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8 Development Across the Life Span 1. The scientific study of the changes that occur in people as they age from conception to death is called _________. a. abnormal psychology b. gerontology c. human development d. maturational studies Answer: c. human development Correct. Human development is the term used to refer to the changes that occur in people as they age from conception to death. b. gerontology Incorrect. Gerontology emphasizes only older adulthood. 2. A psychologist spends her entire career studying how and why changes occur in people throughout their lives. This psychologist is most likely working in the field of ___________. a. abnormal psychology b. gerontology c. human development d. maturational studies Answer: c. human development Correct. Human development studies focus on the changes that occur throughout people’s lives, from conception to death. b. gerontology Incorrect. Gerontology emphasizes only the changes that occur in older adulthood. 3. In a _____________ design, one group of participants is followed and assessed as the group ages. a. cohort b. longitudinal c. behavior genetics d. cross-sectional Answer: b. longitudinal Correct. In a longitudinal design one group of participants is followed and assessed as the participants age. d. cross-sectional Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time. 4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the longitudinal design? a. Individuals of different ages are being compared to one another. b. It is relatively inexpensive. c. It takes a shorter amount of time than a cross-sectional design. d. Participants may drop out due to moving, loss of interest, or death. Answer: d. Participants may drop out due to moving, loss of interest, or death. Correct. In this design there is a risk of losing participants due to many factors. a. Individuals of different ages are being compared to one another. Incorrect. The individuals studied in a longitudinal design are all the same age. 5. Professor Sanchez is interested in studying development of motor skills. She collects data from 200 one-year-olds and follows and assesses them for a period of five years. What type of research design is Professor Sanchez using? a. cohort design b. longitudinal design c. behavior genetics design d. cross-sectional design Answer: b. longitudinal design Correct. A longitudinal design is one in which one participant or a group of participants is followed and assessed as the person or group ages. d. cross-sectional design Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time. 6. The local health department of a small town has hired a research firm to study the development of cancer in residents in the town due to a suspected cancer-causing agent and environmental pollution. The researcher will compare data on participants at age 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70, etc. to see if there are increasing rates of cancer in the town. This type of research study is called a __________________. a. cross-sequential design b. longitudinal design c. behavior genetics design d. cross-sectional design Answer: b. longitudinal design Correct. Participants are studied at various ages in a longitudinal design. d. cross-sectional design Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups but only during one period of time. 7. A researcher who selects a sample of people of varying ages and studies them at one point in time is, by definition, using the ______ method. a. cohort design b. longitudinal design c. behavior genetics design d. cross-sectional design Answer: d. cross-sectional design Correct. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time. b. longitudinal design Incorrect. A longitudinal design is one in which one participant or group of participants is followed and assessed as the person or group ages. 8. Professor Grant is interested in studying the development of a sense of humor. She collects data from groups of 6-year-olds, 16-year-olds, 26-year-olds, and 46-year-olds. What type of research design is Professor Grant using? a. cohort design b. longitudinal design c. behavior genetics design d. cross-sectional design Answer: d. cross-sectional design Correct. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time. b. longitudinal design Incorrect. A longitudinal design is one in which one participant or group of participants is followed and assessed as the person or group ages. 9. Unlike other types of research, a cross-sequential design allows researchers to _________. a. combine longitudinal and cross-sectional research strategies b. look for gender differences c. reduce experimenter bias d. only includes cross-sectional strategies within the design Answer: a. combine longitudinal and cross-sectional research strategies Correct. A cross-sequential design combines the ease of a cross-sectional design with a shorter longitudinal design. d. only includes cross-sectional strategies within the design Incorrect. A cross-sequential design also includes longitudinal strategies. 10. Professor Rashad is interested in studying cognitive development. He collects and compares data from a group of 6-year-olds and a group of 10-year-olds. Five years later, he compares these two groups to each other again as well as to their own performance in the study five years ago. What type of research design is Professor Grant using? a. cross-sequential design b. longitudinal design c. behavior genetics design d. cross-sectional design Answer: a. cross-sequential design Correct. A cross-sequential design studies participants by means of a cross-sectional design, using subjects of different ages, but also follows and assesses them over time. d. cross-sectional design Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups but only during one period of time. 11. Which of the following is a main disadvantage of the cross-sectional design? a. Individuals of different ages are being compared to one another. b. It is relatively expensive. c. It takes a longer amount of time than a longitudinal study. d. Participants may drop out due to moving, loss of interest, or death. Answer: a. Individuals of different ages are being compared to one another. Correct. In a cross-sectional design, individuals of different ages are being compared. d. Participants may drop out due to moving, loss of interest, or death. Incorrect. The loss of participants over time is a disadvantage of longitudinal design. 12. The type of research design which compares various participants at several points in time (no longer than 6 years apart) to examine age-related differences and changes is called a ____________________. a. cross-sequential design b. longitudinal design c. behavior genetics design d. cross-sectional design Answer: a. cross-sequential design Correct. A cross-sequential design studies participants by means of a cross-sectional design, using subjects of different ages, but also follows and assesses them over time. d. cross-sectional design Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups but only during one period of time. 13. ______________ refers to heredity and __________ refers to environmental influences. a. Nature; nurture b. Cognition; emotion c. Nurture; behavioral genetics d. Cross-sectional; longitudinal Answer: a. Nature; nurture Correct. Nature refers to heredity, or genetic factors, whereas nurture refers to environmental influences. c. Nurture; behavioral genetics Incorrect. Nurture refers to environmental influences and behavioral genetics is a field that investigates the effects of genes and environmental influences on behavior. 14. Dr. Smith believes people who are very aggressive have become so because of their life experiences. Dr. Goldberg believes people are more or less aggressive from birth because of genetic factors. Which of the following terms best describes an issue in human development that is highlighted by their disagreement? a. nature versus nurture b. cognition versus emotion c. classical versus operant conditioning d. cross-sectional studies versus longitudinal studies Answer: a. nature versus nurture Correct. Nature refers to genetic factors and nurture refers to environmental influences. b. cognition versus emotion Incorrect. The issue highlighted emphasizes the effects of nature (genes) and nurture (environmental factors). 15. Juan and Carlos are identical twins. Juan was raised by his father and mother, and Carlos was accidentally placed with another family after a “mix up” at the hospital. At the age of 15, both boys “ran into each other” at a football game and noticed how they appeared to be “mirror images of each other.” After proving they were twins by genetic testing, the families discussed some of the differences between the boys. Juan is very athletic and intelligent and excels in basketball but does not take school seriously and has F’s in all subjects. Carlos is also athletic and intelligent, and excels in baseball and makes straight A’s as a result of his strict home life and study routine. Although they are identical twins, what do you think accounts for the differences in their academic performance based on the research? a. nurture b. nature c. school district superintendent d. teacher appraisals of performance Answer: a. nurture Correct. Nurture would be correct in that differences in study routines are likely to be a factor. b. nature Incorrect. They are likely to be similar in genetic make up. 16. According to research conducted by Ridley (1999), how could individuals like Adolph Hitler, serial killer Ted Bundy, and unabomber Timothy McVeigh commit such acts according to the “nature versus nurture” debate? a. These individuals were born (nature) to commit such horrendous acts. It was in their genetic make up. b. Their behaviors are the result of the interaction of nature and nurture. c. These individual’s behaviors were attributed to “nurture” and influences of their parents. d. These individuals learned to commit these behaviors after staying in long periods of isolation according to Ridley Answer: b. Their behaviors are the result of the interaction of nature and nurture. Correct. Both nature and nurture combined to influence these notorious individuals according to Ridley. a. These individuals were born (nature) to commit such horrendous acts. It was in their genetic make up. Incorrect. Nature and nurture contribute according to Ridley. 17. Each of the 10 children born to Ernest and Elvira Orangeburg has been born with red hair. Each child is also very intelligent and athletic. The Orangeburg’s are expecting an 11th child who is also likely to be born with the same traits according to ______________ as evidenced in the _____________________. a. nurture; Nature versus Nurture controversy b. nature; Nature versus Nurture controversy c. environmental factors; Conception Theory d. teratogens; Conception Theory Answer: b. nature; Nature versus Nurture controversy Correct. Nature refers to heredity, or genetic factors, whereas nurture refers to environmental influences. c. environmental factors; Conception Theory Incorrect. Environment refers to environmental influences and the Conception Theory is not discussed in the book. 18. What relatively new field investigates the influence of genes and heredity on a person’s actions? a. psychobiology b. neuropsychology c. behavioral genetics d. psychoanalysis Answer: c. behavioral genetics Correct. Behavioral genetics is a field that investigates the effects of genes and environmental influences on behavior. a. psychobiology Incorrect. Psychobiology is the study of the biological bases of behavior. 19. The science of heredity is called _________. a. human development b. genetics c. physiology d. gerontology Answer: b. genetics Correct. Genetics is the study of heredity. c. physiology Incorrect. Physiology is a branch of biology that deals with functions such as metabolism, respiration, and reproduction. 20. Genetics is defined as ___________. a. the branch of biology that deals with functions such as metabolism, respiration, and reproduction, rather than with structures b. the science of heredity c. the study of behavior and mental processes d. the study of the changes that occur in people as they age, from conception until death Answer: b. the science of heredity Correct. Genetics is defined as the science of heredity. d. the study of the changes that occur in people as they age, from conception until death Incorrect. The study of the changes that occur in people as they age, from conception until death is the definition of human development. 21. Which of the following is a special molecule that contains the genetic material of the organism? a. DNA b. gene c. chromosome d. amine Answer: a. DNA Correct. DNA is a special molecule that contains the genetic material of the organism. c. chromosome Incorrect. A chromosome is a rod-shaped structure containing genes that is found in the cell nucleus. 22. A special molecule, __________, contains the genetic material of the organism. a. DNA b. a gene c. a chromosome d. an amine Answer: a. DNA Correct. DNA is a special molecule that contains the genetic material of the organism. c. a chromosome Incorrect. A chromosome is a rod-shaped structure containing genes that is found in the cell nucleus. 23. A(n) _____________ is a section of DNA containing a sequence of amines. a. compound b. gene c. chromosome d. amine Answer: b. gene Correct. A gene is a section of DNA containing a sequence of amines. c. chromosome Incorrect. A gene is a section of DNA containing a sequence of amines and is located on chromosomes. 24. Rod-shaped structures in the cell nucleus that contain genes are referred to as ____________. a. DNA b. sex-linked traits c. chromosomes d. amines Answer: c. chromosomes Correct. Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures in the cell nucleus that contain genes. a. DNA Incorrect. DNA is a molecule that consists of two strands that wind around each other in a spiral that contains the genetic material of the organism. 25. Humans have a total of _____________ chromosomes in normal developmental cases. a. 46 b. 23 c. 21 d. 22 Answer: a. 46 Correct. Humans usually have 46 chromosomes. b. 23 Incorrect. Humans usually have 23 pairs of chromosomes, but a total of 46 chromosomes. 26. How many pairs of chromosomes are normally in each cell of the human body? a. 46 b. 23 c. 21 d. 22 Answer: b. 23 Correct. Humans normally have 23 pairs of chromosomes. a. 46 Incorrect. Humans normally have 46 total chromosomes in each cell, but 23 pairs of chromosomes. 27. A gene that actively controls the expression of a trait is called a ______ gene. a. recessive b. mutated c. recombinant d. dominant Answer: d. dominant Correct. A dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait. a. recessive Incorrect. A recessive gene influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical or less active gene whereas a dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait. 28. Which of the following is defined as a gene that controls the appearance of a certain trait? a. recessive b. mutated c. recombinant d. dominant Answer: d. dominant Correct. A dominant gene is defined as a gene that controls the appearance of a certain trait. a. recessive Incorrect. A recessive gene influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical or less active gene whereas a dominant gene actively controls the appearance of a certain trait. 29. A trait controlled by a dominant gene ________. a. will be expressed even when the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair is different b. will be expressed only if it is paired with two recessive genes c. will not be expressed if it is paired with another dominant gene d. will not be expressed when the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair is different Answer: a. will be expressed even when the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair is different Correct. A dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait even if the other half of the pair is different. d. will not be expressed when the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair is different Incorrect. Traits controlled by dominant genes will be expressed even when the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair is different. 30. A gene that only influences the expression of a trait when paired with another less active gene is called ___________. a. recessive b. mutated c. recombinant d. dominant Answer: a. recessive Correct. A recessive gene only influences the expression of a trait when paired with a less active gene. d. dominant Incorrect. A dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait even when not paired with a less active gene. 31. Silvia has blond hair, even though her mother and father each have brown hair. What do we know about Silvia’s parents? a. At least one of her parents has a recessive gene for blond hair. b. Each of her parents must have one recessive gene for blond hair color. c. Each of her parents must have one dominant gene for blond hair. d. Neither of her parents has a gene for blond hair. Answer: b. Each of her parents must have one recessive gene for blond hair color. Correct. The gene for blond hair is recessive; therefore, both parents must have that gene in order for Silvia to have blond hair. c. Each of her parents must have one dominant gene for blond hair. Incorrect. The gene for blond hair is recessive; therefore, both parents must have that gene in order for Silvia to have blond hair. 32. Ryan has cystic fibrosis. This means that his mother is a carrier for the cystic fibrosis gene, while his father ____________. a. is also a carrier b. is not a carrier c. does not have a cystic fibrosis gene d. has two cystic fibrosis genes Answer: a. is also a carrier Correct. Because cystic fibrosis is a disease carried by recessive genes, a person can get it only if he or she receives the gene from both parents. b. is not a carrier Incorrect. Because cystic fibrosis is a disease carried by recessive genes, a person can get it only if he or she receives the gene from both parents. 33. Diseases carried by recessive genes are inherited when ____________. a. a child inherits two recessive genes, one from each parent b. a child inherits two dominant genes, one from each parent c. a child inherits a dominant gene from one parent and a recessive gene from the other parent d. when the child doesn’t inherit any genes from one parent Answer: a. a child inherits two recessive genes, one from each parent Correct. Diseases carried by recessive genes are inherited from two recessive genes. c. a child inherits a dominant gene from one parent and a recessive gene from the other parent Incorrect. Diseases carried by recessive genes are inherited from two recessive genes. 