognize the rhythm at which their mother has read a

c. After birth, infants showed no reaction when they once again heard a story that had been
read by their mother before they were born.
d. After birth, infants who had been read to began to speak at an earlier age than a control
group that had not been read to.
Answer: B
98. Just after the birth of her son Nelly, mom Kelly was informed that little Nelly’s neural
tube did not properly close during his prenatal development. This would mean that Nelly will
be diagnosed with
a. spina bifida.
b. muscular dystrophy.
c. cerebral palsy.
d. sickle-cell anemia.
Answer: A
99. A knowledgeable nutritionist would tell a pregnant mother that in order to reduce the risk
of having a baby born with spina bifida, mom needs to make sure that she is ingesting an
adequate amount of
a. vitamin A.
b. iron.
c. vitamin E.
d. folic acid.
Answer: D
100. Maternal stress is most likely to negatively impact a developing embryo/fetus when that
stress is
a. intermittent and extreme.
b. intermittent and moderate.
c. chronic and extreme.

d. chronic and moderate.
Answer: C
101. The main reason why teenage mothers tend to give birth to less healthy infants than
mothers in their 20s is that the teens
a. tend to neither seek nor receive good prenatal care.
b. take too many vitamins.
c. have more genetically defective eggs.
d. are more likely to smoke while pregnant.
Answer: A
102. Halley is 40 years old and she and her daughter Berry, 20, are both currently pregnant.
Which statement concerning these two mothers is most accurate?
a. Berry has a greater risk of giving birth to a baby with sickle-cell anemia.
b. Halley is twice as fertile as Berry.
c. Berry’s odds of having a baby with Down syndrome are three times higher than Halley’s.
d. Halley has a greater risk of having a miscarriage.
Answer: D
103. A teratogen is any agent that
a. results in abnormal prenatal development.
b. enhances the flow of oxygen across the placental barrier.
c. decreases the chances of having a child with a genetic disorder.
d. inhibits the impact of drugs on the developing embryo.
Answer: A
104. Whose mother most likely took thalidomide while pregnant?
a. Dean, who has a heart defect
b. Martin, who has deformed arms and legs

c. Jerry, who is deaf
d. Lewis, who is severely mentally retarded
Answer: B
105. How many of the following are potential teratogens: aspirin, nicotine, cocaine, caffeine?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: D
106. What effect is not associated with fetal alcohol syndrome?
a. Slow growth
b. Mental retardation
c. Blindness
d. Misshapen face
Answer: C
107. Bryant’s teacher notices that Bryant has unusual facial features (i.e., short nose and
wide-set eyes) and shows signs of mental retardation. Due to her training in developmental
psychology, Bryant’s teacher realizes that Bryant’s mom likely ____ while she was pregnant.
a. consumed alcohol
b. injected heroin
c. smoked marijuana
d. consumed an excessive amount of caffeine
Answer: A
108. A woman who consumes alcohol ________ has the greatest risk of giving birth to a
baby with fetal alcohol syndrome.

a. lightly and sporadically
b. moderately and sporadically
c. lightly and consistently
d. moderately and consistently
Answer: D
109. Both AIDS and genital herpes
a. can be passed along to an infant as it passes through the birth canal.
b. typically result in blindness.
c. cannot be transmitted to a fetus through the placenta.
d. can be eliminated by maternal inoculation.
Answer: A
110. Which statement concerning teratogens is false?
a. They impact different genotypes differently.
b. They impact specific aspects of development.
c. Their effects may not emerge until later in life.
d. Their effects are the same regardless of the time when the individual is exposed.
Answer: D
111. The key lesson learned by the fact that thalidomide showed no impact when tested on
prenatal rabbits but led to birth defects in prenatal humans is that
a. teratogens impact different genotypes differently.
b. teratogens impact specific aspects of development.
c. teratogen effects may not emerge until later in life.
d. teratogen effects are the same regardless of the time when the individual is exposed.
Answer: A

