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Chapter 10 Multiple Choice Questions 1. _____ is the force that moves people to behave, think, and feel the way they do, resulting in behavior that is energized, directed, and sustained. A. Intuition B. Autonomy C. Apathy D. Motivation Answer: D 2. After watching an episode of Dr. Alfred’s TV show, Shane wonders why anyone would want their dirty laundry to be aired in front of 70 million viewers. Shane is most likely wondering about the _____ of Dr. Alfred’s guests. A. motivation B. instincts C. self-esteem D. intelligence Answer: A 3. Whenever Olivia watches a television commercial featuring food, she is ridden by a desire to eat. These feelings of hunger stimulate Olivia to go to the kitchen to search for food. Olivia’s behavior can be studied by conducting research in the area of: A. intuition. B. motivation. C. sensation. D. perception. Answer: B 4. Jenna studies judiciously for three hours every day because she wants to ace her pre-final exams. The force that guides Jenna to engage in such behavior is called _____. A. motivation B. instinct C. apathy D. intuition Answer: A 5. Which of the following best defines an instinct? A. An aroused state that occurs because of a physiological need B. A deprivation that energizes a drive to eliminate or reduce the deprivation C. An innate biological pattern of behavior that is assumed to be universal throughout a species D. A type of behavior that is inculcated through experience and learning Answer: C 6. Which of the following concepts best explains the need for a shoal of salmon to return one to four years after being at sea to the fresh waters where they were hatched? A. Self-regulation B. Instinct C. Drive D. Desire Answer: B 7. Whenever a dog falls into a puddle of water, it shakes itself to dry its wet fur. Which of the following best describes the dog’s pattern of behavior? A. Self-regulation B. Intuition C. Instinct D. Desire Answer: C 8. Loggerhead turtles lay their eggs underground, in sandy beaches. As soon as the eggs hatch, the infant turtles crawl out of their nests and move toward the sea. Which of following best describes this pattern of behavior? A. Motivation B. Drive C. Instinct D. Desire Answer: C 9. Dr. Know-it-All hosts a TV talk show. One of his guests, Joe Collins, complains of his intense annoyance with people who talk on their cell phones while driving. Joe asks Dr. Know-it-All to explain why he reacts so strongly to this type of situation. Dr. Know-it-All immediately exclaims that Joe has an instinct for cell phone irritation. Is Dr. Know-it-All correct to assume that instinct is the cause of Joe’s behavior? A. Yes, an instinct is the basis for all human behaviors. B. Yes, an instinct is a person’s primal reaction to all annoying behaviors. C. No, an instinct can only explain adaptive human behaviors. D. No, an instinct cannot explain complex human behaviors accurately. Answer: D 10. Drive pertains to a(n) _____, whereas need involves a physiological one. A. innate state B. psychological state C. physical state D. biological state Answer: B 11. Sarah is hungry. She cooks herself a meal and then sits down by herself to eat it. In this instance, Sarah is satisfying her _____. A. instinct B. objective C. need D. reflex Answer: C 12. The feeling of hunger that initiates the act of opening a refrigerator for food best represents a(n): A. instinct. B. objective. C. drive. D. reflex. Answer: C 13. Nate begins to feel very thirsty during an annual sports meet in his college. Since he forgot to carry a bottle of water, Nate decides to go to the cafeteria to get some soda. Which of the following is responsible for urging Nate to walk toward the cafeteria to quench his thirst? A. Instinct B. Intuition C. Drive D. Reflex Answer: C 14. After running a marathon, Nick begins to perspire heavily. According to the drive reduction theory, Nick’s body will have a(n) _____ for water, which will consequently produce a(n) _____ for water. A. instinct; need B. drive; instinct C. drive; need D. need; drive Answer: D 15. Sarah has not eaten a morsel of food in 12 hours. Her body instantly develops a(n) _____ in response to her need for food. A. drive B. instinct C. reflex D. desire Answer: A 16. Which of the following is true of the drive reduction theory? A. Drive pertains to a physiological state, whereas need involves a psychological one. B. As a drive becomes stronger, an individual is motivated to increase it. C. Needs and drives are always closely associated. D. Drives do not always follow from needs. Answer: D 17. _____ is the body’s tendency to maintain an equilibrium, or a steady state or balance. A. Homeostasis B. Self-regulation C. Hypostasis D. Self-actualization Answer: A 18. Veronica dives into a swimming pool on a chilly winter day. Initially, she feels very cold and begins to shiver. However, after a while, Veronica stops shivering as her body begins to use energy to maintain its normal temperature. This phenomenon can be best explained as: A. self-regulation. B. homeostasis. C. hypostasis. D. self-actualization. Answer: B 19. Camilla goes out to shop one afternoon on a hot summer day. Her body begins to sweat and releases the excess heat. Which of the following is responsible for this physiological change in Camilla’s body? A. Diastases B. Self-actualization C. Self-regulation D. Homeostasis Answer: D 20. As a person exercises, the oxygen levels in his body begin to drop. Hence, the person begins to breathe more rapidly in order to ensure an adequate supply of oxygen to his cells. This increase in his breathing rate is an attempt to restore: A. drive. B. homeostasis. C. hypostasis. D. self-actualization. Answer: B 21. Jessica stayed up all night to study for a math exam. After the test, she returned to her dorm room and slept for seven hours to compensate for her lack of sleep. In the context of drive reduction theory, Jessica’s sleeping behavior was regulated by her body’s tendency to maintain: A. self-preservation. B. self-regulation. C. homeostasis. D. hypostasis. Answer: C 22. The goal of the drive reduction theory is _____. A. overlearning B. self-regulation C. self-actualization D. homeostasis Answer: D 23. A major criticism of the drive reduction theory is that it does not provide a comprehensive framework for understanding motivation because: A. all behaviors reduce drives. B. people often behave in ways that increase drives. C. there is no behavior that actually reduces drives. D. the concept of drive reduction has never been proven. Answer: B 24. Learning to perform a task so well that it becomes automatic is referred to as: A. self-actualization. B. observational learning. C. self-regulation. D. overlearning. Answer: D 25. A commando is trained to perform tasks so well that he can execute them even under conditions of high arousal, automatically, without giving it much thought. In the context of optimum arousal theory, which of the following terms can be used to describe this type of training? A. Self-regulation B. Self-actualization C. Overlearning D. Distributed practice Answer: C 26. _____ is the psychological principle stating that performance is best under conditions of moderate arousal rather than either low or high arousal. A. Self-regulation B. Weber’s law C. Homeostasis D. Yerkes-Dodson law Answer: D 27. Paige is a good golfer but has no interest in the upcoming golf tournament. Mary is fairly good at golf, and is somewhat excited, but not overly anxious about the tournament. Sara has only recently learned to play golf but has very high expectations and is really nervous about the tournament. Jenna is also a beginner, but she does not expect to play well. