Chapter 04 Pregnancy and Prenatal Development Multiple Choice Questions 1. The human gestational period is approximately _____________ weeks in length. A. 33 B. 35 C. 38 D. 44 Answer: C. 38 2. The doctor told Ellie and Tom to compute the gestational age of their fetus by determining the time of A. implantation. B. quickening. C. conception. D. gestation. Answer: C. conception. 3. The molecules that are "switched on" after fertilization and begin sculpting arms, fingers, vertabrae, ribs, a brain, and other body parts are called A. teratogens. B. hydrogens. C. cephalocods. D. morphogens. Answer: D. morphogens. 4. A fertilized ovum is also called a(n) A. embryo. B. zygote. C. fetus. D. morphogen. Answer: B. zygote. 5. The correct order for the three prenatal stages is A. fetal, embryonic, and germinal. B. embryonic, fetal, and germinal. C. germinal, fetal, and embryonic. D. germinal, embryonic, and fetal. Answer: D. germinal, embryonic, and fetal. 6. The _____________ principle explains why an embryo's head, brain, and eyes develop earliest and are disproportionately large until the other parts catch up. A. proximodistal B. cephalocaudal C. prenatal D. gestational Answer: B. cephalocaudal 7. The fertilized ovum divides and implants in the wall of the uterus during which stage of gestation? A. Fetal B. Embryonic C. Germinal D. Terminal Answer: C. Germinal 8. In which stage of prenatal development does the fertilized ovum become implanted in the wall of the uterus? A. Germinal B. Seminal C. Fetal D. Embryonic Answer: A. Germinal 9. The zygote begins rapid cell division and forms into a blastocyst during the _____________ stage. A. germinal B. embryonic C. fetal D. zygotic Answer: A. germinal 10. The fluid-filled sphere that floats freely in the uterus for a day or two and then implants itself into the wall of the uterus is called the A. embryo. B. blastocyst. C. chorion. D. fetus. Answer: B. blastocyst. 11. Laurence and Kristina, pregnant with their first child, have read about their baby's development and learned that their baby will grow more rapidly during the _____________ than at any other time. A. first month after conception B. second trimester C. third trimester D. last week of pregnancy Answer: A. first month after conception 12. At the end of the first month of gestation, A. blood is flowing through very small veins and arteries in the embryo. B. the facial parts of the embryo have fully developed. C. the mother can feel the baby's movements. D. the embryo looks like a small-scale baby. Answer: A. blood is flowing through very small veins and arteries in the embryo. 13. When Dr. Keane checks prenatal development with a sonogram at the end of the second month of gestation, the embryo is less than one inch long and has the shape of a A. disk. B. cylinder. C. slightly irregular ball. D. miniature baby. Answer: D. miniature baby. 14. A pregnant woman feels the movement known as quickening at about the _____________ month. A. first B. second C. fourth D. ninth Answer: C. fourth 15. The portion of the blastocyst from which the baby develops is called the A. embryonic disk. B. trophoblast. C. placenta. D. ectoderm. Answer: A. embryonic disk. 16. Which of the following cell groups becomes the outer layer of skin, hair, nails, sensory organs, and nervous system? A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. Epiderm Answer: A. Ectoderm 17. Dr. McGuire is studying the cells in the blastocyst that eventually become the brain and the spinal cord. Where are these cells located? A. Mesoderm B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Neuroderm Answer: B. Ectoderm 18. The portion of the embryonic disk that eventually becomes the digestive system and the respiratory system is the A. ectoderm. B. endoderm. C. mesoderm. D. trophoblast. Answer: B. endoderm. 19. An 8-month-old fetus is _____________ inches long and weighs approximately _____________ pounds. A. 14-16; 2-4 B. 15-17; 3-6 C. 18-20; 5-7 D. 21-23; 8-9 Answer: C. 18-20; 5-7 20. The doctor told Rosa at her last prenatal visit that her baby now weighs over 9 pounds. When will the fetus stop growing? A. About 1 month before birth B. About 2 weeks before birth C. About 1 week before birth D. None of these; the fetus keeps growing until birth. Answer: C. About 1 week before birth 21. Which of the following is NOT one of the organs that develops to nurture and protect the unborn child? A. Amniotic sac B. Embryonic disk C. Umbilical cord D. Placenta Answer: B. Embryonic disk 22. The fluid-filled sac surrounding the developing human organism is called the A. placenta. B. amniotic sac. C. trophoblast. D. blastocyst. Answer: B. amniotic sac. 23. Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta? A. It encases the baby with a fluid-filled membrane. B. It removes body wastes from the baby. C. It fights infections. D. It produces hormones that stimulate lactation. Answer: A. It encases the baby with a fluid-filled membrane. 