112. What was the most critical lesson about teratogens learned from studies on the use of the
drug DES by pregnant women?
a. Sometimes what appear to be teratogens actually are harmless drugs.
b. Infants in the late fetal period appear to be the most at risk for impact from drug-related
c. Sometimes the effects of teratogens are not apparent until long after exposure.
d. Females appear to be at much greater risk from teratogens.
Answer: C
113. Exposure to a teratogen during the _____ period is most likely to result in a spontaneous
a. implantation
b. zygotic
c. embryonic
d. fetal
Answer: B
114. As there is a history of hereditary disease in the families of Archie and Veronica, they
have arranged a meeting with a specialist at which a family tree concerning the odds of them
having a child with a birth defect will be constructed. This event would most accurately be
described as
a. amniocentesis.
b. chorionic villus sampling.
c. teratogenic.
d. genetic counseling.
Answer: D
115. Claire is very concerned about the prebirth position of the child she is carrying. Which
technique would be the best for determining whether Claire’s concerns are warranted?

a. Genetic counseling
b. Ultrasound
c. Chorionic villus sampling
d. Amniocentesis
Answer: B
116. Which prenatal assessment technique results in a picture of the fetus?
a. Genetic screening
b. Ultrasound
c. Chorionic villus sampling
d. Amniocentesis
Answer: B
117. The sample taken during an amniocentesis comes from
a. the lining of the uterus.
b. inside the body of the fetus.
c. the fluid surrounding the fetus.
d. the umbilical cord.
Answer: C
118. Regan is a medical student who is learning a procedure in which a long needle is
inserted into the abdomen of a pregnant woman. What technique is he most likely learning?
a. Genetic counseling
b. Amniocentesis
c. Chorionic villus sampling
d. Ultrasound
Answer: B

119. Mia and her doctor need to know as quickly as possible (hopefully within 24 hours)
whether the child she has been carrying for only nine weeks possesses any genetic
abnormalities. Which technique is Mia’s doctor most likely to employ?
a. Chorionic villus sampling
b. Ultrasound
c. Amniocentesis
d. Genetic counseling
Answer: A
120. Troy is very interested in the field of fetal medicine. Given this, he would most likely be
fascinated by a book titled
a. Afterbirth Care and You.
b. The Benefits of Healthy Eating Before Pregnancy.
c. Fixing Birth Defects Before Birth.
d. The Importance of Childhood Inoculations.
Answer: C
121. Physicians are currently able to correct spina bifida at around seven to eight months after
birth using
a. genetic engineering.
b. fetal surgery.
c. chorionic villus sampling.
d. ultrasound.
Answer: B
122. The process in which defective cells in the body are replaced with cells that have had the
genetic defect “repaired” is called
a. amniocentesis.
b. genetic engineering.

c. genetic screening.
d. niche-picking.
Answer: B
123. Because it involves prolonged physical effort, the process of childbirth is often referred
to as involving stages of
a. labor.
b. parturition.
c. travail.
d. pursuit.
Answer: A
124. By the time Debbie got to the hospital to deliver her child, the child had entered the
vaginal opening. This means that Debbie was in the ____ stage of labor.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
Answer: B
125. When her physician mentions the term “crowning,” Erica, who is giving birth, should
realize that means that her
a. cervix has just fully dilated.
b. uterine contractions are about to start.
c. baby’s head has just reached the vaginal opening.
d. placenta is about to be delivered.
Answer: C
126. Which is expelled during afterbirth?

a. Fetus
b. Placenta
c. Cervix
d. Ova
Answer: B
127. Wilma is afraid of the pain involved in delivering her baby. Are childbirth classes likely
to help her?
a. Yes, because women who take these courses report experiencing less pain than women
who don’t.
b. Yes, because women who take these courses qualify for painkilling medications they
would not usually receive.
c. No, because childbirth courses only make people more knowledgeable about the birthing
process and can have no effect on pain.
d. No, because individuals who know most about the birthing process experience the most
Answer: A
128. Which is not a typical childbirth class technique for reducing the pain associated with
a. Teach deep breathing to reduce muscle tension.
b. Teach visual imagery focusing on pleasant scenes or experiences.
c. Teach a “coach” to attend to mother and help her cope with pain.
d. Teach that medications have no place in the delivery room.
Answer: D
129. For healthy pregnant women,
a. home and hospital delivery carry the same birth defect risk.
b. hospital delivery is safer than home delivery.