34. In ________ syndrome, the 21st pair of chromosomes contains an extra chromosome resulting in symptoms such as wide-set almond-shaped eyes and mental retardation. a. PKU b. Down c. Klinefelter’s d. Turner’s Answer: b. Down Correct. Down syndrome occurs as a result of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. c. Klinefelter’s Incorrect. Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs as a result of an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair. 35. What is the cause of Down syndrome? a. an extra chromosome on the 21st pair b. an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair c. neurotransmitter excesses d. neurotransmitter deficiencies Answer: a. an extra chromosome on the 21st pair Correct. Down syndrome occurs as a result of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. b. an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair Incorrect. Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs as a result of an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair. 36. Steve was born a male with an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair. As result he has reduced masculine characteristics, enlarged breasts, and is obese and excessively tall. Which disorder is likely to be diagnosed? a. PKU b. Down c. Klinefelter’s d. Turner’s Answer: c. Klinefelter’s Correct. Klinefelter’s syndrome is caused by an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair and occurs in males. d. Turner’s Incorrect. Turner’s syndrome occurs only in females. 37. In _________ syndrome the 23rd pair of chromosomes is missing an X, resulting in short, infertile females. a. PKU b. Down c. Klinefelter’s d. Turner’s Answer: d. Turner’s Correct. Turner’s syndrome produces short, infertile females. c. Klinefelter’s Incorrect. Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs only in males. 38. Sheila was born a female with only one X chromosome on the 23rd pair. As a result she is very short, infertile, and sexually underdeveloped. With which disorder is she likely to be diagnosed? a. PKU b. Down c. Klinefelter’s d. Turner’s Answer: d. Turner’s Correct. Turner’s syndrome produces the characteristics described and occurs in females. c. Klinefelter’s Incorrect. Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs only in males. 39. At fertilization, the chromosomes from the father’s sperm unite with the chromosomes from the mother’s egg, creating a new cell called a(n)__________. a. embryo b. zygote c. genome d. blastocyst Answer: b. zygote Correct. A fertilized egg is called a zygote. a. embryo Incorrect. An embryo is the name for the developing organism from 2 weeks to 8 weeks after fertilization. 40. Ovum is a term used to describe __________. a. the female sex cell or egg b. male sex cell c. the developing organism from conception to the end of the second week after fertilization d. the developing organism from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization Answer: a. the female sex cell or egg Correct. Ovum is another term for the female sex cell or egg. b. male sex cell Incorrect. Sperm are male sex cells; ovum is the female sex cell. 41. The union of the ovum and sperm is called ________. a. fertilization b. the fetal period c. a zygote d. an embryo Answer: a. fertilization Correct. Fertilization occurs when the sperm and ovum unite. c. a zygote Incorrect. The zygote is the result of the union of the ovum and sperm. 42. In the process of fertilization the ________ and _________ unite, resulting in a single cell. a. sperm; ovum b. zygote; sperm c. embryo; zygote d. ovum; fetus Answer: a. sperm; ovum Correct. Fertilization occurs when the sperm and ovum unite. b. zygote; sperm Incorrect. Fertilization occurs when the sperm and ovum unite; the zygote is the result of this union. 43. Monozygotic twins ______________. a. are genetically identical b. are genetically different c. will be of different sexes d. are more likely to occur when a woman is taking fertility drugs Answer: a. are genetically identical Correct. Monozygotic twins are genetically identical. b. are genetically different Incorrect. Monozygotic twins are genetically identical; dizygotic twins are genetically different. 44. Ashley and Mary-Kate are twins who are genetically identical. What type of twins are they? a. monozygotic twins b. fraternal twins c. dizygotic twins d. wombmates Answer: a. monozygotic twins Correct. Monozygotic twins are identical. c. dizygotic twins Incorrect. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs, which means they are genetically different. 45. Which of the following describes the way in which monozygotic twins occur? a. The mother’s body releases multiple eggs, two or more of which are fertilized. b. The mother’s body releases one egg, conceives, and then releases another egg in a later ovulation cycle. c. The egg is fertilized by a single sperm and then splits completely into two separate zygotes. d. The mother uses fertility drugs. Answer: c. The egg is fertilized by a single sperm and then splits completely into two separate zygotes. Correct. When an egg is fertilized by a sperm and then splits completely into two separate zygotes, the result is monozygotic twins. a. The mother’s body releases multiple eggs, two or more of which are fertilized. Incorrect. Multiple fertilized eggs result in dizygotic twins. 46. __________ develop when two eggs each get fertilized by two different sperm, resulting in two zygotes in the uterus at the same time. a. Monozygotic twins b. Fraternal twins c. Dizygotic twins d. Wombmates Answer: c. Dizygotic twins Correct. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs by two different sperm. a. Monozygotic twins Incorrect. Monozygotic twins develop when an egg is fertilized by a sperm and then splits completely into two separate zygotes. 47. Fraternal twins are __________ similar genetically than are other brothers and sisters. a. much more b. no more c. slightly more d. much less Answer: b. no more Correct. Fraternal twins develop from different eggs and different sperm, just like any other set of siblings. a. much more Incorrect. Fraternal twins are genetically no more similar than are any other two siblings, since they develop from different eggs and different sperm. 48. Mary and Juan are twins who developed from two separate fertilized ova that were fertilized by two different sperm. What type of twins are they? a. monozygotic twins b. maternal twins c. dizygotic twins d. wombmates Answer: c. dizygotic twins Correct. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs. a. monozygotic twins Incorrect. Monozygotic twins result from one ovum fertilized by one sperm that splits in two. 49. Conjoined twins are _________. a. monozygotic twins b. fraternal twins c. dizygotic twins d. nonidentical twins Answer: a. monozygotic twins Correct. Conjoined twins are monozygotic and are the result of one fertilized egg that did not completely separate before developing into two embryos. c. dizygotic twins Incorrect. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs and cannot become conjoined. 50. Abby and Brittany Hensel ________. a. share one body from the waist down b. share one upper body c. share a heart d. share a stomach Answer: a. share one body from the waist down Correct. Abby and Brittany Hensel share one body from the waist down. b. share one upper body Incorrect. Abby and Brittany Hensel share one body from the waist down. 51. Brittany and Abby Hensel are ___________. a. nonidentical twins b. dizygotic twins c. fraternal twins d. conjoined twins Answer: d. conjoined twins Correct. They have two separate heads but share one body. b. dizygotic twins Incorrect. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs; Brittany and Abby Hensel are the result of one fertilized egg. 52. The germinal period ________. a. occurs during the first two weeks after fertilization b. occurs from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization c. occurs from approximately 8 weeks after fertilization to birth d. occurs from 7 to 10 weeks after fertilization Answer: a. occurs during the first two weeks after fertilization Correct. The first two weeks of pregnancy are called the germinal period. b. occurs from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization Incorrect. The embryonic period occurs from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization. 53. Marisa is at a point in her pregnancy when the zygote is moving down to her uterus, and the placenta and umbilical cord are beginning to form. Which period of prenatal development is Marisa currently experiencing? a. fetal b. embryonic c. placental d. germinal Answer: d. germinal Correct. During the germinal period, the organism is called a zygote, and the placenta and umbilical cord begin to form. b. embryonic Incorrect. During the embryonic period, the organism is called an embryo, not a zygote. 54. The placenta is ________________. a. the tube through which a developing baby receives nourishment b. the technical name for the “belly button” c. a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby d. the name for the developing organism until it is 8 weeks old Answer: c. a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby Correct. The placenta is a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby. a. the tube through which a developing baby receives nourishment Incorrect. The placenta is not a tube; the umbilical cord, which connects the developing baby to the placenta, is a tube. 55. The specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby is called the _________. a. placenta b. uterus c. umbilical cord d. embryo Answer: a. placenta Correct. The placenta is a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby. c. umbilical cord Incorrect. The umbilical cord is a tube that connects the developing baby to the placenta. 56. Which of the following describes the embryonic period? a. the period during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining b. the period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop c. the period during which the umbilical cord develops d. the period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional Answer: b. the period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop Correct. It is during the embryonic period that major organs and structures develop. a. the period during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining Incorrect. The zygote begins to implant in the uterine lining during the germinal period. 57. Tameeka is at a point in her pregnancy during which the major organs and structures of her baby are first developing. Which period of prenatal development is Tameeka currently experiencing? a. fetal b. embryonic c. placental d. germinal Answer: b. embryonic Correct. During the embryonic period major organs and structures first develop. a. fetal Incorrect. The fetal period occurs after the organs have first developed and is the time during which they continue to develop and become functional. 58. Emily and her husband are thrilled as they peer into Emily’s uterus by means of an ultrasound. The physician reports that the pregnancy appears normal, and that their baby’s fingers, toes, heart, and circulatory system are developing as expected. The couple learns that the baby is only an inch long. Given this information, the current stage of prenatal development is the _________. a. embryonic period b. germinal period c. zygotic period d. fetal stage Answer: a. embryonic period Correct. It is during the embryonic period that major organs and structures first develop. d. fetal stage Incorrect. In the fetal stage, fingers, toes, and other major systems and organs would have already developed, and the baby would be more than an inch long. 59. Times when certain internal and external influences have a major impact on development are called ______. a. fetal periods b. critical periods c. germinal periods d. latency periods Answer: b. critical periods Correct. Critical periods are times when internal and external influences have a major impact on development. a. fetal periods Incorrect. Critical periods are times when internal and external influences have a major impact on development; the most critical time is during the embryonic period. 60. Which of the following terms is used to describe any substance, such as a drug, chemical, or virus that can bring about a birth defect? a. teratogen b. critical period c. carcinogen d. biohazard Answer: a. teratogen Correct. Teratogens are substances that can bring about a birth defect. c. carcinogen Incorrect. A carcinogen may cause birth defects, but the term does not encompass viruses and all of the other things that can also cause birth defects. 61. Greta’s child has facial deformities, a smaller than normal head, heart defects, mental retardation, learning difficulties, and delayed growth. If these defects can be traced to a teratogen used by Greta when she was pregnant, which was she most likely abusing? a. nicotine b. cocaine c. marijuana d. alcohol Answer: d. alcohol Correct. Greta’s child is exhibiting symptoms of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome. a. nicotine Incorrect. The effects of nicotine do not include smaller than normal heads, facial deformities, and heart defects. 62. What are some of the common consequences to a child whose mother smoked while pregnant? a. increased birth weight and lethargy b. lower birth weight and short stature c. severe hearing loss and heart defects d. severely deformed limbs and muscle spasms Answer: b. lower birth weight and short stature Correct. Lower birth weight and short stature are common consequences of smoking during pregnancy. c. severe hearing loss and heart defects Incorrect. Hearing loss and heart defects are consequences of rubella. 63. Isabelle’s baby was born blind, deaf, and with heart defects and brain damage. Most likely Isabelle was exposed to _________ during her pregnancy. a. rubella b. mercury c. syphilis d. radiation Answer: a. rubella Correct. Blindness, deafness, and heart defects are potential consequences of prenatal exposure to rubella. c. syphilis Incorrect. Exposure to syphilis does not cause blindness or heart defects. 64. The prenatal period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional is called the _______________ period. a. germinal b. embryonic c. fetal d. gestational Answer: c. fetal Correct. The fetal period is the stage when tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional. b. embryonic Incorrect. The embryonic period is the stage when various organs and structures first begin to form. 65. Which of the following describes the fetal period? a. the period during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining b. the period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop c. the period during which the umbilical cord develops d. the period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional Answer: d. the period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional Correct. The fetal period is the stage when tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional. b. the period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop Incorrect. The major organs and structures first develop during the embryonic period. 66. Tameeka is at a point in her pregnancy during which she is experiencing muscle contractions and movement and kicks. Which period of prenatal development is Tameeka currently experiencing? a. fetal b. embryonic c. placental d. germinal Answer: a. fetal Correct. During the fetal period, the developing baby first begins to move its muscles. b. embryonic Incorrect. The embryonic period ends at 8 weeks, and muscle contraction does not occur until about the third month. 67. The most likely time for a miscarriage is during the ______________ months. a. first three b. last three c. middle three d. last six Answer: a. first three Correct. The most likely time for a miscarriage is during the first three months. b. last three Incorrect. The most likely time for miscarriage is during the first three months. 68. The most likely cause for miscarriage during the first three months of pregnancy is_______. a. a genetic defect b. alcohol use c. not taking prenatal vitamins d. lack of exercise Answer: a. a genetic defect Correct. A genetic defect is the most likely cause of miscarriage in the first three months of pregnancy. b. alcohol use Incorrect. A miscarriage in the first three months of pregnancy is most likely caused by a genetic defect that will not allow the embryo or fetus to survive. 69. Infant reflexes are______. a. innate involuntary behavior patterns b. voluntary behavior patterns c. learned d. not used as a means for survival Answer: a. innate involuntary behavior patterns Correct. Reflexes help infants survive outside of the womb. b. voluntary behavior patterns Incorrect. Reflexes are involuntary 70. Which sense is the most functional at birth? a. touch b. taste c. smell d. vision Answer: a. touch Correct. Touch is the most functional sense at birth. d. vision Incorrect. Cones, which assist us in seeing color and provide sharpness of vision, take about 6 months to fully develop. 71. At what point during infancy can babies tell the difference between their own mother’s milk scent and another woman’s milk scent? a. within a few days after birth b. within a few weeks after birth c. within a few months after birth d. within a year after birth Answer: a. within a few days after birth Correct. The sense of smell is highly developed at birth enabling babies to tell the difference between their own mother’s milk scent and another woman’s milk scent. b. within a few weeks after birth Incorrect. The sense of smell is highly developed at birth enabling babies to tell the difference between their own mother’s milk scent and another woman’s milk scent. 72. By what age do infants develop a preference for salty tastes? a. within a few days after birth b. by four months c. at birth d. within a year after birth Answer: b. by four months Correct. A preference for salty tastes occurs by four months and may come from exposure to the salty taste of their mother’s skin. c. at birth Incorrect. At birth infants show a preference for sweets; preference for salty tastes develops at about four months. 