24. Which of the following statements regarding the early development of the human embryo is FALSE? A. Four to five days after fertilization, an inner cell mass begins to form. B. After six to seven days, the blastocyst begins to attach to the uterine wall. C. After eleven to twelve days, the blastocyst is joined to the uterine wall. D. The embryonic stage begins at six to seven days after fertilization. Answer: D. The embryonic stage begins at six to seven days after fertilization. 25. The second stage of pregnancy occurs between 2 to 8 weeks after conception. During this stage, we refer to the organism as a(n) A. blastocyst. B. embryo. C. fetus. D. zygote. Answer: B. embryo. 26. Luanne's doctor told her that her baby's major body systems and organs were rapidly developing. Luanne's baby is in the _____________ stage of development. A. fetal B. embryonic C. germinal D. terminal Answer: B. embryonic 27. An unborn baby is often most vulnerable to prenatal environmental influences before a woman even realizes that she is pregnant. This vulnerability occurs during the _____________ stage. A. fetal B. embryonic C. germinal D. terminal Answer: B. embryonic 28. At which stage of gestation is exposure of the fetus to alcohol the most damaging? A. Embryonic B. Germinal C. Fetal D. Terminal Answer: A. Embryonic 29. Melissa has had two miscarriages and is understandably anxious about her third pregnancy. She realizes that a miscarriage, or spontaneous abortion, is most likely to occur in which trimester of the pregnancy? A. First B. Second C. Third D. There is equal risk throughout all three trimesters. Answer: A. First 30. Miscarriages are most commonly caused by A. sudden movements or jolts. B. fear. C. stress. D. chromosomal abnormalities. Answer: D. chromosomal abnormalities. 31. Of the following, which is LEAST likely to be a cause of spontaneous abortion? A. Defective ovum or sperm B. Implantation of ovum in an unfavorable location C. Abnormal development of the umbilical cord D. A frightening event experienced by the mother Answer: D. A frightening event experienced by the mother 32. "Mourning a Miscarriage or Stillbirth" suggests which of the following? A. The way in which these situations are handled is culturally constructed. B. It is best not to talk about the incident. C. Typically, men and women grieve similarly following a miscarriage. D. None of the above is true. Answer: A. The way in which these situations are handled is culturally constructed. 33. One difference between the sexes during pregnancy is that A. more males are conceived than females. B. males develop more rapidly than females. C. females are more likely to have birth defects than males. D. female fetuses are more likely to be spontaneously aborted than male fetuses. Answer: A. more males are conceived than females. 34. Which of the following is true of spontaneous abortions and stillbirth? A. Males are less likely than females to be affected. B. Males are more likely than females to be affected. C. No difference exists between the rates of spontaneous abortion or stillbirth in males and females. D. The Y chromosome appears to carry protection against spontaneous abortion and stillbirth. Answer: B. Males are more likely than females to be affected. 35. The appearance of _____________ results in the transition from the embryonic to the fetal stage of prenatal development. A. toenails B. bone C. eyelids D. fingernails Answer: B. bone 36. The fetal stage of development is reached _____________ after conception. A. 1 week B. 2 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 6 months Answer: C. 8 weeks 37. Christie's baby is in the third and final stage of gestation. The major characteristic of this fetal stage of development is the: A. formation of the systems of the body. B. implantation of the organism in the uterine wall. C. growth and refinement of the organism's structures. D. differentiation of the ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. Answer: C. growth and refinement of the organism's structures. 38. Which prenatal stage of development lasts the longest? A. Germinal stage B. Fetal stage C. Embryonic stage D. Each stage lasts for the same amount of time—one trimester. Answer: B. Fetal stage 39. Tehra's obstetrician is using a medical procedure that employs high-frequency sound waves to detect the outline of the fetus and to observe its movements. This is called A. amniocentesis. B. chorionic villus sampling. C. an ultrasound. D. karyotyping. Answer: C. an ultrasound. 40. Which of the following statements regarding the fetal stage of development is FALSE? A. Fetuses may kick and suck their thumbs. B. A fetus grows about 20 times larger during this period. C. Boys develop more rapidly than girls during this stage. D. Learning and remembering are possible during this stage. Answer: C. Boys develop more rapidly than girls during this stage. 