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Chapter 9 Multiple Choice Questions 1. Dr. Mason’s main research interest is the way a person grows and changes from its beginning to its inevitable end. It is most likely that Dr. Mason is a _____ psychologist. A. cognitive B. developmental C. biological D. psychodynamic Answer: B 2. Jennifer, a developmental psychologist, is studying the changes in human eating behavior and the amount of food the body requires as it grows. Which of the following processes is Jennifer analyzing in her study? A. Cognitive processes B. Physical processes C. Social processes D. Emotional processes Answer: B 3. In a cross-sectional study related to developmental psychology: A. the same people are retested over a period of years. B. different age groups are tested at the same time. C. different characteristics of an individual are assessed simultaneously. D. the behavior of an individual is assessed by different researchers. Answer: B 4. Professor Yen is curious about how rapidly reading skills develop in children of ages five to ten. If he has only a limited period of time to research this question, which research design should he utilize? A. Cross-sectional B. Longitudinal C. Unobtrusive D. Cohort Answer: A 5. A(n) _____ assesses the same participants multiple times over a lengthy period. A. cross-sectional study B. longitudinal study C. accelerated study D. unobtrusive research Answer: B 6. Which of the following is a difference between cross-sectional and longitudinal studies? A. Unlike cross-sectional studies, longitudinal studies are affected by the cohort effects problem. B. Cross-sectional studies deal with people of the same age, whereas longitudinal studies deal with a people belonging to different age groups. C. Cross-sectional studies assess people at one point in time, whereas longitudinal studies assess people over a long period of time. D. Cross-sectional studies assess participants multiple times, whereas longitudinal studies assess participants only once. Answer: C 7. A(n) _____ can find out not only whether age groups differ but also whether the same individuals change with respect to a particular characteristic as they age. A. cross-sectional study B. longitudinal study C. accelerated study D. transversal study Answer: B 8. According to developmental psychologists, nature refers to: A. an individual’s environmental experiences. B. an individual’s social experiences. C. an individual’s biological inheritance. D. an individual’s emotional characteristics. Answer: C 9. According to developmental psychologists, nurture refers to: A. the development caused by hormones secreted in the body. B. the formation of the nervous system. C. an individual’s biological inheritance. D. an individual’s environmental and social experiences. Answer: D 10. Which of the following terms is most closely tied with the nurture side of the nature versus nurture debate? A. Biological inheritances B. Range of phenotypes C. Genotypic characteristics D. Optimal life experiences Answer: D 11. Which of the following statements is true of an individual’s genotype? A. A genotype can be expressed only through the characteristics of the genotype. B. A person’s observable characteristics will reflect his/her genotype accurately. C. Environmental precautions can change the phenotype associated with a genotype. D. Genotype of a person is solely dependent on his/her environment. Answer: C 12. Which of the following statements would a life-span developmentalist most likely state? A. Childhood experiences are not necessarily more influential than later experiences. B. Later experiences are given too much importance by researchers. C. Later experiences alone define a person’s characteristics. D. Childhood experiences mold a person’s character. Answer: A 13. Which of the following terms means that even in the face of adversity, a person shows signs of positive functioning? A. Assimilation B. Accommodation C. Resilience D. Integrity Answer: C 14. _____ is a person’s ability to recover from or adapt to difficult times. A. Accommodation B. Resilience C. Egocentrism D. Positive affect Answer: B 15. As children, Jasper and Jenny were both physically abused by their father. Their environmental influences were quite similar. As both individuals entered adulthood, Jenny adjusted fairly well, while Jasper continued to have problems, including substance abuse. Which of the following terms describes Jenny’s ability to overcome an abusive childhood? A. Perseverance B. Integrity C. Resistance D. Resilience Answer: D 16. During the course of successful prenatal development, a human organism begins as a(n): A. fetus and finally develops into a zygote. B. embryo and finally develops into a zygote. C. zygote and finally develops into a fetus. D. fetus and finally develops into an embryo. Answer: C 17. The neural tube is formed during the _____ period. A. germinal B. embryonic C. fetal D. infant Answer: B 18. Which of the following developments occurs during the germinal period of prenatal development? A. Development of organs B. Formation of neural tube C. Differentiation of arms and legs D. Attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall Answer: D 19. During the embryonic period of prenatal development: A. the intestinal tract appears. B. the zygote is formed. C. the fetus starts to move around. D. the zygote attaches to the uterine wall. Answer: A 20. Which of the following statements is true of prenatal development in humans? A. The heart begins to beat during the embryonic period. B. The rate of cell differentiation decreases during the embryonic period. C. The intestinal tract first appears in the fetal period of prenatal development. D. First and the second week of prenatal development are called the fetal period. Answer: A 21. During the fetal period of prenatal development: A. the intestinal tract appears. B. the neural tube is formed. C. the fetus starts to move around. D. the fetus’s organ functioning decreases. Answer: C 22. Which of the following best defines teratogen? A. It is any agent that causes a birth defect. B. It is a drug that enhances the growth of a fetus. C. It is any chemical that contains an alcohol group. D. It is a term used to describe all microorganisms that cause fatal diseases. Answer: A 23. Mabel is thrilled to find out that she is pregnant. She wants to make sure that she does not jeopardize the health of her baby. She should avoid all of the following EXCEPT: A. prescription drugs. B. tobacco. C. alcohol. D. exposure to rubella. Answer: A 24. Which of the following is likely to be a teratogen? A. Apple B. Dark chocolate C. Spicy food D. Alcohol Answer: D 25. Which of the following is a symptom of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD)? A. Hyperactivity B. Below-average intelligence C. Tardive dyskinesia D. Depression Answer: B 26. Which of the following statements is true of teratogens? A. Teratogens include only the chemical substances that are classified as alcohols. B. The effects of chemical teratogens depend on the timing of