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, who among the following will perform the best at the golf tournament? A. Paige B. Mary C. Sara D. Jenna Answer: B 28. Jenna is a talented singer. Her singing is commendable when she is well-rehearsed and is performing with her school choir group. In such situations, she is moderately aroused and fairly relaxed. However, when Jenna’s friends are around, she gets overly aroused and anxious. In such situations, she finds it hard to focus and often makes mistakes. Which of the following psychological principles can be used to explain the rationale behind Jenna’s performance? A. Cannon-Bard theory B. Yerkes-Dodson law C. James-Lange theory D. Self-regulation Answer: B 29. Darrin is a good pianist. However, when he is alone, he becomes lethargic and is not motivated to perform well. At recitals with strangers, Darrin gets very overly aroused and often makes mistakes. His best performance is typically when his family and friends are nearby. In such situations, Darrin isn’t nervous and is only moderately aroused. This scenario best exemplifies the principle of _____. A. Yerkes-Dodson law B. two-factor theory C. James-Lange theory D. self-regulation Answer: A 30. According to the Yerkes-Dodson Law, optimum performance is achieved: A. in the absence of arousal. B. in the presence of a deterrent. C. when one is moderately aroused. D. when one is excessively agitated. Answer: C 31. Which of the following is true of the optimum arousal theory? A. When a person is very excited, his arousal levels are low. B. When a person is bored, his arousal levels are high. C. Performance is best in the absence of arousal. D. Performance is best under conditions of moderate arousal. Answer: D 32. Cannon and Washburn’s classic experiment on hunger revealed that when subjects reported: A. thirst, their stomach muscles were relaxing. B. satiation, their stomachs were contracting. C. hunger, their stomachs were contracting. D. thirst, their stomachs were empty. Answer: C 33. The hormone cholecystokinin (CCK): A. signals the brain to stop digesting the food. B. travels to the brain and triggers hunger. C. travels to the stomach to aid in digestion. D. signals a person to stop eating. Answer: D 34. When a person’s blood sugar level falls too low, he feels: A. energized. B. hungry. C. warm. D. satiated. Answer: B 35. Which of the following is most closely related to blood sugar control? A. Leptin B. Epinephrine C. Insulin D. Cholecystokinin Answer: C 36. Because the brain critically depends on glucose for energy, a sprinter would best be served by eating _____ prior to a race. A. candy B. lasagna C. steak D. broccoli Answer: A 37. Gary wants to lose weight by reducing his caloric intake. He eats a candy bar for breakfast instead of a bowl of cereal because the candy bar has fewer calories. Is Gary doing the right thing? A. Yes, the number of calories is the most important factor in losing weight. B. Yes, the candy bar will keep Gary from getting hungry longer than if he had eaten the cereal. C. No, the candy bar contains complex carbohydrates which will make Gary gain more weight. D. No, the candy bar will make Gary hungry sooner than if he had eaten the cereal. Answer: D 38. In the context of the biology of hunger, which of the following in true of leptin? A. Leptin increases food intake. B. Leptin increases energy expenditure. C. Leptin is associated with weight gain. D. Leptin is released by the salivary gland. Answer: B 39. Debbie is interested in working on projects that will help fight childhood obesity. She is offered a job in a laboratory where researchers are studying the effects of leptin on weight control. Is the job relevant to Debbie’s interest? A. No, leptin is only relevant to animal weight control. B. No, leptin is a neurotransmitter that is associated with memory. C. Yes, leptin is a hormone that is involved in blood sugar regulation. D. Yes, leptin is a hormone that is linked to human weight loss. Answer: D 40. Leptin and cholecystokinin (CCK) are similar in that they are both associated with: A. decreasing food intake. B. low blood sugar levels. C. high levels of insulin. D. triggering feelings of hunger. Answer: A 41. Soon after meeting with a car accident, Sally was rushed to the hospital. The doctors discovered that Sally’s ventromedial hypothalamus had suffered some damage as a result of the accident. In the context of the biology of hunger, the doctor should expect that Sally will: A. lose weight rapidly. B. lose weight gradually. C. gain weight rapidly. D. gain weight gradually. Answer: C 42. Harold was involved in a serious motorcycle accident. Harold's lateral hypothalamus was damaged as a result of the accident. Under such circumstances, which of the following is most likely to occur in the context of hunger and eating disorders? A. Harold will lose interest in eating. B. Harold will gain weight quickly. C. Harold will indulge in a binge-and-purge eating pattern. D. Harold will only eat when he’s hungry. Answer: A 43. Which of the following is true of the biology of hunger with regard to the human body? A. The hormone cytokine helps start the digestion of food, travels to the brain through the bloodstream, and signals a person to stop eating. B. Galactose is an important factor in hunger, probably because the brain critically depends on it for energy. C. The lateral hypothalamus is involved in reducing hunger and restricting eating. D. Hunger is triggered by a set of sugar receptors, located in the brain, when sugar levels fall too low. Answer: D 44. _____ influences eating by inhibiting the production of a neurotransmitter in the hypothalamus that induces eating. A. Adrenalin B. Insulin C. Leptin D. Calcitonin Answer: C 45. _____ antagonists have been used to treat obesity in humans. A. Dopamine B. Serotonin C. Acetylcholine D. Norepinephrine Answer: B 46. _____ refers to the weight maintained when the individual makes no effort to gain or lose weight. A. Basal metabolic rate B. Resting metabolic rate C. Set point D. Body mass index. Answer: C 47. Fat is stored in the _____. A. stem cells B. adipose cells C. dendritic cells D. keratinocytes Answer: B 48. Danielle is a woman of normal weight, whereas Ron is an obese man. Whenever they go out to dinner together, Ron always eats more food. Ron, a psychology major, correctly explains this difference in food intake by pointing out that: A. males release leptin at a slower rate than females. B. he has more fat cells than Danielle and he is not satiated until all his fat cells are filled. C. the ventromedial hypothalamus of his brain induces in him an urge to take in large portions of food. D. males and females have different levels of the hormone cholecystokinin. Answer: B 49. Edna loves McDonald’s sweet tea. Whenever she sees the famous “golden arches”, she drives right in and orders a sweet tea. This best illustrates the effect of _____ on her eating behavior. A. learned associations B. negative reinforcement C. avoidance learning D. modeling Answer: A 50. Which of the following is true of an individual suffering from obesity? A. An obese individual can have up to 10 to 20 billion fat cells. B. An obese individual has to eat more to feel satisfied. C. An obese individual has an intense fear of gaining weight that does not decrease with weight loss. D. An obese individual weighs less than 85 percent of what is considered normal for age and height. Answer: B 51. Sean is an obese teenager. He has strong cravings for food. He eats large portions of food every day. His mother, Anita, is worried about his eating habits as well as the health hazards that might arise as a result of overeating. Which of the following measures can prove most effective in curbing Sean’s obesity? A. Sean should only eat until he is satiated. B. Anita should compel Sean to finish all the food in his plate. C. Anita should serve food to Sean in a small-sized plate and bowl. D. Sean should follow a binge-and-purge eating pattern. Answer: C 52. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder: A. in which an individual is preoccupied with food but has a strong fear of becoming overweight. B. in which an individual consistently follows a binge-and-purge eating pattern. C. that involves the relentless pursuit of thinness through starvation resulting in a distorted body image. D. characterized by recurrent episodes of eating more food in a short period of time than most people would eat. Answer: C 53. Which of the following is associated with anorexia nervosa? A. High blood pressure B. Thickening of bones and hair C. Binge-and-purge eating pattern D. Severe constipation Answer: D 54. Nikita is an aspiring model. In order to fit into the standards of the fashion industry, she often starves herself. Even though she has a slim build, she never thinks she is thin enough. Nikita is mostly likely to be suffering from: A. anorexia nervosa. B. binge eating disorder. C. bulimia nervosa. D. somnambulism. Answer: A 55. Bianca is very self-conscious about her weight. She indulges in strict dieting and often she skips her meals. As a result, she was recently diagnosed with osteoporosis, an abnormal condition related to the thinning of bones. Bianca is most likely to be diagnosed with _____. A. somnambulism B. anorexia nervosa C. bulimia nervosa D. binge eating disorder Answer: B 56. Mariah is an adolescent. She idolizes Gisele Bundchen, the famous supermodel. Mariah desires to be skinny like Gisele because she believes that being thin is considered attractive. In her pursuit of losing weight, Maria often refrains from eating for several full days. She begins to fear the thought of gaining weight and is not satisfied even when she loses weight. Mariah is most likely suffering from: A. bulimia nervosa. B. obesity. C. binge eating disorder. D. anorexia nervosa. Answer: D 57. When Ginny’s mother looks at her, she sees an extremely skinny person. When Ginny looks at herself in the mirror, she sees a person who could shed a few more pounds. Ginny is most likely suffering from: A. obesity. B. binge eating disorder. C. schizophrenia. D. anorexia nervosa. Answer: D 58. Which of the following is true of anorexia nervosa? A. Anorexia nervosa is much more common in boys and men than girls and women. B. People suffering from this disorder weighs more than 85 percent of what is considered normal for age and height. C. Most individuals with anorexia nervosa are Latin American female adolescents or young adults from low-income families. D. Anorexia nervosa is said to have the highest mortality rate of any psychological disorder. Answer: D 59. Paris thinks her friend, Nicole, may be suffering from an undiagnosed case of anorexia nervosa. She shares her concerns with Nicole, but Nicole insists that anorexia nervosa is a trivial issue. Which of the following is the most serious consequence of anorexia nervosa? A. It can cause damage to the thyroid. B. It can cause extreme changes in personality. C. It can cause volatile mood swings. D. It can severely impair logical thinking. Answer: A 60. Which of the following individuals is most likely at a higher risk of developing anorexia nervosa? A. Daniel is 20 and works out at a gym. B. Amelia is 40 and follows a yo-yo diet. C. Jill is 17 and belongs to the upper middle class of society. D. Latoya is 25 and lives in a predominately impoverished neighborhood. Answer: C 61. Though her weight is normal, Ashley is terrified of gaining extra pounds. She knows she should stick to a healthy diet, but she often consumes huge servings of junk food—up to 5,000 calories in one sitting. Desperate to keep her weight under control, she then uses laxatives and diuretics to purge the calories. Ashley is suffering from: A. anorexia nervosa. B. bulimia nervosa. C. obesity. D. binge eating disorder. Answer: B 62. Rachel is a young woman of medium build. On a professional level, she has very high standards but suffers from low confidence. Rachel often engages in impulsive eating. However, after eating, she purges by self-induced vomiting because she has a fear of gaining weight. Rachel is most likely to be diagnosed with _____. A. bulimia nervosa B. obesity C. bipolar disorder D. anorexia nervosa Answer: A 63. Brianna has a sweet tooth. She cannot resist the urge to eat fudge brownies and chocolate tarts. She relishes feasting on sugary food items. However, being of a slim build, she wants to maintain her weight. She often gets depressed about her uncontrollable eating urges and consumes emetic, a drug to induce barfing. Brianna is most likely suffering from: A. bulimia nervosa. B. obesity. C. bipolar disorder. D. anorexia nervosa. Answer: A 64. Which of the following is true of the causes and treatments of bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa? A. Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa only occur in cultures that emphasize the ideal of thinness. B. Problems in regulating the neurotransmitter dopamine are related to both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. C. Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa affect the body but do not have any effect on the brain. D. Although anorexia and bulimia nervosa are serious disorders, recovery is possible. Answer: D 65. BED refers to a(n) _____ disorder. A. sleep B. eating C. movement D. nervous Answer: B 66. Which of the following is true of binge eating disorder (BED)? A. BED typically affects women more than men. B. The areas of the brain and endocrine system that respond to stress are overactive in individuals with BED. C. Drugs targeting the functioning of neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine are ineffective in treating BED. D. The areas of the brain involved in self-regulation and impulse control show enhanced activity in individuals with BED. Answer: B 67. Adam is a teenager with a huge appetite. He has an uncontrollable urge to eat large portions of junk food within very short intervals of time. He is embarrassed by his eating disorder and hence, prefers eating alone. Adam is most likely suffering from: A. binge eating disorder. B. anorexia nervosa. C. bulimia nervosa. D. bipolar disorder. Answer: A 68. Which of the following health complications is related to binge eating disorder (BED)? A. Tooth decay B. Thinning of bones and hair C. Hypertension D. Kidney problems Answer: C 69. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, the strongest human needs are: A. physiological needs. B. the needs for self-actualization. C. the needs for self-esteem. D. safety needs. Answer: A 70. Which of the following is true of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? A. The weakest needs are at the base of the hierarchy, and the strongest are at the top. B. Self-actualization is possible before the other needs in the hierarchy are met. C. Most people continue moving up the hierarchy after they have developed a high level of esteem. D. The higher-level needs can only be observed in a person who is relatively satisfied in the most basic needs. Answer: D 71. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, before a person can feel safe, he needs to: A. satisfy his physiological needs. B. find intimacy. C. achieve self-actualization. D. develop high self-esteem. Answer: A 72. In accordance with Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following factors can best explain a person’s difficulty in committing to a relationship? A. He does not have financial security. B. He has not achieved self-actualization. C. He likes to be alone. D. His esteem needs are not fulfilled yet. Answer: A 73. Jared is a salesman at a large retail store. Upon meeting his monthly sales target, he is honored with the title of “Star Salesman” by the management. Despite the recognition, Jared is not very happy. He feels that the management should have rewarded him with a bonus instead of a title. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs is Jared seeking to fulfill? A. Safety needs B. Physiological needs C. Esteem needs D. Self-actualization needs Answer: A 74. Dennis works as a salesman at a large retail store. He is happily married and lives in a safe neighborhood. He earns enough of money to eat and provide for his family. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs is Dennis most likely to fulfill next? A. Physiological needs B. Self-actualization C. Esteem D. Love and belongingness Answer: C 75. Consider the following scenario from the perspective of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory: William has volunteered to serve a war-torn country to try to improve the lives of the residents there. Assuming that the citizens have enough to eat and drink, which of their following needs should be fulfilled next? A. Safety needs B. Esteem needs C. Need for belongingness D. Self-actualization Answer: A 76. While free meals provided at schools are an attempt to satisfy one of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, students may still fail to experience a strong sense of acceptance and belonging unless they: A. reach self-actualization. B. feel like they are leaders. C. feel safe at school. D. have advanced thinking abilities. Answer: C 77. At age thirty-three, Ricky is a highly ranked partner in a law firm. He lives by himself and doesn’t find the time to socialize. He has a lavish house with an elaborate security system and owns a luxurious sports car. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following can best explain Ricky’s discontentment with life? A. Ricky’s physiological needs are not being met. B. Ricky’s need for belongingness is not being met. C. Ricky has not reached self-actualization. D. Ricky does not feel safe at home. Answer: B 78. The highest and most elusive of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is: A. esteem. B. self-actualization. C. belongingness. D. competence. Answer: B 79. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, self-actualization is possible: A. immediately after the needs for safety and protection have been fulfilled. B. immediately after the physiological needs have been fulfilled. C. only after all the other needs in the hierarchy have been fulfilled. D. once people undergo training on how to attain it. Answer: C 80. Which of the following is NOT a basic organismic need identified as part of the self-determination theory? A. The need to fulfill physiological needs B. The need to feel competent C. The need to feel autonomous D. The need to relate to another person Answer: A 81. According to self-determination theory, which of the following constitutes the three basic organismic needs of human beings? A. Competence, thirst, and sex B. Hunger, security, and love C. Competence, autonomy, and relatedness D. Hunger, esteem, and relatedness Answer: C 82. Lidia graduated from college ten years ago and is considering a career change. She is eager to find a position that provides her with challenges and allows her to grow as a person. To learn about potential career paths, she signs up for classes at the local community college. According to the self-determination theory, Lidia’s desire to explore and grow as a person reflects: A. relatedness. B. extrinsic motivation. C. competence. D. homeostasis. Answer: C 83. In the context of self-determination theory, which of the following best defines the term “competence”? A. Motivation to develop one’s full potential as a human being B. Sense of control of one’s own life C. Need to socialize with others D. Ability to bring about desired outcomes Answer: D 84. In the context of self-determination theory, which of the following best defines the term “relatedness”? A. The sense that one can gain skills and overcome obstacles B. The sense of being independent and self-reliant C. The need to engage in warm relations with other people D. The belief that one has the capability to accomplish related tasks Answer: C 85. In the context of self-determination theory, which of the following best defines the term “autonomy”? A. The sense that one can gain skills and overcome obstacles B. The sense of being independent and self-reliant C. The need to engage in warm relations with others D. The belief that one has the capability to accomplish a task Answer: B 86. Which of the following is true according to self-determination theory? A. Self-determination theory is a drive reduction theory. B. Organismic needs arise from deficits. C. The needs emphasized in the self-determination theory concern personal growth, not the filling of deficiencies. D. When behaviors serve the needs for competence, autonomy, and relatedness, individuals experience extrinsic motivation. Answer: C 87. Behavior that is extrinsically motivated serves needs for which of the following values? A. Relatedness B. Competence C. Autonomy D. Prestige Answer: D 88. Charlie focuses all of his attention on money, prestige, and his physical appearance. On the contrary, Matthew places more value on organismic needs. In the context of the self-determination theory, which of the following is Charlie most likely to experience? A. A lowered sense of self-actualization B. Physical illness C. A lowered sense of well-being D. All of these Answer: D 89. Many psychologists believe that: A. intrinsic motivation leads to more positive outcomes than extrinsic motivation. B. that extrinsic motivation is more likely to produce competent behavior and mastery. C. extrinsic motivation leads to more positive outcomes than intrinsic motivation. D. that extrinsic motivation enhances intrinsic motivation. Answer: A 90. In her kindergarten class, Margaret, the teacher, offers a marshmallow to a preschooler every time the preschooler writes an alphabet correctly on the classroom board. This is an example of: A. self-actualization. B. self-regulation. C. extrinsic motivation. D. intrinsic motivation. Answer: C 91. Jonah struggles to finish his algebra assignment even though he dislikes the subject. He fears that if he fails to complete his assignment on time, he might have to spend time in the school detention room. Which of the following is responsible for influencing Jonah’s behavior? A. Self-actualization B. Self-regulation C. Extrinsic motivation D. Intrinsic motivation Answer: C 92. Laura is a corporate employee. As she is interested in art, Laura enrolls herself for oil painting classes. During weekends, she attends the lessons and derives huge satisfaction from painting portraits in oil. Which of the following is responsible for stimulating Laura to paint? A. Self-actualization B. Self-regulation C. Extrinsic motivation D. Intrinsic motivation Answer: D 93. Ray played basketball for most of his life because he enjoyed the sport. He became so competent that he was given an opportunity to play