Chapter 09 Development Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following primarily studies the patterns of growth and change that occur throughout life? A. Oncology B. Developmental psychology C. Cytology D. Parapsychology Answer: B. Developmental psychology 2. Laura and Celia are identical twins. They were adopted at birth by different families and raised in different environments. However, there are a lot of behavioral similarities between them. In the context of developmental psychology, which of the following best explains this phenomenon? A. Their similarities reflect the influence of nature on development. B. Their similarities are a result of differences in nurture. C. Their similarities reflect the opposition that nurture poses to nature. D. Their similarities prove that they were not affected by their genetic makeup. Answer: A. Their similarities reflect the influence of nature on development. 3. A researcher raises a sample of unrelated macaque monkeys in identical laboratory environments. He finds large differences among these monkeys in their preference for novel visual stimuli. What might the researcher legitimately conclude concerning the relative contributions of nature and nurture to the preference for visual novelty? A. Nurture has a major influence on the monkeys' preference for visual novelty. B. Nature contributes substantially to the monkeys' preference for visual novelty. C. Both nature and nurture have equal influence on the monkeys’ preference for visual novelty. D. Neither nature nor nurture has the ability to regulate the monkeys’ preference for visual novelty. Answer: B. Nature contributes substantially to the monkeys' preference for visual novelty. 4. Dr. Agnew remarks that cross-culturally, rites of passage may be more common for young males than for young females because males have higher status than do females in most cultures. Dr. Blaine counters by suggesting that rites of passage may be more common for young males than for young females because, unlike females, males do not experience the onset of menstruation, a well-defined event marking the end of childhood. Which of the following option characterizes the views of professors on the issue of nature vs nurture? A. Both take a "nature" position. B. Both take a "nurture" position. C. Dr. Agnew takes a "nature" position; Dr. Blaine, a "nurture" position. D. Dr. Agnew takes a "nurture" position; Dr. Blaine, a "nature" position. Answer: D. Dr. Agnew takes a "nurture" position; Dr. Blaine, a "nature" position. 5. Which of the following is TRUE of cross-sectional research? A. It traces the behavior of one or more participants as the participants’ age. B. It does not provide information about differences in development between different age groups. C. It compares people of different ages at the same point in time. D. It assesses change in behavior over time. Answer: C. It compares people of different ages at the same point in time. 6. Max is a graduate student who wants to find a relation between identity formation and the influence of the environment. For this purpose, he interviews a group of 5-year-olds, a group of 10-year-olds, and a group of 15-year-olds, and asks them what they plan to be when they finish school. In this example, Mark is using a _____________ research method. A. longitudinal B. cross-sectional C. single case experimental D. sequential Answer: B. cross-sectional 7. Dr. Edward is testing the same individuals repeatedly over time as part of a research study, while Dr. Janice is comparing the performance of different people of various ages at the same time. Dr. Edward is using a _____________ research method; Dr. Janice is using a _____________ method. A. cross-sectional; longitudinal B. longitudinal; cross-sectional C. sequential; simultaneous D. sequential; cross-sectional Answer: B. longitudinal; cross-sectional 8. Cross-sectional research techniques provide information about age _____________ in development between different age groups. Longitudinal research techniques provide information concerning _____________ in behavior over time. A. changes; age differences B. changes; age changes C. differences; age differences D. differences; changes Answer: D. differences; changes 9. Which of the following is TRUE about longitudinal research? A. It combines cross-sectional and sequential research. B. It traces the behavior of one or more participants as the participants get older. C. It assesses differences among groups of people at one point of time. D. It is not as time consuming as cross-sectional research. Answer: B. It traces the behavior of one or more participants as the participants get older. 10. Dona is a graduate student investigating the development of fine motor skills. She selects a group of children and assesses their fine motor skills every six months over a two-year period. In this example, Dona is using a _____________ research method. A. cross-sectional B. transversal C. longitudinal D. single case experimental Answer: C. longitudinal 11. Which technique of developmental researchers requires a significant expenditure of time as the researcher waits for the participants to get older? A. Longitudinal research B. Cross-sectional research C. Empirical research D. Applied research Answer: A. Longitudinal research 12. Maria is studying the effects of calcium on the development of children. So, she administers varying levels of calcium to two groups of children, one group consisting of children aged five and the other group consisting of children aged ten. She studies the growth rate of these two groups regularly over a period of one year. On the basis of the given evidence, it would be most accurate to say that Maria is using the _____________ research. A. cross-sectional B. factorial C. longitudinal D. single case experimental Answer: C. longitudinal 13. Which of the following statements correctly identifies an advantage or a disadvantage of developmental research methods? A. Longitudinal studies indicate changes in behavior over time. B. Sequential studies are quite inexpensive. C. Cross-sectional studies consider a number of different age groups and examine them at several points in time. D. Cross-sectional studies require a greater time investment. Answer: A. Longitudinal studies indicate changes in behavior over time. 14. Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with longitudinal research? A. It cannot deal with the problem of a cohort group. B. It is time consuming. C. It cannot assess change in behavior over time. D. It cannot trace the behavior of more than two participants at a time. Answer: B. It is time consuming. 15. The difference between cross-sectional research methods and longitudinal research methods is that: A. Longitudinal studies assess change in behavior over time, whereas cross-sectional studies assess differences among groups of people. B. Cross-sectional studies are more time consuming as compared to longitudinal studies. C. Longitudinal research methods do not allow the comparison of more than two participants, while cross-sectional research methods allow for more comparisons. D. Cross-sectional research is a combination of longitudinal research and sequential research. Answer: A. Longitudinal studies assess change in behavior over time, whereas cross-sectional studies assess differences among groups of people. 16. Which of the following describes a risk associated with cross-sectional research on IQ? A. In a cross-sectional study that compares IQ scores, the difference in IQ scores of 25-year-olds and 45-year-olds is due to differences in educational attainment. B. In a cross-sectional study that compares IQ scores, the difference in IQ scores of 25-year-olds and 45-year-olds is due to the 45-year-olds having taken the same test at several points in time. C. In a cross-sectional study, the participants may move or die before the study has been completed. D. In a cross-sectional study, the researchers incur significant expenditure of time as he or she waits for the participants to get older. Answer: A. In a cross-sectional study that compares IQ scores, the difference in IQ scores of 25-year-olds and 45-year-olds is due to differences in educational attainment. 17. _____________ are rod-shaped structures that contain all basic hereditary information. A. Spleens B. Chromosomes C. Serotonins D. Norepinephrines Answer: B. Chromosomes 18. A normal fertilized egg, or zygote, contains _____________ pairs of chromosomes. A. 46 B. 21 C. 23 D. 2 Answer: C. 23 19. Arrange the following genetic materials in increasing order of their size based on the way they occur naturally. A. DNA, gene, and chromosome B. DNA, chromosome, and gene C. Gene, DNA, and chromosome D. Gene, chromosome, and DNA Answer: D. Gene, chromosome, and DNA 20. One baby receives an X chromosome from its mother and an X chromosome from its father; it will develop as a _____________. A second baby receives an X chromosome from its mother and a Y chromosome from its father; it will develop as a _____________. A. male; female B. female; male C. male or a female; male or a female D. female; female Answer: B. female; male 21. Which of the following chromosomal combination is present in a typical female child? A. XX B. XY C. YY D. XXY Answer: A. XX 22. Which of the following chromosomal combination is present in a typical male child? A. XX B. XY C. YY D. XXY Answer: B. XY 23. Scientists were able to map the human genome in the year: A. 1986. B. 1991. C. 1996. D. 2001. Answer: D. 2001. 