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Chapter 5 Multiple Choice Questions 1. William James described the human mind as a: A. state of heightened awareness. B. subconscious machine. C. stream of consciousness. D. metacognitive processor. Answer: C 2. The process by which individuals think about thinking is referred to as: A. metacognition. B. a stream of consciousness. C. an altered state of awareness. D. groupthink. Answer: A 3. Which of the following terms refer to the physiological state of being engaged with the environment? A. Arousal B. Awareness C. Intuition D. Insight Answer: A 4. _____ includes knowing about oneself and thoughts about one’s experiences. A. Transcendence B. Awareness C. Intuition D. Arousal Answer: B 5. An individual’s awareness of external events and internal sensations under a condition of arousal is called: A. perception. B. metacognition. C. consciousness. D. reinforcement. Answer: C 6. Britney is aware of the thoughts running through her mind and the emotions triggered by some of those thoughts. She is also aware of the sounds she hears, the things she sees in her room and outside the window, the smell of coffee brewing in the kitchen, and the smell of freshly cut grass coming through the window. She would be considered to be in a state of: A. consciousness. B. transcendence. C. obstructionism. D. hyperkinesis. Answer: A 7. The concept of “theory of mind” is best described as: A. an altered state of consciousness or a psychological state of altered attention and expectation in which the individual is unusually receptive to suggestions. B. an understanding that everyone thinks, feels, perceives, and has private experiences. C. one’s misinterpretation of subconscious thoughts. D. the principle that governs controlled processing. Answer: B 8. Three-year-old Missy and her four-year-old brother Bob are watching a movie. In the movie, a “monster” sneaks into the closet while a little boy is sleeping. While Missy says nothing, Bob begins to shout at the screen telling the little boy not to open the closet door. Their different reactions reflect: A. the social learning theory. B. the theory of mind. C. problems with perception. D. insight discrepancies. Answer: B 9. Which of the following represents the most alert states of human consciousness? A. Controlled processes B. Automatic processes C. Altered states of consciousness D. Subconscious states of awareness Answer: A 10. Controlled processes: A. require divided attention. B. include concentrating on a specific aspect of experience while also paying attention to others. C. are faster than automatic processes and are less likely to involve the prefrontal cortex. D. involve individuals actively focusing their efforts toward a goal. Answer: D 11. Frank buys a new smartphone and tries exploring the phone’s features as soon as he reaches home. While doing so, he fails to hear the doorbell, which has been ringing for five minutes. This illustrates the concept of: A. controlled processes. B. automatic processes. C. altered states of consciousness. D. subconscious awareness. Answer: A 12. Timmy is going to participate in the national spelling bee competition to be held over the weekend. In order to prepare for the competition, he locks himself in his room and starts memorizing words along with their spelling. His mom calls him several times for supper, but he is so engrossed in memorizing that he ignores her repeated calls. Timmy is exhibiting: A. controlled processing. B. automatic processing. C. an altered state of consciousness. D. subconscious awareness. Answer: A 13. _____ is a person’s capacity to harness consciousness, to focus in on specific thoughts while ignoring others. A. Automatic processing B. Executive function C. Daydreaming D. Metacognition Answer: B 14. Thomas is playing his video game and is about to complete the last level. He seems unaware that his mom has been calling him for long. Which of the following is Thomas demonstrating? A. Arousal B. Automaticity C. Daydreaming D. Selective attention Answer: D 15. Nick is studying for his science test that is scheduled to be held the next day. He is unaware that his cellphone has been ringing loudly for the past five minutes. In this case, Nick is exhibiting: A. divided attention. B. selective attention. C. daydreaming. D. arousal. Answer: B 16. Aaron is working on a history assignment that he must submit the next day. His favorite TV show is on air, but he continues to work on the assignment as it is a priority. In this case, Aaron is demonstrating: A. divided attention. B. selective attention. C. daydreaming. D. arousal. Answer: B 17. States of consciousness that require little attention and do not interfere with other ongoing activities are called: A. controlled processes. B. automatic processes. C. altered states of consciousness. D. subconscious states. Answer: B 18. Automatic processes: A. require little attention. B. need more conscious effort than controlled processes. C. interfere with other ongoing activities. D. are unconscious behaviors. Answer: A 19. Mrs. Goldman was a little startled when she realized that while driving home she didn’t really remember driving the last mile. For Mrs. Goldman, driving has probably become a(n): A. controlled process. B. metacognitive process. C. time to engage in selective attention. D. automatic process. Answer: D 20. Sharon can type a text message on her cell phone without even looking at the keypad. This is an example of: A. theory of mind. B. executive function. C. automatic processing. D. an altered state of consciousness. Answer: C 21. Which of the following statements is true of daydreaming? A. Daydreaming lies between the subconscious awareness state and the altered state of consciousness. B. Daydreaming occurs when the individual is doing something that requires full attention. C. Individuals drift into a world of fantasy when they daydream. D. Although daydreaming helps individuals cope, create, and fantasize, it also makes the mind idle and inactive. Answer: C 22. The teacher has called on Sarah four times, yet she has not responded or acknowledged the teacher in anyway. She has a slight smile on her face. Which of the following is Sarah most likely demonstrating? A. Awareness B. Daydreaming C. Selective abstraction D. Unconsciousness Answer: B 23. During a class lecture, Veronica fancies herself to be attending a Bon