73. At birth, newborns seem most responsive to ________. a. high pitches and low pitches b. hip hop music c. moderate voice pitches d. rock and roll music Answer: a. high pitches and low pitches Correct. Newborns seem most responsive to high-pitched (female) voices and low-pitched (male) voices. c. moderate voice pitches Incorrect. Newborns seem most responsive to high-pitched (female) voices and low-pitched (male) voices. 74. Which sense is the LEAST functional at birth? a. touch b. taste c. smell d. vision Answer: d. vision Correct. Vision takes about 6 months to fully develop, whereas touch, taste, and smell are all present at birth. a. touch Incorrect. Touch is the most functional at birth. 75. Javier was born 3 days ago. His parents have noticed that he has several reflexes which the doctors have been testing. Which of the following is not a reflex exhibited by healthy newborns? a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. walking reflex d. stepping reflex Answer: c. walking reflex Correct. This is not one of the 5 mentioned in the book. b. Rooting reflex Incorrect. This is one of the 5 reflexes which an infant exhibits when trying to find nourishment when hungry. 76. The Moro reflex is most likely to be produced when ________. a. someone lightly stokes the baby’s cheek b. there is a sudden loud sound c. the baby is placed face-down in water d. the baby’s palm is pressed Answer: b. there is a sudden loud sound Correct. The Moro reflex, sometimes called the startle reflex, causes a baby to throw its arms out and arch the back when frightened, for example by a loud noise. a. someone lightly stokes the baby’s cheek Incorrect. This is a reference to the rooting reflex, not the Moro reflex. 77. Vision is not very well developed at birth. As a result, which statement is NOT true about vision at birth? a. Color and vision acuity takes approximately 6 months to develop more clearly from birth. b. Newborns have a clear vision field of 12-14 inches at birth. c. Newborns prefer to look at 3 dimensional objects versus 2 dimensional. d. Newborns prefer to look at complex patterns and also the human face than other stimuli. Answer: b. Newborns have a clear vision field of 12-14 inches at birth. Correct. Newborns have a clear field from 7-10 inches. d. Newborns prefer to look at complex patterns and also the human face than other stimuli. Incorrect. This is correct according to the research. Newborns prefer to look at human faces and complex stimuli. 78. Christa and Sal are anticipating the birth of their first baby. Before the baby arrives, they want to fix up the nursery with new wallpaper. They seek the advice of a developmental psychologist. What is she likely to tell them? a. Newborns prefer to look at complex three-dimensional patterns rather than simple one-dimensional ones. b. Newborns prefer to look at animals rather than people. c. Newborns do not see well enough to make any difference. d. Newborns prefer to look at simple one-dimensional patterns rather than complex ones. Answer: a. Newborns prefer to look at complex three-dimensional patterns rather than simple one-dimensional ones. Correct. Newborns prefer to look at complex patterns. d. Newborns prefer to look at simple one-dimensional patterns rather than complex ones. Incorrect. Newborns prefer complex patterns, particularly those that are three dimensional. 79. Which of these physical skills typically develops LAST? a. rolling over b. standing alone c. walking d. sucking Answer: c. walking Correct. Walking develops after sucking, rolling over, and standing alone. b. standing alone Incorrect. Standing alone develops before walking. 80. Which is the correct order of development of Six Motor Milestones according to research? a. Sitting up with support, sitting up without support, crawling, walking, raising head and chest, rolling over. b. Crawling, walking, raising head and chest, rolling over, sitting up with support, sitting up without support. c. Raising head and chest, rolling over, sitting up with support, sitting up without support, crawling, walking. d. Rolling over, sitting up with support, sitting up without support, crawling, walking, raising head and chest. Answer: c. Raising head and chest, rolling over, sitting up with support, sitting up without support, crawling, walking. Correct. This is the correct order shown in Figure 8.5. b. Crawling, walking, raising head and chest, rolling over, sitting up with support, sitting up without support. Incorrect. Answer C is the correct order per the book. 81. Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of ______. a. cognitive development b. perceptual development c. language development d. motor development Answer: a. cognitive development Correct. Piaget is known for his theory of cognitive development. c. language development Incorrect. Piaget is known for his theory of cognitive development. 82. Assimilation is to accommodation as ________. a. necessary is to optional b. help is to hinder c. hinder is to help d. using is to changing Answer: d. using is to changing Correct. In Piaget’s theory, assimilation allows the use of existing schemas to interpret new information, while accommodation results in the adjusting or changing of existing schemas in the face of new information. a. necessary is to optional Incorrect. Piaget did not consider either of these two processes to be optional. 83. Which of the following is the correct order of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development? a. preoperational; concrete operations; sensorimotor; formal operations b. concrete operations; sensorimotor; preoperational; formal operations c. sensorimotor; preoperational; concrete operations; formal operations d. preoperational; sensorimotor; concrete operations; formal operations Answer: c. sensorimotor; preoperational; concrete operations; formal operations Correct. The order in which Piaget’s stages occur is sensorimotor; preoperational; concrete operations; formal operations. d. preoperational; sensorimotor; concrete operations; formal operations Incorrect. Sensorimotor is the stage prior to the preoperational stage. 84. In Piaget's theory, the stage of development between birth and 2 years of age, in which the individual uses senses and motor abilities to interact with objects in the environment, is called the ______ stage. a. concrete operations b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. formal operations Answer: b. sensorimotor Correct. The sensorimotor stage occurs between birth and age 2. c. preoperational Incorrect. The preoperational stage occurs between ages 2 and 7. 85. Your little sister picks up objects, feels every part of them, and then puts them in her mouth. What stage of Jean Piaget’s model of cognitive development does this behavior suggest she is in? a. concrete operations b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. formal operations Answer: b. sensorimotor Correct. During this stage infants interact deliberately with objects by chewing, grasping, and tasting them. c. preoperational Incorrect. During the preoperational stage children no longer have to rely only on senses and motor skills. It is during the sensorimotor stage when they chew, grasp, and taste objects. 86. Piaget’s term for the knowledge that an object exists even when it is out of sight is ______. a. conservation b. object permanence c. centration d. egocentrism Answer: b. object permanence Correct. Understanding object permanence means understanding that an object exists even when it is out of sight. a. conservation Incorrect. Conservation is the ability to understand that changing the appearance of an object does not change its nature or quantity. 87. Ashani is 18 months old. When her mom leaves her at the babysitter’s house, Ashani cries initially. After a few moments, she stops crying because her mom is “out of sight and out of mind.” According to Piaget, which period of cognitive development would Ashani be in? a. Sensorimotor b. Preoperational c. Concrete Operations d. Formal Operations Answer: a. Sensorimotor Correct. Ashani seems to suffer from a lack of object permanence, which is noted during the sensorimotor stage of Piaget’s theory. b. Preoperational Incorrect. Piaget speculated that by the time children reach the preoperational stage of development, they will have overcome the lack of object permanence that seems to be troublesome for Ashani. 88. Young infants cannot appreciate the carnival game in which a pea seems to disappear from under a walnut because they have not yet developed a sense of ______. a. conservation b. object permanence c. centration d. egocentrism Answer: b. object permanence Correct. Object permanence is a term used to describe understanding that an object exists even when it is out of sight. a. conservation Incorrect. Conservation is a term used to describe understanding that changing the appearance of an object does not change its nature or quantity. 89. According to Piaget, ___________ represents the beginning of the child’s language development and symbolic thought. a. egocentric thinking b. accommodation c. object permanence d. assimilation Answer: c. object permanence Correct. To understand object permanence a child has knowledge that an object exists even when it is not in sight and that one object can stand in for another. Words are symbols that stand in for things that may not be present. a. egocentric thinking Incorrect. Egocentrism is the inability to see the world through anyone else’s eyes; it is not related to language. 90. According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between 2 and 7 years of age, in which the child learns to use language as a means of exploring the world, is the ______ stage. a. concrete operations b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. formal operations Answer: c. preoperational Correct. Preoperational is the name Piaget gave to the stage children are in from 2 to 7 years of age. b. sensorimotor Incorrect. The sensorimotor stage occurs between birth and age 2. 91. According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between 2 and 7 years of age, in which the child learns to use words, images, or actions to understand the world, is the ______ stage. a. concrete operations b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. formal operations Answer: c. preoperational Correct. Preoperational is the name Piaget gave to the stage children are in from 2 to 7 years of age. b. sensorimotor Incorrect. The sensorimotor stage occurs between birth and age 2. 92. Which of the following is a limitation on the cognitive life of children in Piaget’s preoperational stage? a. abstract concepts b. object permanence c. hypothetical thinking d. centration Answer: d. centration Correct. Centration, or focusing on only one feature of something rather than taking all of its features into consideration, is a limitation of the preoperational child. c. hypothetical thinking Incorrect. Hypothetical thinking is a capability of people in the formal operations stage. 93. Elijah is a 3 year little boy who likes to spread his peas and carrots all over his plate. After spreading out his food, he asks for more. His mom pushes all the food together and Elijah continues to eat. Which period of cognitive development is Elijah in? a. Egocentrism b. Sensorimotor c. Preoperational d. Accommodation Answer: c. Preoperational Correct. Elijah’s lack of demonstration that he has mastered the concept of conservation suggests that he is in the preoperational stage of Piaget’s theory a. Egocentrism Incorrect. Egocentrism is not one of the periods of cognitive development, but rather is a limitation of the early cognitive stages. 94. Ron, a toddler, takes a picture and puts it to the receiver of a phone in order to “show” it to his grandmother. This example illustrates ________. a. disoriented attachment b. conservation c. object permanence d. egocentrism Answer: d. egocentrism Correct. In Piaget’s theory, egocentrism is the inability to take another person’s point of view. c. object permanence Incorrect. In Piaget’s theory, object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist when they cannot be immediately perceived. 95. What term is used to describe a child’s inability to see the world through anyone else’s eyes except his or her own? a. disparity b. narcissism c. egocentrism d. autonomy Answer: c. egocentrism Correct. Egocentrism is the term used to describe a child’s inability to see the world through anyone else’s eyes except his or her own. b. narcissism Incorrect. Narcissism is a term used to describe a type of adult personality characterized by excessive self-admiration and centeredness. 96. According to Piaget, the ability to understand that simply changing the appearance of an object does not change the object’s nature is known as ___________. a. object permanence b. conservation c. centration d. reversibility Answer: b. conservation Correct. Conservation is the ability to understand that simply changing the appearance of an object does not change the object’s nature. c. centration Incorrect. Centration is the tendency to focus on one feature while ignoring others. 97. Your little brother has a big ball of clay. While he watches, you roll the ball of clay into a long snake-like shape. He begins to cry because he thinks he has less clay now. Which of Piaget’s stages is your brother likely to be in? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. formal operational d. concrete operational Answer: b. preoperational Correct. Your little brother shows lack of conservation, or the ability to understand that altering the appearance of something does not change its quantity; this lack of understanding is characteristic of preoperational children. d. concrete operational Incorrect. By the time children are in the concrete operational stage, they have developed conservation. 98. Ethan, a three year old, asks his mom to cut a pizza pie into twelve rather than eight pieces because he is “really hungry.” On the basis of this example, it is most appropriate to conclude that Ethan ________. a. understands object permanence b. does not understand object permanence c. understands conservation d. does not understand conservation Answer: d. does not understand conservation Correct. Conservation is the Piagetian principle that certain properties remain the same even when the appearance of an object changes. c. understands conservation Incorrect. In this example, Ethan does not understand the concept of conservation because he thinks that 12 slices of pizza is more food than eight slices of the same pizza. 99. Elka is 9 years old. She has been working on her science project which places different dinosaurs into different periods of time. Which stage of cognitive development is she most likely in? a. Preoperational b. Formal Operations c. Sensorimotor d. Concrete Operations Answer: d. Concrete Operations Correct. Piaget believed that the concrete operations stage of cognitive development occurs between the ages of seven and 12 years. b. Formal Operations Incorrect. Elka would be a little bit too young to be considered in the formal operations stage of Piaget’s theory. 100. Larry, a ten year old, first sees two identical glasses with water at the same level; then, the water from one of the short, wide glasses is poured into a taller, thinner glass. Larry will likely conclude that ________. a. there is more water in the taller, thinner glass b. there is more water in the shorter, wider glass c. there are equal amounts of water in the shorter, wider and taller, thinner glasses d. there are equal amounts of water in the two identical glasses only Answer: c. there are equal amounts of water in the shorter, wider and taller, thinner glasses Correct. because Larry is in the concrete operational stage of Piaget’s theory, he has mastered the concepts of conservation and reversibility. a. there is more water in the taller, thinner glass Incorrect. If Larry was younger, and in the preoperational period, this would be an accurate answer. 101. In Piaget’s theory, the stage of cognitive development between 7 and 12 years of age, in which an individual becomes capable of logical thought processes but is not yet capable of abstract thinking, is the ______ stage. a. concrete operations b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. formal operations Answer: a. concrete operations Correct. The concrete operational stage occurs between ages 7 and 12. c. preoperational Incorrect. The preoperational stage occurs between ages 2 and 7. 102. In which of Piaget’s stages does the child develop conservation? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. formal operational d. concrete operational Answer: d. concrete operational Correct. The child develops conservation during the concrete operational stage. b. preoperational Incorrect. During the preoperational stage, children lack conservation. 103. Which of Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development is characterized by abstract thinking and the creation of hypotheticals? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. formal operational d. concrete operational Answer: c. formal operational Correct. The stage of formal operations is characterized by abstract thinking and the creation of hypotheticals. d. concrete operational Incorrect. Children at the concrete operational stage are unable to deal effectively with abstract concepts. 104. Rosa, who is 13, wants to spend her babysitting money on something special, but she also wants to save some of the money to buy her brother a birthday gift. She is trying to decide the best way to spend her money. Which stage of cognitive development is Rosa in? a. Sensorimotor b. Formal Operations c. Biophysical d. Reversibility Answer: b. Formal Operations Correct. Piaget believed that the formal operations period begins at the age of 12. a. Sensorimotor Incorrect. Rosa is much too old to be considered in the sensorimotor stage. This stage applies to children between the ages of zero and two years. 105. A characteristic that first shows up in the formal operational stage is ______. a. irreversibility b. egocentrism c. abstract thinking d. logical thinking Answer: c. abstract thinking Correct. Abstract thinking develops during the formal operational stage. d. logical thinking Incorrect. Logical thinking first reveals itself in the concrete operational stage. 