24. The first two weeks of a pregnancy, from conception to implantation, are known as the _____________ period. A. embryonic B. germinal C. fetal D. critical Answer: B. germinal 25. The one-celled entity formed by the union of an egg and sperm is called a: A. cyst. B. fetus. C. zygote. D. neonate. Answer: C. zygote. 26. Two weeks after conception, the developing fertilized egg is called a(n) _____________. A. embryo B. fetus C. zygote D. neonate Answer: A. embryo 27. In the _____________ stage of development, the developing individual is less than an inch long and has developed a rudimentary beating heart, a brain, an intestinal tract, and a number of other organs that are at a primitive stage of development. A. embryonic B. fetal C. germinal D. neonatal Answer: A. embryonic 28. Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order of the stages of prenatal development? A. Germinal, embryonic, and fetal B. Fetal, embryonic, and germinal C. Germinal, fetal, and embryonic D. Fetal, germinal, and embryonic Answer: A. Germinal, embryonic, and fetal 29. The longest part of a pregnancy, from the 8th week through to birth, is the _____________ period. A. germinal B. embryonic C. zygotic D. fetal Answer: D. fetal 30. From eight weeks after conception, until birth, the developing fertilized egg is called a(n): A. fetus. B. embryo. C. zygote. D. neonate. Answer: A. fetus. 31. Which of the following stages of development that a baby goes through is correctly matched with a description or milestone? A. In germinal stage, the organism grows from one cell to hundreds of cells. B. In perinatal stage, the first cell is formed by the union of an egg and sperm. C. In embryonic stage, facial features become similar to those that the child will display at birth. D. In fetal stage, the fertilization of the egg takes place. Answer: A. In germinal stage, the organism grows from one cell to hundreds of cells. 32. The developing fetus reaches the age of viability _____________ weeks after conception, during the _____________ period. A. 22; embryonic B. 22; fetal C. 28; embryonic D. 28; fetal Answer: B. 22; fetal 33. Which of the following is most likely to be true of sensitive or critical periods in development? A. Sensitive or critical periods in development can occur only before birth. B. Sensitive or critical periods in development can occur only after birth. C. Sensitive or critical periods in development can occur either before or after birth. D. Sensitive or critical periods in development can occur only during puberty. Answer: C. Sensitive or critical periods in development can occur either before or after birth. 34. An infant is considered preterm if it is born before week _____________. A. 22 B. 28 C. 36 D. 38 Answer: D. 38 35. Which genetic or chromosomal abnormality below is correctly matched with its description? A. In phenylketonuria the child is unable to produce a critical enzyme, which results in an accumulation of poisons, and in turn causes mental retardation. B. In Tay-Sachs disease, the body starts producing abnormally shaped red blood cells. C. In Down syndrome, the brain tissues of the cortex degenerate, resulting in the death of the child. D. In Sickle-cell anemia, the child receives an extra chromosome resulting in mental retardation. Answer: A. In phenylketonuria the child is unable to produce a critical enzyme, which results in an accumulation of poisons, and in turn causes mental retardation. 36. Two-year-old Zack has an inherited disorder in which his body cannot break down fat. He will probably die by the time he is four. Which of the following diseases is Zack most likely suffering from? A. Phenylketonuria B. Sickle-cell anemia C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Down syndrome Answer: C. Tay-Sachs disease 37. Clarissa's mother was 38 years old when she gave birth to her. Clarissa suffers from an intellectual disability and doctors have diagnosed that her condition was due to the extra chromosome that she had received at the time of conception. Identify the condition afflicting Clarissa. A. Phenylketonuria B. Sickle-cell anemia C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Down syndrome Answer: D. Down syndrome 38. A teratogen is: A. an environmental agent that can produce a birth defect. B. a genetic or chromosomal abnormality that may produce a developmental disorder. C. any physical defect in an unborn child. D. a fertilized egg that undergoes rapid cell division. Answer: A. an environmental agent that can produce a birth defect. 39. Barney's mother gave birth to him when she was 25 years old. She drank heavily during her pregnancy. As a result, Barney is short. He also has learning disorders and displays some facial abnormalities. Which of the following condition is Barney most likely suffering from? A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Phenylketonuria C. Down syndrome. D. Fetal alcohol syndrome Answer: D. Fetal alcohol syndrome 40. Dennis's mother had consumed a substantial amount of alcohol during her pregnancy; Dennis's intelligence is below normal, his growth is slowed, and his facial features are slightly deformed. Ellis's mother had also consumed a small amount of alcohol, and Ellis shows some, but not all, of the problems Dennis displays. Dennis suffers from _____________; Ellis suffers from _____________. A. fetal alcohol effects; fetal alcohol syndrome B. fetal alcohol effects; fetal alcohol effects as well C. fetal alcohol syndrome; fetal alcohol effects D. fetal alcohol syndrome; fetal alcohol syndrome as well Answer: C. fetal alcohol syndrome; fetal alcohol effects 41. Baby Lisa automatically turns her head in the direction of a touch on the cheek. This is the _____________ reflex. A. gag B. rooting C. sucking D. Babinski Answer: B. rooting 42. A _____________ reflex prompts babies to clear their throat. A. rooting B. startle C. Babinski D. gag Answer: D. gag 43. Which infant reflex is correctly matched with its description? A. In Babinski reflex, an infant's toes fan out when the edge of the sole of the foot is stroked. B. In sucking reflex, an infant turns its head toward something touching its cheek. C. In startle reflex, an infant bites on things that touch its lips. D. In rooting reflex, an infant flings out the arms and arches its back in response to a sudden noise. Answer: A. In Babinski reflex, an infant's toes fan out when the edge of the sole of the foot is stroked. 44. As psychologists use the term, habituation means: A. signs of recognition that infants exhibit on seeing familiar faces and things. B. the repulsiveness toward certain things that children develop early in life depending on their environment. C. the reaction that neonates exhibit when there is a disturbance in their environment. D. decrease in the response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same stimulus. Answer: D. decrease in the response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same stimulus. 45. _____________ is the positive emotional bond that develops between a child and a particular individual. A. Habituation B. Attachment C. Polymorphism D. Maturation Answer: B. Attachment 46. Animal ethologist _____________ conducted classic studies of imprinting among newborn goslings. A. Lawrence Kohlberg B. Lev Vygotsky C. Konrad Lorenz D. Harry Harlow Answer: C. Konrad Lorenz 47. Harry Harlow completed a number of studies in which baby rhesus monkeys were raised with two artificial mothers. One of the mothers was made of wire and delivered food; the other was made of cloth and provided no food. Harlow found that when the infant monkeys were startled or frightened, they: A. preferred the wire surrogate that provided food. B. avoided both surrogates and huddled in a corner. C. preferred the cloth surrogate that did not provide food. D. showed no clear preference and ran to whichever surrogate was closer. Answer: C. preferred the cloth surrogate that did not provide food. 48. Based on Harlow's research with monkeys, identify which of the following would prove to be most effective in comforting a frightened infant or child? A. Leaving the child alone B. Offering the child something good to eat C. Talking to the child from a distance D. Touching or holding the child Answer: D. Touching or holding the child 49. The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____________; it helps classify the attachment behavior of _____________. A. Harlow; newborns B. Bandura; toddlers C. Ainsworth; toddlers D. Chomsky; newborns Answer: C. Ainsworth; toddlers 50. In the context of the experiments conducted by Mary Ainsworth, the _____________ attachment style describes an infant who exhibits distress at his mother's departure in the strange situation, but who is easily soothed on her return. A. secure B. avoidant C. ambivalent D. disorganized Answer: A. secure 51. At twelve months of age, Jordan is classified as a securely attached child by his pediatrician on the basis of the criteria set by Mary Ainsworth. Which of the following behaviors in the strange situation would be most consistent with this classification? A. Jordan is moderately distressed when his mother leaves him alone and is pleased when she returns. B. Jordan is unconcerned when his mother leaves and is uninterested when she returns. C. Jordan is very upset when his mother leaves and seems both relieved and angry when she returns. D. Jordan is very upset when his mother leaves, and he ignores her when she returns. Answer: A. Jordan is moderately distressed when his mother leaves him alone and is pleased when she returns. 