Jovi concert at Miami. She is most likely: A. in an altered state of consciousness. B. exhibiting controlled processing. C. daydreaming. D. lacking awareness. Answer: C 24. Kathy says that when she meditates, she feels like she becomes one with the universe. Kathy experiences _____ during her meditative sessions. A. an altered state of consciousness B. daydreaming C. a peak experience D. a period of divided consciousness Answer: A 25. Due to drug use, Juan sometimes displays higher levels of awareness while Terri sometimes displays lower levels of awareness. These conditions are best referred to as: A. daydreaming. B. automatic processes. C. altered states of consciousness. D. waking subconscious awareness. Answer: C 26. Drugs, trauma, fatigue, hypnosis, and sensory deprivation produce: A. normal brain waves. B. sleep apnea. C. a state called hypnagogic reverie. D. altered states of consciousness. Answer: D 27. Betty has dissociative identity disorder. Dr. Harper hypnotizes her to interact with the other personalities that she exhibits as a result of her condition. Betty is most likely: A. exhibiting increased level of consciousness. B. demonstrating automatic processing. C. in an altered state of consciousness. D. representing higher executive function. Answer: C 28. Jared has consumed excessive alcohol at a party. Therefore, he is exhibiting: A. an altered state of consciousness. B. higher controlled processes. C. automatic processing. D. an executive function. Answer: A 29. Jesse dreamed that he failed his science test. He is exhibiting: A. automatic processing. B. an altered state of consciousness. C. subconscious awareness. D. no awareness. Answer: C 30. _____ refers to the subconscious processing that leads to a solution to a problem after a break from conscious thought about the problem. A. Incubation B. Metacognition C. Theory of mind D. Executive function Answer: A 31. It is the end of the month and Cindy has several bills yet to pay, but she does not have much money left. She spends most of the day thinking how she is going to make the payments. Later, while watching TV, she finds a solution to her problem. Cindy is demonstrating: A. metacognition. B. awareness. C. controlled processing. D. incubation. Answer: D 32. According to Sigmund Freud, _____ mental processes occur without a person being aware of them. A. metacognitive B. unconscious C. metaphysical D. conscious Answer: B 33. _____ are daily behavioral or physiological cycles that involve the sleep/wake cycle, body temperature, blood pressure, and blood sugar level. A. Circadian rhythms B. Lunar rotational effects C. Non-REM sequences D. Sensorimotor stages Answer: A 34. Circadian rhythm refers to: A. the pattern of emotional ups and downs a person routinely experiences during the day. B. the daily behavioral or physiological cycles. C. the jet lag experienced following an extensive transoceanic flight. D. the five stage cycle that a person experiences during a normal night of sleep. Answer: B 35. A class project required a student nurse to make hourly records of her own blood pressure and body temperature over a 30-day period. When the data were graphed, it was evident that these readings changed in a predictable way on a daily basis. The reason for this regularity is that many physiological processes are: A. determined by subconscious expectations. B. governed by circadian rhythms. C. controlled by daily lunar cycles. D. correlated with lunar rotation. Answer: B 36. _____ is a small brain structure that uses input from the retina to synchronize its own rhythm with the daily cycle of light and dark. A. Hypothalamus B. Suprachiasmatic nucleus C. Cerebral cortex D. Pineal gland Answer: B 37. Ross takes a flight from Log Angeles to New York to attend a business meeting the next day. He checks into a hotel and goes to bed at 11 p.m. However, he is unable to fall asleep even though he is accustomed to sleeping by 11 p.m. Ross is unable to sleep because: A. his body time is out of phase with clock time. B. he is in an altered state of consciousness. C. he is in a state of incubation. D. he is experiencing controlled processing. Answer: A 38. Bradley participates in a sleep study at a university clinic. The researchers measure his body’s physiological changes while he is sleeping. Which hormone do they find in large doses just before Bradley wakes up? A. Melatonin B. Growth hormone C. Cortisol D. Prolactin Answer: C 39. Helen works night shift at a local grocery store every other day. She has trouble sleeping, which is most likely due to: A. excess of melatonin. B. the fact that her circadian rhythms do not follow a 24-hour cycle. C. the fact that she experiences fewer than normal periods of REM sleep per night. D. a state called hypnagogic reverie. Answer: B 40. Hannah, a call center employee working in day shift, has been asked to work a night shift on Tuesday. During her night shift, Hannah falls asleep at her desk around midnight. Which of the following can best explain her behavior? A. Her circadian rhythm has become desynchronized. B. She is experiencing an altered state of consciousness. C. She is demonstrating incubation. C. Her metacognition level has significantly increased. Answer: A 41. Professional baseball players often travel from coast to coast. Which chemical in the body may be responsible for the fatigue that many of these players face on their first day in a new city? A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Cortisol D. Acetylcholine Answer: C 42. Jet lag can be best explained by: A. the elevation of serotonin in the suprachiasmatic nucleus. B. the dramatic changes in environmental stimuli. C. dietary changes. D. the effect of time shifts on circadian rhythm. Answer: D 43. Rebecca lives in Boston. Her friend, Serena, just flew in from Denver. To help Serena adjust to the new time zone, Rebecca should: A. give Serena a lot of coffee. B. let her sleep all day. C. offer her a dose of melatonin. D. take her to a movie to keep her out of the sunlight. Answer: C 44. George has a history exam the next day, so he has been studying hard. If he wants to remember most of what he has studied, he should: A. go to sleep rather than staying awake all night. B. keep studying through the night. C. take a break and watch some TV rather than studying all night. D. eat a large meal to help him stay awake. Answer: A 45. Psychological research on