exposure. C. Teratogen refers to the birth defect caused by radiation. D. Teratogens enhance the development of a fetus. Answer: B 27. An infant born before 37 weeks is called a: A. preterm infant. B. postterm infant. C. pre-partum infant. D. post-fetal infant. Answer: A 28. Which of the following is an accurate descriptor of an infant reflex? A. It can be either temporary or last a life time. B. It is genetically-wired. C. It is essential for survival. D. All of these. Answer: D 29. Which of the following is NOT an infant reflex? A. Galant B. Moro C. Elbow extension D. Toe curling Answer: C 30. The _____ technique in studying infant perception involves searching for a reliable preference for one stimulus over another. A. habituation B. preferential looking C. object permanence D. non-differential perception Answer: B 31. Which of the following statements is true of the development of motor and perceptual skills in humans? A. Experience fails to influence motor development. B. Motor development is the consequence of nature alone. C. Babies are continually coordinating their movements with information they perceive through their senses. D. Perceptual and motor skills develop separately during different time periods and therefore, fail to promote each other. Answer: C 32. Which of the following statements is true of the development of the brain in humans? A. The synaptic connections decrease drastically during childhood. B. The connection between neurons is the highest at birth. C. The process of myelination begins at the prenatal stages. D. The process of myelination stops at adolescence. Answer: C 33. The ability to multiply two numbers together falls under _____ development. A. physical B. cognitive C. socio-emotional D. personality Answer: B 34. Which psychologist articulated the steps of cognitive development from infancy to adulthood? A. Maslow B. Piaget C. Erikson D. Kohlberg Answer: B 35. Baby Janice knows that when she is put in the highchair, it is time to eat. So when her father puts her in the highchair and hands her a book, Janice puts the corner of the book in her mouth. According to Piaget, Janice’s behavior can be best explained by _____. A. schematic thinking B. the assimilation process C. the accommodation process D. deferred imitation Answer: B 36. According to Piaget, an individual’s ability to incorporate new information into existing knowledge is called _____. A. accommodation B. interpretation C. assimilation D. innovation Answer: C 37. According to Piaget, accommodation refers to: A. the parental efforts made to include new children in an existing family structure. B. the incorporation of new information into existing knowledge. C. the developmental changes in a child’s behavior that facilitate social acceptance by peers. D. the adjustment of current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences. Answer: D 38. Alicia, a three-year-old girl, knows that fish swim in water. When she sees an alligator for the first time, she says to her father, “Look at that big fish!” Her father tells her that the creature is not a fish, but an alligator. Later, Alicia sights a frog and asks her father “What is that called?” In this scenario, Alicia’s question arises due to the process of _____. A. enculturation B. assimilation C. accommodation D. preoperational thinking Answer: C 39. An individual’s ability to adjust his or her schemas to new information is called _____. A. interpretation B. imprinting C. assimilation D. accommodation Answer: D 40. According to Piaget’s cognitive development theory, the _____ stage occurs during infancy. A. sensorimotor B. formal operational C. concrete operational D. preoperational Answer: A 41. In which of the following stages of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development does a child coordinate sensations with movements? A. Egocentric B. Preconventional C. Concrete D. Sensorimotor Answer: D 42. Little Franklin takes away his baby sister’s rattle and hides it under her blanket, while she watches. According to Piaget, if his sister had developed object permanence, she would most likely: A. forget about the rattle. B. try to search for it under the blanket. C. act as if the rattle was never there. D. None of these. Answer: B 43. _____ is Piaget’s term for the crucial accomplishment of understanding that objects and events continue to exist even when they cannot directly be seen, heard, or touched. A. Assimilation B. Accommodation C. Object permanence D. Object interpretation Answer: C 44. “Out of sight, out of mind” can describe the behavior of a child who has not mastered the concept of: A. conservation. B. separation anxiety. C. attachment. D. object permanence. Answer: D 45. Millie tried to play peek-a-boo with her six-month-old infant, but whenever she hid her face, he would cry. When she tried it again three months later, he laughed and enjoyed the game, trying to uncover her face with his hands. This scenario exemplifies the development of _____ in Millie’s baby. A. egocentrism B. object permanence C. hindsight bias D. conservation Answer: B 46. If a child is in Piaget’s preoperational stage of development, which of the following tasks is the child most likely to perform? A. Solve mathematical problems B. Represent their world with words and images C. Reverse mental operations D. Give logical reasons for knowing something Answer: B 47. While giving a cookie to Joe, Mathew drops it on the table, and the cookie breaks into several pieces. Joe starts to cry when he is offered the pieces of cookie instead of the whole cookie. According to Joe, since the sizes of the pieces are smaller than the whole cookie, he is being offered smaller quantity. According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, Joe is most likely in the _____ stage of development. A. concrete operational B. formal operational C. preoperational D. sensorimotor Answer: C 48. Dan arranges two rows of pennies so they are equal in length. A child views the rows and states that they have the same amount of pennies. He spreads out the pennies in the bottom row so that it is longer than the top one. The child now states that the bottom row has more pennies. This child is in Piaget’s _____ stage of development. A. sensorimotor B. formal operational C. preoperational D. concrete operational Answer: C 49. Which of the following statements is true of Piaget’s preoperational stage? A. In this stage, a child’s thought is less symbolic than a child in the sensorimotor stage. B. The child in this stage understands the concept of conservation. C. The symbolic thinking of children in this stage is limited. D. It lasts from about seven to eleven years of age. Answer: C 50. Which of the following statements is true of children in the preoperational stage? A. Preoperational children make judgments based on logic rather than gut feelings. B. Preoperational children can put themselves in someone else’s shoes with ease. C. Preoperational thoughts are subject to the object permanence problem. D. Preoperational thoughts are more symbolic than sensorimotor