106. Which type of thought does not begin until the stage of formal operational thought? a. thinking about what is possible b. thinking about what is logical c. thinking about whether an object exists when it is out of sight d. thinking about only one feature of an object rather than taking all features into consideration Answer: a. thinking about what is possible Correct. Thinking about what is possible is an aspect of hypothetical thinking, which occurs in the formal operational stage. b. thinking about what is logical Incorrect. Logical thought occurs in the concrete operational stage.. 107. According to the most recent evidence, what can be said of Piaget’s findings? a. The capacities of infants usually are not as high as claimed by Piaget. b. Object permanence has been shown as early as 1 month of age, thus refuting Piaget’s claim that it is not established until toddlerhood. c. Piaget’s theory seems to underestimate the age by which a child masters egocentrism and object permanence. d. Piaget’s concept that the qualitative changes in cognitive processing is more important than the quantitative changes has been effectively refuted. Answer: c. Piaget’s theory seems to underestimate the age by which a child masters egocentrism and object permanence. Correct. This is an accurate criticism as laid out by your authors. b. Object permanence has been shown as early as 1 month of age, thus refuting Piaget’s claim that it is not established until toddlerhood. Incorrect. Recent research has suggested that object permanence may exist as early as two or three months of age, but not as early as one month of age. 108. In contrast to Piaget, Vygotsky emphasized the role of ________ during development. a. learned responses b. social interactions c. individual differences d. the childʹs representations of the world Answer: b. social interactions Correct. Vygotsky believed that social interactions were essential for the development of cognitive skills. a. learned responses Incorrect. This would be the theory of the behaviorist, and this is not the type of psychologist that Vygotsky was. 109. Whereas Piaget saw cognitive development as a result of individual discovery and a child’s interaction with objects, Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to ________. a. biological changes in the brain b. unconscious factors c. completing activities in isolation d. interaction between a child and skilled people Answer: d. interaction between a child and skilled people Correct. Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to interaction between a child and skilled people. c. completing activities in isolation Incorrect. Vygotsky believed that cognitive development occurred as a result of social interactions between a child and skilled people. 110. According to Vygotsky, which of these is a key factor in a child’s cognitive development? a. balanced diet b. social interactions c. genetic endowment d. successful resolution of psychosocial crises Answer: b. social interactions Correct. Vygotsky believed that cognitive development occurred as a result of social interactions. d. successful resolution of psychosocial crises Incorrect. Psychosocial crises refer to the theories of psychosocial development, not to Vygotsky’s theories. 111. Which of the following illustrates Vygotsky’s concept of scaffolding? a. Several children work together to overcome an obstacle they could not conquer individually. b. A teacher works one-on-one with a student and then begins to withdraw help as the student becomes more skilled. c. Learning in one area, such as language, tends to reinforce learning that occurs in other areas, such as mathematics. d. Physical interaction with the environment is a key to learning, so teachers require students to run and play a great deal. Answer: b. A teacher works one-on-one with a student and then begins to withdraw help as the student becomes more skilled. Correct. Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to interactions between a child and skilled people. a. Several children work together to overcome an obstacle they could not conquer individually. Incorrect. Scaffolding emphasizes one-on-one learning. 112. Which of the following is the term that refers to the difference between what a child can do alone and what that child can do with the help of a teacher? a. scaffolding b. conservation c. hypothetical thinking. d. zone of proximal development Answer: d. zone of proximal development Correct. The zone of proximal development is a term used to refer to the difference between what a child can do alone and what that child can do with the help of a teacher. a. scaffolding Incorrect. Scaffolding occurs when a more skilled person helps a less skilled learner. 113. Infants typically begin to make vowel-like sounds at around the age of ________. a. 6 weeks b. 2 months c. 6 months d. 7 months Answer: b. 2 months Correct. At 2 months infants typically make vowel-like sounds, called cooing. c. 6 months Incorrect. At 6 months of age, infants have already been cooing for several months and begin adding consonant sounds to their vowels. 114. A baby’s language that consists of repetition of consonant-vowel combinations is called ______. a. cooing b. holophrasing c. telegraphic speech d. babbling Answer: d. babbling Correct. Babbling consists of repetition of consonant–vowel combinations. a. cooing Incorrect. Cooing involves vowel sounds only. 115. By about 12 months, most infants ____________________. a. begin to use intonation in their language b. build a vocabulary of one-word phrases c. begin to distinguish, in their language, between themselves and others d. begin to form two- and three-word sentences Answer: b. build a vocabulary of one-word phrases Correct. By about 12 months most infants build a vocabulary of one-word phrases. d. begin to form two- and three-word sentences Incorrect. Two- and three-word sentences do not typically occur until approximately age 18 months to 2 years. 116. Which of the following is an example of telegraphic speech? a. “pet dog” b. “ba ba ba ba ba” c. “but I just runned home” d. “bottle” Answer: a. “pet dog” Correct. Telegraphic speech packs a lot of information into a few highly informative words, typically omitting words such as the, a, and of. b. “ba ba ba ba ba” Incorrect. This would be an example of babbling, not telegraphic speech. 117. Who was the physician who first published research suggesting a relationship between the MMR vaccine and the development of autism? a. Stephen Kessling b. Vladimir Uberkoff c. Andrew Wakefield d. Robert Rosenfield Answer: c. Andrew Wakefield Correct. Andrew Wakefield is the correct answer. He published a now discredited study in 1998 that suggested a link between the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine and autism. The study has been widely debunked and retracted due to ethical violations and fraudulent data manipulation. a. Stephen Kessling Incorrect. There is no known physician by this name who has published research on the MMR vaccine and autism. b. Vladimir Uberkoff There is no known physician by this name who has published research on the MMR vaccine and autism. d. Robert Rosenfield There is no known physician by this name who has published research on the MMR vaccine and autism. 118. Which of the following is true of the original research that suggested a relationship between the MMR vaccine and the development of autism? a. It was conducted in a cooperative study in France, Iceland, and the Netherlands. b. It was based on data collected from a very large sample of children. c. It has been successfully replicated repeatedly, providing evidence for its validity. d. It was based on falsified data. Answer: d. It was based on falsified data. Correct. This is the correct answer. Andrew Wakefield's original research, published in 1998, was found to be based on falsified data and unethical practices. The study has been discredited and retracted from the scientific community. a. It was conducted in a cooperative study in France, Iceland, and the Netherlands. The study Incorrect. was not conducted in multiple countries. 119. Shelley and Julie are mothers who both have a three-month-old infant. Shelley tells Julie, “My son is so fussy,” to which Julie replies, “That’s funny - my son is so easy.” It appears that Shelley and Julie are discussing their newborns’ ________. a. personalities. b. moods. c. reflexes. d. temperaments. Answer: d. temperaments. Correct. A temperament refers to a child’s inclination to engage in a certain style of behavior. c. reflexes. Incorrect. A reflex refers to an inborn, involuntary motor response to a stimulus. 120. Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of temperament described by Thomas and Chess? a. active b. slow-to-warm-up c. difficult d. easy Answer: a. active Correct. Thomas and Chess used the terms easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up. d. easy Incorrect. Easy is a temperament type described by Thomas and Chess. 121. Shelby is very adaptable to change. She is on a regular sleeping, eating, and waking schedule. Thomas and Chess would describe Shelby as being a(n) _______________ child. a. easy b. difficult c. slow-to-warm-up d. undemanding Answer: a. easy Correct. Easy children are described as being adaptable to change and on regular schedules. d. undemanding Incorrect. Thomas and Chess use the term easy to describe children on regular schedules. 122. According to Thomas and Chess, a child that is very irregular in sleeping and eating, resists change, and tends to be loud is labeled a(n)_____________ child. a. easy b. difficult c. slow-to-warm-up d. negative Answer: b. difficult Correct. Difficult children tend to resist change. d. negative Incorrect. Thomas and Chess used the term difficult for children who tend to resist change. 123. Chester is irritable, loud, and negative most of the time. He doesn’t like it when new people pick him up, and he has irregular sleeping, eating, and waking schedules. What temperament does he exhibit? a. active b. slow-to-warm-up c. difficult d. easy Answer: c. difficult Correct. Difficult babies tend to be irritable, are not comfortable with change, and have irregular schedules. a. active Incorrect. Babies who are irritable and irregular are considered difficult. 124. Egbert is a quiet child who is very slow to adapt to change. However, if he is introduced gradually to new people or situations, then eventually he will accept them without too much distress. Thomas and Chess would say his temperament is ______. a. active b. slow-to-warm-up c. difficult d. easy Answer: b. slow-to-warm-up Correct. Slow-to-warm-up babies tend be quieter and slow to adapt to change. c. difficult Incorrect. Difficult babies tend to be loud, are not comfortable with change, and have irregular schedules. Slow-to-warm-up babies tend be quieter and slow to adapt to change. 125. Research on the stability of temperament indicates that it is _______________. a. unstable and subject to wide variations over the course of a lifetime b. unstable during childhood but stabilizes during adolescence and remains stable throughout a person’s adult life c. relatively stable through the first three to four years of life but begins to vary dramatically once a child reaches school age d. relatively stable well into adulthood Answer: d. relatively stable well into adulthood Correct. Temperament is considered stable well into adulthood. c. relatively stable through the first three to four years of life but begins to vary dramatically once a child reaches school age Incorrect. Temperament is considered stable well into adulthood. 126. The emotional bond that forms between an infant and a primary caregiver is called _________. a. temperament b. attachment c. trust d. habituation Answer: b. attachment Correct. Attachment is an emotional bond that forms between an infant and primary caregiver. c. trust Incorrect. Trust is an element of attachment, but the term used for the bond itself is attachment. 127. Attachment usually takes place within the _____________ of life. a. first year b. first month c. first six months d. first four months. Answer: c. first six months Correct. Attachment takes place within the first six months of life. b. first month Incorrect. Attachment takes place within the first six months of life. 128. If a child is exposed to the “Strange Situation,” then he or she ________. a. should receive immediate medical attention b. will view novel and eccentric stimuli c. will be in a room with other children that they don’t know d. will be left with a stranger or alone in an unfamiliar situation Answer: d. will be left with a stranger or alone in an unfamiliar situation Correct. This was the basis of Mary Ainsworth’s strange situation experiment; children were separated from and then reunified with their primary caregivers. c. will be in a room with other children that they don’t know Incorrect. This sort of peer exposure was not an aspect of the strange situation experiment. 129. What was Mary Ainsworth trying to determine when she devised an experimental method called the Strange Situation? a. the nature of gestural communication between mothers and babies b. aspects of purposeful exploration as the baby investigates a strange environment c. parental discipline styles in the first year of life d. the nature of attachment between caretakers and babies Answer: d. the nature of attachment between caretakers and babies Correct. She sought to understand the nature of attachment between caregivers and babies. c. parental discipline styles in the first year of life Incorrect. She sought to study the nature of attachment. 130. Anna, a one year old, fears being away from her mother. It appears that Anna has ________. a. an attachment disorder b. stranger anxiety c. generalized anxiety d. separation anxiety Answer: d. separation anxiety Correct. Separation anxiety refers to the fear of being away from one’s primary caregiver. b. stranger anxiety Incorrect. Stranger anxiety, a term that is used less commonly anymore, refers to the fear of being around unfamiliar people. 131. Which type of attachment style is characterized by babies who do not seem to care very much whether the mother is present or absent, and are equally comfortable with her and a stranger? a. Secure b. Avoidant c. Resistant d. Disorganized Answer: b. Avoidant Correct. An avoidant attachment is evident if babies don’t seem to care very much whether their mother is present or absent, and are equally comfortable in the presence of their mother or a stranger. a. Secure Incorrect. The secure attachment is evident if babies venture away from their mother, are upset when she leaves and not well comforted by a stranger, and calm down quickly when she returns. 132. Mary Ainsworth observed that securely attached infants __________. a. do not seem to care when the mother leaves the room and do not seek her out on her return b. protest loudly when the mother leaves but resist contact with her when she returns c. cry if the mother leaves the room, are easily soothed, and welcome her back when she returns d. are not concerned upon separation but cry to be picked up and held on her return Answer: c. cry if the mother leaves the room, are easily soothed, and welcome her back when she returns Correct. Securely attached infants are easily soothed when they cry and welcome their mother back upon return. a. do not seem to care when the mother leaves the room and do not seek her out on her return Incorrect. Ainsworth’s term for infants who do not care when the mother leaves the room and do not seek her out when she returns is avoidant. 133. Mothers who were unresponsive, insensitive, and coldly rejecting were associated with ___________ attached infants. a. securely b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized/disoriented Answer: b. avoidant Correct. Mothers of avoidant attached infants were unresponsive, insensitive, and coldly rejecting. d. disorganized/disoriented Incorrect. Mothers of disorganized/disoriented infants were worse than cold; they were abusive or neglectful in interactions with the infant. 134. __________________ babies in Ainsworth’s study were clinging and unwilling to explore, very upset by the stranger regardless of the mother’s presence, protested mightily when the mother left, were hard to soothe, and had mixed reactions upon mother’s return. a. Secure b. Avoidant c. Ambivalent d. Disorganized/disoriented Answer: c. Ambivalent Correct. Ambivalent attached infants were clinging, unwilling to explore, and protested when the mother left. b. Avoidant Incorrect. Avoidant infants’ main reaction was anger; they did not respond upon the mother’s return; and they failed to make eye contact with her. 135. Jevon and his sister Lea are opening their presents on Christmas morning. Lea opens up a beautiful doll with a dress and lovely blond hair. Jevon says, “ew, that is a girl’s toy.” Jevon clearly has some established gender _______ for playtime behavior. a. roles b. stereotypes c. expectations d. sequences Answer: a. roles Correct. A gender role refers to culturally determined appropriate behaviors for males and females. b. stereotypes Incorrect. Gender stereotypes are not discussed in this chapter. 136. Which of the following stages of psychosocial development appears in adulthood rather than in childhood? a. initiative vs.. doubt b. integrity vs. despair c. industry vs. inferiority d. basic trust vs. mistrust Answer: b. integrity vs. despair Correct. This is the final stage of Erikson’s theory, and it occurs during our older adult years. d. basic trust vs. mistrust Incorrect. This is the first stage of Erikson’s theory, and it occurs during the first year of life. 137. Like any 4-month-old, Amy depends on her parents to feed her and to change her diapers. When Amy cries, her devoted parents quickly respond to her needs. According to Erikson, Amy is developing a sense of ___________. a. trust b. mistrust c. autonomy d. initiative Answer: a. trust Correct. Infants whose needs are consistently met come to trust their caregivers, and this trust helps promote attachment. c. autonomy Incorrect. Autonomy does not develop until around 18 months of age. 138. Which of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial crises revolves around the child’s learning to direct his or her own behavior? a. trust versus mistrust b. initiative versus guilt c. industry versus inferiority d. autonomy versus shame and doubt Answer: d. autonomy versus shame and doubt Correct. Autonomy versus shame and doubt revolves around the child’s learning to direct his or her own behavior. b. initiative versus guilt Incorrect. Initiative versus guilt revolves around the challenge to control one’s own behavior. 