41. Which of the following statements regarding the fetal period of development is FALSE? A. Boys tend to be more active than girls. B. Boys move less vigorously than girls. C. Heart rates vary in regularity and speed. D. Fetuses who are more active during this period also tend to be more active after they are born. Answer: B. Boys move less vigorously than girls. 42. Research on fetal hearing indicates that fetuses A. cannot feel vibrations. B. can feel vibrations but cannot hear. C. can hear but cannot distinguish between different tones. D. can differentiate between different tones. Answer: D. can differentiate between different tones. 43. Which of the following behaviors has led researchers to conclude that fetuses develop preferences for the kinds of sounds they hear while in the womb? A. Newborns prefer male voices to females voices. B. Newborns prefer female voices to male voices. C. Newborns usually turn their head toward the sound of their mother's voice. D. Fetuses blink in response to sound. Answer: B. Newborns prefer female voices to male voices. 44. Environmental factors that may produce birth defects are called A. blastocysts. B. allergens. C. teratogens. D. toxinogens. Answer: C. teratogens. 45. In a healthy pregnancy, how many extra calories should a woman consume each day? A. 50-200 B. 300-500 C. 700-900 D. over 1,000 Answer: B. 300-500 46. Women who gain less than 15 pounds during pregnancy are A. more likely to have healthy babies. B. less likely to have late miscarriages. C. less likely to have complications. D. more likely to have low-birth-weight babies. Answer: D. more likely to have low-birth-weight babies. 47. A woman who becomes obese during pregnancy runs the risk of all the following pregnancy complications EXCEPT A. miscarriage. B. stillbirth. C. neonatal death. D. spina bifida. Answer: D. spina bifida. 48. Insufficient intake of folic acid during pregnancy increases the risk of having a baby with A. autism. B. leukemia. C. spina bifida. D. sudden infant death syndrome. Answer: C. spina bifida. 49. Doctors have found that increasing a woman's folic acid consumption by just 5 milligrams each day reduces the incidence of _____________ by 85 percent. A. cleft palate B. cerebral palsy C. Down syndrome D. neural tube defects Answer: D. neural tube defects 50. Priscilla, a former ballet dancer and stringent dieter, was warned that maternal malnourishment during pregnancy is related to all of the following EXCEPT A. miscarriage. B. length of gestation. C. stillbirth. D. low birth weight. Answer: B. length of gestation. 51. Which of the following statements about prenatal nourishment is FALSE? A. Proper nutrition during pregnancy is the most effective way to ensure healthy prenatal development. B. Giving malnourished mothers dietary supplements during pregnancy can increase their babies' alertness. C. Damage due to maternal malnutrition during pregnancy is irreversible. D. The effects of maternal malnutrition may be aggravated by a deprived family environment. Answer: C. Damage due to maternal malnutrition during pregnancy is irreversible. 52. Carl and Eleanor have been going for a morning run for the past three years. They are concerned about whether or not they can continue now that Eleanor is pregnant. Which of the following statements best describes the appropriate level of exercise for pregnant women? A. Pregnant women should exercise strenuously to promote circulation. B. Pregnant women need not take any precautions in exercising. C. Pregnant women should reduce their exercise during the second trimester. D. Pregnant women should exercise moderately throughout their pregnancy. Answer: D. Pregnant women should exercise moderately throughout their pregnancy. 53. Which of the following statements regarding physical activity during pregnancy is FALSE? A. Moderate exercise may make delivery easier. B. Moderate exercise may prevent constipation. C. Long working hours and excessive fatigue increase the risk of premature birth. D. Exercising to the point of exhaustion may produce permanent heart damage in the fetus. Answer: D. Exercising to the point of exhaustion may produce permanent heart damage in the fetus. 54. Drugs known to be potentially harmful when taken during pregnancy include A. synthetic estrogen. B. ibuprofen. C. Accutane, an acne medicine. D. all of the above. Answer: D. all of the above. 55. Drinking alcohol during pregnancy is associated with A. neural tube defects. B. fetal alcohol syndrome. C. Down syndrome. D. all of the above. Answer: B. fetal alcohol syndrome. 56. Suppose you are a health care worker who is examining a child with the following symptoms: facial and bodily malformations, short attention span, hyperactivity, and motor impairments. Which drug would you suspect that the child's mother used during pregnancy? A. Cocaine B. Marijuana C. Heroin D. Alcohol Answer: D. Alcohol 57. Mothers who drink alcohol should be made aware that fetal alcohol syndrome A. affects about 5 infants in 1,000 born in the United States. B. is a leading cause of mental retardation and birth defects. C. can cause cognitive disorders that subsequent environmental enrichment does not seem to improve. D. all of these. Answer: D. all of these. 