CH-14 Psychological Disorders – Psychology: Dsm 5 : Exam Guide

14 Psychological Disorders 1. What is the branch of psychology that is concerned with the study of abnormal behavior? a. health psychology b. psychopathology c. psychobiology d. developmental psychology Answer: b. psychopathology Correct. Psychopathology is the study of abnormal behavior. c. psychobiology Incorrect. Psychobiology is concerned with the biological basis of behavior. 2. Ellie is a graduate student in psychology at the local university. She is interested in one day specializing in the study of abnormal behavior. What area of psychology should she focus on in school? a. health psychology b. psychopathology c. psychobiology d. developmental psychology Answer: b. psychopathology Correct. Psychopathology is the study of abnormal behavior. c. psychobiology Incorrect. Psychobiology is concerned with the biological basis of behavior. 3. Archaeologists have found skulls from as long ago as 3000 B.C.E. that bear evidence of an ancient surgical technique, whereby holes were cut into the skulls of live individuals in an attempt to release demons from the possessed victim. This process is called __________. a. trephining b. drilling c. humors d. exorcism Answer: a. trephining Correct. The process of cutting holes into the skull of a living person is called trephining. d. exorcism Incorrect. Exorcism is a religious ritual common in the Middle Ages that did not involve cutting holes in the skull. 4. Today, trephining is done to ___________. a. relieve pressure in the lower back b. release demons from the possessed victim c. relieve pressure from fluids on the brain d. facilitate exorcisms Answer: c. relieve pressure from fluids on the brain Correct. Trephining is done to relieve pressure from fluids on the brain. b. release demons from the possessed victim Incorrect. Trephining was used to release demons in ancient times. 5. It is not unreasonable to assume that in ancient times signs of mental illness were believed to be caused by __________. a. an imbalance of body fluids b. demons c. improper diet d. social forces Answer: b. demons Correct. People of ancient times perceived signs of mental illness as caused by demons. a. an imbalance of body fluids Incorrect. Hippocrates, a Greek physician, viewed the imbalance of body fluids as the cause of mental illness. 6. You are a contestant on Jeopardy! and it is your turn. You say to Alex, “I’ll take Ancient Explanations of Mental Illness for $100.” The answer is, “His was the first recorded attempt to explain abnormal behavior as due to some biological process.” The smile on your face reveals the confidence you have as you say ______________. a. “Who is Sigmund Freud?” b. “Who is Hippocrates?” c. “Who is Carl Rogers?” d. “Who is John Watson?” Answer: b. “Who is Hippocrates?” Correct. Hippocrates’ theory of mental illness was the first recorded attempt to explain abnormal behavior as due to some biological process. a. “Who is Sigmund Freud?” Incorrect. Hippocrates’ theory of mental illness was the first recorded attempt to explain abnormal behavior as due to some biological process. Freud developed a theory of personality called psychoanalysis. 7. Hippocrates maintained that mental illness was __________. a. caused by supernatural forces b. only in the mind of the beholder c. curable through exorcism d. caused by imbalances of vital body fluids Answer: d. caused by imbalances of vital body fluids Correct. Hippocrates believed mental illness was caused by imbalances of vital body fluids. c. curable through exorcism Incorrect. The treatment of choice during the Middle Ages was exorcism. Hippocrates was a physician during the ancient Greek period. 8. Which of the following was not one of the four humors studied by Hippocrates? a. blood b. phlegm c. pus d. yellow bile Answer: c. pus Correct. Pus was not one of the four vital liquids, or humors, that Hippocrates spoke about. a. blood Incorrect. Blood was seen by Hippocrates as being a vital liquid, or humor, that was related to psychological health. 9. Which of the following was one of the four humors studied by Hippocrates? a. urine b. saliva c. pus d. yellow bile Answer: d. yellow bile Correct. Yellow bile was one of the four vital body liquids, or humors, that Hippocrates spoke about. b. saliva Incorrect. Saliva is not one of the four humors studied by Hippocrates. The four humors are phlegm, black bile, blood, and yellow bile. 10. Which of the following is one of the bodily fluids that ancient Greeks linked to abnormal behaviors? a. ear wax b. urine c. black bile d. saliva Answer: c. black bile Correct. Black bile was one of the four vital body liquids, or humors, that Hippocrates spoke about. d. saliva Incorrect. Saliva is not one of the four humors studied by Hippocrates. The four humors are phlegm, black bile, blood, and yellow bile. 11. For those people in the Middle Ages who believed abnormal behavior resulted from spirit possession, the treatment of choice was ______. a. herbal cures b. “magic” potions c. exorcism d. trephining Answer: c. exorcism Correct. The treatment of choice during the Middle Ages was exorcism. d. trephining Incorrect. There is no evidence that trephining, a treatment used in ancient times, was used during the Middle Ages. 12. Ancient Greeks believed imbalances in ________ caused abnormality, while people living during the Middle Ages believed it was caused by ________. However, many contemporary psychologists try to understand psychological disorders in terms of the ________ model. a. evil; water; biopsychosocial b. behavior; evil; ecological c. bile; exposure; psychodynamic d. bodily fluids; the devil; medical Answer: d. bodily fluids; the devil; medical Correct. This answer gives the best summary of the beliefs of the various eras. c. bile; exposure; psychodynamic Incorrect. These are not the correct causes that were attributed to mental disorders at these times. 