52. Eliza takes her 1-year-old son, Danny, to visit an infant-toddler program in which she hopes to enroll him. Danny eagerly explores the room as long as Eliza is present. When Eliza leaves the room to fill out some forms, Danny becomes somewhat upset. When she returns, though, he quickly calms down. In the context of the findings of Mary Ainsworth, which of the following terms best describes Danny's attachment style? A. Disorganized B. Ambivalent C. Secure D. Avoidant Answer: C. Secure 53. According to Mary Ainsworth, when a child with avoidant attachment style is exposed to the strange situation experiment, he/she will: A. continue to show signs of distress when the mother returns after a brief absence. B. refuse to play and explore new settings when the mother is not present. C. show no concern when the mother leaves the room. D. exhibit inconsistent and contradictory behavior toward the mother when she returns. Answer: C. show no concern when the mother leaves the room. 54. Rebecca takes her 1-year-old son, Adam, to visit an infant-toddler program in which she hopes to enroll him. Adam appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore and play with the toys, even though Rebecca is close by. When Rebecca leaves the room to fill out some forms, Adam becomes extremely upset and remains inconsolable. When Rebecca returns, Adam stays close to her, holding onto her leg. However, Adam makes it very clear he does not want her to touch him or pick him up. In fact, he starts kicking and hitting her. In the context of the findings of Mary Ainsworth, which term best describes Adam's attachment style? A. Patriarchal B. Ambivalent C. Avoidant D. Secure Answer: B. Ambivalent 55. Compared to ambivalent or avoidant children, children who are securely attached during infancy: A. are less socially and emotionally competent during childhood. B. are less likely to have psychological problems later in life. C. tend to have lesser successful romantic relationships in adulthood. D. are more likely to suffer from mood disorders during their adolescence. Answer: B. are less likely to have psychological problems later in life. 56. Which of the following figures best approximates the percentage of families in which the father stays home to care for preschool children? A. 2 B. 7 C. 13 D. 25 Answer: C. 13 57. While investigating the influence of culture on children's play, it was observed that: A. Korean-American children were free of the influence of culture. B. nature had no influence on Anglo-American children. C. Anglo-American children were more likely to be influenced by nurture as compared to Korean-American children. D. Korean-American children engage in proportionately less "pretend" play than do Anglo-American children. Answer: D. Korean-American children engage in proportionately less "pretend" play than do Anglo-American children. 58. For children from poor, disadvantaged homes, high-quality out-of-home child care is associated with: A. genetic diseases. B. long-term intellectual gains. C. genetic mutations. D. intellectual decline. Answer: B. long-term intellectual gains. 59. The study of attachment style is associated with _____________ and the study of parenting style is associated with _____________. A. Baumrind; Ainsworth B. Ainsworth; Baumrind C. Erikson; Baumrind D. Ainsworth; Erikson Answer: B. Ainsworth; Baumrind 60. Joan's mom and dad believe that parents know best. They expect Joan to obey all parental rules without uttering a word, and they are quick to impose stern punishments if she does not comply. In Baumrind's terms, Joan's parents are: A. authoritarian. B. permissive. C. authoritative. D. uninvolved. Answer: A. authoritarian. 61. Hailey's parents demand that she follow their instructions without asking any question. Isabella's parents are firm as well, but are more likely to reason with her and explain the consequences of her behavior. In Baumrind's terms, Hailey's parents are _____________; Isabella's are _____________. A. authoritarian; authoritative B. authoritative; authoritarian C. permissive; authoritarian D. authoritative; permissive Answer: A. authoritarian; authoritative 62. Maura and Trish are eighth graders who have been caught smoking. Maura's parents yell at her and refuse to let her explain things. They ground her for a month and take away her television and Internet privileges for two months. Trish's parents talk to her about their disappointment and concern; additionally, they make her spend every afternoon for a week at the library, researching the dangers of smoking and discussing her findings with them each night at dinner. Most likely, Maura's parents are _____________ and Trish's are _____________. A. permissive; authoritative B. authoritarian; permissive C. authoritarian; permissive D. authoritarian; authoritative Answer: B. authoritarian; permissive, C. authoritarian; permissive 63. Walter's parents strongly believe that Walter should make his own decisions, so they set very few rules regarding homework, bedtime, and household chores. Since they believe that freedom and responsibility are important, they patiently tolerate all of Walter's behavior, whether childish or mature. The parenting style adopted by Walter's parents is called: A. authoritarian. B. permissive. C. authoritative. D. uninvolved. Answer: B. permissive. 64. Which of the following constructs primarily reflects that "nature" is more influential than "nurture"? A. Attachment style B. Temperament C. Choice of mother tongue D. Choice of friends Answer: B. Temperament 65. Bonnie is three months old. Her parents are inconsistent in attending to her needs. Sometimes they are very attentive, feeding her promptly when she cries and comforting her when she seems upset. At other times, Bonnie cries for a long time before her parents attend to her. Based on Erikson's theory, it is likely that Bonnie will develop: A. a general sense of mistrust. B. a sense of superiority. C. an inflated id. D. memory impairment. Answer: A. a general sense of mistrust. 66. According to Erikson, the first stage of a child's psychosocial development is the _____________ stage. A. trust-versus-mistrust B. id-versus-ego C. autonomy-versus-shame-and-doubt D. intimacy-versus-isolation Answer: A. trust-versus-mistrust 67. Elizabeth is 5 years old, and she likes to help her mother in preparing supper. However, at the end of the day, her mother often loses her temper easily, and ends up scolding Elizabeth. She tells Elizabeth to stay out of the kitchen as rather than helping her, she makes more of a mess. Based on Erikson's theory, Elizabeth is most likely to develop: A. a strong sense of independence. B. feelings of guilt. C. feelings of superiority. D. a sense of jealousy. Answer: B. feelings of guilt. 68. Derwood is 8 years old and he likes to do art projects at school. However, the projects he has completed so far have not received good grades, and in several instances his friends have made fun of his work. Based on Erikson's theory, Derwood is most likely to develop: A. feelings of inferiority. B. a sense of pride. C. a sense of stagnation. D. a sense of independence. Answer: A. feelings of inferiority. 69. Which of the following accurately reflects a positive aspect of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development? A. Erikson focused equally on the development of both males and females. B. The well-established accuracy of the concepts used by Erikson is a strong point of his theory. C. Erikson's theory confirmed that nature has a greater influence than nurture on the development of an individual. D. Erikson's theory encompassed the entire life span of an individual. Answer: D. Erikson's theory encompassed the entire life span of an individual. 70. Which of the following Swiss scholars had suggested in the 1970s that children around the world proceed through a series of four stages in a fixed order? A. Piaget B. Freud C. Bandura D. Pavlov Answer: A. Piaget 71. Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order of Piaget's stages of cognitive development, from birth through adolescence? A. Sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, and formal operational B. Preoperational, concrete operational, preoperational, and formal operational C. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational D. Nonoperational, preoperational, operational, and postoperational Answer: C. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational 72. Which age range below is incorrectly labeled with its Piagetian stage? A. 0–2 years; sensorimotor stage B. 2–7 years; preoperational stage C. 7–12 years; concrete operational stage D. 12 years–adulthood; postoperational stage Answer: D. 12 years–adulthood; postoperational stage 73. Dawn is a week old. Ellis is 6 years of age. Fritzi is 9 years of age. Girard is 15 years of age. In the context of the stages of development suggested by Piaget, which of the following pairs is correctly matched? A. Dawn–sensorimotor B. Ellis–concrete operational C. Fritzi–formal operational D. Girard–postoperational Answer: A. Dawn–sensorimotor 74. During the sensorimotor period, A. children begin to understand reversibility. B. understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities. C. mental operations are tied to actual objects in the real world. D. individuals can consider hypothetical outcomes and make logical deductions. Answer: B. understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities. 75. According to Piaget, when an infant recognizes that objects continue to exist even when they are no longer in sight, the infant has understood the principle of: A. object permanence. B. conservation. C. formal operations. D. reversibility. Answer: A. object permanence. 76. To stop baby Rudy fussing for a sharp knife on the kitchen table, Rudy's mother put it in her apron pocket. "Out of sight, out of mind," she said, and it worked. Rudy's mother has capitalized on his lack of the concept of: A. conservation. B. egocentrism. C. object permanence. D. reversibility. Answer: C. object permanence. 77. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the degree of cognitive sophistication among children in Piaget's preoperational stage of development? A. They do not understand that objects exist even when they are not visible. B. They can describe people, events, and feelings. C. They master the principle of conservation. D. They are capable of abstract, hypothetical thought. Answer: B. They can describe people, events, and feelings. 78. A child demonstrates that she understands the idea of object permanence and egocentrism but fails to understand the concept of conservation. In the context of the Piagetian stages, she is most likely in the _____________ stage. A. preoperational B. concrete operational C. sensorimotor D. formal operational Answer: A. preoperational 79. According to Piaget, mastery of the principle of conservation marks the beginning of the _____________ stage of development. A. sensorimotor B. concrete operational C. formal operational D. preoperational Answer: B. concrete operational 80. Mrs. Weston asks Colin if he wants his sandwich in one piece, or cut into two pieces. Colin tells her to keep it in one piece because he isn't hungry enough to eat two pieces. In the context of Piaget's theory, Colin's answer suggests that he does not: A. understand the concept of object permanence. B. know how to add. C. understand the concept of conservation. D. have an egocentric view. Answer: C. understand the concept of conservation. 81. Jay complains to his father that he wants more juice. His father takes the juice Jay has in his glass and pours it into a taller but narrower glass. Jay is now content that he has more juice. Jay has failed to grasp the concept of: A. object permanence. B. egocentrism. C. hypo-deductive reasoning. D. conservation. Answer: D. conservation. 82. Edward is 8 years of age and is currently in the second grade. In the context of the theory propagated by Piaget, Edward is in the _____________ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. concrete operational D. formal operational Answer: C. concrete operational 83. Some Western legal systems denote either 7 or 8 as the age at which a child attains reason. Is such a designation defensible from a Piagetian standpoint? A. Yes. Children do acquire some basic reasoning skills during the concrete operational period. B. Yes. Children become capable of abstract, hypothetical reasoning during the concrete operational period. C. No. Children are unable to reason prior to the formal operational period. D. No. Children can reason much earlier than this, during the preoperational period. Answer: A. Yes. Children do acquire some basic reasoning skills during the concrete operational period. 84. In most elementary school curriculum, mathematical variables first appear in the sixth grade. In the context of Piaget's theory, which of the following best supports this trend? A. Children in the concrete operational stage cannot reason with hypothetical entities such as variables. B. According to Piaget, children in the concrete operational stage are too egocentric. C. Children are incapable of understanding the idea of reversibility until the beginning of the formal operational period. D. Dealing with variables requires mastering the principle of conservation, which does not usually appear until adolescence. Answer: A. Children in the concrete operational stage cannot reason with hypothetical entities such as variables. 85. Preschoolers can hold only two or three chunks of information in short-term memory, 5-year-olds can hold four, and 7-year-olds can hold _____________. A. five B. eight C. seven D. ten Answer: A. five 86. Two children are participating in a memory research: Heather, a preschooler, and Illeana, a sixth-grader. When the children fail a recall task, the researcher asks each child what she might do to succeed at the task the next time. Heather suggests that she would simply try again; Illeana proposes that she might try to write the items down. The difference in the girls' responses most clearly illustrates an increase in _____________ during childhood. A. memory capacity B. metacognitive ability C. operational thinking D. proximal development Answer: B. metacognitive ability 87. As compared to Piaget, Vygotsky placed _____________ emphasis on the _____________ bases of cognitive development. A. less; social B. less; linguistic C. more; social D. more; perceptual Answer: C. more; social 88. Twelve-year-old Nathaniel was facing trouble solving the word problems in his math homework. However, when his dad helped him by reading the problems aloud and emphasizing the important information, Nathaniel could solve all the problems correctly. Which of the following concepts is being illustrated in this scenario? A. Piaget's concept of conservation B. Erikson's concept of industry versus inferiority C. Piaget's concept of concrete operational thought D. Vygotsky's concept of the zone of proximal development Answer: D. Vygotsky's concept of the zone of proximal development 89. Girls typically experience the adolescent growth spurt _____________ than do boys. A. 6 months earlier B. 2 years earlier C. 6 months later D. 2 years later Answer: B. 2 years earlier 90. _____________ is the period at which maturation of the sexual organs occurs, beginning at about age 11 or 12 for girls and 13 or 14 for boys. A. Puberty B. Amenorrhea C. Menopause D. Sensorimotor stage Answer: A. Puberty 91. During the Vietnam War, Michael moved from the United States to Canada to avoid the draft. He didn't want to go to war because he was afraid he might be killed or seriously injured. Michael's reasons for not going to war reflect the _____________ stage of moral reasoning established by Kohlberg. A. conventional B. preconventional C. postconventional D. ambivalent Answer: B. preconventional 92. Jack registered as a conscientious objector during the Vietnam War. He believes that it is wrong to take human life. He is willing to serve time in jail, rather than take part in an armed conflict. Jack's reasons for not going to war reflect the _____________ stage of moral reasoning established by Kohlberg. A. preconventional B. conventional C. postconventional D. postoperational Answer: C. postconventional 93. The primary criticism of Kohlberg's theory of moral development is: A. its potential lack of generality across cultures. B. its focus on moral behavior rather than moral reasoning. C. that it pertains to moral behavior rather than moral judgments. D. it defines moral behavior largely in terms of concrete principles. Answer: A. its potential lack of generality across cultures. 94. According to Erikson, adolescents are primarily engaged in resolving the psychosocial crisis of: A. trust versus mistrust. B. intimacy versus isolation. C. generativity versus stagnation. D. identity versus role confusion. Answer: D. identity versus role confusion. 95. Jacques is 13 years old. On Monday, Jacques announces to his parents that he wants to be called "Jack." On Wednesday, he says he wants to drop out of school. On Friday, he says he wants to get a tattoo and become an architect. In Erikson's terms, Jacques is most likely experiencing the _____________ crisis. A. initiative-versus-guilt B. autonomy-versus-shame-and-doubt C. identity-versus-role-confusion D. generativity-versus-stagnation Answer: C. identity-versus-role-confusion 96. According to Erikson, the psychosocial crisis of intimacy-versus-isolation occurs: A. during the first year of life. B. between the ages of 3 and 6. C. during the early adult years. D. during adolescence. Answer: C. during the early adult years. 