thought. Answer: D 51. Which of the following Piaget’s stages of cognitive development is characterized by egocentric thought in children? A. Preoperational B. Sensorimotor C. Formal operational D. Concrete operational Answer: A 52. If children cannot grasp the concept of conservation, they are unable to: A. make judgments based on gut feelings. B. think intuitively. C. recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape. D. represent their world with words, images, and drawings. Answer: C 53. A mother gives her three-year-old and her four-year-old children chocolate milk in identically shaped glasses to avoid conflict over who has more. The mother is showing her awareness of her children’s difficulty with: A. language. B. object permanence. C. conservation. D. symbolism. Answer: C 54. According to Piaget, children’s thought in the preoperational stage is egocentric. This statement refers to: A. a sensorimotor need for self-stimulation, as evidenced in thumb sucking. B. young children’s exaggerated interest in color. C. the difficulty in perceiving things from another person’s point of view. D. the difficulty in realizing that things continue to exist even when they are not visible. Answer: C 55. A teacher shows a first grade student a map and tells her, “You live here, in Atlanta, Georgia.” The child emphatically disagrees, declaring, “No, I live in Atlanta. I can’t live in Georgia too, ‘cause I can’t live in two places at the same time!” This child is likely in Piaget’s _____ stage of development. A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. concrete operational D. formal operational Answer: B 56. Between ages 7 and 11, children gain the ability to classify things into different sets or subsets and to consider their interrelations. Piaget calls this particular stage: A. the concrete operational stage. B. the formal operational stage. C. the preoperational stage. D. the sensorimotor stage. Answer: A 57. Peter is ten years old. He likes to play a game called “name, place, things, animals” along with his friends, because he often wins and is very good at it. In this game, children are given a list of random nouns, and they should write the nouns in the correct column. For example if the noun is “dog”, they should write “dog” under the “animals” column. According to this scenario, Peter is most likely in Piaget’s _____ stage of development. A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. concrete operational D. formal operational Answer: C 58. According to Piaget, which of the following questions can a fourteen-year-old child answer better compared to when he was seven years old? A. How many planets are there? B. How tall is the Empire State building? C. How many quarters in a dollar? D. How might we survive if our oil supply runs out? Answer: D 59. Bob has an unknown liquid and must determine what it is. He decides to systematically use a number of tests to determine the correct answer. According to Piaget, Bob has reached the _____ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. formal operational D. concrete operational Answer: C 60. An adolescent who hypothesizes and speaks in terms of possibilities is most likely present in the _____ stage of cognitive development. A. formal operational B. preconventional C. conventional D. concrete Answer: A 61. The ability to use abstract concepts is a key component of the _____ stage of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development. A. preoperational B. formal operational C. sensorimotor D. concrete operational Answer: B 62. Jason is working on a problem for his science class and is systematically going over every possible outcome. Jason is in the _____ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor B. formal operational C. concrete operational D. preoperational Answer: B 63. Adolescents are required to take algebra because cognitive development theory indicates that they are ready to learn this subject. Some of Piaget’s critics would respond to this statement by pointing out that: A. most adolescents have not reached the preoperational stage. B. Piaget did not examine mathematical development in adolescents. C. Piaget overestimated the cognitive abilities of adolescents. D. adolescents should not be stressed with complex topics like algebra. Answer: C 64. Which of the following reasons led to the criticism of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development? A. Piaget overestimated the cognitive capacities of very young children. B. Piaget observed that the cognitive acumen of adolescents was lesser than young children. C. Piaget proposed that formal operational thought does not emerge consistently in early adolescence. D. Many adolescents and adults do not reason as logically as Piaget proposed. Answer: D 65. The nativist approach proposes that children as young as three months old: A. can realize that an object exists even if they are not able to see it, but they do not have expectations about the object. B. possess expectancies about objects and events in the world that are less dependent on experiences. C. express cognitive development as an interpersonal process that happens in a cultural context. D. show an understanding of object permanence due to very early experiences. Answer: B 66. _____ emphasizes the role of experience in the world as the central driver of cognitive and perceptual development. A. The empiricist approach B. Baillargeon’s approach C. The nativist approach D. Piaget’s approach Answer: A 67. According to Lev Vygotsky, which of the following is characteristic of cognitive development? A. It is an interpersonal process. B. It happens in a cultural context. C. It is facilitated by the process of scaffolding. D. All of these. Answer: D 68. Which of the following statements is true of Vygotsky’s sociocultural cognitive theory? A. Children are expert thinkers who do not depend on the world. B. Vygotsky’s approach to cognitive development is similar to that of Piaget’s theory. C. For Vygotsky, a child is simply learning to think about the world and not about his or her own world in particular. D. Children enter a level of cognitive sophistication by learning important aspects of their culture. Answer: D 69. Which of the following statements is true of the information-processing theory? A. It emphasizes on the broad stages of cognitive development. B. Working memory is linked to many aspects of children development. C. Executive functions refer to lower-order cognitive processes. D. Specific experiences cannot facilitate executive functions. Answer: B 70. _____ refers to an individual’s behavioral style and characteristic way of responding. A. Identity B. Personality C. Cognition D. Temperament Answer: D 71. An infant cries very often and faces difficulties in adapting to new situations. According to Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas, which of the following temperaments would best describe him? A. The unstable child B. The slow-to-warm-up child C. The difficult child D. The detached child Answer: C 72. Caleb, an infant, can be taken just