c. home delivery is safer than hospital delivery.
d. the home delivery versus hospital delivery risk factors are unknown.
Answer: A
130. Postpartum depression
a. occurs in about 50 percent of new mothers.
b. is more common following planned pregnancies than unplanned pregnancies.
c. is a purely psychological phenomenon (i.e., has no physiological basis).
d. may be reduced via breast-feeding.
Answer: D
131. After learning that his newborn son’s birth involved hypoxia, Sven (a knowledgeable
nurse) would most likely ask,
a. “How long until my wife’s scar heals?”
b. “How long was the cord wrapped around his neck?”
c. “Did the cervix ever dilate?”
d. “Is such a premature birth normal?”
Answer: B
132. How is a physician most likely to guard against fetal hypoxia?
a. Monitor the fetus’s heart rate.
b. Avoid exposing the fetus to tainted blood.
c. Encourage the mother to deliver vaginally.
d. Conduct a genetic screen of the parents.
Answer: A
133. A Cesarean section is best thought of as
a. vaginal childbirth.
b. a technique for determining possible birth defects in an embryo.

c. a common form of teratogen.
d. the surgical removal of a fetus.
Answer: D
134. Mona has decided to have a Cesarean section rather than a vaginal delivery. While this
decision will reduce some risks, it will increase the risk of
a. hypoxia.
b. spina bifida.
c. maternal infection.
d. low birth weight.
Answer: C
135. By definition, premature infants are born prior to ____ weeks after conception.
a. 42
b. 40
c. 38
d. 36
Answer: D
136. The cutoff between normal and low birth weight is about ____ pounds.
a. 7.7
b. 5.5
c. 3.3
d. 2.2
Answer: B
137. Because her birth weight was 1200 grams (about 3 pounds), Kia would be correctly
classified as having a(n) ____ birth weight.
a. normal

b. low
c. very low
d. extremely low
Answer: C
138. Born 39 weeks after conception, Sasha weighs in at around 2 pounds. Given this
information, Sasha is best defined as
a. full-term and normal birth weight.
b. preterm and normal birth weight.
c. preterm and very low birth weight.
d. full-term and extremely low birth weight.
Answer: D
139. Jamal was born 34 weeks after he was conceived and weighed 6 pounds. Jamal is best
described as
a. full-term and normal birth weight.
b. preterm and normal birth weight.
c. full-term and low birth weight.
d. preterm and low birth weight.
Answer: B
140. Longitudinal research on Hawaiian children indicated that problems associated with low
birth weight
a. were typically lifelong.
b. had no impact on social or cognitive abilities.
c. were only found in males.
d. could be overcome if the child was raised in a stable family environment.
Answer: D

141. Infant mortality rate is defined as the percentage of infants who die
a. before birth.
b. during birth.
c. before their first birthday.
d. before their second birthday.
Answer: C
142. Which parent should most realistically fear her child dying before reaching their first
a. Alfie, who is in Afghanistan
b. Charleene, who is in the Czech Republic
c. Fran, who is in Finland
d. Jen, who is in Japan
Answer: A
143. Low birth weight can most effectively be prevented through
a. regular prenatal care.
b. avoiding teratogens.
c. maternal inoculations.
d. chorionic villus sampling.
Answer: A
1. A typical fertilized egg contains a total of 22 pairs of chromosomes.
Answer: False
2. Your phenotype includes physical, psychological, and behavioral features.
Answer: True
3. When the chromosomes in a pair are the same, they are said to be heterozygous.