139. If a child successfully navigates this stage of psychosocial development, they will make decisions and act independently. a. integrity vs. despair b. autonomy vs. doubt c. initiative vs. guilt d. basic trust vs. mistrust Answer: b. autonomy vs. doubt Correct. This is the second stage of Erikson’s theory. a. integrity vs. despair Incorrect. This is the final stage of Erikson’s theory, and is seen at the end of our lives. 140. Erikson’s theory of social development viewed the period from ages 3 to 5, his third stage, as characterized by the major challenge of ______. a. identity versus role diffusion b. industry versus inferiority c. initiative versus guilt d. autonomy versus shame and doubt Answer: c. initiative versus guilt Correct. Initiative versus guilt takes place between ages 3 and 5. b. industry versus inferiority Incorrect. Industry versus inferiority takes place between ages 5 and 12. 141. In Erikson’s _____________ stage of psychosocial development, preschoolers are challenged to control their own behavior. a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. initiative versus guilt d. industry versus inferiority Answer: c. initiative versus guilt Correct. During the stage of initiative versus guilt, preschoolers are challenged to control their own behavior. b. autonomy versus shame and doubt Incorrect. Autonomy versus shame and doubt takes place during the toddler years and focuses on directing rather than controlling one’s own behavior. 142. Between the ages of 5 and 12 children strive to develop a sense of competence arising from their work and effort. Erikson refers to this stage of life as ___________. a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. initiative versus guilt d. industry versus inferiority Answer: d. industry versus inferiority Correct. A child in the stage of industry versus inferiority strives to develop a sense of competence as a result of his or her work and effort. b. autonomy versus shame and doubt Incorrect. A toddler in the stage called autonomy versus shame and doubt strives for independence. 143. According to Erikson, if an elementary school child fails to succeed in learning new skills and knowledge, the result may be the development of a sense of _________. a. stagnation b. inferiority c. shame and doubt d. role confusion Answer: b. inferiority Correct. Failure to learn new skills and knowledge may result in a sense of inferiority. c. shame and doubt Incorrect. Shame and doubt are associated with an earlier stage of development that emphasizes independence. 144. The period of life from about age 13 to the early twenties, during which a young person is no longer physically a child but is not yet an independent, self-supporting adult, is called ________. a. adolescence b. tweens c. young adulthood d. puberty Answer: a. adolescence Correct. Adolescence is the period of life from about age 13 to the early twenties. d. puberty Incorrect. Puberty is the word for the physical changes that occur in the body as sexual development reaches its peak. 145. Puberty is defined as _________. a. the production of hormones in the reproductive glands stimulated by the pituitary gland b. the stage of identity versus role confusion c. the physical changes that occur in the body as sexual development reaches its peak d. the time when a child becomes a teenager Answer: c. the physical changes that occur in the body as sexual development reaches its peak Correct. Puberty is defined as the period during which physical changes occur in the body as sexual development reaches its peak. a. the production of hormones in the reproductive glands stimulated by the pituitary gland Incorrect. The production of hormones in the reproductive glands is only one of the physical changes that occur in the body during puberty. 146. Which of the following is NOT evidence of puberty in boys? a. the growth of the testes and penis b. the appearance of pubic hair c. higher pitch of the voice d. the appearance of a beard Answer: c. higher pitch of the voice Correct. Boys’ voices do not get higher; they get deeper. d. the appearance of a beard Incorrect. The appearance of a beard is a sign of puberty in males. 147. The growth spurt for boys typically begins at age______. a. 9 b. 12 c. 10 d. 15 Answer: b. 12 Correct. The growth spurt for boys typically begins at age 12. c. 10 Incorrect. Girls typically experience a growth spurt earlier, around age 10. 148. The growth spurt for girls typically begins at what age? a. 9 b. 12 c. 10 d. 15 Answer: c. 10 Correct. The growth spurt for girls typically begins at age 10. b. 12 Incorrect. Girls typically experience a growth spurt earlier, at age 10. 149. Most young adolescents, especially those who receive a formal high school education, are at the level of thinking that Piaget described as ______. a. formal operations b. preoperational c. preconventional d. identity versus role confusion Answer: a. formal operations Correct. Most adolescents who receive a formal high school education are at the formal operations level of thinking. d. identity versus role confusion Incorrect. Identity versus role confusion is the stage of adolescence in Erikson’s theory. 150. The development of formal operations in adolescence leads to ______. a. extroverted behavior b. a lessening of self-analysis compared to preoperational thought c. introspection and egocentrism d. thinking in terms of concrete things Answer: c. introspection and egocentrism Correct. The development of formal operations in adolescence leads to introspection and egocentrism. a. extroverted behavior Incorrect. The development of formal operations in adolescence leads to introspection and egocentrism. 151. The tendency of teenagers to feel that they are always “on stage” and that they are the center of everyone else’s world, just as they are the center of their own, is a phenomenon known as ___________. a. formal operations b. the imaginary audience c. the personal fable d. puberty Answer: b. the imaginary audience Correct. Imaginary audience refers to the feeling that everyone is watching you closely; it causes teenagers to feel extremely self-conscious. c. the personal fable Incorrect. The term personal fable refers to the feeling of being unique and protected. 152. Last night, Allie’s mom gave her a haircut. As she walked into her high school, she felt like everyone could tell that her bangs were a little uneven. This example illustrates the belief of a(n) ________. a. underestimation b. personal fable c. self-serving bias d. imaginary audience Answer: d. imaginary audience Correct. The imaginary audience is the belief sometimes held by adolescents in which they view themselves as actors with everyone else as the audience. b. personal fable Incorrect. The personal fable is the adolescent idea that they are the star in a story, and therefore have extraordinary abilities and privileges. It may also contribute the adolescent belief that they are immune to the negative outcomes are consequences of their actions. 153. Simone’s family does not have a lot of money. Simone’s mom buys her clothing from the local super store. Simone believes that other students notice that she doesn’t wear brand name clothes. This is an example of ________. a. underestimation b. personal fable c. self-serving bias d. imaginary audience Answer: d. imaginary audience Correct. The imaginary audience is the belief sometimes held by adolescents in which they view themselves as actors with everyone else as the audience. b. personal fable Incorrect. The personal fable is the adolescent idea that they are the star in a story, and therefore have extraordinary abilities and privileges. It may also contribute the adolescent belief that they are immune to the negative outcomes are consequences of their actions. 154. Abe just got his driver’s license. He loves to speed around town going more than 20 miles per hour above the speed limit. He believes that he can speed through red lights due to his perfect timing. This is an example of ________. a. underestimation b. personal fable c. self-serving bias d. imaginary audience Answer: b. personal fable Correct. The personal fable convinces adolescents that they are special and protected and, thus, nothing bad can happen to them. d. imaginary audience Incorrect. The imaginary audience is the belief sometimes held by adolescents in which they view themselves as actors with everyone else as the audience. 155. Mary is an adolescent who currently has a small pimple on her cheek that is causing her to be overly self-conscious. She is convinced that everyone she meets stares at and talks about her pimple. Mary’s behavior exhibits ____________. a. a sense of idealism b. imaginary audience c. personal fable d. puberty Answer: b. imaginary audience Correct. Imaginary audience refers to the feeling that everyone is watching you closely; it makes teenagers feel extremely self-conscious. c. personal fable Incorrect. The term personal fable refers to the feeling of being unique and protected. 156. Fifteen-year-old Todd is writing an impassioned novel about growing up in America. In his novel he describes his experiences in a way that portrays them as unique, such that no one has ever thought such deep thoughts or experienced such ecstasy before. Todd’s writings most clearly reflect ______. a. his sense of autonomy b. the personal fable c. the period of rebellion common to all adolescents d. his developing sense of conscience Answer: b. the personal fable Correct. The personal fable refers to the feeling of being unique and protected. a. his sense of autonomy Incorrect. Todd’s portrayal of being unique is indicative of the personal fable. 157. The reckless risk taking found among many adolescents is most likely due to the effects of ____________. a. their sense of autonomy b. the personal fable c. the period of rebellion common to all adolescents d. their developing sense of conscience Answer: b. the personal fable Correct. The personal fable convinces adolescents that they are special and protected and, thus, nothing bad can happen to them. c. the period of rebellion common to all adolescents Incorrect. Recklessness is due to the personal fable, which somehow makes adolescents feel they are protected from the dangers of the world, and, as a result, they do not take precautions. 158. Obedience to rules because of the fear of punishment is a characteristic of __________. a. conventional morality b. preconventional morality c. principled morality d. postconventional morality Answer: b. preconventional morality Correct. In preconventional morality, behavior is governed by the consequences of an action. a. conventional morality Incorrect. In conventional morality behavior is governed by the norms of society. 159. Brad is in an electronics store with his parents. He looks at the CDs and thinks for a moment that he could grab one and put it beneath his coat. As he considers this possibility, he decides not to do it because he might get caught and his parents would punish him. What stage of moral development does Brad’s decision represent? a. preoperational b. preconventional c. autonomous moral principles d. conventional role conformity Answer: b. preconventional Correct. At the preconventional level one determines right and wrong based on what consequences would likely result from an action. a. preoperational Incorrect. Preoperational is a term used in Piaget’s theory of human development; it is not a term related to moral choices. 160. Edmund is a Boy Scout. While on a camping trip, the scout leader tells the boys to stay away from the lake. Some of the scouts ignore the leader and go fishing by the lake anyway. Edmund wants to do what the leader tells him and believes that good behaviors are rewarded while bad behaviors are punished. Which level of moral reasoning is he in? a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Convenient Answer: a. Preconventional Correct. Preconventional morality focuses on the role of an authority figure who determines what a correct action is or is not. b. Conventional Incorrect. Conventional morality focuses on the rules that maintain social order and allow people to get along. 161. Saul believes in the Golden Rule and desperately wants people to view him as a good person. Most likely, he is in which level of moral development? a. Convergent b. Postconventional c. Conventional d. Preconventional Answer: c. Conventional Correct. Conventional morality focuses on the rules that maintain social order and allow people to get along. d. Preconventional Incorrect. Preconventional morality focuses on the role of an authority figure who determines what a correct action is or is not. 162. According to Kohlberg, most adolescents are at the _________ level of morality. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. preliminary Answer: b. conventional Correct. According to Kohlberg, most adolescents are at the conventional level. a. preconventional Incorrect. Most adolescents are beyond the preconventional level, which is for young children and juvenile delinquents. 163. At what stage of moral development is moral thought guided by principles that have been decided upon by the individual and may be in disagreement with accepted social norms? a. preoperational b. preconventional c. postconventional d. conventional role conformity Answer: c. postconventional Correct. At the postconventional level morality is driven by an individual’s self-determined moral principles. b. preconventional Incorrect. At the preconventional level a person determines right and wrong based on the expected consequences of an action. 164. When faced with a conflict between law and conscience, Liz follows her conscience despite the personal risk. This would be characteristic of __________. a. conventional morality b. preconventional morality c. postconventional morality d. unconventional morality Answer: c. postconventional morality Correct. At the postconventional level right and wrong are determined by the individual, which may be in disagreement with accepted social norms. b. preconventional morality Incorrect. At the preconventional level a person determines right and wrong based on the expected consequences of an action. 165. What is the sequence of stages of moral development as identified by Lawrence Kohlberg? a. preconventional, conventional, postconventional b. preoperational, postoperational, world view c. preconventional, postconventional, conventional d. concrete operational, formal operational, autonomous Answer: a. preconventional, conventional, postconventional Correct. The sequence of the stages of moral development is preconventional, conventional, postconventional. c. preconventional, postconventional, conventional Incorrect. Postconventional follows conventional. 166. According to Gilligan, Kohlberg’s theory of moral development a. should only be applied to males. b. explains moral reasoning in multiple cultures. c. should be extended to males. d. is a comprehensive theory without missing components. Answer: a. should only be applied to males. Correct. Because Kohlberg’s theory was established using only boys and men, Gilligan has suggested that his theory is not applicable to the morality of girls or women. c. should be extended to males. Incorrect. In fact, Gilligan suggests that Kohlberg theory should be restricted to only males. 167. Jeremy is 17 years old. According to Erikson, his chief task will be acquiring a sense of ______. a. identity b. intimacy c. generativity d. autonomy Answer: a. identity Correct. According to Erikson, adolescents must begin to develop a sense of self. b. intimacy Incorrect. According to Erikson, developing intimacy begins in early adulthood. 168. Brad is 18 and is looking into career options. He is currently deciding whether he wants to become a gourmet chef or a race car driver. Brad is at what stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial development? a. integrity versus despair b. intimacy versus isolation c. generativity versus stagnation d. identity versus role confusion Answer: d. identity versus role confusion Correct. In the identity versus role confusion stage the individual is searching for a consistent sense of self, and one part of this process is choosing a career. c. generativity versus stagnation Incorrect. Brad is too young to enter the generativity versus stagnation stage. 169. Conflicts between adolescents and their parents tend to be over ______. a. trivial things b. moral issues c. political issues d. major things Answer: a. trivial things Correct. Most arguments are about trivial things. d. major things Incorrect. Most arguments are over trivial things such as hair, clothing, and taste in music. 170. On big moral issues, parents and teens tend to __________. a. completely disagree b. be in agreement c. are not familiar with each other’s position d. have intense arguments Answer: b. be in agreement Correct. On big moral issues parents and teens tend to be in agreement. d. have intense arguments Incorrect. Most intense arguments are over trivial things such as hair, clothing, and taste in music. 171. The twenties is a time of ___________. a. peak physical health b. decline in senses c. immature cognitive abilities d. illness Answer: a. peak physical health Correct. This is a time when health is at its peak. c. immature cognitive abilities Incorrect. The twenties is a time when health is at its peak. 172. Megan just turned 32. She is keenly aware of biological changes that occur as she gets older. What’s more, she measures the sensitivity of her senses and other physical characteristics by using sophisticated testing equipment. In which of the following areas is she likely to find some decline? a. vision and hearing b. sensitivity to odors and temperatures c. sensitivity to taste, muscular strength, and hearing d. sensitivity to taste, vision, and muscular strength Answer: a. vision and hearing Correct. Although these changes may not be noticeable, they are beginning in many adults in their thirties. d. sensitivity to taste, vision, and muscular strength Incorrect. Taste sensitivity occurs later in adulthood; vision and hearing begin to decline in the thirties. 173. Around age 40, adults ___________. a. see a decline in sexual functioning b. may need to wear bifocal lenses c. experience a sharpening of the senses d. do not experience any physical changes Answer: b. may need to wear bifocal lenses Correct. The lens of the eye begins to harden and has difficulty changing shape to focus. a. see a decline in sexual functioning Incorrect. Any decline in sexual functioning is more typically due to a decrease in opportunity rather than ability. 