about anywhere and seems to adapt quickly to new surroundings. According to Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas, which of the following temperaments best describes him? A. The easy child B. The slow-to-warm-up child C. The resilient child D. The competent child Answer: A 73. According to Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas, a child who expresses a low activity level, is somewhat negative, and is inflexible is a(n) _____ child. A. detached B. difficult C. slow-to-warm-up D. aversive Answer: C 74. _____, a dimension of temperament, is described as being shy and showing distress in an unfamiliar situation. A. Effortful control B. Self-regulation C. Inhibition D. Negative affectivity Answer: C 75. The work of Harry Harlow established that: A. early social experience in humans is essential to normal functioning in adulthood. B. physical development is influenced more by nature than it is by nurture. C. contact comfort is more important than feeding in the attachment process. D. an offspring’s attachment to a parent depends on the physical appearance of the parent. Answer: C 76. In Harry Harlow’s classic attachment study, they found that monkeys: A. were more attached to artificial mothers who provided milk. B. were more attached to artificial mothers who were warm and soft. C. displayed no preference for either cloth or wire mothers. D. preferred wire mothers over cloth ones. Answer: B 77. Infant attachment is defined as the close emotional bond between an infant and: A. other infants. B. strangers. C. its caregivers. D. its environment. Answer: C 78. Which of the following most accurately describes Ainsworth’s strange situation test used to measure children’s attachment? A. The caregiver and the infant watch as several strangers enter the room. B. The caregiver leaves the infant with a stranger and returns later. C. The stranger takes the infant away from the caregiver and moves to a place where the caregiver cannot be seen. D. The caregiver hides the toy that the infant was playing with, under a blanket. Answer: B 79. Erikson’s theory is based on the assumption that: A. development is driven by personal choices and is independent of the actions of others. B. life is full of challenges that cannot be ignored. C. socioemotional development is a lifelong process. D. most of the social behaviors we learn are acquired by watching other people behave socially. Answer: C 80. Sammy is in third grade. When he won the spelling bee, he felt proud of his accomplishment. However, when he could not complete his arithmetic assignment on time, he felt incompetent. Which of the following Erikson’s childhood stages does this scenario reflect? A. Autonomy versus shame and doubt B. Initiative versus guilt C. Industry versus inferiority D. Trust versus mistrust Answer: C 81. As young Javier gets off his school bus, he runs to his mother and proudly shows her the book he read at school today. Which of the following Erikson’s childhood stages is Javier demonstrating? A. Autonomy versus doubt B. Initiative versus guilt C. Industry versus inferiority D. Trust versus mistrust Answer: C 82. All of the following are stages in Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development EXCEPT: A. trust versus mistrust. B. autonomy versus shame and doubt. C. initiative versus guilt. D. growth versus regression. Answer: D 83. According to Erikson, a toddler who learns to walk will develop a positive sense of independence. However, another child of the same age who cannot walk yet will develop _____. A. inferiority B. guilt C. shame D. mistrust Answer: C 84. A child develops initiative when: A. he scores well in mathematics. B. he is experiencing self-control during toilet training. C. he depends solely on the caregiver for providing basic needs. D. he wants to help his mother dust the furniture. Answer: D 85. According to Erikson’s theory of socioemotional development, preschoolers who do not develop a sense of taking responsibility: A. feel guilty. B. feel inferior. C. feel ashamed. D. feel embarrassed. Answer: A 86. Which of the following is a criticism leveled against Erikson’s theory of socioemotional development? A. His theory did not talk about the role of parents in the development of a child. B. His theory did not concentrate on other important developmental tasks. C. His theory concentrated mainly on infants and not on other age groups. D. His theory views socioemotional development as a lifelong process. Answer: B 87. When Justin told his parents that he wanted to learn an extracurricular activity, his parent gave him the liberty to choose any activity of his choice. However, they restricted him from choosing dangerous sports like motor car racing. In this scenario, Justin’s parents are following the _____ parenting style. A. authoritarian B. authoritative C. neglectful D. permissive Answer: B 88. Mazie’s mom is loving and caring. Her mom sets clear boundaries and engages in a lot of verbal give and take. In terms of parenting styles, she would be described as: A. conventional. B. authoritative. C. authoritarian. D. permissive. Answer: B 89. Elise demonstrates a parenting style that encourages her children to be independent, but she also places limits on their behavior. Her parenting style is best described as: A. conventional. B. authoritarian. C. permissive. D. authoritative. Answer: D 90. Ian came home after curfew. Without asking for an explanation, his parents sent him to his room and informed him that he was grounded for a month. Which of the following types of parenting did Ian’s parents demonstrate? A. Authoritarian B. Conventional C. Authoritative D. Neglectful Answer: A 91. Parents following the _____ parenting style impose strict rules on their children with little verbal exchange. A. authoritative B. permissive C. authoritarian D. conventional Answer: C 92. Authoritative parents are likely to have children who: A. are obedient and demonstrate low self-esteem. B. are socially competent and self-reliant. C. have high self-esteem but are somewhat dependent. D. are rebellious and demonstrate low self-esteem. Answer: B 93. Compared to authoritarian parents, authoritative parents are likely to be: A. more conservative. B. less educated. C. more collaborative. D. less trusting. Answer: C 94. Children whose parents follow _____ tend to be less competent socially, to handle independence poorly, and to show poor self-control. A. authoritative parenting B. authoritarian parenting C. neglectful parenting D. permissive parenting Answer: C 95. Richie’s parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his behavior. They encourage him to do what he wants. They are exhibiting a(n) _____ parenting style. A. permissive B. authoritarian C. conventional D. collaborative Answer: A 96. As other children in his school line up for lunch on the first day of kindergarten, Ben demands to be at the beginning of the line. He is most likely receiving _____ parenting. A. authoritarian B. authoritative C. neglectful D. permissive Answer: D 97. Jill’s parents set very few limits