13. During the Renaissance, abnormal behavior was believed to result from ______. a. witchcraft b. demon possession c. disease organisms d. body fluid imbalance Answer: a. witchcraft Correct. The previous eras’ belief in demonic possession gave way to the belief in witchcraft during the Renaissance. d. body fluid imbalance Incorrect. Hippocrates believed body fluid imbalances caused mental illness. 14. What was the most likely outcome for a person who was mentally ill and accused of being a witch during the Renaissance? a. death b. exile from society c. treatment d. exorcism Answer: a. death Correct. Some estimates suggest that as many as ten thousand mentally ill individuals were killed after being accused of being witches. d. exorcism Incorrect. Exorcism was more often practiced in the Middle Ages, when the mentally ill were thought to be possessed by demonic spirits. 15. Which of the following is one definition of abnormal behavior? a. behavior that is rare b. behavior that is consistent with the norms of society c. behavior that does not create distress d. behavior that is adaptive Answer: a. behavior that is rare Correct. Behavior that is rare is the statistical definition of abnormal behavior. d. behavior that is adaptive Incorrect. Adaptive behavior is considered normal. Maladaptive behavior is considered abnormal. 16. As part of a fraternity initiation ritual, Saul is instructed to interrupt a school basketball game by running on the court naked while singing the nursery rhyme “Twinkle Twinkle Little Star.” If Sam complies with this ritual, his behavior would best illustrate ________. a. psychosis b. distress c. disability d. social norm deviance Answer: d. social norm deviance Correct. If Sam complies with the ritual (which we might hope he does not!), his behavior would surely be statistically deviant. a. psychosis Incorrect. Sam’s behavior would not be psychotic. Stupid, but definitely not psychotic! 17. What is the primary difficulty with applying the criterion of “social norm deviance” to define abnormal behavior? a. Norms are difficult to enumerate. b. Cultures accept and view all behaviors as normal. c. Behavior that is considered disordered in one culture may be acceptable in another. d. Norms do not guide behavior except in rare instances. Answer: c. Behavior that is considered disordered in one culture may be acceptable in another. Correct. Behavior that is considered disordered in one culture may be acceptable in another. d. Norms do not guide behavior except in rare instances. Incorrect. Most people do allow social norms to guide much of their behavior. 18. The social or environmental setting of a person’s behavior is referred to as _________. a. the situational context b. historical context c. cohort effect d. societal norms Answer: a. the situational context Correct. The situational context is defined as the social setting of a person’s behavior. b. historical context Incorrect. The historical context is the time in history in which a person lived. 19. Which criterion would designate a person who never talks to anyone as abnormal? a. dysfunctional b. statistical definition c. subjective discomfort d. malnutritious Answer: b. statistical definition Correct. Never talking to people is a rare behavior and behavior that is rare is considered abnormal. c. subjective discomfort Incorrect. Although never talking to anyone is rare and considered abnormal, it may not cause discomfort or emotional distress. 20. You are a psychologist who is evaluating the behavior of a new client. The client tells you that he does not like to wear clothing and that he walks around nude most of the time. In addition, he tells you that he lives in a society in which clothing is required and nudity is seen as abnormal. Which of the following is NOT a criterion by which you evaluate your client’s behavior as abnormal? a. statistical definition b. maladaptive c. subjective discomfort d. social norm deviance Answer: c. subjective discomfort Correct. The client in this example may not be experiencing emotional distress as a result of his desire to walk around nude. a. statistical definition Incorrect. Walking around nude in a society that requires people to wear clothing is considered rare. 21. Which term refers to a way to define abnormality by comparing an individual’s behavior to the norms or standards of the society in which an individual lives? a. social discomfort b. social mores c. social context d. social norm deviance Answer: d. social norm deviance Correct. Social norm deviance is a definition of abnormality based on the standards of society. c. social context Incorrect. Social norm deviance is a means of defining abnormality based on the standards of society. 22. Nicholas is a man who the local college students all think of as eccentric. Each day he stands on campus, smiling at people as they walk by, and he is known for his ever-present greeting of “Good Luck!” In fact, the students at this campus have come to refer to him as “Good Luck Nick.” Nobody knows if he has a home or if he is destitute, but Nicholas never asks for anything. Which of the four criteria of mental illness might Nicholas satisfy? a. inability to function normally b. social norm deviance c. subjective discomfort d. all of the above Answer: b. social norm deviance Correct. Nick’s unusual behavior is certainly quite a bit different than the norms of society, so he would meet the criterion of social norm deviance. a. inability to function normally Incorrect. Although Nick’s behaviors are strange, even odd, there is no indication that his behaviors are interfering with his own sense of normal functioning. 