97. According to Erikson, people enter the generativity-versus-stagnation stage during _____________. A. adolescence B. childhood C. middle adulthood D. old age Answer: C. middle adulthood 98. Yolanda is 24; Zachary is 44; and Andrew is 73. Assume that each successfully completes the identity crisis associated with his or her current Eriksonian stage. Which of the following alternatives matches each individual with the correct developmental outcome? A. Yolanda: intimacy; Zachary: generativity; and Andrew: wisdom B. Yolanda: wisdom; Zachary: intimacy; and Andrew: generativity C. Yolanda: intimacy; Zachary: wisdom; and Andrew: generativity D. Yolanda: generativity; Zachary: intimacy; and Andrew: wisdom Answer: A. Yolanda: intimacy; Zachary: generativity; and Andrew: wisdom 99. Which of the following statements reflects a genuine contribution of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development? A. He recognized that psychosocial development is essentially a lifelong process. B. He recognized that psychosocial development is dependent on nature and not on nurture. C. He recognized that psychosocial development is usually complete by early childhood. D. He recognized that psychosocial development is usually complete by early adolescence. Answer: A. He recognized that psychosocial development is essentially a lifelong process. 100. Denise is in her mid-40s; she is not married and is childless. Her job is routine and she feels as if she has not really done much to contribute to society's future. In Erikson's terms, Denise is in the _____________ stage. A. generativity-versus-stagnation B. trust-versus-mistrust C. autonomy-versus-shame D. initiative-versus-guilt Answer: A. generativity-versus-stagnation 101. Which alternative below best approximates the frequency of adolescent suicide? A. It is the leading cause of death among teenagers; every 30 minutes, a teenager commits suicide. B. It is among the top five leading causes of death among teenagers; every 90 minutes, a teenager commits suicide. C. It is among the top 10 leading causes of death among teenagers; every 2 hours, a teenager commits suicide. D. It is actually less common than one might think and is not among the top 10 leading causes of death among adolescents. Answer: B. It is among the top five leading causes of death among teenagers; every 90 minutes, a teenager commits suicide. 102. From the late teens into the mid-20s, individuals are in a transitional phase that developmental psychologists call _____________ adulthood. A. emerging B. beginning C. developing D. launching Answer: A. emerging 103. Grace is a 19-year-old college sophomore. She is living away from home for the first time and is trying to decide on a major. Grace is in a phase of life that developmental psychologists term _____________ adulthood. A. developing B. emerging C. beginning D. nascent Answer: B. emerging 104. The time at which a woman's menstrual cycle slows down and stops is called: A. menarche. B. menopause. C. amenorrhea. D. the zygotic period. Answer: B. menopause. 105. Approximately _____________ of American children are likely to experience the breakup of their parents' marriage. A. one-quarter B. one-third C. two-fifths D. one-half Answer: C. two-fifths 106. As compared to children in two-parent families, children in single-parent families are: A. never well-adjusted. B. more likely to be poor. C. more likely to develop close relations. D. less likely to have trust issues. Answer: B. more likely to be poor. 107. Which of the following figures best approximates the percentage of married women with school-age children who work outside the home? A. 35% B. 40% C. 50% D. 75% Answer: D. 75% 108. Which theory of aging suggests that human cells have a built-in time limit to their reproduction and that they are no longer able to divide after a certain time? A. Wear-and-tear theory B. Genetic preprogramming theory C. Dual-process theory D. Activity theory Answer: B. Genetic preprogramming theory 109. Which theory of aging suggests that mechanical functions of the body work less efficiently as people age? A. Wear-and-tear theory B. Person-centered theory C. Dual-process theory D. Activity theory Answer: A. Wear-and-tear theory 110. Age-related declines are more apparent in _____________ memory than in _____________ memory. A. episodic; semantic B. semantic; episodic C. implicit; explicit D. semantic and implicit; episodic and explicit Answer: A. episodic; semantic 111. Which of the following is a progressive brain disorder typically associated with old age that leads to a gradual and irreversible decline in cognitive abilities? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cyclothymic disorder C. Crohn's disease D. Bipolar disorder Answer: A. Alzheimer's disease 112. According to the _____________ theory of aging, aging produces a gradual withdrawal from the world on physical, psychological, and social levels. A. wear-and-tear B. genetic preprogramming C. disengagement D. activity Answer: C. disengagement 113. Bea is 70 years old and works part-time at a discount store. She has kept herself busy by engaging in various activities she enjoyed during middle adulthood. She volunteers occasionally at a local food bank, and enjoys the company of her family and the members of her bridge club. According to the _____________ theory of aging, Bea is aging successfully. A. activity B. Kübler-Ross C. disengagement D. wear-and-tear Answer: A. activity 114. According to Erikson, people engage in the process of life review in the _____________ stage. A. generativity vs. stagnation B. intimacy vs. isolation C. identity vs. role confusion D. ego-integrity vs. despair Answer: D. ego-integrity vs. despair 115. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, which of the following is the stage in which a person aware of his impending death is likely to try to think of ways to postpone death and dedicate his or her life to religion? A. Acceptance B. Anger C. Bargaining D. Denial Answer: C. Bargaining Worksheet Questions 116. Dr. Carruthers believes that a combination of hereditary and environmental factors influences development. Dr. Carruthers has adopted a(n) _____________ position on the nature-nurture issue related to development. Answer: interactionist 117. Identical twins are _____________ identical. Answer: genetically 118. The "Woodstock generation" refers to middle- and upper-middle-class Americans who reached late adolescence or early adulthood in the later 1960s. This group of people who grew up at similar times, in similar places, and in similar conditions are most likely to be referred to by developmental psychologists as a(n) _____________ group. Answer: cohort 119. Each chromosome contains thousands of _____________ , smaller units through which genetic information is transmitted. Answer: genes 120. Belinda is eight weeks pregnant. Her developing baby is now called a(n) _____________ . Answer: fetus 121. An infant can survive on its own if it is born at least 22 weeks following conception. This is called the age of _____________ . Answer: viability 122. Environmental agents that are potentially harmful to a developing fetus are termed as _____________ . Answer: teratogens 123. A condition in which children show some but not all of the effects of fetal alcohol syndrome is called _____________ . Answer: fetal alcohol effects 124. Unlearned automatic responses to particular stimuli are called _____________ . Answer: reflexes 125. At first, the buzzing sound of your new alarm clock woke you up reliably. Now, you sleep through the sound. This decrease in the response to the sound of the alarm clock due to repeated exposure is referred to as _____________ . Answer: habituation 126. _____________ is the positive emotional bond that develops between a child and a particular individual. Answer: Attachment 127. Gavin is always anxious when his mother is away at work. When she returns, he wants to be close to her but at the same time shows his anger by hitting her. Gavin's attachment style can be best described as _____________ . Answer: ambivalent 128. According to Baumrind, _____________ parents value unquestioning obedience from their children. Answer: authoritarian 129. According to Erikson's theory, children between the age group of six to twelve are generally in the _____________ stage. Answer: industry-versus-inferiority 130. The realization that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight is termed as _____________ in Piaget's theory. Answer: object permanence 131. According to Piaget's theory, understanding the principle of _____________ marks the transition from preoperational to concrete operational thought. Answer: conservation 132. During the concrete operational period, children learn to undo operations in their minds. Piaget termed this ability as the _____________ principle. Answer: reversibility 133. Under the skillful guidance of her English teacher, Daisy gains a deeper understanding of Shakespeare's plays than she could have developed on her own. Vygotsky used the term _____________ to refer to the type of assistance Daisy's teacher is providing. Answer: scaffolding 134. _____________ is the period at which maturation of the sexual organs occurs, beginning at about age 11 or 12 for