or boundaries for her. They use a(n) _____ parenting style. A. authoritarian B. authoritative C. neglectful D. permissive Answer: D 98. Changes in thoughts, feelings, and behaviors regarding the principles and values that guide what people should do are part of _____ development. A. metacognitive B. cognitive C. temperament D. moral Answer: D 99. At the preconventional level of Kohlberg’s stages of moral development, individuals decide right and wrong based on: A. society’s laws. B. a sense of duty. C. individual ethical principles. D. punishments or rewards. Answer: D 100. If Tony shares his toys with his little sister, because he is afraid of being punished, he is reasoning at the _____ level of moral development. A. preconventional B. concrete C. preoperational D. conventional Answer: A 101. Katie bought a few t-shirts from a garage sale. While purchasing them, she tried her best to bargain as she knew the seller was charging her a higher price for every t-shirt compared to the others. After reaching home, she found that there was an extra T-shirt in her bag for which she did not pay. As her mother had taught her to return things that did not belong to her, Katie went back to the store and returned the extra T-shirt. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, Katie belongs to the _____ level of moral development. A. preconventional B. concrete C. preoperational D. conventional Answer: D 102. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, an individual in the _____ level of moral development recognizes alternative moral courses, explores the options, and then develops an increasingly personal moral code. A. conventional B. preconventional C. postconventional D. concrete Answer: C 103. Which of the following statements best describes moral reasoning at the postconventional level? A. “What I did was illegal, but it saved somebody’s life, which is more important.” B. “What I did was illegal, but nobody will ever find out.” C. “What I did was illegal, but saving a life is what a good person should do according to the society.” D. “What I did was illegal, but the family of the person I saved offered a huge reward.” Answer: A 104. Patrick saw his friend shoplifting. He is supposed to report a crime when he witnesses one. Since he regards his friendship as more valuable, he decides not to report his friend. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, Patrick belongs to the _____ level of moral development. A. postconventional B. concrete C. preoperational D. conventional Answer: A 105. A child decides to steal a pen from a neighborhood store in order to be accepted into a group. The child reasons that his stealing behavior is acceptable, because it is what his friends expect of him. According to Kohlberg, this child is operating at the _____ level of moral development. A. preconventional B. heteronomous C. universal ethical principles D. conventional Answer: D 106. Larry and Carol are tested twice on moral reasoning. When Kohlberg’s measures are used, Carol gets a lower score than Larry. When Gilligan’s approach is used, both individuals score at the same level. Which of the following is likely to be a reason for this discrepancy? A. Gilligan’s approach is not as accurate and precise as Kohlberg’s approach. B. Kohlberg’s theory is a justice perspective, while Gilligan’s theory is a care perspective. C. Gilligan’s approach does not emphasize on interpersonal relationships, like Kohlberg’s theory. D. Unlike Kohlberg’s theory, Gilligan’s theory is biased against women. Answer: B 107. Which of the following statements is true of Carol Gilligan’s care perspective? A. It focuses on the rights of the individual as the key to sound moral reasoning. B. It will generally lead women to score lower than men on moral development. C. It overestimates the role of logical reasoning in moral judgments. D. It views people in terms of their connectedness with others. Answer: D 108. Recent research on prosocial behavior in children has found that: A. children avoid people who engage in prosocial behavior. B. children resist learning how to engage in prosocial behavior. C. the capacities to empathize with others and engage in prosocial behavior are independent of the ability to engage in self-control. D. a supportive parenting style is related to increase in prosocial behavior among children. Answer: D 109. The period of rapid skeletal and sexual maturation that takes place at the beginning of adolescence is called: A. sex typing. B. gender identification. C. puberty. D. menarche. Answer: C 110. Puberty marks the onset of: A. middle childhood. B. adolescence. C. infancy. D. gender identification. Answer: B 111. The main class of male sex hormones is: A. estrogens. B. androgens. C. estradiol. D. cortisol. Answer: B 112. Which of the following statements is true of pubertal changes in human beings? A. Hormonal changes are solely responsible for adolescent behavior. B. Androgen is associated in boys with the development of genitals, an increase in height, and voice change. C. Boys who mature earlier than their peers tend to show more negative socioemotional outcomes. D. Girls who mature earlier than their peers tend to show more positive socioemotional outcomes. Answer: B 113. Which of the following regions of the brain is concerned with emotions? A. Prefrontal cortex B. Amygdala C. Occipital lobe D. Medulla oblongata Answer: B 114. Which of the following regions of the brain is concerned with reasoning and decision making? A. Prefrontal cortex B. Amygdala C. Occipital lobe D. Medulla oblongata Answer: A 115. Adolescents may lack the cognitive skills to control their impulses effectively because of the relatively slow development of the _____. A. prefrontal cortex B. amygdala C. occipital lobe D. medulla oblongata Answer: A 116. Which of the following statements is true of the adolescent brain? A. Because of the quick development of the prefrontal cortex, they display stronger cognitive skills to control their impulses. B. They display fewer emotions due to the slow growth of the amygdala. C. The prefrontal cortex continues to mature into early adulthood. D. The developmental disjunction in the brain accounts for reduced risk taking behavior of adolescents. Answer: C 117. Juliet refuses to go to the dance because she has a pimple on her chin. She fears that everyone will talk about it behind her back. Her behavior illustrates: A. the basal metabolic rate. B. the adolescent identity crisis. C. peer influence. D. adolescent egocentrism. Answer: D 118. Tanya, a fourteen-year-old girl, thinks that she is unique and assumes that others at school notice everything about her. She is very confident and takes extra care of her looks. In this scenario, Tanya is exhibiting adolescent _____. A. invulnerability B. egocentrism C. ignorance D. immaturity Answer: B 119. According to Erikson, who among the following people is expressing identity confusion? A. Barney quit his job and is in pursuit of a job that is completely different from his previous job. B. Dan is an architect who is happy with his