174. The period of five to ten years during which a woman’s reproductive system begins to decline is called_______. a. climacteric b. perimenopause c. menopause d. postmenopause Answer: b. perimenopause Correct. Perimenopause is the term for the decline in the female reproductive system. c. menopause Incorrect. Menopause is the term used to describe the cessation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation. 175. Sarah is in her forties. Her menstrual cycle is irregular and she is experiencing “hot flashes” that are keeping her awake at night. The changes Sarah is experiencing are called _____________. a. the climacteric b. perimenopause c. menopause d. andropause Answer: a. the climacteric Correct. The climacteric is the term for the physical changes, such as those that Sarah is experiencing, that occur during perimenopause. b. perimenopause Incorrect. Perimenopause is the term for the period of time during which the climacteric, or decline in the female reproductive system, occurs; it is not the term for the changes themselves. 176. The cessation of menstruation and ovulation is called ______. a. the climacteric b. perimenopause c. menopause d. andropause Answer: c. menopause Correct. Menopause is the term for the cessation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation. b. perimenopause Incorrect. Perimenopause is the term for the period of five to ten years during which a woman’s reproductive system begins to decline. 177. The average age of menopause is __________. a. 43 b. 34 c. 51 d. 55 Answer: c. 51 Correct. Fifty-one is the average age for women to cease ovulation. a. 43 Incorrect. At 43 the average woman may be experiencing the physical changes of the climacteric but is still about eight years away from menopause. 178. The gradual decline in the sexual reproductive system of males is called ____________. a. menopause b. andropause c. male menopause d. change of life Answer: b. andropause Correct. Andropause is the term for the gradual decline in the reproductive system of males. c. male menopause Incorrect. The appropriate term for the gradual decline of the male reproductive system is andropause. 179. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of death in middle adulthood? a. suicide b. homicide c. heart disease d. stroke Answer: c. heart disease Correct. Heart disease is the most common cause of death in middle adulthood. d. stroke Incorrect. Stroke is the third most common cause of death in middle adulthood, whereas heart disease is the most common. 180. Which of the following abilities decline during adulthood? a. intellectual abilities b. speed of processing c. wisdom d. verbal ability Answer: b. speed of processing Correct. Speed of processing declines during adulthood. d. verbal ability Incorrect. Verbal ability tends to increase during adulthood. 181. Erikson saw the major challenge of young adulthood as that of ______. a. intimacy versus isolation b. generativity versus stagnation c. identity versus role confusion d. integrity versus despair Answer: a. intimacy versus isolation Correct. Erikson saw the major challenge of young adulthood as intimacy versus isolation. c. identity versus role confusion Incorrect. Erikson identified identity versus role confusion as the major task in adolescence. 182. According to Erikson, an emotional and psychological closeness that is based on the ability to trust, share, and care, while still maintaining one’s sense of self, is called ________ a. bonding b. intimacy c. attachment d. attraction Answer: b. intimacy Correct. Erikson defined intimacy as an emotional and psychological closeness that is based on the ability to trust, share, and care, while still maintaining one’s sense of self. c. attachment Incorrect. Attachment refers to the bond that is formed between an infant and primary caregiver. 183. Amy is 30 years old and she has difficulty forming meaningful relationships with others. According to Erikson, she is most likely in the ________ stage. a. intimacy vs. isolation b. identity vs. role confusion c. basic trust vs. mistrust d. integrity vs. despair Answer: a. intimacy vs. isolation Correct. Erikson said that the primary challenge of young adulthood is forming intimate relationships, or being left with the sense that we are alone in the world. c. basic trust vs. mistrust Incorrect. This is the first stage of Erikson’s theory, and it occurs during the first year of life. 184. Erik Erikson saw the major challenge of middle adulthood as that of ______. a. intimacy versus isolation b. identity versus role diffusion c. integrity versus despair d. generativity versus stagnation Answer: d. generativity versus stagnation Correct. Erikson saw the major challenge of middle adulthood as generativity versus stagnation. c. integrity versus despair Incorrect. Erikson saw integrity versus despair as a stage beginning in older adulthood. 185. Aaron is a middle-aged physician. He gives back to the community by acting as a mentor to teenagers interested in entering the medical profession. Erikson would say that Aaron is experiencing _________. a. intimacy b. identity c. generativity d. integrity Answer: c. generativity Correct. According to Erikson, mentoring is a kind of generativity. d. integrity Incorrect. According to Erikson, sense of integrity is usually established in older adulthood. 186. According to Erikson, if a middle-aged person is unable to focus outward and is still dealing with issues of intimacy or even identity, that person is experiencing __________. a. generativity b. stagnation c. ego integrity d. despair Answer: b. stagnation Correct. Erikson used the term stagnation to refer to a situation in which someone in middle adulthood is still dealing with issues of intimacy and identity. d. despair Incorrect. Erikson used the term despair to refer to a sense of deep regret over things that will never be accomplished because time has run out. 187. Germain tends to rule his home with an iron fist. His children know the rules and they are expected to obey them without question or they know there will be harsh consequences. Diana Baumrind would describe Germain’s parenting style as __________. a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. ironclad d. indulgent Answer: a. authoritarian Correct. An authoritarian parenting style leaves little to no room for exchange between parent and child, and obedience is expected. b. authoritative Incorrect. An authoritative parenting style allows for exchange between a child and parents, and while rules are still enforced there can be collaboration and discussion on some of those rules. 188. A child from which of the following parenting types would be most likely to lack social skills later in life? a. ambivalent b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. permissive Answer: d Correct. Children raised in permissive parenting styles often lack boundaries and structure, which can lead to difficulties in developing appropriate social skills later in life. a. ambivalent Incorrect. This is a style of attachment in developmental psychology, not a parenting style. 189. Psychologists say that an elderly person who is looking back over his or her life and coming to terms with the actions of that life is engaging in ___________. a. despair b. a sense of identity c. ego integrity d. a life review Answer: d. a life review Correct. A life review occurs when an older adult looks back and evaluates the life he or she has lived. c. ego integrity Incorrect. Ego integrity is the best possible outcome of a life review, but it is not the term used for the process itself. 190. Hector is 70 years old and has just retired from a career as a lawyer. He is now spending time looking back on his life and is recognizing, as well as coming to terms with, mistakes, regrets, and unfinished business. Hector is engaging in a process called ___________. a. despair b. sense of identity c. ego integrity d. life review Answer: d. life review Correct. A life review occurs when an older adult looks back on and evaluates the life he or she has lived. c. ego integrity Incorrect. Ego integrity is the best possible outcome of a life review, but it is not the term used for the process itself. 191. Older adults who look back on their lives with regrets, wishing they could relive their lives, have not successfully resolved Erikson’s psychosocial crisis of ______________. a. integrity versus despair b. intimacy versus isolation c. generativity versus stagnation d. identity versus identity confusion Answer: a. integrity versus despair Correct. Integrity versus despair occurs during late adulthood. c. generativity versus stagnation Incorrect. Generativity versus stagnation occurs during middle adulthood. 192. Which of the following theories sees aging as a process whereby cells are assumed to have a limitation on the number of times they can reproduce to repair damage? a. wear-and-tear theory b. cellular clock theory c. activity theory d. free radical theory Answer: b. cellular clock theory Correct. Cellular clock theory assumes that there is a limitation on the number of times a cell can reproduce to repair damage. d. free radical theory Incorrect. The free radical theory explains damage to the body as arising from free radicals, or oxygen molecules that damage structures inside the cell. 193. The theory in which aging is attributed to our bodies’ organs and cell tissues simply wearing out with repeated use and abuse is called _________. a. activity theory b. wear-and-tear theory c. disengagement theory d. cellular clock theory Answer: b. wear-and-tear theory Correct. Wear-and-tear theory attributes aging to the body wearing out with repeated use. d. cellular clock theory Incorrect. Cellular clock theory attributes aging to the limited amount of times a cell can reproduce to repair damage. 194. The _____________ theory of aging suggests that unstable oxygen molecules cause damage to the structure of cells, increasing with age. a. wear-and-tear theory b. cellular clock theory c. disengagement theory d. free radical theory Answer: d. free radical theory Correct. Free radical theory suggests that unstable oxygen molecules cause damage to the structure of cells. b. cellular clock theory Incorrect. Cellular clock theory sees aging as a process whereby cells are assumed to have a limitation on the number of times they can reproduce to repair damage. 195. The theory of adjustment to aging that assumes older people are happier if they remain active in some way, such as volunteering or developing a hobby, is called _________. a. activity theory b. wear-and-tear theory c. disengagement theory d. cellular clock theory Answer: a. activity theory Correct. Activity theory assumes older people are happier if they remain active. b. wear-and-tear theory Incorrect. Wear-and-tear theory attributes aging to the body wearing out with repeated use. 196. The correct sequence of the five stages of death and dying postulated by Kübler-Ross is ______. a. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance b. denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance, and depression c. anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, and depression d. anger, denial, bargaining, depression, and acceptance Answer: a. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance Correct. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance are the correct sequences of the five stages of death and dying. c. anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, and depression Incorrect. In the five stages of death and dying, denial occurs before anger. 197. Mr. Beluga has just been told that he has a rare form of cancer. He insists that there has been a mistake and asks his physician to retake his medical tests. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, Mr. Beluga is most likely in the _______________ stage of dying. a. anger b. bargaining c. denial d. reactive Answer: c. denial Correct. By refusing to believe that the diagnosis is correct, Mr. Beluga is denying the reality of his situation. a. anger Incorrect. Mr. Beluga is not showing any signs of anger, probably because he is refusing to believe that the diagnosis is real. 198. Leticia has just learned that she is terminally ill. She is now always irritable, often throws things on the floor, and yells at members of her family and the nurses who care for her. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, Leticia is most likely in the _______________ stage of dying. a. anger b. bargaining c. denial d. reactive Answer: a. anger Correct. By lashing out, Leticia is showing signs of anger, the second stage of dying, according to Kübler-Ross. c. denial Incorrect. Leticia’s actions are more indicative of anger than of denial, which is the first stage of dying, according to Kübler -Ross. 199. Several weeks of diagnostic tests have revealed that cancer has spread throughout Barry’s body. His physician suggested that he “take care of important matters.” Barry realizes his family’s home needs repairs, so he arranges to have that done right away. To relieve his family of the agony of planning his funeral, he has made all the arrangements. Barry tells his minister he has had a good life and just wants to make sure he provides for his family after his death. This description fits the stage Kübler-Ross called _________. a. denial b. acceptance c. bargaining d. depression Answer: b. acceptance Correct. Barry exhibits acceptance of his impending death by making his own funeral arrangements and wanting to provide for his family. d. depression Incorrect. By making his own funeral arrangements and wanting to provide for his family, Barry has begun to break ties with the living with preparation for his death and entered the acceptance stage. 200. In a wealthy _________ family in ________, the body of a deceased relative stays at the family home until it is time for cremation. Before cremation, the body will be washed by family members. a. Jewish; Israel b. Catholic; Romania c. Lutheran; Austria d. Hindu; India Answer: a. Jewish; Israel Correct. In Hindu culture, it is customary for the body of a deceased relative to be kept at the family home until the time of cremation. Before cremation, the body is washed by family members as part of the funeral rites. c. Lutheran; Austria Incorrect. Lutheran customs may involve burial or cremation, but the specific rituals regarding washing the body at home are not commonly practiced in this context. 201. In which of the following cultures is a home destroyed if someone dies there because there is a fear that there will be exposure to evil spirits? a. Navajo b. Sioux c. Apache d. Cheyenne Answer: a. Navajo Correct. In Navajo culture, there is a belief that when someone dies in a home, their spirit may linger and cause harm to the living. To prevent this, it is sometimes believed that the home must be abandoned or destroyed. b. Sioux Incorrect. While there are various beliefs and customs among Sioux tribes regarding death and spirits, the specific belief of destroying a home due to fear of evil spirits is not universally practiced. TRUE OR FALSE 1. The scientific study of changes that occur in people as they age from conception to death is called gerontology. Answer: False Rationale: Gerontology is the study of aging, but it encompasses more than just changes that occur from conception to death. It includes the study of biological, psychological, and social aspects of aging, as well as factors influencing health and well-being in older adults. 2. A researcher who studies different age groups, or cohorts, at one time is using the cross-sectional design. Answer: True Rationale: In cross-sectional studies, researchers study individuals from different age groups at the same time to compare differences between them. This design allows for the examination of age-related changes and differences across cohorts. 3. Nature refers to “heredity” and nurture refers to “influence from the environment.” Answer: True Rationale: This statement accurately defines the terms "nature" and "nurture" in the context of the nature vs. nurture debate. Nature refers to genetic or hereditary factors, while nurture refers to environmental influences on development. 4. To summarize the research on “nature versus nurture,” All that people are, and all that people become, is the product of an interaction between nature and nurture. Answer: True Rationale: This statement reflects the consensus in developmental psychology that both genetic and environmental factors interact to shape human development. Nature and nurture work together in complex ways to influence traits, behaviors, and outcomes. 5. Chromosomes are located on rod-shaped structures called genes. Answer: False Rationale: This statement is incorrect. Genes are segments of DNA located on chromosomes, which are thread-like structures found in the nucleus of cells. Genes carry genetic information and determine specific traits. 6. Most characteristics are determined by 25 pairs of chromosomes called autosomes. Answer: False Rationale: Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, including 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX in females and XY in males). Therefore, most characteristics are determined by 22 pairs of autosomes, not 25. 7. Recessive genes are more active in influencing a trait. Answer: False Rationale: Recessive genes are only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of the recessive allele. In contrast, dominant genes are more active and will be expressed even if the individual carries only one copy of the dominant allele. 8. Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosome disorder resulting from an XXY pattern of the 23rd chromosomes, causing reduced male characteristics and obesity. Answer: True Rationale: Klinefelter's syndrome is indeed caused by an extra X chromosome (XXY pattern) in males. This genetic condition can lead to reduced male characteristics (such as underdeveloped testes and reduced fertility) and may be associated with obesity and other health issues. 9. An extra chromosome in the 20th pair results in Down Syndrome. Answer: False Rationale: Down syndrome is caused by an extra chromosome 21, not an extra chromosome in the 20th pair. This genetic condition leads to characteristic physical features, intellectual disability, and developmental delays. 