sleep and memory has found that staying up all night to study for an exam is likely to: A. increase memory retention. B. lower memory retention. C. improve brain function as well as test scores. D. reduce brain function but not test scores. Answer: B 46. Sleep deprivation has been shown to: A. increase the inability to sustain attention. B. reduce the complexity of brain activity. C. increase the difficulty in making healthy choices. D. All of these. Answer: D 47. _____ is a disorder, caused by a genetic mutation, involving a progressive inability to sleep. A. Sleep paralysis B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Sleep apnea D. Narcolepsy Answer: B 48. The waves associated with relaxation or drowsiness are called _____ waves. A. alpha B. beta C. theta D. delta Answer: A 49. Jennifer has decided to go to bed early. Although her eyes are closed and she is very relaxed, she has not yet fallen asleep. An electroencephalograph (EEG) is most likely to indicate the presence of: A. delta waves. B. alpha waves. C. sleep spindles. D. rapid eye movements. Answer: B 50. Electroencephalographs (EEGs) of individuals in stage 1 sleep are characterized by _____ waves. A. beta B. delta C. alpha D. theta Answer: D 51. While attending a lecture, Lea starts yawning and fights hard to stay awake. She reclines in her chair and within minutes she falls asleep with her head jerking upward at short intervals. Lea is in: A. stage 1 sleep. B. stage 2 sleep. C. stage 3 sleep. D. stage 4 sleep. Answer: A 52. As a part of a research, Natasha initially had difficulty falling asleep in the sleep lab, but finally drifted into sleep and was not awakened when a student researcher knocked a can of soda off the desk. The electroencephalograph (EEG) is displaying theta waves with occasional sleep spindles. The researchers feel confident that Natasha is: A. about to wake up. B. in stage 2 of the sleep cycle. C. dreaming. D. in REM sleep. Answer: B 53. The stage when bedwetting (in children) and sleep talking occur is _____. A. stage 1 sleep B. delta sleep C. stage 2 sleep D. REM sleep Answer: B 54. Brenda goes to check on her sleeping daughter and observes that the child’s eyes are moving up and down and from left to right under her eyelids. It is likely that she is: A. in the deepest level of sleep. B. dreaming. C. in a hypnagogic state. D. waking up. Answer: B 55. Which of the following statements is true of REM sleep? A. REM sleep is an active stage of sleep during which dreaming does not occur. B. The longer the period of REM sleep, the more likely the person will report dreaming. C. Non-REM sleep is characterized by intense rapid eye movement and vivid dreaming. D. Reports of dreaming by individuals awakened from non-REM sleep are typically longer, more vivid, and less related to waking life than reports by those awakened from REM sleep. Answer: B 56. Which of the following best characterizes a night of sleep? A. A person falls into light sleep and then, ends in deep sleep. B. A person passes from light sleep to dream sleep and ultimately to deep sleep. C. A person’s depth of sleep alternates up and down several times. D. A person’s sleep cycle skips REM sleep. Answer: C 57. _____ refers to an active stage of sleep during which vivid dreaming occurs. A. Spindle sleep B. Delta sleep C. REM sleep D. Myoclonic sleep Answer: C 58. REM sleep is initiated by a rise in _____, which activates the cerebral cortex while the rest of the brain remains relatively inactive. A. adenosine B. serotonin C. acetylcholine D. norepinephrine Answer: C 59. REM sleep ends when there is a rise in _____, which increase the level of forebrain activity nearly to the awakened state. A. melatonin and acetylcholine B. serotonin and acetylcholine C. norepinephrine and melatonin D. serotonin and norepinephrine Answer: D 60. The powerfully sleep-inducing chemicals produced by the body’s cells while a person is fighting an infection are known as _____. A. melatonins B. cytokines C. serotonins D. norepinephrines Answer: B 61. Jerry is filing for divorce. Lately, he is also having trouble at his job. Prior to these problems, he did not experience any sleep disorder but these days he finds it extremely hard to fall asleep. Which of the following disorders is he most likely suffering from? A. Sleep apnea B. Narcolepsy C. Insomnia D. Schizophrenia Answer: C 62. Nikita is always tired. She goes to bed at about 10:30 every night and is asleep in seconds, but she wakes up frequently during the night. She is most likely suffering from: A. night terrors. B. sleep apnea. C. narcolepsy. D. insomnia. Answer: D 63. Sleepwalking occurs during _____ of the sleep cycle. A. stage 1 B. the REM stage C. stages 3 and 4 D. all stages Answer: C 64. Sleepwalking is: A. usually due to the use of sleeping pills. B. related to mental illness. C. a normal phenomenon. D. a symptom of sleep apnea. Answer: C 65. Erika often walks in her sleep past midnight. In formal terms, she is said to be exhibiting _____. A. somnambulism B. somniloquy C. insomnia D. narcolepsy Answer: A 66. Lily has been battling insomnia for a very long time. She recently began taking medication to help her sleep. After several weeks of taking the drug, she noticed that she no longer fits into most of her clothes. She realizes that she has put on ten pounds. Which of the following medications is she most likely taking? A. Valium B. Tylenol C. Ambien D. Prosom Answer: C 67. After several instances of waking up in the morning to find empty food containers on her bedroom floor, Janice learns from her doctor that her sleep eating is likely a side effect of the use of: A. Valium. B. Ambien. C. Xanax. D. Ecstasy. Answer: B 68. Theresa dreams that she is being chased by a lion. This is an example of: A. somnambulism. B. somniloquy. C. insomnia. D. a nightmare. Answer: D 69. Night terrors typically occur: A. among older adults. B. during non-REM sleep. C. due to sleep apnea. D. within an hour of falling asleep. Answer: B 70. Night terrors differ from nightmares as night terrors: A. occur during the slow-wave stage 4. B. are frightening dreams that awaken a dreamer. C. are more common than nightmares. D. occur during the REM sleep. Answer: A 71. _____ occurs during slow-wave stage 4 sleep. A. Nightmare B. Night terror C. Narcolepsy C. Insomnia Answer: B 72. Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by: A. sleepwalking and sleep talking. B. an anxious, panicky feeling. C. irresistible urge to sleep. D. excessively long periods of sleep. Answer: C 73. During lunch at the school cafeteria, Brianna falls asleep while sipping her glass of soda. She is suffering from: A. somnambulism. B. insomnia. C. sleep apnea. D. narcolepsy. Answer: D 74. The sleep disorder narcolepsy occurs when individuals: A. unexpectedly fall into REM sleep during an activity. B. have difficulty falling asleep whenever they would like. C. wake up earlier than desired, sometimes several times at night. D. stop breathing while they are sleeping. Answer: A 75. Narcolepsy is a disorder that involves: A. the temporary cessation of breathing during sleep. B. sudden uncontrollable seizures. C. sudden attacks of uncontrollable sleep. D. difficulty in falling asleep. Answer: C 76. Nolan and Bella were standing in the middle of the kitchen discussing vacation plans when Nolan suddenly crashed to the floor in a deep REM sleep. Nolan’s behavior indicates that he is suffering from: A. sleep apnea. B. insomnia. C. narcolepsy. D. night terrors. Answer: C 77. During a heated argument with his teenage daughter, Mr. Reed suddenly lapsed into a stage of REM sleep. Mr. Reed is most likely suffering from: A. narcolepsy. B. insomnia. C. sleep apnea. D. REM rebound. Answer: A 78. Sarah’s grandfather takes a nap in his recliner while snoring loudly. When he suddenly stops snoring, Sarah looks to see if he is fine. He appears not to be breathing. For a moment Sarah wonders if he’s dead, but suddenly he coughs and resumes snoring. Sarah’s grandfather appears to suffer from: A. insomnia. B. somnambulism. C. narcolepsy. D. sleep apnea. Answer: D 79. Which of the following disorders is characterized by the temporary cessation of breathing while sleeping? A. Narcolepsy B. Sleep apnea C. Night terror D. Insomnia Answer: B 80. Mr. Owens always sleeps restlessly, snoring and gasping during the night. It is most likely that Mr. Owens suffers from: A. sleep apnea. B. narcolepsy. C. night terror. D. insomnia. Answer: A 81. Courtney insisted her husband to see a doctor. She suspected that he had a sinus problem. He would snore loudly as well as fall silent several times in bed while sleeping. His behavior kept her from getting a good night of sleep. He was always tired regardless of the number of hours he slept. Courtney was surprised when the doctor suggested that her husband was suffering from: A. sleep apnea. B. narcolepsy. C. night terrors. D. sleep deprivation syndrome. Answer: A 82. Kevin suffers from sleep apnea. With this condition, he awakens as often as 50 times during the night due to: A. reoccurring dreams. B. ringing in his ears. C. a hypersensitivity to all sensory stimuli. D. failure in the opening of the windpipe. Answer: D 83. According to Sigmund Freud, a dream is: A. a person’s counter-life which he/she is unable to endure in the real world. B. a person’s unconscious desire that he/she wishes to fulfill. C. a piece of thought which has no coherent organization. D. a problem that a person has not been able to solve during the day. Answer: B 84. Gary turned to his wife when he woke up and said, “You won’t believe what I dreamed. I was being chased by men in suits; they were riding horses. They had long narrow briefcases and they were trying to run me down!” If Gary related his dream to a psychodynamic therapist, they would tell him that what he had dreamed was about not being able to pay his bills. Which element in this scenario represents the manifest content of the dream? A. Gary running for his life B. Gary’s concern over monthly bills C. The therapist’s interpretation of the dream D. The therapist’s plan to help Gary Answer: A 85. Gary turned to his wife when he woke up and said, “You won’t believe what I dreamed. I was being chased by men in suits; they were riding horses. They had long narrow briefcases, and they were trying to run me down!” If Gary related his dream to a psychodynamic therapist, they would tell him that what he had dreamed about was his fear of financial issues and not being able to pay all his bills. Which element in this scenario represents the latent content of the dream? A. The briefcases the men were carrying B. Gary’s concern over monthly bills C. The horses D. The therapist’s plan to help Gary Answer: B 86. The _____ theory of dreaming proposes that dreaming involves information processing and memory. A. psychodynamic B. functionalist C. cognitive D. activation synthesis Answer: C 87. Which of the following statements is true of the cognitive theory of dreaming? A. The theory rests on the idea that dreams are essentially conscious noncognitive processing. B. According to the theory, there is an essential search for the hidden, symbolic content of dreams. C. According to the theory, dreams are viewed as dramatizations of general life concerns that are similar to relaxed daydreams. D. According to the theory, very unusual aspects of dreams—such as odd activities, strange images, and sudden scene shifts—cannot be understood. Answer: C 88. The _____ theory of dreaming proposes that dreaming occurs when the cerebral cortex synthesizes neural signals generated from activity in the lower part of the brain. A. activation-synthesis B. cognitive C. manifest content D. latent reasoning Answer: A 89. According to activation-synthesis theory, dreams: A. result from the brain’s attempts to find logic in random brain activity that occurs during sleep. B. offer a unique opportunity for problem solving. C. are types of mental simulations that are very similar in content to a person’s everyday waking thoughts. D. are often, though not always, a sign of mental illness. Answer: A 90. A criticism of activation-synthesis theory is that: A. neural activity begins in the brain. B. damage to the brain stem reduces dreaming to a great extent. C. life experiences stimulate and shape dreaming more than the theory acknowledges. D. dreams are caused by fluctuating levels of neurotransmitters. Answer: C 91. Psychoactive drugs act on the nervous system to: A. alter consciousness. B. keep perception constant. C. relieve people of sleep apnea. D. improve blood flow. Answer: A 92. The need to take increasing amounts of a drug in order to get the same effect is referred to as: A. assimilation. B. transitive inference. C. tolerance. D. free association. Answer: C 93. Howard attends a college party