job, and he has made many achievements in his career. C. Peter tried learning to play a guitar and realized that he is not good at it, so he is planning to learn to play the piano. D. Megan has suddenly isolated herself from her family and friends, after being rejected by a local music band. Answer: C 120. Jeanette is a teenager who is very different from her parents. She follows her own styles and mannerisms that emphasize her uniqueness. According to Erikson, Jeanette is attempting to establish a(n): A. intimacy. B. generativity. C. identity. D. integrity. Answer: C 121. If 20-year-old Peter is unsure of what he should do with his life and where he fits in, Erikson would most likely agree that Peter did not successfully complete the stage of: A. intimacy versus isolation. B. generativity versus stagnation. C. autonomy versus shame and doubt. D. identity versus identity confusion. Answer: D 122. Which of the following is a dimension of identity according to Marcia’s theory on identity status? A. Compensation B. Optimization C. Exploration D. Acceptance Answer: C 123. Megan is a 17-year-old girl who is interested in music. She wants to become a pop star and therefore, has joined Piano and vocal training classes. According to Marcia’s theory on identity status, which of the following dimensions of identity is being focused by Megan? A. Compensation B. Optimization C. Commitment D. Exploration Answer: C 124. According to Marcia’s theory on identity status, _____ refers to a person investigating various options for a career and for personal values. A. commitment B. compensation C. exploration D. optimization Answer: C 125. According to Marcia’s conceptualization of identity development, identity _____ describes an individual who has explored alternative paths but has not yet made a commitment. A. diffusion B. foreclosure C. moratorium D. achievement Answer: C 126. Which of the following is the preferred parenting style for most adolescents? A. Inattentive B. Authoritative C. Permissive D. Neglectful Answer: B 127. Which of the following statements describes the best approach to parenting an adolescent? A. Parents should help to structure their children’s choices and provide guidance. B. Parents should let their children make mistakes, and then punish them for all their mistakes. C. Parents should not interfere or supervise in their children’s choices of social settings to make them feel independent. D. Parents should make all decisions for their children regarding their friends, social settings, and academic choices. Answer: A 128. Which of the following statements is true of parent and peer influences in adolescent development? A. To help adolescents reach their full potential, a key parental role is to be an effective dictator. B. During adolescence, individuals spend less time with peers than they did in childhood. C. Adolescent peer influences can be positive or negative. D. Successfully parenting adolescents means restricting adolescents’ autonomy. Answer: C 129. Berta is a fashion designer, who is not happy both at work and home. She is unable to create new designs for her clients. She has also filed for a divorce. According to Jeffrey Arnett, which of the following features of emerging adulthood is described by this scenario? A. Self-focus B. Instability C. Age of possibilities D. Feeling “in between” Answer: B 130. Which of the following is NOT one of the five main features of emerging adulthood as identified by Jeffrey Arnett? A. Instability B. Social obligation C. Self-focus D. Feeling “in between” Answer: B 131. According to Jeffrey Arnett, an emerging adult who considers himself neither an adolescent nor a full-fledged adult is associated with the _____ feature of emerging adulthood. A. identity exploration B. diffusion C. self-focus D. feeling “in between” Answer: D 132. Which of the following is an indication of menopause? A. Hot flashes B. Increase in estrogen production C. Activeness D. Decrease in body temperature Answer: A 133. Which of the following symptoms is a person entering middle age likely to experience? A. Increase in motor speed B. Increase in height C. Thinner hair D. Increase in melanin production Answer: C 134. Mathew is a 35-year-old basketball player. He is worried that after a few years he might not be able to play basketball like he does now due to the physical changes his body will undergo. Which of the following is the best way for Mathew to deal with these changes caused by aging? A. He should not give up on his passion and play basketball, even if it causes a lot of stress. B. He should forget basketball, because his body cannot cope with the physical stress. C. He should become a basketball coach; this way he’ll enjoy his passion in a different way. D. He should exercise more to make his body adapt to the stress caused by the sport. Answer: C 135. One of the ways older adults navigate the physical changes associated with age is through _____, which is a process of changing goals and developing new ways to engage in desired activities. A. selective optimization with compensation B. exploration with commitment C. identity matching D. lateralization Answer: A 136. Which of the following biological theories of aging emphasizes the role of telomeres? A. Free-radical theory B. Cellular-clock theory C. Hormonal stress theory D. All of these Answer: B 137. _____ states that cells can divide a maximum of about 100 times and that, as we age, our cells become less capable of dividing. A. Free-radical theory B. Cellular-clock theory C. Hormonal stress theory D. Cell assembly theory Answer: B 138. _____ states that people age because unstable oxygen molecules are produced inside their cells, which damage the DNA and other cellular structures. A. Free-radical theory B. Cellular-clock theory C. Hormonal stress theory D. Disposable soma theory Answer: A 139. _____ is the specialization of function in one hemisphere of the brain or the other. A. Bicameralism B. Selective optimization C. Lateralization D. Ambidexterity Answer: C 140. Which of the following is a difference between older and younger adults? A. Younger adults are usually wiser than older adults. B. Older adults process information faster than younger adults. C. Older adults tend to not do as well as younger adults in most aspects of memory. D. Younger adults usually take longer than older adults to remember information about world knowledge. Answer: C 141. Early adulthood is a period during which a person either builds a network of social relationships or becomes socially lonely. This developmental dilemma, as described by Erikson, is known as: A. identity versus identity diffusion. B. intimacy versus isolation. C. generativity versus stagnation. D. integrity versus despair. Answer: B 142. Annie, a 20-year-old, is in Erikson’s stage of intimacy versus isolation. Which of the following statements is true of Annie at this particular stage? A. She will gain the ability to plan for herself, or will live within the limits of others. B. She will learn to meet the demands of life, or will start to feel more inferior. C. She will acquire a sense of self, or will become confused about her role in life. D. She will form meaningful relationships, or will become socially segregated from others. Answer: D 143. 