10. Dizygotic twins develop when a fertilized egg divides into two parts that develop into separate embryos. Answer: False Rationale: Dizygotic (fraternal) twins develop from two separate fertilized eggs, each with its own set of chromosomes. They are not the result of a single fertilized egg dividing into two separate embryos. 11. Identical twins are also called monozygotic twins. Answer: True Rationale: Identical twins and monozygotic twins refer to the same phenomenon, where twins develop from a single fertilized egg that splits into two embryos. Therefore, the statement is true. 12. The germinal period begins at conception and ends when the organism firmly attaches to the wall of the uterus. Answer: True Rationale: The germinal period is the first stage of prenatal development, starting at conception (when the sperm fertilizes the egg) and lasting until implantation of the blastocyst into the uterine wall, which typically occurs about 10 to 14 days after conception. 13. Critical periods are times when the environment can influence the development of the embryo. Answer: True Rationale: Critical periods are specific windows of time during development when an organism is particularly sensitive to environmental influences. During these periods, environmental factors can have a significant impact on the development of certain traits or abilities. 14. A teratogen is any factor that can cause a birth defect. Answer: True Rationale: Teratogens are substances, agents, or factors that can interfere with prenatal development and increase the risk of birth defects or abnormalities in the fetus. Teratogens include drugs, alcohol, tobacco, certain medications, infections, and environmental pollutants. 15. The most common time for a spontaneous abortion, or miscarriage, is during the third trimester. Answer: False Rationale: The most common time for a spontaneous abortion, or miscarriage, is during the first trimester of pregnancy, particularly within the first 12 weeks. Miscarriages that occur during the third trimester are relatively rare compared to those in the earlier stages of pregnancy. 16. Reflexes help infants to survive until they are capable of learning more complex means of interaction. Answer: True Rationale: Reflexes are involuntary, automatic responses to stimuli that serve protective functions and help infants to survive and adapt to their environment before they develop more advanced motor skills and cognitive abilities. 17. The least functional of all the senses at birth is hearing. Answer: False Rationale: Hearing is actually one of the more developed senses at birth. Infants are capable of hearing sounds in the womb and are born with the ability to detect and respond to auditory stimuli. Vision is typically considered the least functional sense at birth, as newborns have limited visual acuity and are still developing visual capabilities. 18. After finally being able to raise the head and chest, the infant is likely to develop the motor skill of sitting up without support next in the six identified motor milestones. Answer: False Rationale: After the milestone of raising the head and chest, the next typical motor milestone is rolling over from front to back and vice versa. Sitting up without support typically comes later in the sequence of motor development milestones. 19. A scheme is a mental concept formed through experiences with objects and events. Answer: True Rationale: In the context of Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development, a scheme (or schema) refers to a mental framework or representation formed through experiences with objects, actions, or events. Schemes help individuals organize and interpret information in their environment. 20. Conservation is the knowledge that an object exists even when it is not in sight. Answer: False Rationale: Conservation refers to the understanding that certain properties of objects, such as quantity, mass, or volume, remain the same despite changes in their appearance or arrangement. It is not related to the mere existence of objects when they are not visible, but rather to the understanding of specific properties of objects. 21. By the time a child enters the concrete operational stage of cognitive development he or she is capable of grasping the concept of conservation. Answer: True Rationale: According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, children in the concrete operational stage (around ages 7 to 11) are capable of understanding conservation, which involves recognizing that certain properties of objects remain constant despite changes in their appearance. This marks a significant cognitive milestone in their development. 22. Centration is Piaget’s concept which is the inability to see the world through another person’s eyes. Answer: False Rationale: Centration is actually Piaget's concept referring to the tendency of children to focus on one aspect of a situation while neglecting others. It is not about understanding another person's perspective but rather about the limitations in children's thinking during the preoperational stage. 23. Scaffolding involves a higher skilled person helping another lesser skilled person learn a new task. As the lesser skilled person becomes more masterful at the task, the higher skilled person withdraws his/her help as the lesser skilled person improves at the task. Answer: True Rationale: This description accurately reflects the concept of scaffolding in Vygotsky's sociocultural theory of cognitive development. Scaffolding involves providing temporary support or assistance to a learner to help them accomplish a task or solve a problem, with the goal of gradually withdrawing that support as the learner becomes more competent. 24. Temperament is thought to be fairly well established since birth. Answer: True Rationale: Temperament refers to individual differences in behavioral styles, tendencies, and emotional responses that are thought to have a biological basis and are relatively stable over time. Research suggests that temperament traits can be evident from early infancy and tend to remain relatively consistent throughout development. 25. According to Mary Ainsworth’s research on attachment, the four attachment styles are secure, ambivalent, avoidant, and disorganized-disoriented. Answer: True Rationale: Mary Ainsworth's research on attachment identified four primary attachment styles based on infants' behaviors during the "Strange Situation" experiment: secure attachment, ambivalent/resistant attachment, avoidant attachment, and disorganized/disoriented attachment. 26. Harlow’s study involving rhesus monkeys demonstrated that contact comfort is important in attachment. Answer: True Rationale: Harlow's studies with rhesus monkeys showed that contact comfort, provided by a soft, comforting surrogate mother, was crucial for attachment. Even when the surrogate that provided food was available, the infant monkeys preferred the comforting surrogate for security and comfort. 27. Gender is the physical characteristic of being male or female. Answer: False Rationale: Gender refers to the social, cultural, and psychological aspects of being male or female, including roles, behaviors, expectations, and identities, rather than solely physical characteristics. 28. In puberty, only the primary sex characteristics in the body reach their peak. Answer: False Rationale: In puberty, both primary sex characteristics (such as the development of reproductive organs) and secondary sex characteristics (such as changes in body hair, voice pitch, and muscle mass) reach their peak development. 29. Growth spurts for girls happen around age 12 and age 10 for boys. Answer: False Rationale: Growth spurts typically occur earlier for girls, usually around ages 9 to 11, while for boys, growth spurts typically occur later, around ages 11 to 13. These ages can vary based on individual differences and factors like nutrition and genetics. 30. The concept of a personal fable is when an adolescent boy believes he is unique and cannot be harmed. Answer: True Rationale: The personal fable is a concept from adolescent psychology referring to the belief that one is unique, special, and invulnerable, leading to a sense of being exempt from the consequences that others face. This belief can contribute to risk-taking behaviors and feelings of invincibility during adolescence. 31. Kohlberg’s stages of moral development are concrete operational, formal operational, and sensorimotor. Answer: False Rationale: Kohlberg's stages of moral development consist of preconventional, conventional, and postconventional stages. These stages describe the progression of moral reasoning and understanding from childhood through adulthood. 32. Most people’s vision and hearing remain at peak functioning until around age 50. Answer: False Rationale: While individual variations exist, it is common for vision and hearing to decline with age, typically beginning around middle age (around age 40 or even earlier) and progressing gradually over time. 33. Menopause is cessation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation. Answer: True Rationale: Menopause refers to the natural biological process in women when menstruation ceases, marking the end of the reproductive years. It is typically characterized by the cessation of menstrual cycles and ovulation. 34. Andropause usually begins in the forties and is marked by a decrease in hormone production and physical changes such as reduced sperm count. Answer: True Rationale: Andropause, also known as male menopause, is a gradual decline in testosterone levels and reproductive function that typically begins in a man's forties or fifties. It may be accompanied by physical changes such as reduced sperm count, decreased libido, and changes in mood. 35. According to Erikson, middle adulthood is the time when individuals struggle with generativity versus stagnation. Answer: True Rationale: Erikson's psychosocial theory identifies generativity versus stagnation as the central conflict or crisis that individuals face during middle adulthood (generally between ages 40 and 65). Generativity involves contributing to society and future generations, while stagnation involves feelings of unproductiveness and lack of growth. 36. A permissive neglectful parent is often overly involved with their children. Answer: False Rationale: A permissive neglectful parent is characterized by being uninvolved and disengaged with their children, providing little guidance, support, or supervision. They may neglect their children's emotional and physical needs while being emotionally detached. 37. Cellular clock theory of aging suggests that cells have an unlimited number of times they can reproduce and repair damage. Answer: False Rationale: The cellular clock theory of aging proposes that cells have a finite limit to the number of times they can divide and reproduce, known as the Hayflick limit. As cells age and divide, telomeres (protective caps on chromosomes) shorten, leading to cellular senescence and eventual cell death. 38. The wear-and-tear theory of aging suggests that unstable oxygen molecules cause damage to the structure of cells, increasing with age. Answer: False Rationale: The wear-and-tear theory of aging posits that accumulated damage to cells and tissues over time, caused by various factors including oxidative stress, contributes to aging. However, it does not specifically attribute aging to unstable oxygen molecules, nor does it suggest that damage increases uniformly with age. 39. The activity theory suggests that the more involved adolescents stay in hobbies until they turn into adults, the more likely they are to be happy. Answer: False Rationale: The activity theory of aging suggests that older adults can maintain well-being and satisfaction by remaining active and engaged in various activities, interests, and social interactions. It does not specifically focus on the continuity of hobbies from adolescence to adulthood. 40. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross identified exactly three stages of dying: anger, depression, and acceptance. Answer: False Rationale: Elisabeth Kübler-Ross proposed a five-stage model of coping with dying and death, commonly known as the Kübler-Ross model or the five stages of grief. These stages include denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. SHORT ANSWER 1. Discuss the terms nature and nurture as they pertain to human development. Answer: Nature refers to the influence of genetic or hereditary factors on human development, including traits and behaviors inherited from biological parents. Nurture, on the other hand, refers to the impact of environmental factors such as upbringing, culture, social interactions, and experiences on human development. Nature and nurture interact dynamically throughout the lifespan to shape an individual's physical, cognitive, emotional, and social development. 2. What is the difference between a dominant and recessive gene? Answer: Dominant and recessive genes are terms used to describe alleles, which are different forms of a gene. A dominant gene is one that will be expressed phenotypically (visible trait) even if only one copy is inherited from either parent. In contrast, a recessive gene is only expressed phenotypically if two copies of the recessive allele are inherited, one from each parent. When a dominant allele is paired with a recessive allele, the dominant trait typically masks the expression of the recessive trait. 3. What causes Down syndrome and what are its effects? Answer: Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21) due to a genetic abnormality during cell division. This additional genetic material leads to characteristic physical features such as upward slanting eyes, a flat facial profile, and a protruding tongue, as well as developmental delays, intellectual disability, and increased risk of certain medical conditions such as heart defects and gastrointestinal issues. 4. List and define the three stages of prenatal development. Answer: The three stages of prenatal development are: 1. Germinal stage: This stage begins at conception when the sperm fertilizes the egg, forming a zygote. The zygote undergoes rapid cell division as it travels down the fallopian tube to implant in the uterine wall. This stage lasts about 2 weeks. 2. Embryonic stage: This stage begins after implantation and lasts from about the third week to the eighth week of pregnancy. During this stage, major organ systems and structures begin to form, and the embryo is highly susceptible to teratogens (substances that can cause birth defects). 3. Fetal stage: This stage begins around the ninth week of pregnancy and continues until birth. During this stage, the developing organism is referred to as a fetus. Organs continue to develop and mature, and the fetus grows rapidly in size and complexity, with increasing refinement of structures and systems. 5. Describe two reflexes that are present at birth. Answer: Two reflexes present at birth include: 1. Moro reflex: Also known as the startle reflex, the Moro reflex is triggered by a sudden loud noise, change in position, or sensation of falling. It is characterized by the infant's arms and legs extending outward, fingers spreading apart, and then rapidly drawing back toward the body in a hugging motion. 2. Rooting reflex: The rooting reflex is elicited by stroking the infant's cheek or the corner of their mouth. In response, the infant turns their head toward the stimulus and opens their mouth, preparing for feeding. This reflex helps facilitate breastfeeding by guiding the infant's mouth toward the nipple. 6. Define and explain Piaget’s sensorimotor stage and the milestones of this stage. Answer: Piaget's sensorimotor stage is the first stage of cognitive development, which occurs from birth to about 2 years of age. During this stage, infants gradually develop their understanding of the world through sensory experiences and motor actions. The sensorimotor stage is characterized by several key milestones: 1. Reflexive behaviors (birth to 1 month): Infants exhibit reflexive responses to stimuli, such as sucking, grasping, and rooting. 2. Primary circular reactions (1 to 4 months): Infants begin to repeat pleasurable actions that are centered on their own bodies, such as sucking their thumb. 3. Secondary circular reactions (4 to 8 months): Infants start to repeat actions that produce interesting effects in the environment, such as shaking a rattle to hear the sound it makes. 4. Coordination of secondary schemes (8 to 12 months): Infants develop the ability to coordinate different sensory and motor actions to achieve a goal, such as pushing aside objects to reach a desired toy. 5. Tertiary circular reactions (12 to 18 months): Infants experiment with new actions to see their effects on objects and the environment, such as dropping toys from different heights to observe how they fall. 6. Invention of new means through mental combinations (18 to 24 months): Infants begin to engage in symbolic thought and use mental representations to solve problems, such as using a stick as a tool to retrieve a toy. 7. List and explain the three types of temperament described by Chess and Thomas. Answer: Chess and Thomas identified three main types of temperament: 1. Easy temperament: Infants with an easy temperament are generally adaptable, have regular routines for eating and sleeping, and exhibit mild reactions to new experiences or changes in their environment. They are typically easy to soothe and have a positive mood. 2. Difficult temperament: Infants with a difficult temperament tend to be more intense and unpredictable in their responses. They may have irregular eating and sleeping patterns, be more sensitive to stimulation, and have strong negative reactions to new situations or changes. 3. Slow-to-warm-up temperament: Infants with a slow-to-warm-up temperament are initially cautious and hesitant in new situations or with unfamiliar people. However, with repeated exposure and gentle encouragement, they gradually become more comfortable and eventually adapt to new experiences. 8. Explain the terms gender and gender identity. Answer: Gender refers to the social, cultural, and psychological characteristics, roles, behaviors, and expectations associated with being male or female in a particular society or culture. It encompasses the roles and norms assigned to individuals based on their biological sex. Gender identity, on the other hand, refers to an individual's deeply felt sense of being male, female, or another gender, which may or may not correspond to their biological sex. Gender identity is internally experienced and may or may not align with the gender assigned at birth. 