Answer: False
4. Individuals with sickle-cell trait must carry both recessive alleles in order to display
Answer: False
5. While characterized as a progressive and fatal disorder, symptoms of Huntington’s disease
can be eliminated through a special diet.
Answer: False
6. Monozygotic twins come from a single egg.
Answer: True
7. A heritability coefficient is used to calculate the extent to which a characteristic is the
result of genetics.
Answer: True
8. Nonshared environmental influences tend to make siblings in a family more similar to each
Answer: False
9. The correct order of prenatal development is zygote to embryo to fetus.
Answer: True
10. In vitro fertilization takes place in a test tube.
Answer: False
11. Implantation occurs when the zygote burrows into the placenta.
Answer: False
12. Hair and skin originally develops in the ectoderm layer of a zygote.
Answer: True
13. The embryo is connected to the uterus via the fallopian tube.
Answer: False

14. Cephalocaudal development proceeds from your extremities toward your body.
Answer: False
15. The period of the fetus is the longest period of prenatal development.
Answer: True
16. The modern age of viability begins at 16 weeks.
Answer: False
17. Pregnant women who fail to consume enough vitamin A are at risk for giving birth to a
baby with spina bifida.
Answer: False
18. The younger the mother, the greater the risk that she will give birth to an infant with
Down syndrome.
Answer: False
19. Common symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome include facial deformities, deafness, and
mental retardation.
Answer: False
20. Damage from teratogens are sometimes not evident until later in life.
Answer: True
21. An ultrasound uses sound waves to create an image of a fetus.
Answer: True
22. Research has demonstrated that childbirth techniques designed to reduce pain during
labor do not work.
Answer: False
23. The condition of hypoxia involves a reduction in the flow of oxygen to the brain.
Answer: True
24. By definition, any infant born weighing less than 4 pounds is considered extremely low
birth weight.

Answer: False
1. The first 22 pairs of chromosomes are called _____.
Answer: autosomes
2. DNA is short for _____ acid.
Answer: deoxyribonucleic
3. When each member of a pair of alleles produces a different outcome, the alleles are
classified as _____.
Answer: heterozygous
4. A(n) _____ allele is ignored when it is combined with a dominant allele.
Answer: recessive
5. An individual with phenylketonuria is born without a key _____ enzyme required for
normal development.
Answer: liver
6. Fraternal twins are also called _____ twins.
Answer: dizygotic
7. When a child deliberately seeks an environment that fits his or her heredity, the child is
engaging in _____.
Answer: niche-picking
8. The portion of the zygote that will eventually develop into the baby is called the _____.
Answer: germ disc
9. The _____ layer of the zygote forms the digestive system and lungs.
Answer: endoderm
10. The _____ is designed to cushion the developing embryo and to help it maintain a
constant temperature.

Answer: amniotic fluid
11. The point at which a fetus has a chance to survive if it were to be born is called the age of
Answer: viability
12. Any substance that causes abnormal prenatal development is classified as a(n) _____.
Answer: teratogen
13. _____ sampling is a procedure in which a tissue sample is taken from the placenta.
Answer: Chorionic villus
14. The moment at which the baby’s head first appears at the vaginal opening during birth is
called _____.
Answer: crowning
15. A newborn weighing less than 1500 grams (3.3 pounds) but at least 1000 grams (2.2
pounds) is classified as _____ birth weight.
Answer: very low
11. Describe why in vitro fertilization and eugenics represent controversial issues in human
Answer: In vitro fertilization involves conception outside of the body (e.g., in a Petri dish).
Ethical concerns include a parent’s right to select specific traits and the high costs, which
tend to not be covered by insurance. Eugenics is an effort to improve humans by allowing
only certain individuals to mate and pass along genes.
12. Compare and contrast development during the period of the zygote with development
during the embryonic period.
Answer: The zygotic period occurs during the first two weeks following conception. It
includes implantation of the zygote into the uterine wall, the development of the germinal
disc that will eventually become the body, and the development of the placenta. The period of
the embryo lasts from 3 to 8 weeks after conception. During this time, layers of tissue (e.g.,
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) begin to shape the developing organism. This is also the
time when all body structures and organs are formed.

Test Bank for Human Development : A Life-Span View
Robert V Kail, John C Cavanaugh
9781111834111, 9781337554831

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