23. Maria is a retired factory worker who lives with anxiety. Due to the fear of having anxiety attacks, she does not leave her house. This makes her feel trapped in her home, which creates distress. Which criterion would be most appropriate in deciding whether Maria’s case represents an example of abnormality? a. statistical rarity b. subjective discomfort c. situational context d. social norm deviance Answer: b. subjective discomfort Correct. Maria is experiencing distress or subjective discomfort due to her inability to leave her home. c. situational context Incorrect. Maria’s situational context is not an issue since there is nothing particularly anxiety inducing about being retired and living at home. 24. Whenever Greta thinks about her life, she automatically bursts into tears. This example most clearly illustrates the impact of ________ in psychological disorders. a. discomfort b. defensiveness c. denial d. disability Answer: a. discomfort Correct. Greta is experiencing significant personal discomfort if this is her reaction to thoughts of her life. c. denial Incorrect. Nothing in this question suggests that Greta is in denial of any life circumstances. 25. Which of the following is an example of subjective discomfort? a. hearing voices that no one else can hear b. worrying about everything most of the time c. feeling that one is better than everyone else d. deciding that rules are for suckers and that you don’t have to obey them as long as you don’t get caught. Answer: b. worrying about everything most of the time Correct. A pervasive sense of worry would indicate subjective discomfort. a. hearing voices that no one else can hear Incorrect. This indicates psychosis, which may or may not bring with it subjective discomfort. 26. One sign of abnormality is when a person engages in behavior that creates a great deal of emotional distress or __________. a. subjective discomfort b. social deviance c. statistical rarity d. situational context Answer: a. subjective discomfort Correct. Subjective discomfort is a sign of abnormality and is defined as the emotional distress a person experiences due to his or her behavior. c. statistical rarity Incorrect. Although a behavior may be defined as rare by the statistical definition, it may not cause distress or subjective discomfort. 27. Any behavior that does not allow a person to function within or adapt to the stresses and everyday demands of life is considered __________. a. deviant b. uncomfortable c. rare d. maladaptive Answer: d. maladaptive Correct. Behavior is considered maladaptive if it does not allow a person to function or adapt to the stresses and everyday demands of life. b. uncomfortable Incorrect. Inability to function or adapt to stress may not be uncomfortable to the person who is having this experience. 28. Dave, a graduate student, has difficulty talking to groups. Unfortunately, he has chosen a career in which he must speak to large groups of people. The night before a presentation he tosses and turns, and the resulting lack of sleep makes the situation worse. When he makes a presentation, he often becomes confused and stumbles over his words. As a result, he feels worthless and miserable. Which two criteria of abnormal behavior are most useful in analyzing this case? a. inability to function normally and statistical rarity b. subjective discomfort and inability to function normally c. statistical rarity and deviance from social norms d. deviance from social norms and subjective discomfort Answer: b. subjective discomfort and inability to function normally Correct. Since Dave chose a career that requires him to speak to large groups of people, his behavior is considered abnormal due to the great deal of emotional distress he is experiencing. This is impacting his ability to function normally in his workplace. a. inability to function normally and statistical rarity Incorrect. Dave’s discomfort with speaking in front of groups is not necessarily rare. 29. Any pattern of behavior that causes people significant distress, causes harm to themselves or others, or harms their ability to function in daily life is called ___________. a. a psychological disorder b. humors c. stress syndrome d. adaptive behavior Answer: a. a psychological disorder Correct. A psychological disorder is defined as any pattern of behavior that causes people significant distress, causes harm to themselves or others, or harms their ability to function in daily life. d. adaptive behavior Incorrect. A psychological disorder is defined as any pattern of behavior that causes people significant distress, causes harm to others, or harms their ability to function in daily life. 30. The ______ model of psychological disorders explains that disorders such as anxiety, depression, and schizophrenia are caused by faulty neurotransmitter systems, genetic problems, brain damage or dysfunction, or some combination of those causes. a. biological b. psychodynamic c. naturalistic d. cognitive-behavioral Answer: a. biological Correct. The biological model proposes that psychological disorders have physiological causes. b. psychodynamic Incorrect. The psychodynamic model proposes that disordered behaviors are a result of unconscious issues. 