professionally. Eventually, he signed a very lucrative contract with a regional basketball team. After the contract ran out, the team offered him slightly more money than the previous deal, but Ray decided that it was not enough. Which of the following best explains the rationale behind Ray’s decision? A. Ray’s organismic needs were not fulfilled yet. B. The team did not show Ray the respect that he deserved after becoming a professional player. C. Extrinsic motivation had replaced Ray’s intrinsic motivation to play. D. Ray has lost the motivation to play. Answer: C 94. Raymond is a salesman at a store that sells electronic gadgets. He meets his monthly sales target in time because it fetches him additional incentives besides his monthly salary. This is an example of: A. self-actualization. B. self-regulation. C. extrinsic motivation. D. intrinsic motivation. Answer: C 95. Bradley is an exceptionally good student. He enjoys studying and works hard toward improving the overall quality of his work. Bradley is motivated to study topics beyond the scope of his syllabus and takes pride in his gift for learning. Bradley’s behavior can be attributed to: A. self-actualization. B. self-regulation. C. extrinsic motivation. D. intrinsic motivation. Answer: D 96. Billy is the captain of the school football team. Football is his passion. He is not keen on academics. He only studies to avoid his parents’ disapproval. Billy’s attitude toward studying is most likely a result of: A. self-actualization. B. self-regulation. C. extrinsic motivation. D. intrinsic motivation. Answer: C 97. Gerald enrolls himself into the school’s basketball team only because his dad insisted that he do so. However, Gerald is interested in swimming. He believes that he would be a better swimmer than a basketball player. Gerald’s current performance in the school’s basketball team is influenced by: A. self-actualization. B. self-regulation. C. extrinsic motivation. D. intrinsic motivation. Answer: C 98. Many elementary school teachers offer prizes to students who read the most books during an academic year. The failure of many students to read books during the summer vacations may be due to a lack of: A. relatedness. B. self-actualization. C. intrinsic motivation. D. competence. Answer: C 99. Marsha does a good job because she knows that her performance will result in a bonus if she meets her goals. Dianna does an adequate job but lacks the motivation to perform in a timely manner. Georgia does a good job because she feels a sense of accomplishment when she meets her goals. All three women do the same kind of work. In the context of motivation, who among the three is likely to be the most competent at work? A. Marsha B. Dianna C. Georgia D. All three are equally competent. Answer: C 100. Setting goals, planning for the implementation of goals, and monitoring progress are all aspects of: A. the self-determination theory. B. self-regulation. C. the broaden and build theory. D. intrinsic motivation. Answer: B 101. The process by which an organism effortfully controls behavior in order to pursue important objectives is known as _____. A. homeostasis B. self-regulation C. intrinsic motivation D. extrinsic motivation Answer: B 102. Goals that are short-term, specific, and moderately challenging lead to: A. greater success. B. self-actualization. C. increased internal attributions. D. increased external attributions. Answer: A 103. Which of the following is NOT involved in the complex process of pursuing one's goals? A. Monitoring work progress B. Delaying gratification C. Procrastination D. Self-control Answer: C 104. A person’s daily mood gives him feedback on the effectiveness of his self-regulation. This means that: A. he will feel good or bad depending on how he is doing in the areas of life he values. B. being unhappy will prevent him from pursuing his goals. C. he will have to learn to modify his concept of happiness in order to suit his goals. D. he should not focus on the negative feedback and only concentrate on the positive feedback. Answer: A 105. In the context of the “Stanford Marshmallow Experiments”, research on delayed gratification indicates that the best way to resist temptation is to: A. focus on reasons why one should not do the forbidden activity. B. focus on other activities rather than the forbidden activity. C. cognitively compare the forbidden activity to similar ones. D. cognitively contrast the forbidden activity to similar ones. Answer: B 106. The act of putting off a pleasurable experience in the interest of some larger but later reward is known as _____. A. delay of gratification B. intrinsic motivation C. self-actualization D. self-efficacy Answer: A 107. The Stanford Marshmallow Experiments on delay of gratification demonstrated that children could successfully resist the temptation to eat a marshmallow in an effort to obtain the delayed payoff of two marshmallows. These children were able to distract themselves from the marshmallow by focusing on _____. A. hot thoughts B. cool thoughts C. positive thoughts D. negative thoughts Answer: B 108. Which of the following best defines an emotion? A. An aroused psychological state that occurs because of a physiological need B. A deprivation that energizes a drive to eliminate or reduce the deprivation C. An innate or unlearned biological pattern of behavior that is assumed to be universal throughout a species D. An affect that can involve physiological arousal, conscious experience, and behavioral expression Answer: D 109. Which of the following biological systems is responsible for calming the body and also promoting processes of maintenance and healing? A. Immune system B. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Enteric nervous system D. Sympathetic nervous system Answer: B 110. Arousal of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) causes: A. decreased blood pressure. B. slower heart rate. C. rapid breathing. D. narcolepsy. Answer: C 111. When the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) is activated, _____. A. blood pressure drops B. heart rate increases C. breathing becomes rapid D. digestion of food becomes difficult Answer: A 112. A(n) _____ is a machine that monitors changes in the body and attempts to determine whether someone is lying. A. pantograph B. electromyograph C. polygraph D. barograph Answer: C 113. Which of the following is true of the biological factors involved in emotion? A. Dopamine and endorphins function in regulating arousal and anxiety. B. Norepinephrine is linked to positive emotions such as happiness and tranquility. C. The limbic system is involved in the experience of positive emotions. D. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for rapid reactions to threats. Answer: C 114. Polygraph examiners can: A. read a person’s mind. B. recognize deception with a very high rate of accuracy. C. monitor physiological responses. D. All of these. Answer: C 115. Tom is interested in working for an intelligence branch of the government. A polygraph test is part of the interview process. Though Tom intends to be honest, he is worried that the polygraph will say he is lying when he is not. Tom’s friend, Cameron, assures Tom that polygraph tests are infallible. Is Cameron right? A. Yes, polygraphs pick up certain physiological responses associated with lying, and there is no way to change or hide those responses. B. Yes, many government agencies rely on polygraphs, and they would not do so if the tests were fallible. C. No, anxiety may cause a person’s skin conductance level to increase for reasons other than lying. D. No, polygraph machines are just props that allow the examiner to watch for cues that the subject is lying, and the examiner may make errors due to bias. Answer: C 116. Which of the following is the main problem associated with using polygraph results as an indicator of whether or not a person is lying? A. Different emotions can cause the same physiological changes. B. Most people can camouflage their response patterns. C. Examiners are usually biased against the person being tested. D. The error rate of polygraphs is eighty percent. Answer: A 117. Ryan realizes that his heart is beating faster than usual the moment Jenna walks into the classroom. He wonders whether he has a crush on her. This reaction is best explained by the _____. A. James-Lange theory B. Cannon-Bard theory C. drive reduction theory D. two-factor theory Answer: A 118. Monica is emotionally drained, but she is not really sure what she is feeling. After a few moments, she begins to cry. Observing this bodily reaction, Monica decides that she must be sad. This example of emotional recognition is most consistent with the _____ of emotion. A. drive reduction theory B. two-factor theory C. James-Lange theory D. Cannon-Bard theory Answer: C 119. Tim and Margaret are having a picnic near the edge of a large forest. Suddenly, a huge black bear invades their space and heads for the picnic basket. According to the James Lange theory of emotion, the couple will: A. experience fear and then run as a result of feeling the emotion of fear. B. run and then experience the emotion of fear as a result of the physical changes in their bodies. C. first experience fear, then run, and consequently experience the emotion of heightened fear. D. experience fear and physiological reactions in their bodies simultaneously. Answer: B 120. The Cannon-Bard theory predicts that after witnessing a shocking event, a person will: A. first experience shock and then be motivated to turn away. B. be motivated to turn away and then experience the shock. C. experience cathartic shock as a release of anxiety. D. experience physiological and emotional reactions simultaneously. Answer: D 121. Jacob notices a snake slithering up the river bank while he is fishing. The thalamus of Jacob's brain immediately stimulates his autonomic nervous system, which, in turn, increases the rate of his breathing and heartbeat. At the same time, Jacob's brain sends signals to his cerebral cortex which causes Jacob to perceive the emotional experience of fear. Consequently, Jacob experiences both fear and the physiological changes in his body at the same time. This scenario complies with the principle of the _____. A. James-Lange theory B. Cannon-Bard theory C. two-factor theory D. drive reduction theory Answer: B 122. Cannon-Bard theory suggests that in terms of emotional and physiological reactions, _____. A. emotion precedes physiological reactions B. physiological reactions precede emotion C. emotion and physiological reactions occur simultaneously D. emotion results from aggravated physiological states Answer: C 123. In the context of emotion, when information about fear is conveyed through the direct brain pathway, it moves from the thalamus to the _____. A. motor cortex B. amygdala C. sensory cortex D. medulla oblongata Answer: B 124. After bungee jumping, David's nervous system signals the production of large amounts of epinephrine which causes high arousal. During this time, he notices a beautiful woman and cognitively interprets his excitement as attraction toward the woman. This exemplifies the concept of the _____. A. drive reduction theory B. two-factor theory C. Cannon-Bard theory D. James-Lange theory Answer: B 125. In the context of emotion, which of the following theories lays emphasis on physiological arousal and cognitive labeling? A. Drive reduction theory B. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion C. Two-factor theory of emotion D. Self-determination theory Answer: C 126. With regard to cognitive factors in emotion, the psychologist, Richard Lazarus believed in the primacy of thinking, which implies that: A. emotions tend to precede thoughts. B. thoughts are a precondition for emotions. C. cognitive ability depends on emotional thoughts. D. emotions are not influenced by thoughts. Answer: B 127. Leslie screams immediately after burning her fingers on the stove. In the context of the cognitive factors involved in emotion, Leslie’s behavior supports _____. A. Lazarus’s ideas about cognition and emotion B. Zajonc’s ideas about cognition and emotion C. neither Lazarus’s nor Zajonc’s ideas about cognition and emotion D. both Lazarus’s and Zajonc’s ideas about cognition and emotion Answer: B 128. Which of the following theories of emotion is best supported by the facial feedback hypothesis? A. Self-determination theory B. Cannon-Bard theory C. Two-factor theory of emotion D. James-Lange theory Answer: D 129. A professor conducted an experiment in which she asked one group of students to keep smiling and another group to keep frowning for a certain period of time. After five minutes, the professor discovered that the students who kept smiling reported being happier than those who kept frowning. These results most strongly support the: A. drive reduction theory. B. two-factor theory of emotion. C. Cannon-Bard theory. D. facial feedback hypothesis. Answer: D 130. Many psychologists believe that the facial expressions of human beings: A. are learned. B. are displayed according to the same sociocultural standards across the world. C. have strong biological ties. D. vary from one culture to another. Answer: C 131. The sociocultural standards that determine when, where, and how emotions should be expressed are called: A. emoticons. B. display rules. C. heuristics. D. correspondence rules. Answer: B 132. Which of the following statements is true of cultural differences with regard to the facial expression of emotions? A. Asians are the most expressive across all cultures. B. An isolated Stone Age culture in New Guinea is the least expressive group ever studied. C. Caucasians are the most expressive across all cultures. D. Facial expression of emotion does not differ significantly across cultures. Answer: D 133. Which of the following is true of emotional expression in computer communications? A. Emoticons can replace verbal communication in every aspect. B. Emoticons reveal a potentially unique aspect of computer-mediated communication. C. Unlike emotional expressions, emoticons are independent of cultural influences. D. Emoticons cannot compensate for the loss of information through facial expression. Answer: B 134. The _____ of an emotion refers to whether it feels pleasant or unpleasant. A. drive B. motivational quality C. valence D. arousal level Answer: C 135. Which of the following emotions is associated with negative affect? A. Interest B. Joy C. Happiness D. Sadness Answer: D 136. The _____ of an emotion is the degree to which the emotion is reflected in an individual’s being active, engaged, or excited versus passive, disengaged, or calm. A. arousal level B. valence C. motivational quality D. drive Answer: A 137. Which of the following is an example of a high-arousal positive emotion? A. Contentment B. Tranquility C. Ecstasy D. Serenity Answer: C 138. Which of the following is an example of a low-arousal positive emotion? A. Ecstasy B. Tranquility C. Rage D. Excitement Answer: B 139. Which of the following is an example of a high-arousal negative emotion? A. Irritation B. Boredom C. Tranquility D. Panic Answer: D 140. Which of the following is an example of a low-arousal