girls and 13 or 14 for boys. Answer: Puberty 135. According to Piaget's theory, understanding the principle of _____________ marks the transition from preoperational to concrete operational thought. Answer: caring 136. When in school, Bernie failed to find his niche and drifted into an aimless life of odd jobs and drug use. In the context of Erikson's theory, it would be accurate to say that Bernie failed to solve the identity-versus- _____________ crisis. Answer: role-confusion 137. Many adults feel that they have made a significant contribution to the development of their family, community, work, and society; that is, they experience a sense of _____________ . Answer: generativity 138. Julie had spent two years working in a nearby large city after graduating from college. However, having saved little money, she had to return home to live with her parents when she lost her job. Julie is one of a large number of _____________ children in the current generation. Answer: boomerang 139. Menopause is accompanied by a decrease in the production of the female hormone _____________ . Answer: estrogen 140. Skills relating to _____________ intelligence remain steady during late adulthood and in some cases also improve. Answer: crystallized 141. _____________ is a broad, imprecise term typically applied to older adults who experience progressive deterioration of mental abilities, including memory loss, disorientation to time and place, and general confusion. Answer: Senility 142. Mrs. Bartlett is in her late 70s. She is revisiting the experiences of her life and evaluating the decisions she had made along the way. Mrs. Bartlett is engaged in the process of _____________ . Answer: life review 143. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, in the _____________ stage, people facing impending death resist the idea that they are dying. Answer: denial Essay Questions 144. Distinguish between cross-sectional and longitudinal research methods. Provide an example of each. Identify at least one advantage and one disadvantage of each type of method. Answer: Students’ examples may vary. Cross-sectional research methods involve comparing people of different ages at the same point in time. For example, a researcher might simultaneously assess the working memory capacity of a group of 5-year-olds, a group of 7-year-olds, and a group of 9-year-olds. By contrast, longitudinal research methods entail examining the same sample of participants at multiple points in time. As an example, a researcher might measure the working memory capacity of a group of children first when they are 5, then when they are 7, and finally when they are 9. Cross-sectional research methods do not require a substantial investment of time. They provide information regarding age differences, but they are susceptible to the potentially confounding influence of cohort effects. Longitudinal research yields a clear picture of changes over time, but it takes years or even decades to conduct a longitudinal study. Participants may leave the study along the way. In addition, the results of longitudinal research may be confounded as participants who take the same test at several points in time may become "test-wise" and perform better each time they take it because they have become more familiar with the test. Cross-sectional research involves studying different groups of people at one point in time to compare behaviors or characteristics. For example, comparing the reading abilities of children in different grades at a single time point. An advantage is its efficiency in time and resources, but a disadvantage is the inability to assess changes over time. Longitudinal research follows the same subjects over an extended period to observe changes or developments. For instance, tracking the academic performance of a cohort from kindergarten through college. An advantage is its ability to detect developmental trends, but it can be costly and time-consuming, and subjects may drop out over time. 145. Discuss the risks associated with longitudinal research studies. Answer: A longitudinal study is the second major research strategy developmental psychologists use. It assesses the behavior of one or more participants as the participants get older. Longitudinal studies assess change in behavior over time, whereas cross-sectional studies assess differences among groups of people. For instance, consider how we might investigate intellectual development during adulthood by using a longitudinal research strategy. First, we might give an IQ test to a group of 25-year-olds. We’d then come back to the same people 20 years later and retest them at age 45. Finally, we’d return to them once more when they were 65 years old and test them again. By examining changes at several points in time, we can see how individuals develop. Clearly, though, longitudinal research requires a significant expenditure of time as the researcher waits for the participants to get older. In addition, participants who begin a study at an early age may drop out, move away, or even die as the research continues. Moreover, participants who take the same test at several points in time may become “test-wise” and perform better each time they take it because they have become more familiar with the test. 146. Elaborate on the different stages of development that a fertilized egg undergoes to become a fully developed baby. Answer: When an egg becomes fertilized by the sperm, the resulting one-celled entity, called a zygote, immediately begins to develop. The zygote starts out as a microscopic speck. Three days after fertilization, though, the zygote increases to around 32 cells; within a week it has grown to 100-150 cells. These first 2 weeks are known as the germinal period. Two weeks after conception, the developing individual enters the embryonic period, which lasts from week 2 through week 8; he or she is now called an embryo. As an embryo develops through an intricate, preprogrammed process of cell division, it grows 10,000 times larger by 4 weeks of age and attains a length of about one-fifth of an inch. At this point it has developed a rudimentary beating heart, a brain, an intestinal tract, and a number of other organs. Although all these organs are at a primitive stage of development, they are clearly recognizable. Moreover, by week 8, the embryo is about an inch long and has discernible arms, legs, and a face. From week 8 and continuing until birth, the developing individual enters the fetal period and is called a fetus. At the start of this period, it begins to respond to touch; it bends its fingers when touched on the hand. At 16 to 18 weeks, its movements become strong enough for the mother to sense them. At the same time, hair may begin to grow on its head, and the facial features become similar to those the child will display at birth. Within the womb the fetus continues to develop before birth. It begins to grow fatty deposits under the skin, and it gains weight. The fetus reaches the age of viability, the point at which it can survive if born prematurely, at about prenatal age 22 weeks. By week 24, a fetus has many of the characteristics it will display as a newborn. In the final weeks of pregnancy, the fetus continues to gain weight and grow. At the end of the normal 38 weeks of pregnancy, the fetus typically weighs 7 pounds and is about 20 inches in length. 147. Normal prenatal development occurs in 95% to 98% of all pregnancies. Identify two genetic or chromosomal abnormalities and two teratogens associated with birth defects in the remaining 2-5% of pregnancies. Describe the nature of their effects on development. Answer: Students' answers may vary. Some of the genetic or chromosomal abnormalities are listed below. Genetic/chromosomal abnormalities Phenylketonuria (PKU)—a child born with the inherited disease phenylketonuria cannot produce an enzyme that is required for normal development. This deficiency results in an accumulation of poisons that eventually cause profound intellectual disability. Sickle-cell anemia—about 10% of the African-American population can pass on sickle-cell anemia, a disease involving abnormally shaped red blood cells. Children with the disorder have episodes of pain, yellowy eyes, stunted growth, and vision problems. Tay-Sachs disease—it is mostly found among Jews of Eastern European ancestry. The body is unable to break down fat when afflicted with Tay-Sachs disease. The child usually dies by the age of 3 or 4 years. Down syndrome—it occurs when a zygote receives an extra chromosome at conception. It is one of the causes of intellectual disability. Mothers older than 35 or younger than 18 are at higher risk of giving birth to children with Down syndrome. Some of the teratogens associated with birth defects are: Mother's nutrition—Undernourished mothers may give birth to underweight babies who are susceptible to disease. Mother's illness—Rubella, syphilis, diabetes, and high blood pressure may produce a permanent effect on the fetus if they occur early in the pregnancy. HIV may be passed from mother to child prenatally. Mother's emotional state—Mothers who are tense and anxious late in their pregnancy may have irritable infants who eat and sleep poorly. Mother's use of illegal drugs (e.g., cocaine, heroin, methamphetamine)—babies may be born addicted to the drug and undergo painful withdrawal. Permanent physical and mental impairments may result. Alcohol—1 out of every 750 infants is born with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), a condition resulting in below-average intelligence, slowed growth, and facial deformities. In a condition known as fetal alcohol effects (FAE), children display some but not all of the problems of FAS. Nicotine—increased risk of miscarriages and heightened infant mortality. Two genetic or chromosomal abnormalities include Down syndrome (trisomy 21), characterized by intellectual disability and distinct physical features, and Turner syndrome (monosomy X), leading to short stature and reproductive issues in females. Two teratogens are alcohol, causing fetal alcohol syndrome with facial abnormalities and cognitive impairments, and isotretinoin (Accutane), associated with severe birth defects affecting the brain, face, heart, and thymus. These substances disrupt normal fetal development during critical periods in pregnancy. 