where his friend offers him Valium, a tranquilizer. Howard feels very relaxed after taking the drug. Henceforth, he continues taking a Valium pill every day for the next six months. However, he increases his dose to two times a day to achieve the same calming effect. Howard’s behavior is likely the result of: A. transitive inference. B. tolerance. C. assimilation. D. lowered inhibitions. Answer: B 94. Brendon has been using Xanax for a period of over six months. Alex, his friend, asks him to stop using the drug as it adversely affects the body. Brendon listens to Alex and discontinues taking the drug. However, upon withdrawal, he experiences immense physical pain accompanied by increased craving for the drug. This is most likely due to: A. physical dependence. B. decreased tolerance. C. transitive inference. D. mental instability. Answer: A 95. Ian repeatedly uses heroin to reduce stress and enhance the feeling of well-being. Ian’s behavior is known as: A. psychological dependence. B. narcolepsy. C. insomnia. D. increased tolerance. Answer: A 96. Which of the following is the most common neurotransmitter activated by psychoactive drugs and found to be related to addiction? A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Norepinephrine D. Acetylcholine Answer: B 97. Which of the following best defines drug addiction? A. It is the state where an individual becomes secretive about taking a drug. B. It is an altered state of consciousness in which an individual is unusually receptive to suggestions. C. It is the physical or psychological dependence, or both, on a drug. D. It refers to the state where a person can live comfortably without a drug for prolonged periods. Answer: C 98. Drugs that create a sense of relaxation and lowered inhibitions by reducing the activity of the central nervous system are called: A. inhalants. B. stimulants. C. amphetamines. D. depressants. Answer: D 99. Which of the following slow down inhibition and judgment? A. Depressants B. Stimulants C. Hallucinogens D. Amphetamines Answer: A 100. Which of the following statements is true of alcohol? A. Alcohol is a type of stimulant. B. Alcohol decreases the concentration of the neurotransmitter gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA), which is widely distributed in many brain areas. C. Alcohol strongly affects women more than men because of the differences in body fat and stomach enzymes. D. Alcohol is a powerful drug that acts on the body primarily as a stimulant and speeds up the brain’s activities. Answer: C 101. Tranquilizers and alcohol belong to a drug category known as: A. stimulants. B. narcotics. C. depressants. D. sedatives. Answer: C 102. Jerry, who is a fairly conservative person, stopped at a bar on the way home from work to have a couple of drinks with his friends. On the way home, he suddenly pulls into a retail store and buys a new 60 inch wide screen TV. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his behavior? A. The alcohol in the drinks resulted in him experiencing REM sleep. B. The alcohol in the drinks reduced his inhibitions and impulse control. C. The alcohol in the drinks stimulated the brain centers associated with pleasure. D. The alcohol in the drinks caused him to hallucinate. Answer: B 103. Stimulants are psychoactive drugs that: A. slow down inhibition and judgment. B. modify a person’s perceptual experiences and produce visual images that are not real. C. slow down mental and physical activity. D. increase the central nervous system’s activity. Answer: D 104. Which of the following is a barbiturate? A. Alcohol B. Nembutal C. Valium D. Xanax Answer: B 105. Barbiturate: A. decreases central nervous system activity. B. enhances decision making. C. improves memory retention. D. can cure somnambulism and somniloquy. Answer: A 106. Valium and Xanax are: A. tranquilizers. B. opiates. C. barbiturates. D. amphetamines. Answer: A 107. Morphine and heroin are derivatives of: A. coca. B. ephedra. C. hashish. D. opium. Answer: D 108. Opiate drugs affect synapses in the brain that use _____ as their neurotransmitter. A. melatonin B. cytokine C. endorphin D. dopamine Answer: C 109. Opiates: A. decrease the risk of exposure to HIV. B. aggravate body pain. C. depress the central nervous system’s activity. D. decrease a person’s appetite for food and sex. Answer: C 110. Barbiturates and opiates are _____ drugs. A. stimulant B. depressant C. hallucinogenic D. inhalant Answer: B 111. Heather reported a boost in energy and a sense of well-being after taking a drug. Medical tests revealed increased activity of her central nervous system. The drug she took is most likely a: A. depressant. B. tranquilizer. C. hallucinogen. D. stimulant. Answer: D 112. Caffeine, nicotine, amphetamines, and cocaine are: A. hallucinogens. B. depressants. C. stimulants. D. narcotics. Answer: C 113. Which of the following statements is true of caffeine? A. It is a depressant drug. B. It decreases central nervous system activity. C. It is derived from natural components of plants. D. It is a main psychoactive ingredient of smokeless tobacco. Answer: C 114. Meredith always has a cup of coffee as soon as she wakes up. She usually has several more cups throughout the day. If she misses one in the afternoon, she gets a headache. Meredith’s headache is likely due to: A. depressant addiction. B. stimulant use/abuse. C. the placebo effect. D. lower levels of acetylcholine. Answer: B 115. Kate, a regular coffee drinker, complains of headaches and depressed mood when she skips her coffee in the morning. What is the likely cause of these complaints? A. Caffeine withdrawal B. Increased blood pressure C. Depressant addiction D. A placebo effect Answer: A 116. Bethany is experiencing headaches, lethargy, and difficulty concentrating at work. Which of the following drugs is she most likely to have stopped using? A. Alcohol B. Caffeine C. Marijuana D. Ambien Answer: B 117. _____ is the main psychoactive ingredient in all forms of smoking and smokeless tobacco. A. Nicotine B. Caffeine C. Amphetamine D. Opium Answer: A 118. Which of the following is NOT associated with the use of nicotine? A. Alertness B. Reduction in anger C. Tardive dyskinesia D. Reduction in anxiety Answer: C 119. _____ are stimulant drugs that people use to boost energy, stay awake, or lose weight. A. Opiates B. Tranquilizers C. Barbiturates D. Amphetamines Answer: D 120. Brett takes