58. How much alcohol can a pregnant woman safely consume? A. 1 drink a day B. 2 drinks a day C. 1 or 2 glasses of wine a day, but no "hard liquor" D. None of these; there is no known "safe" level of drinking during pregnancy. Answer: D. None of these; there is no known "safe" level of drinking during pregnancy. 59. Which of the following statements regarding fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is FALSE? A. About 1 infant in 100 suffers from FAS or other alcohol-related conditions. B. Hyperactivity is a common symptom in FAS children. C. Facial malformations often occur with FAS. D. An enriched environment can dramatically improve cognitive function in FAS children. Answer: D. An enriched environment can dramatically improve cognitive function in FAS children. 60. Children of mothers who smoked during their pregnancies are at a higher-than-normal risk for all of the following EXCEPT A. hyperactivity. B. face and limb malformations. C. social maladjustment. D. sudden infant death syndrome. Answer: B. face and limb malformations. 61. Doctors warn that smoking during pregnancy contributes to which of the following? A. Miscarriage B. Sudden infant death syndrome C. Low birth weight D. All of these are possible outcomes. Answer: D. All of these are possible outcomes. 62. Children born to women who smoke during pregnancy tend to show A. retardation of growth. B. social maladjustment. C. learning problems in school. D. all of the above. Answer: D. all of the above. 63. Which of the following may be associated with caffeine consumption during pregnancy? A. Leukemia B. Sudden infant death syndrome C. Hyperactivity D. Obesity Answer: B. Sudden infant death syndrome 64. Research has linked the use of marijuana during pregnancy with A. premature births. B. neurological disturbances in the infant. C. leukemia. D. all of the above. Answer: D. all of the above. 65. Research shows that the use of marijuana during pregnancy A. produces no detectable birth defects. B. is more harmful to a fetus than alcohol. C. may produce neurological disturbances. D. causes severe withdrawal in newborns. Answer: C. may produce neurological disturbances. 66. Rubella has the potential of damaging an unborn child during which period of pregnancy? A. First 11 weeks B. 13 to 16 weeks C. 18 to 22 weeks D. After 24 weeks Answer: A. First 11 weeks 67. Jane is 8 weeks pregnant and has just contracted rubella. If you were Jane's obstetrician, what information would you give her regarding the health of her unborn baby? A. The child will almost certainly be deaf. B. The child has a 1 in 3 chance of being born with Down syndrome. C. The child will likely be hyperactive. D. No serious effects will occur. Answer: A. The child will almost certainly be deaf. 68. Toxoplasmosis is A. a parasite harbored in livestock. B. a cause of fetal brain damage. C. a cause of death in babies. D. all of the above. Answer: D. all of the above. 69. Maternal stress and/or anxiety during pregnancy A. is normal at low levels. B. elevates the risk of intellectual disability. C. increases fetal activity. D. elevates the risk of cleft palate and heart malformations. Answer: A. is normal at low levels. 70. An example of a history-graded influence is the current increase in the age at which women become pregnant. This in turn increases the likelihood that these women will have A. inadequate prenatal care. B. miscarriages. C. low blood pressure during pregnancy. D. postmature infants. Answer: B. miscarriages. 71. Pregnant women over age 40 and pregnant adolescents are at increased risk for having A. offspring with chromosomal abnormalities. B. inadequate prenatal care. C. babies weighing more than 8 pounds. D. fraternal twins. Answer: A. offspring with chromosomal abnormalities. 72. Marcella, pregnant with her first child, works in a manufacturing plant that produces semiconductor chips. As a consequence of Marcella's exposure to heavy metals, A. her baby is more likely to have an Rh-factor incompatibility. B. her baby may have below average intelligence. C. she is more likely to have twins. D. she is at-risk for developing hypertension during pregnancy. Answer: B. her baby may have below average intelligence. 73. Prenatal exposure to radiation is most dangerous during A. fertilization. B. the germinal stage. C. 3 to 6 weeks of gestation. D. 8 to 15 weeks of gestation. Answer: D. 8 to 15 weeks of gestation. 