negative emotion? A. Rage B. Irritation C. Fury D. Panic Answer: B 141. A _____ is a graph that arranges emotional states in an organized fashion, using the dimensions of valence and arousal level. A. Yerkes-Dodson chart B. Myers-Briggs type indicator C. psychometrics chart of emotion D. circumplex model of mood Answer: D 142. Using the dimensions of valence and arousal, psychologists have created a wheel of mood states that they call the _____. A. circumplex model B. two-factor theory of emotion C. broaden-and-build model D. display model of emotion Answer: A 143. Which of the following is an avoidance-motivating emotion? A. Rage B. Fear C. Anger D. Fury Answer: B 144. Which of the following is an approach-related emotion? A. Anger B. Fear C. Anxiety D. Worry Answer: A 145. The _____ states that the function of positive emotions is to extend the scope of attention and foster the construction of resources. A. broaden-and-build model B. structural model of positive emotion C. attention-motivating approach D. circumplex model of emotion Answer: A 146. The broaden-and-build model of emotion was proposed to describe the: A. similarities in facial expressions across cultures. B. adaptive functions of positive emotions. C. differences in various arousal levels. D. discrepancies between Plutchik’s and Tompkins’ models. Answer: B 147. _____ is the ability to bounce back from negative experiences, to be flexible and adaptable when things are not going well. A. Resilience B. Autonomy C. Competence D. Self-efficacy Answer: A 148. Which of the following best defines the hedonic treadmill? A. Experiencing increased psychological well-being after a positive event B. Adapting rapidly to an event that initially caused great happiness C. Reacting negatively to an event that should cause significant happiness D. Experiencing a negative event shortly after experiencing a positive event Answer: B 149. Which of the following events will likely be affected by the concept of the hedonic treadmill? A. Falling in love B. Winning the lottery C. Buying a new car D. All of these Answer: D 150. Which of the following effects, if any, does engaging in altruistic behavior have on one’s well-being? A. It has no effect. B. It increases happiness. C. It decreases happiness. D. It improves physical but not psychological well-being. Answer: B Short Answer Questions 151. Define a drive and a need with regard to drive reduction theory. Give specific examples of each and explain how they are related to one another. Answer: A drive is an aroused state of tension that occurs because of a physiological need. A drive can be in the form of a psychological itch that requires scratching. A need is a deprivation that energizes the drive to eliminate or reduce the deprivation. Examples of need include food, water, and sex. Generally, psychologists think of needs as underlying the drives. A person may have a need for water; the drive that accompanies that need is the person’s feeling of being thirsty. Drive pertains to a psychological state, whereas need involves a physiological one. Usually but not always, needs and drives are closely associated. Drives do not always follow from needs. For example, if a person is deprived of oxygen because of a gas leak, he has a need for oxygen. A person may feel lightheaded but may never experience the drive for oxygen that might lead him to open a window. 152. Explain the concept of homeostasis. Give appropriate examples. Answer: Homeostasis is the body’s tendency to maintain an equilibrium, or a steady state or balance. Hundreds of biological states in the body must be maintained within a certain range; these include temperature, blood sugar level, potassium and sodium levels, and oxygenation. When a person dives into an icy swimming pool, the body uses energy to maintain its normal temperature. Similarly when the person steps into the heat of a summer day, the body releases excess heat by sweating. These physiological changes occur automatically to keep his body in an optimal state of functioning. 153. Give a brief account of Yerkes-Dodson law. Answer: According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, performance is best under conditions of moderate arousal rather than either low or high arousal. At the low end of arousal, an individual may be too lethargic to perform tasks well; at the high end, he may not be able to concentrate. 154. Discuss the psychological factors that contribute to obesity. Answer: Time and place affect a person’s eating habits. Learned associations of foods with a particular place and time may cause individuals to eat even when they are not hungry or do not need to eat (thus contributing to obesity). 155. Describe the main characteristics of a person with anorexia nervosa as listed by the American Psychiatric Association. What are the circumstances that may contribute to the development of this condition? Answer: The American Psychiatric Association lists four main characteristics of anorexia nervosa: weight less than 85 percent of what is considered normal for age and height; an intense fear of gaining weight; persistent behavior to prevent weight gain; and a distorted body image. Most individuals with anorexia nervosa are mostly non-Latino female White adolescents or young adults from well-educated middle- and upper-income families. Genes play a substantial role in anorexia nervosa. Most psychologists believe that although social factors and experiences may play a role in triggering dieting, the physical effects of dieting may change the neural networks that then sustain the disordered pattern, in a kind of vicious cycle. In terms of social factors, problems in family functioning are increasingly thought to be involved in the appearance of eating disorders in adolescence. 156. Discuss why it is often more difficult to identify that someone has bulimia nervosa as opposed to anorexia nervosa. Answer: Because bulimia nervosa occurs within a normal weight range, the disorder is often difficult to detect. An individual with bulimia nervosa usually keeps the disorder a secret and experiences a great deal of self-disgust and shame. The affected individual may appear relatively healthy on the outside while destroying his or her body on the inside by self-induced vomiting or the use of laxatives. On the other hand, individuals with anorexia nervosa often starve themselves and are very thin. 157. Describe the characteristics of individuals with binge eating disorder (BED). Answer: Individuals with binge eating disorder (BED) frequently eat alone because of embarrassment or guilt, and they feel ashamed and disgusted with themselves after bingeing. These individuals usually eat quickly and eat a great deal even when they are not hungry to the point of becoming uncomfortably full. In contrast to someone with bulimia nervosa, individuals with BED do not try to purge. 158. Outline Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, and provide examples of how each level of motivation might be satisfied. Answer: Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory states that human needs must be satisfied in the following sequence: physiological needs, safety, love and belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization. The strongest needs (physiological needs) are at the base of the hierarchy, and the weakest (self-actualization) are at the top. According to this hierarchy, people are motivated to satisfy their need for food first and to fulfill their need for safety before their need for love. Examples of the needs hierarchy in the specified sequence may include: water, shelter, family or friends, career satisfaction, and meditation. 