a drug that decreased his feeling of fatigue, created an elevated mood, and decreased his appetite. Which of the following drugs did he most likely take? A. Amphetamine B. Alcohol C. Heroin D. Valium Answer: A 121. Amphetamines are classified as: A. opiates. B. hallucinogens. C. depressants. D. stimulants. Answer: D 122. Prescription drugs for attention deficit disorder, such as Ritalin, are: A. hallucinogens. B. depressants. C. stimulants. D. narcotics. Answer: C 123. What type of drug is crystal meth? A. Opiate B. Depressant C. Amphetamine D. Hallucinogen Answer: C 124. Jacob’s friend Sarah loves the warmth she feels for everybody when she takes Ecstasy. Jacob warns her that repeated use of this drug could have lasting negative effects on the neurotransmitter: A. serotonin. B. endorphin. C. adenosine. D. GABA. Answer: A 125. _____ are psychoactive drugs that modify a person’s perceptual experiences and produce visual images that are not real. A. Depressants B. Stimulants C. Amphetamines D. Hallucinogens Answer: D 126. Which of the following statements is true of marijuana? A. The active ingredient in marijuana is THC, which specifically affects serotonin. B. Repeated usage of marijuana can enhance attention and memory. C. Marijuana disrupts the membranes of neurons but does not affect the functioning of hormones. D. Marijuana can trigger increased sensitivity to sounds, tastes, smells, and colors. Answer: D 127. “Medical marijuana” is known to: A. promote appetite. B. relieve pain. C. calm anxiety. D. All of these. Answer: D 128. Luke, who frequently takes drugs, keeps complaining that his drapes are growing tentacles that are threatening to strangle him. Luke is most likely taking: A. alcohol. B. Ecstasy. C. crack. D. lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD). Answer: D 129. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) acts primarily on the neurotransmitter: A. acetylcholine. B. norepinephrine. C. serotonin. D. GABA. Answer: C 130. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) and marijuana are: A. opiates. B. depressants. C. hallucinogens. D. stimulants. Answer: C 131. Which of the following is a health risk associated with alcohol? A. Ulcer B. Coma C. Malnutrition D. Hypertension Answer: A 132. Which of the following is an overdose effect of MDMA (Ecstasy)? A. Breathing difficulty B. Convulsion C. Extreme irritability D. Brain damage Answer: D 133. Loss of contact with reality is an overdose effect of: A. lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD). B. barbiturates. C. tranquilizers. D. caffeine. Answer: A 134. _____ is as an altered state of consciousness or a psychological state of altered attention and expectation in which an individual is unusually receptive to suggestions. A. Awareness B. Transcendence C. Hypnosis D. Automaticity Answer: C 135. In terms of states of consciousness, hypnosis involves a(n): A. high degree of controlled processing. B. strong defense against suggestibility. C. state of altered attention and expectations. D. unconsciousness similar to the state of deep sleep. Answer: C 136. In a television reality show, Trevor, the host, puts one of his contestants in a trance and asks her to pretend to be a famous singer. The contestant starts singing with confidence even though she has never sung publicly before. The contestant is in a state of: A. somniloquy. B. somnambulism. C. hypnosis. D. meditation. Answer: C 137. Laura decides to undergo hypnosis out of curiosity. She expects that hypnosis will result in a state of: A. increased physical stamina. B. heightened openness to suggestion. C. improved perceptual skills. D. elevated autonomic arousal. Answer: B 138. Which of the following statements is true of hypnosis? A. Individuals in a hypnotic state are hostile to external suggestions. B. Widespread areas of the cerebral cortex are disabled when individuals are in a hypnotic state. C. A hypnotic state is more similar to being relaxed and awake. D. Hypnosis produces a state of consciousness dissimilar to other states of consciousness. Answer: C 139. Janet is suffering from severe depression. She visits Dr. Garner, a psychotherapist, and tells him that she wants to relieve her anxiety. Dr. Garner tells her to concentrate on the ticking of her watch. He then tells her, “Your eyes are getting tired.” On hearing this, Samantha seems to feel drowsy and closes her eyes. In the session, Dr. Garner also says, “You are happy. Your life is full of positivity,” with which Samantha agrees. Dr. Garner is: A. performing hypnosis on Janet. B. helping Janet to meditate. C. recording Janet’s dreams. D. conducting a laboratory research. Answer: A 140. People who are easily hypnotized usually: A. can fall asleep easily. B. can focus and concentrate without great effort. C. can become deeply immersed in an imaginative activity. D. have difficulty concentrating while reading or listening to music. Answer: C 141. Who among the following is the most likely candidate to undergo hypnosis? A. Amanda gets totally immersed in the music she listens to. B. Jenna has difficulty concentrating while studying for her history test. C. Erica loves eating French food in her favorite restaurant. D. Bianca gets very upset when someone disturbs her while she studies. Answer: A 142. The divided consciousness view of hypnosis assumes that: A. hypnosis can block sensory input. B. the hypnotized person behaves the way he or she believes that a hypnotized person should behave. C. hypnosis involves the retention of a single state of consciousness. D. consciousness has a hidden part that stays in contact with reality and feels pain while another part of consciousness feels no pain. Answer: D 143. Critics of Ernest Hilgard’s divided consciousness view of hypnosis, suggest that: A. hypnosis is an abnormal state in which the hypnotized person behaves contrary to how a normal person would behave. B. the person undergoing hypnosis should not be given permission to admit to the pain that he or she was always feeling. C. the component that follows the hypnotist’s commands is not aware of what is going on in the entire hypnosis session. D. the hidden observer simply demonstrates that the hypnotized person is not in an altered state of consciousness at all. Answer: D 144. The _____ view describes hypnosis as a normal state in which the hypnotized person behaves the way he or she believes a hypnotized