9. Explain the adolescent concepts of the personal fable and imaginary audience. Answer: The personal fable is an adolescent belief that they are unique, special, and invulnerable, leading to a sense of being exempt from the consequences that others face. Adolescents may believe that they are the center of attention and that their experiences and feelings are unique and incomprehensible to others. The imaginary audience is the belief that others are constantly observing and evaluating their behavior, leading to self-consciousness and a heightened sense of social scrutiny. Adolescents may feel like they are always "on stage" and worry excessively about how they are perceived by others. 10. Explain the terms climacteric, perimenopause, and menopause. Answer: Climacteric refers to the period of physiological and psychological change that occurs in midlife, typically around ages 45 to 55, marking the transition from reproductive adulthood to menopause. Perimenopause is the transitional phase leading up to menopause, characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, hormonal fluctuations, and symptoms such as hot flashes and mood changes. Menopause is the permanent cessation of menstruation and ovulation, marking the end of a woman's reproductive years. It is typically diagnosed after 12 consecutive months without a menstrual period and is accompanied by hormonal changes and various physical and psychological symptoms. 11. Explain the wear-and-tear theory of aging. Answer: The wear-and-tear theory of aging suggests that aging is primarily the result of accumulated damage to cells, tissues, and organs over time, caused by exposure to environmental stressors and metabolic processes. According to this theory, the body undergoes gradual deterioration and breakdown due to the cumulative effects of wear and tear, similar to the way in which machinery or mechanical objects deteriorate with prolonged use. This theory implies that aging is a passive and inevitable process driven by the gradual accumulation of damage, leading to declines in physiological function and increased susceptibility to age-related diseases. 12. List, in order, the five stages of dying as proposed by Kübler-Ross’s model. Answer: The five stages of dying as proposed by Kübler-Ross's model, also known as the five stages of grief, are: 1. Denial: The initial stage involves disbelief or refusal to accept the reality of impending death. Individuals may deny the diagnosis or minimize its significance as a way of coping with the emotional distress and fear associated with dying. 2. Anger: In the second stage, individuals may experience feelings of anger, resentment, or frustration in response to the perceived injustice or unfairness of their situation. Anger may be directed outward toward others, healthcare providers, or even toward oneself. 3. Bargaining: The third stage involves attempts to negotiate or make deals in an effort to postpone or mitigate the impact of death. Individuals may engage in bargaining with a higher power, healthcare providers, or loved ones, seeking a reprieve or extension of life in exchange for certain actions or promises. 4. Depression: During the fourth stage, individuals may experience profound sadness, despair, or feelings of grief over the loss of life, dreams, and future opportunities. Depression may manifest as withdrawal, apathy, or emotional numbness as individuals come to terms with the reality of their mortality. 5. Acceptance: The final stage involves a sense of peace, resignation, or serenity in the face of death. Individuals reach a state of acceptance where they no longer resist or struggle against the inevitability of death but instead come to terms with their mortality and find a sense of closure or resolution. ESSAY 1. Distinguish the major research methods used in the field of human development and provide examples of each. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? Answer: Research methods in human development include observational studies, correlational studies, experimental studies, and longitudinal studies. • Observational studies involve observing and recording behavior in natural settings without intervention. For example, observing parent-child interactions in a playground. Advantages: Allows for the study of behavior in natural contexts, providing insights into real-life behaviors. Disadvantages: Limited control over variables, potential for observer bias, and difficulty in establishing causality. • Correlational studies examine the relationship between two or more variables. For example, studying the relationship between parental involvement and academic achievement. Advantages: Allows for the identification of associations between variables, useful for generating hypotheses. Disadvantages: Cannot establish causality, potential for third-variable problems, and directionality issues. • Experimental studies involve manipulating one or more variables to observe the effects on behavior. For example, investigating the impact of a parenting intervention on child behavior. Advantages: Allows for establishing cause-and-effect relationships, high control over variables. Disadvantages: Artificial laboratory settings may not generalize to real-life situations, ethical concerns regarding manipulation. • Longitudinal studies track the same individuals over an extended period. For example, following a cohort of children from infancy to adulthood to study developmental changes. Advantages: Provides insights into developmental trajectories and changes over time. Disadvantages: Time-consuming and costly, attrition rates may affect sample representativeness, practice effects. 2. What is the critical period? What are teratogens? List four common teratogens and discuss their effects on development. Answer: Answer: • A critical period is a specific window of time during development when an organism is particularly sensitive to environmental influences and experiences. During critical periods, certain experiences or exposures are necessary for typical development to occur. • Teratogens are substances or environmental factors that can disrupt development and cause birth defects or developmental abnormalities when exposed to a developing embryo or fetus during pregnancy. Four common teratogens and their effects include: 1. Alcohol: Prenatal alcohol exposure can lead to fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs), characterized by facial abnormalities, growth deficiencies, intellectual disabilities, and behavioral problems. 2. Tobacco: Maternal smoking during pregnancy is associated with increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, respiratory problems, and cognitive impairments in children. 3. Prescription medications: Certain medications, such as isotretinoin (Accutane) and some antidepressants, can increase the risk of birth defects or developmental delays if taken during pregnancy. 4. Environmental pollutants: Exposure to environmental toxins such as lead, mercury, and pesticides can interfere with fetal development and contribute to neurological deficits, cognitive impairments, and other health problems in children. 3. Summarize Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development and the major milestones accomplished and limitations at each stage. Answer: Jean Piaget proposed four stages of cognitive development: 1. Sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years): Infants explore the world through sensory experiences and motor actions. Major milestones include object permanence (understanding that objects exist even when not visible) and the development of symbolic thought. Limitations include egocentrism and lack of understanding of conservation. 2. Preoperational stage (2 to 7 years): Children use symbols to represent objects and engage in pretend play. Major milestones include language development and the ability to engage in symbolic thought. Limitations include centration (focus on one aspect of a situation) and animism (attributing human characteristics to inanimate objects). 3. Concrete operational stage (7 to 11 years): Children can think logically about concrete objects and events. Major milestones include the understanding of conservation (quantity remains the same despite changes in appearance) and the ability to engage in concrete problem-solving. Limitations include difficulty with abstract and hypothetical thinking. 4. Formal operational stage (11 years and older): Adolescents can think abstractly and hypothetically. Major milestones include the ability to reason about hypothetical situations, engage in deductive reasoning, and think systematically. Limitations include variability in the acquisition of formal operational thought and difficulty applying abstract thinking to real-life situations. 4. Summarize Erikson’s eight stages of psychosocial development. Provide an example for each stage that describes successful resolution of each stage. Answer: Erikson's eight stages of psychosocial development are: 1. Trust vs. mistrust (infancy): Infants develop trust when caregivers meet their needs consistently. Example: A baby learns to trust their caregiver's responsiveness to their cries for food and comfort. 2. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt (toddlerhood): Toddlers develop a sense of autonomy when they assert independence and make choices. Example: A toddler learns to dress themselves, gaining a sense of autonomy. 3. Initiative vs. guilt (preschool): Preschoolers explore their environment and develop a sense of initiative when encouraged to pursue interests and goals. Example: A child starts a new art project and feels a sense of accomplishment. 4. Industry vs. inferiority (school age): Children develop a sense of competence through mastery of skills and tasks. Example: A student succeeds in completing a challenging school project and feels proud of their accomplishment. 5. Identity vs. role confusion (adolescence): Adolescents explore their identity and develop a sense of self. Example: A teenager explores different interests and values, eventually finding a sense of identity. 6. Intimacy vs. isolation (young adulthood): Young adults form close relationships and develop intimacy with others. Example: A young adult builds a supportive and fulfilling romantic relationship. 7. Generativity vs. stagnation (middle adulthood): Adults contribute to society and nurture the next generation. Example: A middle-aged individual mentors younger colleagues and volunteers in their community. 8. Integrity vs. despair (late adulthood): Older adults reflect on their lives and find meaning and satisfaction. Example: An elderly person looks back on their life with a sense of fulfillment and acceptance of their experiences. 5. Summarize Kübler-Ross’s five stages of death and dying. How are they experienced? Answer: Elisabeth Kübler-Ross proposed five stages of death and dying, also known as the Kübler-Ross model: 1. Denial: Initially, individuals may deny the reality of their terminal illness or impending death as a defense mechanism to cope with overwhelming emotions and fear. 2. Anger: As the reality of the situation sets in, individuals may experience feelings of anger, resentment, or frustration, directed toward themselves, others, or a higher power. 3. Bargaining: Individuals may attempt to negotiate or make deals in an effort to postpone or mitigate the impact of death, seeking a reprieve or extension of life. 4. Depression: As individuals confront the inevitability of death, they may experience profound sadness, despair, and grief over their losses, including the loss of life, dreams, and future Chapter 8 - Quick Quiz 1 1. In a _____________ design, one group of participants is followed and assessed as the group ages. a) cohort b) longitudinal c) behavior genetics d) cross-sectional Answer: b Explanation: In a longitudinal design one group of participants is followed and assessed as the participants age. 2. A(n) _____________ is a section of DNA containing a sequence of amines. a) compound b) gene c) chromosome d) amine Answer: b Explanation: A gene is a section of DNA containing a sequence of amines. 3. develop when two eggs each get fertilized by two different sperm, resulting in two zygotes in the uterus at the same time. a) Monozygotic twins b) Fraternal twins c) Dizygotic twins d) Wombmates Answer: c Explanation: Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs by two different sperm. 4. Which of the following describes the embryonic period? a) the period during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining b) the period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop c) the period during which the umbilical cord develops d) the period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional Answer: b Explanation: It is during the embryonic period that major organs and structures develop. 5. At birth, newborns seem most responsive to ________. a) high pitches and low pitches b) hip hop music c) moderate voice pitches d) rock and roll music Answer: a Explanation: Newborns seem most responsive to high-pitched (female) voices and low pitched (male) voices. 6. Piaget’s term for the knowledge that an object exists even when it is out of sight is ______. a) conservation b) object permanence c) centration d) egocentrism Answer: b Explanation: Understanding object permanence means understanding that an object exists even when it is out of sight. 7. According to Thomas and Chess, a child that is very irregular in sleeping and eating, resists change, and tends to be loud is labeled a(n)_____________ child. a) easy b) difficult c) slow-to-warm-up d) negative Answer: b Explanation: Difficult children tend to resist change. 8. The period of life from about age 13 to the early twenties, during which a young person is no longer physically a child but is not yet an independent, self-supporting adult, is called ________. a) adolescence b) tweens c) young adulthood d) puberty Answer: a Explanation: Adolescence is the period of life from about age 13 to the early twenties. 9. Jeremy is 17 years old. According to Erikson, his chief task will be acquiring a sense of ______. a) identity b) intimacy c) generativity d) autonomy Answer: a Explanation: According to Erikson, adolescents must begin to develop a sense of self. 10. According to Erikson, an emotional and psychological closeness that is based on the ability to trust, share, and care, while still maintaining one’s sense of self, is called ________ a) bonding b) intimacy c) attachment d) attraction Answer: b Explanation: Erikson defined intimacy as an emotional and psychological closeness that is based on the ability to trust, share, and care, while still maintaining one’s sense of self. Chapter 8 - Quick Quiz 2 1. ______________ refers to heredity and __________ refers to environmental influences. a) Nature; nurture b) Cognition; emotion c) Nurture; behavioral genetics d) Cross-sectional; longitudinal Answer: a Explanation: Nature refers to heredity, or genetic factors, whereas nurture refers to environmental influences. 2. Which of the following is defined as a gene that controls the appearance of a certain trait? a) recessive b) mutated c) recombinant d) dominant Answer: d Explanation: A dominant gene is defined as a gene that controls the appearance of a certain trait. 3. Infant reflexes are______. a) innate involuntary behavior patterns b) voluntary behavior patterns c) learned d) not used as a means for survival Answer: a Explanation: Reflexes help infants survive outside of the womb. 4. Christa and Sal are anticipating the birth of their first baby. Before the baby arrives, they want to fix up the nursery with new wallpaper. They seek the advice of a developmental psychologist. What is she likely to tell them? a) Newborns prefer to look at complex three-dimensional patterns rather than simple one-dimensional ones. b) Newborns prefer to look at animals rather than people. c) Newborns do not see well enough to make any difference. d) Newborns prefer to look at simple one-dimensional patterns rather than complex ones. Answer: a Explanation: Newborns prefer to look at complex patterns. 5. A baby’s language that consists of repetition of consonant-vowel combinations is called ______. a) cooing b) holophrasing c) telegraphic speech d) babbling Answer: d Explanation: Babbling consists of repetition of consonant–vowel combinations. 6. Which of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial crises revolves around the child’s learning to direct his or her own behavior? a) trust versus mistrust b) initiative versus guilt c) industry versus inferiority d) autonomy versus shame and doubt Answer: d Explanation: Autonomy versus shame and doubt revolves around the child’s learning to direct his or her own behavior. 7. Obedience to rules because of the fear of punishment is a characteristic of __________. a) conventional morality b) preconventional morality c) principled morality d) postconventional morality Answer: b Explanation: In preconventional morality, behavior is governed by the consequences of an action. 8. The period of five to ten years during which a woman’s reproductive system begins to decline is called_______. a) climacteric b) perimenopause c) menopause d) postmenopause Answer: b Explanation: Perimenopause is the term for the decline in the female reproductive system. 9. The theory of adjustment to aging that assumes older people are happier if they remain active in some way, such as volunteering or developing a hobby, is called _________. a) activity theory b) wear-and-tear theory c) disengagement theory d) cellular clock theory Answer: a Explanation: Activity theory assumes older people are happier if they remain active. 10. The correct sequence of the five stages of death and dying postulated by Kübler-Ross is ______. a) denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance b) denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance, and depression c) anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, and depression d) anger, denial, bargaining, depression, and acceptance Answer: a Explanation: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance are the correct sequences of the five stages of death and dying. Test Bank for Psychology: Dsm 5 Saundra K. Ciccarelli, J. Noland White 9780205986378

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