74. Which of the following statements about the father's role in transmitting birth defects is correct? A. So far, little research has been conducted on the father's contribution. B. According to research, the father's role is virtually nonexistent; birth defects are almost always transmitted by the mother. C. Young age of the father is associated with certain rare conditions such as dwarfism and Marfan's syndrome, and it may be a factor in Down syndrome. D. Advanced age of the father at conception may be associated with fetal defects. Answer: D. Advanced age of the father at conception may be associated with fetal defects. 75. Studies suggest that the likelihood of genetic defects caused by abnormal sperm increases when the father is _____________ before conception. A. malnourished B. under great stress C. overweight D. exposed to environmental hazards Answer: D. exposed to environmental hazards 76. Which of the following disorders may be linked to advanced paternal age? A. Asthma B. Hemophilia C. Obsessive compulsive disorder D. Schizophrenia Answer: D. Schizophrenia 77. Which of the following is NOT an intrusive technique for detecting birth defects? A. Ultrasound B. Amniocentesis C. Umbilical cord assessment D. Chorionic villus sampling Answer: A. Ultrasound 78. If a mother wants to have a clear image of the fetus in her womb, which procedure would you recommend? A. Amniocentesis B. Ultrasound C. Fetal biopsy D. Chorionic villus sampling Answer: B. Ultrasound 79. In the United States, which of the following pregnant women is likely to get the least amount of prenatal care? A. Angela, an unmarried teenager B. Bea, a married woman C. Delia, who has a college education D. Sandra, who just turned 45 years of age Answer: A. Angela, an unmarried teenager 80. Because of the rapid weight gain experienced by Marilyn early in her pregnancy, the doctor ordered a(n) _____________ to see if she was having twins. A. chorionic villus sampling B. maternal blood test C. ultrasound D. amniocentesis Answer: C. ultrasound 81. In which of the following procedures is a sample of fluid taken from around the fetus and analyzed for possible defects? A. Amniocentesis B. Chorionic villus sampling C. Ultrasound D. Electronic fetal monitoring Answer: A. Amniocentesis 82. Corella is 37-years-old and pregnant. She has a brother who was born with Down syndrome. Which of the following tests will most likely be recommended during Corella's pregnancy? A. Ultrasound B. Embryoscope C. Umbilical cord sampling D. Amniocentesis Answer: D. Amniocentesis 83. In which prenatal assessment procedure is tissue taken from the membrane around the embryo? A. Chorionic villus sampling B. Amniocentesis C. Maternal blood test D. Ultrasound Answer: A. Chorionic villus sampling 84. A procedure that tests for birth defects during the first trimester of pregnancy is called A. amniocentesis. B. chorionic villus sampling. C. maternal blood test. D. all of these. Answer: D. all of these. 85. Amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, ultrasound, and umbilical cord assessment A. are risk-free. B. should be used routinely in every pregnancy. C. reduce the likelihood of cesarean delivery. D. provide valuable information in high-risk pregnancies. Answer: D. provide valuable information in high-risk pregnancies. 86. Which of the following statements is true of prenatal care? A. Experts believe that more emphasis should be placed on proper prenatal care even before women get pregnant. B. Prenatal care focuses primarily on screening for treatable defects and diseases. C. The United States has uniform national standards for prenatal care. D. Prenatal care is unnecessary for healthy women. Answer: A. Experts believe that more emphasis should be placed on proper prenatal care even before women get pregnant. Essay Questions 87. Outline the three stages of prenatal development, and explain the characteristics of each stage. Answer: Prenatal development occurs in three stages: 1. Germinal stage: This initial stage lasts about two weeks after conception, during which the fertilized egg (zygote) rapidly divides and forms a blastocyst, which implants into the uterine wall. 2. Embryonic stage: Lasting from week 3 to week 8, this stage is characterized by the development of major organs and basic body structures. The embryo's heart begins beating, and limb buds form. 3. Fetal stage: Beginning from week 9 until birth, this stage is marked by rapid growth and refinement of organs and systems. The fetus becomes capable of movement, and organs continue to develop and mature. 88. Severely defective embryos usually do not survive. During which trimester do most spontaneous abortions take place? Explain why this is a critical period for the risk of miscarriage. In your answer, include two factors that could contribute to a spontaneous abortion during this period. Answer: Most spontaneous abortions, or miscarriages, occur during the first trimester of pregnancy. This period is critical because it encompasses the initial stages of embryonic development when organ formation and differentiation are occurring rapidly. Factors contributing to spontaneous abortions include chromosomal abnormalities in the embryo, which can disrupt development, and maternal health conditions such as infections or hormonal imbalances that affect fetal growth and viability. 