person should behave. A. social cognitive behavior B. divided consciousness C. psychodynamic D. hidden observer Answer: A 145. _____ involves attaining a peaceful state of mind in which thoughts are not occupied by worry. A. Meditation B. Motivation C. Hypnosis D. Narcolepsy Answer: A 146. Cory is diagnosed with bone tumor and experiences excruciating pain all through the day. Which of the following can help him in coping with the agony? A. Cory should attend a hypnosis session. B. Cory should take as much rest as possible. C. Cory should enroll in a meditation program. D. Cory should start consuming sedatives to combat the pain. Answer: C 147. Josh has been experiencing excruciating pain ever since his bike accident. Though he had been successfully operated, he often complains of agonizing pain in his right shoulder. Karen, his girlfriend, tells him that he can harness the power of his mind to overcome pain by concentrating his thoughts on the pain—not by trying to avoid it. Karen is referring to: A. somnambulism. B. the use of opiates. C. hypnosis. D. meditation. Answer: D 148. The overwhelming feeling of wellness right before a person falls asleep is referred to as: A. hypnagogic reverie. B. sleep apnea. C. a hallucination. D. a circadian rhythm. Answer: A 149. On a peaceful evening, Samantha sits upright on a chair in her lawn with her eyes closed. Then, she starts breathing repeatedly and recites “happy” several times. Samantha is practicing: A. narcolepsy. B. somnambulism. C. meditation. D. hypnosis. Answer: C 150. Which of the following statements is true of meditation? A. Meditation is an altered state of consciousness or a psychological state of altered attention and expectation in which the individual is unusually receptive to suggestions. B. As a physiological state, meditation shows qualities of sleep and wakefulness, yet it is distinct from both. C. The meditator is ignorant of his or her thoughts and feelings and is, therefore, not consumed by them. D. A meditative state is exactly similar to the hypnotic state. Answer: B Short Answer Questions 151. Explain the concept of executive function in the context of cognitive control. Answer: Executive function is a key aspect of controlled processing. It refers to higher-order, complex cognitive processes, including thinking, planning, and problem solving. These cognitive processes are linked to the functioning of the brain’s prefrontal cortex. Executive function is the person’s capacity to harness consciousness, to focus in on specific thoughts while ignoring others. This aspect of executive function is called cognitive control; it is the capacity to maintain attention by reducing interfering thoughts and being cognitively flexible. 152. Explain the concept of automatic processes. Answer: Automatic processes are states of consciousness that require little attention and do not interfere with other ongoing activities. They require less conscious effort than controlled processes. When a person is awake, his or her automatic behaviors occur at a lower level of awareness than controlled processes, but they are still conscious behaviors. 153. Describe the phenomenon of daydreaming. Answer: Daydreaming is a state of consciousness that lies between active consciousness and dreaming while asleep. Mind wandering is probably the most obvious type of daydreaming and can provide a useful distraction from the mundane flow of work. Problems can be solved or innovative ideas can be created during daydreaming. Moreover, daydreaming keeps a person’s mind active while helping him or her to cope, create, and fantasize. 154. Explain the concept of incubation. Answer: Incubation refers to the subconscious processing that leads to a solution to a problem after a break from conscious thought about the problem. It suggests that even as a person stops actively thinking about a problem, on some level his or her brain keeps working on finding a solution. 155. Describe circadian rhythms and their main functions. Answer: Circadian rhythms are daily behavioral or physiological cycles. They involve the sleep/wake cycle, body temperature, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels. They fluctuate throughout the day and night and operate on approximately a 24-hour cycle. 156. Discuss the effects of sleep deprivation. Answer: The effects of sleep deprivation include decline in alertness and cognitive performance, inability to sustain attention, decline in complex brain behavior and overall brain activity, decreased problem-solving ability, and problems with making healthy choices. 157. Discuss the roles of serotonin, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine with regard to sleep. Answer: Three important neurotransmitters involved in sleep are serotonin, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine. Neurotransmitter levels begin to drop at the onset of sleep and reach their lowest levels during the deepest sleep stage—stage 4. An increase in acetylcholine levels leads to REM sleep and a surge of serotonin and norepinephrine marks the end of REM sleep. 158. Melinda has two children. Her six-year-old daughter, Emma, awakens during a bad dream. After a minute, she gets up and goes to Melinda’s room, saying, “Mommy? Are you up?” Melinda wakes up and asks her why she is up during the night. Emma says, “Mommy, I dreamt that a monster was chasing me.” Seeing that Emma is a little perturbed, Melinda talks to her for a few minutes, then gets her some warm milk and tucks her back into bed. An hour later, Emma’s younger sister Katie, who is three years old, awakens screaming. Melinda runs to her room and checks her over. She does not seem to be in pain, feverish, or sick. She asks Katie what is the matter. Katie cries, “Mama, I’m scared!” Melinda asks her why. Katie frowns, puzzled, and shakes her head, “I don’t know!” Melinda asks, “Did you have a bad dream?” Katie answers, “I don’t remember, Mama, did I?” What are the terms used to describe each sister’s experience? Compare and contrast these experiences. Answer: Emma had a nightmare. Nightmares are frightening dreams that occur in REM sleep. The nightmare’s content invariably involves danger—the dreamer is chased, robbed, or thrown off a cliff. Nightmares peak at 3 to 6 years of age and then decline. Katie had a night terror. Night terrors occur in the deep non-REM sleep stage, and the individual awakens in a sense of panic, having no clear recollection of the dream. Night terrors, which peak at 5 to 7 years of age, are less common than nightmares, and unlike nightmares, they occur during slow-wave stage 4 (non-REM) sleep. 