148. Outline the perceptual capabilities of very young infants. How might these capabilities inform one's position on the nature vs. nurture debate? Provide as thoughtful a response as you can. Answer: Students' answers may vary. One of the possible responses is as follows: Vision—At birth infants prefer patterns with distinct contours and edges over less distinct ones. Neonates are sensitive to size constancy and can also discriminate and even imitate facial expressions. By the end of their first month, infants can distinguish colors. Around 4-5 months, they can focus on near or far objects, can recognize two- vs. three-dimensional objects, and are sensitive to the Gestalt principles of perceptual organization. By 7 months, they can respond differentially to different facial expressions. Hearing—Infants can recognize their own mothers' voices when they are 3 days old. At 2 days of age, they can distinguish between their native and foreign languages; can discriminate between closely related sounds (e.g., ba and pa) at 4 days. Other Senses—Neonates have a built-in preference for sweet tastes: They prefer sweetened over unsweetened liquids. These capabilities suggest a large "nature" component to perceptual development. It seems that we are hardwired to perceive stimuli that may be evolutionarily relevant, such as faces and speech sounds. Very young infants possess basic perceptual capabilities such as visual preferences for faces, sensitivity to auditory stimuli, and the ability to differentiate between colors and shapes. These early abilities suggest a biological basis for perceptual development, supporting the nature side of the nature vs. nurture debate. However, environmental factors like early experiences and social interactions also play a crucial role in shaping and enhancing these perceptual skills, highlighting the interaction between innate capacities and external influences in development. 149. Define the term attachment as it is used in psychology. Explain how attachment reflects a dynamic interplay between an infant and his/her caregiver. Finally, describe the behavior of securely attached infants in Ainsworth's strange situation. Answer: A possible response to this question is as follows: Attachment—a positive emotional bond that develops between a child and a particular individual, such as a caregiver. Attachment reflects a dynamic interplay between infant and caregiver. The infant is biologically programmed to display behaviors that encourage caregiving such as smiling, cooing, cuddling, and so forth; the caregiver's consistent response in turn reinforces such behaviors, making them even more likely, eliciting further care, and so on. In the strange situation, securely attached infants use the caregiver as a safe home base from which they can range and explore. They are distressed when the caregiver leaves, but get over it quickly; in addition, they return to the caregiver happily when she comes back. Attachment in psychology refers to the emotional bond that forms between an infant and their primary caregiver, typically the mother or father. This bond reflects a dynamic interplay where the caregiver provides comfort, security, and responsiveness, while the infant seeks proximity, reassurance, and protection. In Ainsworth's strange situation, securely attached infants demonstrate a balance of exploring their environment and seeking proximity to the caregiver. They may explore confidently when the caregiver is present, show distress when separated, and seek comfort upon reunion, easily settling back into play. This behavior indicates a healthy and secure attachment relationship. 150. A local community center asks you to give a presentation to parents-to-be on out-of-home care and its potential influence on child development. What points might you include in your presentation? Make explicit reference to the prevalence of out-of-home care and to the effects of the child's background, the quality of the care, and the amount of time spent in out-of-home care. Answer: Students' answers may vary. One of the possible responses is as follows: Prevalence - 30% of children whose mothers work outside the home spend their days in child-care centers. By 6 months of age, 2/3 of infants are cared for by people other than their mothers for part of the day. Most of these infants begin child care before the age of 4 months and are cared for by people other than their mothers for almost 30 hours each week. Quality of care - High-quality care is associated with positive outcomes. Children in high-quality out-of-home care are more considerate and sociable than other children, and they interact more positively with teachers. They are also more compliant and better at regulating their own behavior than are other children. Low-quality care is related to feelings of insecurity. Child's background - The benefits of high-quality care are especially important for children from disadvantaged backgrounds. High-quality care provides intellectual stimulation. Disadvantaged children in good-quality out-of-home care show long-lasting gains in cognitive and language development and in intellectual achievement. Time spent in care - Long hours spent in care (> 20 hours/week) may reduce attachment security among infants. Among infants and preschoolers, long hours in care may reduce the ability to work independently and manage time when the children reach elementary school. In your presentation on out-of-home care and child development, you might cover the prevalence of such care options and how they can impact children. Highlight the importance of considering the child's background, emphasizing that quality care from supportive caregivers can mitigate risks associated with time spent away from parents. Discuss research showing that stable, high-quality care environments can positively influence social, emotional, and cognitive development. 151. Select either (a) Baumrind's four parenting styles or (b) the four Eriksonian stages of psychosocial development occurring during childhood. Name each style or stage and provide a brief vignette or "case study" of a child exhibiting each style or stage. Answer: Students' vignettes/case studies may vary. Students can choose one of the two approaches given below. a) Baumrind's parenting styles Authoritative: Rosanna is socially poised and popular. She completes her schoolwork conscientiously without direct supervision. She is pleasant and cooperative with her teachers. Authoritarian: Donna seems unfriendly and withdrawn. She has difficulty voicing her opinion or standing up for herself; instead, she tends to pull back into her shell. Permissive: Bernie has poor impulse control in the classroom; he seems socially immature and gives in to occasional tantrums. He seems overly dependent on others. Uninvolved: Suzie is emotionally detached; she appears to have low self-esteem. Her attachment behaviors to teachers and other adults who show an interest in her are unusual; sometimes she is clingy and dependent, while on other occasions she is withdrawn. Suzie has poor social skills and seems rejected by her peers. b) Eriksonian stages of child psychosocial development Trust-versus-mistrust (ages 0 to 1-1/2). One-year-old Chris was fortunate to have parents who responded promptly and consistently to his needs for food and comfort. Chris implicitly trusts others; he approaches new people and situations with curiosity. He calms down relatively quickly if he becomes upset. Autonomy-versus-shame-and-doubt (ages 1-1/2 to 3). Carlotta is three years old. Her parents were permissive, exercising little control over Carlotta. Carlotta seems spoiled; she demands food, attention, and toys and is prone to backtalk and stubborn defiance. Initiative-versus-guilt (ages 3 to 6). Mickey is four and a half years old. He is beginning to make some decisions for himself; for example, his Mom allows him to select the play clothes he wears after school, the bath towel he'd prefer that week, and so on. Sometimes his parents will allow him to watch one of two TV shows or DVDs. Industry-versus-inferiority (ages 6 to 12). Karen is ten years old. Her athletic activities after school—soccer, lacrosse—are important to her, as is her schoolwork. She tries to do her best in any activity she undertakes. Baumrind's four parenting styles: 1. Authoritative: Sara's parents set clear rules but encourage discussion and understanding. Sara is confident, responsible, and performs well academically due to supportive guidance. 