159. Explain the self-determination theory. Answer: The self-determination theory asserts that there are three basic organismic needs: competence, relatedness, and autonomy. The word organismic here means that these psychological needs are innate and exist in every person. The theory holds that all individuals have the capacity for growth and fulfillment in them, ready to emerge if given the right context. Importantly, from the perspective of self-determination theory, these organismic needs do not arise from deficits. 160. Explain “competence” with regard to self-determination theory. Answer: Competence is the first organismic need described by self-determination theory. Competence is met when a person feels that he or she is able to bring about desired outcomes. Competence motivation involves self-efficacy which is the belief that a person has the competence to accomplish a given goal or task. It also involves mastery which is the sense that the person can gain skills and overcome obstacles. One domain in which competence needs may be met is in the realm of achievement. Some individuals are highly motivated to succeed and spend considerable effort striving to excel. 161. Differentiate between intrinsic motivation and extrinsic motivation. Give appropriate examples of each. Answer: Intrinsic motivation is based on internal factors such as organismic needs (competence, relatedness, and autonomy), as well as curiosity, challenge, and fun. When a person is intrinsically motivated, he/she engages in a behavior because he/she enjoys it. On the other hand, extrinsic motivation involves external incentives such as rewards and punishers. When a person is extrinsically motivated, he/she engages in a behavior for some external payoff or to avoid an external punishment. For example, some students study hard because they are internally motivated to put forth considerable effort and achieve high quality in their work. This is known as intrinsic motivation. Other students study hard because they want to score good grades or avoid parental disapproval. This is known as extrinsic motivation. 162. Is a polygraph test a reliable method for measuring arousal? Justify your answer with reasons. Answer: Experts argue that a polygraph errs just under 50 percent of the time. The problem with the polygraph is that heart rate, breathing, and skin conductance level (SCL) can increase for reasons other than lying—for instance, because a person is nervous and not necessarily guilty. 163. On a hiking trip, Alex encounters a bear in the woods and begins to run away. How would the James-Lange theory and the Cannon Bard theory of emotion explain Alex’s fear of the bear? Answer: According to the James-Lange theory, an individual feels emotion only after experiencing physiological reactions. When Alex sees the bear, he begins to run away. His aroused body then sends sensory messages to his brain, at which point emotion is perceived. Alex does not run away from the spot because he is afraid; rather, he is afraid because he is running away. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, emotion and physiological reactions happen simultaneously. When Alex sees the bear, the thalamus of Alex’s brain does two things simultaneously. First, it stimulates the autonomic nervous system to produce the physiological changes involved in emotion (increased heart rate, rapid breathing); second, it sends messages to his cerebral cortex, where the experience of emotion is perceived. 164. Explain the two-factor theory of emotion as put forth by Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer with an example. Answer: In the two-factor theory of emotion, emotion is determined by two factors: physiological arousal and cognitive labeling. The theory states that often a person’s body sends out ambiguous messages about what is going on in the world. The person takes those messages and looks for explanations in his immediate circumstances, and that is what produces emotions. For example, consider the case of a student who is late for an important examination. He sprints across campus as fast as he can, arriving just in time for the test. As he looks over the questions, his heart starts racing, his breathing becomes fast, and he feels sweaty. Is he nervous about the test or is he just recovering from his run to the classroom? The two-factor theory suggests that he just might mistake his bodily sensations as indications that he is scared of the test. 165. Give a brief account of the facial feedback hypothesis. Answer: According to the facial feedback hypothesis, facial expressions can influence emotions as well as reflect them. Facial muscles send signals to the brain that help a person recognize the emotion he/she is experiencing. For example, a person feels happier when he/she smiles and sadder when he/she frowns. True/False Questions 166. A drive is an innate biological pattern of behavior that is assumed to be universal throughout a species. Answer: False 167. According to drive reduction theory, the goal of drive reduction is homeostasis. Answer: True 168. Yerkes-Dodson law states that performance is best under conditions of high arousal. Answer: False 169. The hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) helps start the digestion of food in the body. Answer: True 170. Eating complex carbohydrates will cause insulin levels to rise and then fall sharply. Answer: False 171. Released by fat cells, the chemical leptin increases food intake and reduces energy expenditure or metabolism. Answer: False 172. The lateral hypothalamus is involved in reducing hunger and restricting eating. Answer: False 173. Set point is determined in part by the number of adipose cells, or fat cells, stored in the body. Answer: True 174. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder in which an individual consistently follows a binge-and-purge eating pattern. Answer: False 175. According to Maslow’s theory of hierarchy of needs, basic needs must be satisfied before higher needs can be met. Answer: True 176. Self-esteem precedes the need for love and belongingness in Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs. Answer: False 177. Self-regulation is the highest and most elusive of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. Answer: False 178. Self-determination theory is a contemporary version of drive reduction theory. Answer: False 179. Extrinsic motivation is based on factors such as organismic needs (competence, relatedness, and autonomy), as well as curiosity, challenge, and fun. Answer: False 180. Intrinsic motivation involves incentives such as rewards and punishers. Answer: False 181. The parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) is responsible for rapid reactions to threats. Answer: False 182. When the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) is activated, blood pressure drops, heart rate and breathing slow down, and food digestion increases. Answer: False 183. According to the James-Lange theory, emotion results from physiological states triggered by stimuli in the environment: Emotion occurs after physiological reactions. Answer: True 184. The facial expression of emotions varies significantly across cultures. Answer: False 185. A potentially useful approach to enhancing happiness is to commit to the pursuit of personally meaningful goals. Answer: True Test Bank for The Science of Psychology: An Appreciative View Laura A. King 9780078035401, 9781260500523, 9780073532066, 9781259255533

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