159. Explain narcolepsy and its effects. Answer: The disorder narcolepsy involves the sudden, overpowering urge to sleep. The urge is so uncontrollable that the person may fall asleep while talking or standing up. Narcoleptics immediately enter REM sleep rather than progressing through the first four sleep stages. Individuals with narcolepsy are often very tired during the day. Narcolepsy can be triggered by extreme emotional reactions, such as surprise, laughter, excitement, or anger. The disorder appears to involve problems with the hypothalamus and amygdala. Although narcolepsy usually emerges in adulthood, signs of the problem may be evident in childhood. 160. Describe sleep apnea and its symptoms. Answer: Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder in which individuals stop breathing because the windpipe fails to open or because brain processes involved in respiration fail to work properly. People with sleep apnea experience numerous brief awakenings during the night so that they can breathe better, although they usually are not aware of their awakened state. During the day, these people may feel sleepy because they were deprived of sleep at night. A common sign of sleep apnea is loud snoring, punctuated by silence (the apnea). 161. According to Freud, what is the difference between manifest content and latent content of a dream. Answer: According to Freud, manifest content is a dream’s surface content, which contains dream symbols that disguise the dream’s true meaning. On the other hand, latent content is a dream’s hidden content, its unconscious—and true—meaning. 162. How does psychological dependence differ from physical dependence? Answer: Psychological dependence is the strong desire to repeat the use of a drug for emotional reasons, such as a feeling of well-being and reduction of stress. Physical dependence is a physiological need for a drug that causes unpleasant withdrawal symptoms such as physical pain and a craving for the drug when it is discontinued. Addiction can describe either physical or a psychological dependence, or both, on a drug. 163. Describe how alcohol affects the brain. Answer: Alcohol has a powerful impact on the brain. It goes to the ventral tegmental area (VTA) and the nucleus accumbens (NAcc). Alcohol increases the concentration of the neurotransmitter gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA), which is widely distributed in many brain areas, including the cerebral cortex, cerebellum, hippocampus, amygdala, and nucleus accumbens. Alcohol consumption also may affect the areas of the frontal cortex involved in judgment and impulse control. 164. Describe the effects of stimulants. Answer: Stimulants are psychoactive drugs that increase the central nervous system’s activity. They generally produce a sense of increased energy, alertness, reduced anger and anxiety, pain relief, and help lose weight. They produce moderate to intense psychological dependence. 165. Discuss the nature and uses of hypnosis. Answer: When under hypnosis, individuals are aware of what is happening and an electroencephalograph (EEG) data indicates a predominance of alpha and beta waves. Generally, those who tend to become completely absorbed in what they are doing and who immerse themselves in imaginative activities are the most likely to be hypnotizable. Hypnosis can be used to treat alcoholism, somnambulism, depression, suicidal tendencies, post-traumatic stress disorder, migraine headaches, overeating, smoking, and diabetes. Research indicates that hypnosis is most useful for pain reduction. True/False Questions 166. When you think about your own thoughts, you are engaging in metacognition. Answer: True 167. Controlled processes represent the lowest levels of awareness. Answer: False 168. A person’s normal circadian rhythm represents a 12-hour cycle. Answer: False 169. Beta and alpha waves are more synchronous than other waves, forming a very consistent pattern. Answer: False 170. Stage 4 of non-REM sleep is characterized by sleep spindles. Answer: False 171. The longer the period of REM sleep, the less likely the person will report dreaming. Answer: False 172. Martha’s young son insists he went to the amusement park the previous day when he did not. Martha tells him that he probably dreamed this just before he awoke. “How do you know if I was dreaming?” he demands. She tells him that when she came into his bedroom just before he woke up, his eyes were moving up and down rapidly behind his closed eyelids. This indicates that he was having a dream. Answer: True 173. At a camping sleepover, Sasha discovers her friend, Chuck sleepwalking. Chuck is likely in the deepest stages of non-REM sleep. Answer: True 174. A night terror features sudden arousal from sleep and intense fear. Answer: True 175. Narcoleptics immediately enter REM sleep rather than progressing through the first four sleep stages. Answer: True 176. Kevin is diagnosed with sleep apnea. This is the sleep disorder that makes him sleepwalk. Answer: False 177. According to the activation-synthesis theory of dreaming, dreams are dramatizations of general life concerns that are similar to relaxed daydreams. Answer: False 178. People are only considered to be addicted to a drug if they show physical dependence. Answer: False 179. Rose is a chain cigarette smoker. Therefore, Rose is addicted to a stimulant. Answer: True 180. MDMA is an illegal synthetic drug with both stimulant and depressant properties. Answer: False 181. Melody tells Ben that a drug she took produced a dream-like alteration to her perceptual experiences. She must have taken a stimulant. Answer: False 182. Cocaine is the dried leaves and flowers of the hemp plant Cannabis sativa, which originated in Central Asia. Answer: False 183. Hypnosis can be used to reduce pain in patients. Answer: True 184. The altered consciousness of hypnosis can be achieved through meditation. Answer: True 185. Hypnagogic reverie refers to the state of being completely hypnotized. Answer: False Test Bank for The Science of Psychology: An Appreciative View Laura A. King 9780078035401, 9781260500523, 9780073532066, 9781259255533

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