89. Some cognitive and physical abilities are developed by fetal learning. Provide some examples and indicate how researchers can monitor fetal learning. Answer: Fetal learning involves the ability of a fetus to perceive and respond to stimuli in the womb. Examples include recognition of the mother's voice, preference for certain tastes introduced through the amniotic fluid, and responses to external sounds such as music or familiar noises. Researchers monitor fetal learning through techniques like ultrasound imaging to observe fetal reactions to external stimuli, measuring changes in heart rate or movement in response to specific auditory or sensory inputs. 90. It is important that mothers understand the role that the environment plays in the development of the embryo/fetus. Define and give several examples of teratogens that have an adverse impact on the developing fetus. During which stage of prenatal development is the embryo/fetus most susceptive to teratogenic damage? Why? Answer: Teratogens are substances or factors that can disrupt normal prenatal development and cause birth defects. Examples include alcohol, tobacco smoke, certain medications (e.g., thalidomide), infections (e.g., rubella virus), and environmental pollutants (e.g., mercury). The embryo/fetus is most susceptible to teratogenic damage during the embryonic stage (weeks 3-8) because this period is marked by rapid cell differentiation and organ formation, making the developing structures particularly vulnerable to disruption by external influences. 91. Karen and Mark just discovered that they are going to have a baby. They want to give their baby the best possible start. Explain how environmental influences such as maternal nutrition, physical activity, and drug intake can have both positive and negative effects on prenatal development. Answer: Maternal nutrition plays a crucial role in providing essential nutrients for fetal growth and development, potentially leading to healthier outcomes. Adequate physical activity can enhance maternal health, reducing the risk of complications such as gestational diabetes. Conversely, poor nutrition or excessive drug intake (including prescription drugs, alcohol, or illicit substances) can negatively impact fetal development, increasing the risk of birth defects, developmental delays, and other health issues for the baby. 92. Define fetal alcohol syndrome. Describe the devastating effects that high concentrations of alcohol can have on the physical, intellectual, and psychosocial development of the fetus. Answer: Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a condition caused by prenatal exposure to high levels of alcohol, leading to severe developmental abnormalities. High concentrations of alcohol can result in physical effects such as facial abnormalities (e.g., small eye openings, thin upper lip), growth deficiencies, and organ damage. Intellectually, it can cause cognitive impairments, learning disabilities, and behavioral problems. Psychosocially, individuals with FAS may struggle with social skills, emotional regulation, and adaptive functioning throughout their lives. 93. Exposure to certain drugs during pregnancy can affect the developing fetus. Choose three drugs that are mentioned in your textbook, and explain how they may adversely affect the baby's development. Answer: Three drugs that can adversely affect fetal development include: 1. Thalidomide: Known for causing limb deformities (phocomelia) when taken during early pregnancy. 2. Accutane (Isotretinoin): Can lead to severe birth defects affecting the brain, face, heart, and thymus if taken during pregnancy. 3. Lithium: Used to treat bipolar disorder, it can cause cardiac defects, particularly if taken during the first trimester. These drugs highlight the importance of avoiding medication use without medical supervision during pregnancy to prevent potential harm to the developing fetus. 94. Doctors have several assessment techniques to help prospective parents monitor their pregnancy. Describe each of the following means of prenatal assessment, giving the advantages and disadvantages of each: ultrasound, amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, and maternal blood test. Answer: 1. Ultrasound: Uses sound waves to create images of the fetus and uterus. Advantages: Non-invasive, provides real-time visualization, and helps assess fetal growth and development. Disadvantages: Limited resolution for detailed anatomical assessment. 2. Amniocentesis: Involves sampling of amniotic fluid to analyze fetal cells for genetic abnormalities. Advantages: Can diagnose chromosomal disorders and neural tube defects accurately. Disadvantages: Invasive procedure with a small risk of miscarriage. 3. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS): Involves sampling placental tissue to test for genetic disorders. Advantages: Can be performed earlier than amniocentesis (around 10-12 weeks). Disadvantages: Invasive, with a slightly higher risk of miscarriage compared to amniocentesis. 4. Maternal blood test (e.g., cell-free DNA testing): Analyzes fetal DNA in maternal blood to detect genetic disorders. Advantages: Non-invasive, can detect chromosomal abnormalities with high accuracy. Disadvantages: Limited to specific genetic conditions and may require confirmation with invasive testing. 95. Experts maintain that high-quality prenatal care is essential and that the earlier in the pregnancy it is obtained the better. Based on the research described in your textbook, provide some information that supports this statement. What are some of the disparities in prenatal care? How might these be address by public health workers and the medical profession? Answer: Research consistently shows that early and regular prenatal care reduces the risk of complications for both mother and baby. Women who receive timely prenatal care are more likely to receive necessary screenings, nutritional guidance, and interventions to manage health conditions. Disparities in prenatal care access often affect marginalized populations, including racial and ethnic minorities, low-income individuals, and those in rural areas. Addressing these disparities requires efforts such as improving access to healthcare facilities, providing culturally competent care, and implementing public health initiatives to educate and support at-risk communities. 96. The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) has recommended that women receive preconception care. If you were to design a national program to educate women on what preconception care is and why they should have it, what kinds of information would you include? How would you ensure that you target lower-SES groups? Answer: A national preconception care program should educate women on the importance of preparing for pregnancy to optimize maternal and fetal health. Information should include the benefits of healthy diet and exercise, avoiding harmful substances like alcohol and tobacco, managing chronic conditions, and taking prenatal vitamins. Targeting lower-SES groups could involve outreach through community health centers, offering free or low-cost workshops, providing multilingual materials, and partnering with local organizations to ensure accessibility and cultural relevance. True/False Questions 97. Only 10-20 percent of fertilized ova become implanted in the uterine wall and continue to develop. Answer: True 98. The reason babies have short stubby arms and legs but by middle childhood have developed long limbs is due to the cephalocaudal principal. Answer: False 99. Fine motor skills come after gross motor skills because of the proximodistal principle. Answer: True 100. The first stage of prenatal development is the embryonic stage. Answer: False 101. The rapid division and duplication of cells after fertilization is called mitosis. Answer: False 102. The second stage of prenatal development is the embryonic stage. Answer: True 103. Organogenesis is the process during which the organs and major body parts develop rapidly. Answer: True 104. Most researchers believe that violent passions, such as grief or anger, as well as violent movements, such as horseback riding, can bring on miscarriages. Answer: False 105. From a developmental perspective, male fetuses are considered more fragile than female fetuses. Answer: True 106. Prenatal development occurs in the following order: zygotic, embryonic, and fetal. Answer: False 107. Male fetuses are more active then female fetuses. Answer: True 108. Babies whose mothers drink large amounts of carrot juice in the last trimester are more likely to like carrots. Answer: True 109. A teratogen exclusively refers to drugs, alcohol, and radiation. Answer: False 110. Recent research by the CDC has found that women who were overweight or obese prior to pregnancy are more likely to have babies with certain types of heart defects. Answer: True 111. Fetuses that are undernourished are more likely to develop schizophrenia. Answer: True 112. Moderate alcohol consumption during pregnancy is considered safe. Answer: False 113. If a mother has HIV, she is guaranteed to transmit it to her baby. Answer: False 114. An amniocentesis samples the placenta to determine chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders. Answer: False 115. Rates of low birth weight and premature birth continue to rise despite policies in prenatal care in the United States. Answer: True 116. Risk screening, vaccinations, and counseling are all recommended before women think about getting pregnant as part of preconception care. Answer: True Test Bank for A Child's World: Infancy Through Adolescence Diane E. Papalia, Gabriela Martorell, Ruth Duskin Feldman 9780078035432
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