2. Authoritarian: Jack's parents enforce strict rules without explanation. Jack is obedient but lacks social skills and struggles with decision-making. 3. Permissive: Emily's parents are lenient and avoid confrontation. Emily is impulsive and has difficulty following rules but is creative and socially adept. 4. Uninvolved: Mike's parents are disengaged and neglectful. Mike lacks self-discipline and struggles academically and socially, feeling unsupported and neglected. 152. Elaborate on the various stages of cognitive development put forward by Piaget. Answer: Preoperational stage (ages 2 to 7): The most important development in this stage is the acquisition of language. Concrete operational stage (ages 7 through 12): In this stage, children master the principle of conservation and begin to understand some logical principles such as reversibility and class inclusion. Formal operational stage (ages 12 through adulthood): In this stage, children become capable of abstract, formal, logical thought. 153. Making explicit reference to specific stages and concepts, describe your own adolescent and young adult development from an Eriksonian perspective. Try to capture some of the developmental tensions and challenges during this period in your narrative. Answer: Students' answers will vary. Students can refer to the identity-versus-role-confusion and intimacy-versus-isolation stages of Erikson. Such adolescent themes as trying to please parents, struggling against parents, seeking popularity, trying on different identities through different cliques, dramatic shifts in tastes, friendships, and activities and so on should be apparent as illustrations of the search for identity. The intimacy-versus-isolation stage would most probably be illustrated by a description of increasingly serious romantic relationships from the age of 16 or so onward. During adolescence, I navigated Erikson's stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion, exploring various identities through relationships and activities. This led to a sense of self and future goals. In young adulthood, I faced Intimacy vs. Isolation, balancing career and personal relationships. These stages involved resolving conflicts between independence and connection, shaping my identity and relationships. 154. Write two different vignettes, or brief case studies, each describing an adolescent displaying at least three suicide warning signs. In your vignettes, demonstrate your knowledge of the demographic influences on and the potential risk factors for suicide attempts. Answer: Students' vignettes or case studies may differ. Ideally, a total of six of the following warning signs can be mentioned—three in each of two vignettes: School problems—truancy, change in grades Frequent incidents of self-destructive behavior (e.g., careless accidents) Eating disorder Social withdrawal Sleeping problems Signs of depression, tearfulness, or overt psychological difficulties, such as hallucinations Preoccupation with death or afterlife Putting affairs in order (e.g., giving things away) Explicit announcement of thoughts of suicide A sample vignette might be as follows: Joan seems to be very depressed lately. She has been sleeping 11-12 hours per day and seems to have completely lost her appetite. She does not return her friends' calls and out rightly refuses to go out with them. Her friends are getting worried for her. Case Study 1: Sarah, a 16-year-old Hispanic female, has withdrawn from friends and activities she once enjoyed. She frequently talks about feeling hopeless and mentions wanting to escape her problems. Her grades have declined, and she has started giving away her possessions. Case Study 2: Michael, a 17-year-old white male, has been increasingly irritable and aggressive at home and school. He has experienced a recent breakup with his girlfriend and has been consuming alcohol excessively. His parents have noticed self-harm scars on his arms and have found a suicide note in his room. 155. How does the reality of late adulthood differ from the stereotypes of aging imparted by Western culture? Make reference to patterns of physical, cognitive, and social development in your answer. Answer: The answer can indicate that late adulthood is not only a time of inevitable, irreversible, and pervasive decline, as popular stereotypes might suggest. Points made might include the following: Physical development: Physical declines do occur, but the leisure activities in which older adults participate are not much different from those in which young adults actually participate, such as visiting with friends, walking, and eating. Cognitive development: Crystallized intelligence may actually increase with advancing age. Older adults can compensate for intellectual declines; continued engagement with physical activity and intellectual challenges can help stem declines in memory and cognition. Social development: Only a small minority of older adults report that they are lonely. A positive self-perception of aging may actually increase longevity. The reality of late adulthood often differs significantly from Western cultural stereotypes of aging, which may portray older adults as frail, forgetful, and socially isolated. In reality, many older adults maintain physical health through exercise and healthy habits, retain cognitive abilities with experience-based wisdom, and remain socially engaged through relationships and community involvement. These factors contribute to a more varied and active late adulthood than commonly portrayed. 156. "Age-related declines in memory and cognition are largely a matter of nature." "Age-related declines in memory and cognition are largely a matter of nurture." Support either of these propositions and provide strong evidence in support of your answer. Answer: The answer can include such points as the following: Nature The brain changes during late adulthood. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive brain disorder leading to a gradual and irreversible decline in cognitive abilities. By age 85, nearly half of adults are affected. During the disorder, the brain shrinks, neurons die, and areas of the hippocampus and frontal and temporal lobes deteriorate. Nurture Older adults can compensate for intellectual declines; teaching older adults strategies for dealing with new problems can prevent cognitive declines. Older adults in cultures in which older adults are revered (e.g., China) are less likely to show memory losses than are older adults in the West, where older adults are marginalized. When older adults in the West are reminded of the advantages of age, they tend to do better on memory tests than when they are not. Memory declines may reflect the less complex lives of older adults and the decrease in intellectual challenge typical of this phase of life. "Age-related declines in memory and cognition are largely a matter of nature." Evidence supports this proposition through longitudinal studies showing consistent declines in cognitive abilities like processing speed and working memory across aging populations, despite varied environmental factors. Neurobiological changes such as cortical thinning and reduced neurotransmitter activity contribute to these declines, suggesting a predominant role of biological factors in age-related cognitive changes. 157. List and describe the various stages cited by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross regarding people facing impending death. Answer: The various stages that a person impending death goes through are: Denial: In this stage, people resist the idea that they are dying. Even if told that their chances for survival are small, they refuse to admit that they are facing death. Anger: After moving beyond the denial stage, dying people become angry—angry at people around them who are in good health, angry at medical professionals for being ineffective, angry at God. Bargaining: Anger leads to bargaining in which the dying try to think of ways to postpone death. They may decide to dedicate their lives to religion if God saves them. They may say, "If only I can live to see my son married, I will accept death then." Depression: When dying people come to feel that bargaining is no use, they move to the next stage: depression. They realize that their lives really are coming to an end, which leads to what Kübler-Ross calls "preparatory grief" for their own deaths. Acceptance: In this stage, people accept impending death. Usually they are unemotional and uncommunicative; it is as if they have made peace with themselves and are expecting death with no bitterness. Test Bank for Essentials of Understanding Psychology Robert S. Feldman 9780077861889, 9781259255786, 9781260829013
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