55-year-old Margot has retired early and is obsessed with gardening. She calls the police if children ride their bicycles down her sidewalk and she does not entertain any visitors who stop by to admire at her garden. According to Erikson, her lack of generativity will result in: A. stagnation. B. transcendence. C. despair. D. role confusion. Answer: A 144. According to Erikson, during the later years of life of an adult, evaluating his or her life is characteristic of the _____ stage. A. identity versus identity diffusion B. intimacy versus isolation C. generativity versus stagnation D. integrity versus despair Answer: D 145. An older adult who sees meaning in his or her life continues to live a satisfying existence. Erikson refers to this as: A. despair. B. generativity. C. intimacy. D. integrity. Answer: D 146. Which of the following theories was developed to address the narrowing of social contacts and the increase in positive emotion that occur with age? A. Cellular-clock theory B. Four statuses of identity theory C. Attachment theory D. Socioemotional selectivity theory Answer: D 147. Which of the following statements is true of the socioemotional selectivity theory? A. Younger adults embrace the present moment with increasing vitality. B. Old age is the only reason that spurs people to maximize positive meaning in the present. C. Older adults gain a sense of meaning by focusing on satisfying relationships and activities in the present. D. Younger adults tend to be selective in their social interactions in order to maximize positive, meaningful experiences. Answer: C 148. Assimilation allows the person to enjoy a feeling of meaning, because: A. it modifies current ways of thinking. B. new experiences create new schemas. C. experiences fit into his or her preexisting schemas. D. it makes sense of life’s previously incomprehensible events. Answer: C 149. In adult development, when experience conflicts with existing schemas: A. one should forget the experience and move on. B. it is necessary to modify current ways of thinking. C. one should never change his current ways of thinking. D. it is necessary to fit the experiences in the existing schemas. Answer: B 150. Selfless pursuits in middle age: A. can be carried out only by individuals with a lot of money to spare. B. can ease an individual into a positive and meaningful old age. D. will increase stress during middle age. C. will lead to guilt during old age. Answer: B Short Answer Questions 151. Explain the views of a life span developmentalist about early experiences. Answer: Life-span developmentalists, who study both children and adults, stress that researchers have given too little attention to adult development and aging. They argue that although early experiences contribute powerfully to development, they are not necessarily more influential than later experiences. These experts say that both early and later experiences make significant contributions to development, and thus no one is doomed to be a prisoner of his or her childhood. 152. Briefly describe the three periods of prenatal development in human beings. Answer: Development from zygote to fetus is divided into three periods. The germinal period (weeks 1 and 2) begins with conception. During this period, the zygote forms and attaches to the uterine wall. During the embryonic period (weeks 3 through 8), rate of cell differentiation intensifies, support systems for the cells develop, and the beginnings of organs appear. By the end of this period, the heart begins to beat, the arms and legs become more differentiated, the face starts to form, and the intestinal tract appears. During the fetal period (months 2 through 9), the fetus grows and starts to move around. The last three months of pregnancy are the time when organ functioning increases and the fetus puts on considerable weight and size. 153. Discuss the usefulness of reflexes that are present in a newborn infant. Explain why some reflexes disappear after a few months from birth. Answer: Newborns come into the world equipped with several genetically wired reflexes that are crucial for survival. Babies are born with the ability to suck and swallow. If they are dropped in water, they will naturally hold their breath, contract their throats to keep water out, and move their arms and legs to stay afloat at least briefly. Some reflexes persist throughout life, such as coughing, blinking, and yawning. Others, such as automatically grasping something that touches the fingers, disappear in the months following birth, as higher brain functions mature and infants develop voluntary control over many behaviors. 154. Discuss two common criticisms of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development. Answer: Critics often point out that Piaget underestimated the cognitive abilities of infants and children. They also suggest that Piaget overestimated the cognitive abilities of adolescents and adults. Many adolescents and adults do not reason as logically as Piaget proposed. 155. Explain the concept of neglectful parenting as described by Diana Baumrind. Answer: Neglectful parenting is distinguished by a lack of parental involvement in the child’s life. Children of neglectful parents might develop a sense that other aspects of their parents’ lives are more important than they are. Children whose parents are neglectful tend to be less competent socially, to handle independence poorly, and (especially) to show poor self-control. 156. Lisa and Todd have both entered puberty at a very early age. How is this early development likely to affect both of these individuals? Answer: It is likely to have a positive effect on Todd but a negative effect on Lisa. Males who mature early tend to have higher self-esteem, are more popular, and are less likely to drink alcohol and smoke. Females who are early bloomers tend to be less outgoing and less popular, and they are more likely to smoke, use drugs, become sexually active, and engage less in academic pursuits. 157. Define the two dimensions of identity that were deemed important by James Marcia. Answer: Identity status describes a person’s position in the development of an identity. In Marcia’s view, two dimensions of identity, exploration and commitment, are important. Exploration refers to a person’s investigating various options for a career and for personal values. Commitment involves making a decision about which identity path to follow and making a personal investment in attaining that identity. Various combinations of exploration and commitment give rise to one of four identity statuses. Marcia’s approach focuses on identity as an active construction, an outcome of a process of thinking about and trying on different identities. 158. Provide a simple model for parenting an adolescent. Answer: Parents of adolescents should strive to find a balance between staying actively involved in the lives of their adolescents, while allowing the adolescent to explore their own identities. A key parental role is to be an effective manager, one who locates information, makes contacts, helps to structure off springs’ choices, and provides guidance. By assuming this managerial role, parents help adolescents to avoid pitfalls and to work their way through the decisions they face. 159. Describe the five main features of emerging adulthood as proposed by Jeffrey Arnett. Answer: Jeffrey Arnett identified five main features of emerging adulthood: • Identity exploration, especially in love and work: Emerging adulthood is the time of significant changes in identity for many individuals. • Instability: Residential changes peak during emerging adulthood, a time during which there also is often instability in love, work, and education. • Self-focus: Emerging adults “are self-focused in the sense that they have little in the way of social obligations, and little in the way of duties and commitments to others, which leaves them with a great deal of autonomy in running their own lives.” • Feeling “in between”: Many emerging adults consider themselves neither adolescents nor full-fledged adults. • Age of possibilities, a time when individuals have an opportunity to transform their life: Arnett describes two ways in which emerging adulthood is the age of possibilities: (1) Many emerging adults are optimistic about their future, and (2) for emerging adults who have experienced difficult times while growing up, emerging adulthood presents an opportunity to guide their lives in a positive direction. 160. Explain the hormonal stress theory. Answer: The hormonal stress theory argues that aging in the body’s hormonal system can lower resistance to stress and increase the likelihood of disease. As individuals age, the hormones stimulated by stress stay in the bloodstream longer than is the case for younger people. These prolonged, elevated levels of stress hormones are linked to increased risks for many diseases, including cardiovascular disease, cancer, and diabetes. Recently, the hormonal stress theory of aging has focused on the role of chronic stress in reducing immune system functioning. 161. Jack is concerned that as he ages he will lose a great deal of his cognitive abilities. Briefly discuss why Jack should not be overly concerned. Answer: Although some loss of processing speed or reaction time to cognitive tasks may be inevitable, a few aspects of cognition might even improve with age. One such area is wisdom. Even for those aspects of cognitive aging that do decline, older adults can improve their cognitive skills with training. 162. Explain Gottman’s research about successful marriages. Answer: Gottman found four principles at work in successful marriages. • Nurturing fondness and admiration: When couples put a positive spin on their talk with and about each other, marriages tend to work. • Turning toward each other as friends: Partners see each other as friends and turn toward each other for support in times of stress and difficulty. • Giving up some power: Bad marriages often involve one partner who is a power-monger. • Solving conflicts together: Couples work to solve problems, regulate their emotion during times of conflict, and compromise to accommodate each other. 163. Explain the socioemotional selectivity theory. Answer: Laura Carstensen developed socioemotional selectivity theory to address the narrowing of social contacts and the increase in positive emotion that occur with age. The theory states that older adults tend to be selective in their social interactions in order to maximize positive, meaningful experiences. Although younger adults may gain a sense of meaning in life from long-term goals, older adults gain a sense of meaning by focusing on satisfying relationships and activities in the present. Unlike younger adults, who may be preoccupied with the future, older adults embrace the present moment with increasing vitality. 164. Define life themes. Answer: A life theme involves a person’s efforts to cultivate meaningful optimal experiences. 165. What kind of activities can help an adult lead a positive and meaningful old age? Answer: Activities like devoting more energy and resources in helping others, and volunteering or working with young people can ease an adult into a positive and meaningful old age. True/False Questions 166. Cohort effects are differences between individuals that stem from the historical and social time period in which they were born and developed. Answer: True 167. A fetus is immune to the larger environment surrounding the mother, because it is protected by the womb of the mother. Answer: False 168. Newborns come into the world equipped with several genetically wired reflexes that are crucial for survival. Answer: True 169. During the second year after birth, growth accelerates, but activities such as running and climbing slow down. Answer: False 170. Motor development is not the consequence of nature or nurture alone. Answer: True 171. The process of myelination is completed during the prenatal period. Answer: False 172. According to Piaget, sucking is an example of an early schema. Answer: True 173. According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, preoperational thought is more symbolic than sensorimotor thought. Answer: True 174. In the context of Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas’s types of temperament in children, the easy child generally has a positive mood. Answer: True 175. Erikson’s theory of socioemotional development is important because he viewed this type of development as a lifelong process. Answer: True 176. Freddie regularly steals small office supplies from school. When he is asked why he thinks this is okay, he says, “Because they never notice.” This is an example of Kohlberg’s conventional level of moral development. Answer: False 177. According to Kohlberg’s stages of moral development, at the postconventional level, behaviors are based on the threat of punishment. Answer: False 178. Behavior that helps others is called prosocial behavior. Answer: True 179. Ethnic identity is less important during adolescence because the changes experienced during that time are universal. Answer: False 180. Biculturalism is a challenge for those trying to establish an ethnic identity. Answer: True 181. The age range for the emerging adulthood period is approximately 25 to 31 years of age. Answer: False 182. In terms of physical development, a decline in strength and speed is often first noticed in the 40s. Answer: False 183. According to Gottman, when couples put a positive spin on their talk with and about each other, marriages tend to work. Answer: True 184. In terms of social relationships, older adults may become more selective about their social networks. Answer: True 185. Children’s psychological development occurs in concert with physical development. Answer: True Test Bank for The Science of Psychology: An Appreciative View Laura A. King 9780078035401, 9781260500523, 9780073532066, 9781259255533