31. Joanna is experiencing severe anxiety. Her psychiatrist attributes her disorder to a chemical imbalance. Her psychiatrist is using the ___________ of abnormality. a. psychoanalytic model b. intrapersonal model c. biological model d. behavioral model Answer: c. biological model Correct. The biological model proposes that psychological disorders have physiological causes. a. psychoanalytic model Incorrect. The psychoanalytic model proposes that disordered behaviors are a result of repressed thoughts, experiences, and memories. 32. The biological model views psychological disorders as resulting from _____________. a. distorted thought patterns b. repressed memories c. underlying behavioral issues d. physiological causes Answer: d. physiological causes Correct. The biological model proposes that psychological disorders are a result of physiological causes. b. repressed memories Incorrect. The psychoanalytic models view repressed memories as a cause of psychological disorders. 33. The psychodynamic model of abnormal behavior is based on the work of ______. a. Freud b. Perls c. Rogers d. Skinner Answer: a. Freud Correct. The psychodynamic model is based on the work of Freud. d. Skinner Incorrect. Skinner helped to develop the behaviorist viewpoint of abnormal behavior. 34. The psychodynamic model holds that abnormal behavior is the result of ______. a. learning b. repressed thoughts, memories, and concerns c. biology d. biochemical imbalances Answer: b. repressed thoughts, memories, and concerns Correct. The psychodynamic model explains disordered behavior as the result of repressing one’s threatening thoughts, memories, and concerns in the unconscious mind. a. learning Incorrect. Behaviorists explain disordered behavior is learned, just like normal behavior. 35. Dave’s wife suggests that he talk to a doctor because of his inability to cope with criticism. The doctor suggests that Dave’s problem represents the expression of a repressed, unresolved, internal conflict buried in his unconscious mind that has its roots in Dave’s childhood. This view is typical of the ______ model of abnormality. a. biological b. behavioral c. cognitive d. psychodynamic Answer: d. psychodynamic Correct. The psychodynamic model views repressed thoughts and memories as the cause of psychological disorders. b. behavioral Incorrect. The behavioral model focuses on learning, not on the unconscious, which is the focus of the psychoanalytic view. 36. According to the behaviorists, disordered behavior is a result of _____________. a. repressed thoughts and memories that try to resurface b. a set of learned responses c. illogical thinking patterns d. chemical imbalances and brain damage Answer: b. a set of learned responses Correct. The behaviorists believe disordered behavior is a result of a set of learned responses. c. illogical thinking patterns Incorrect. Illogical thinking patterns are the focus in cognitive psychology. 37. Linda is afraid of cats because when she was a little girl a cat scared her by jumping out of her closet and onto her face. As a result of this experience, Linda learned to be afraid of cats. Which model of abnormality offers the best explanation of Linda’s fear? a. cognitive b. behavioral c. sociocultural d. psychoanalytic Answer: b. behavioral Correct. Behaviorists believe disordered behavior is a result of a set of learned responses as in the case of Linda’s fear of cats. d. psychoanalytic Incorrect. Linda’s fear is learned rather than the result of repressed thoughts or memories. 38. Which model of abnormality explains abnormal behavior as the result of a set of learned responses? a. psychoanalytic b. cognitive c. behavioral d. biological Answer: c. behavioral Correct. Behaviorists believe disordered behavior is the result of learned responses. b. cognitive Incorrect. Cognitive psychologists believe disordered behavior is the result of illogical thinking patterns. 39. A behavioral therapist is working with a depressed client. Which of the following causes is the most likely focus of this therapist’s intervention? a. learned behaviors of depression b. unusual levels of neurotransmitters c. negative interpretations of life events d. a superego that is too harsh and strict Answer: a. learned behaviors of depression Correct. Behaviorists believe disordered behavior is a result of a set of learned responses. c. negative interpretations of life events Incorrect. Interpretations involve thought, which is the focus of cognitive psychology. Behaviorists focus on learned behavior. 40. According to the cognitive perspective, disordered behavior is the result of _____________. a. repressed thoughts and memories that try to resurface b. a set of learned responses c. illogical thinking patterns d. chemical imbalances and brain damage Answer: c. illogical thinking patterns Correct. Cognitive psychologists focus on thinking patterns. b. a set of learned responses Incorrect. Behaviorists focus on learned responses. Cognitive psychologists focus on thinking patterns. 41. Which model of abnormality views abnormal behavior as the result of illogical thinking? a. psychoanalytic b. cognitive c. behavioral d. biological Answer: b. cognitive Correct. Cognitive psychologists believe disordered behavior is the result of illogical thinking patterns. c. behavioral Incorrect. Behaviorists believe disordered behavior is the result of learned responses. Cognitive psychologists believe disordered behavior is the result of illogical thinking patterns. 42. A cognitive therapist is working with a depressed client. Which of the following causes is the likely focus of this therapist’s intervention? a. learned behaviors of depression b. unusual levels of neurotransmitters c. distorted interpretations of life events d. a superego that is too harsh and strict Answer: c. distorted interpretations of life events Correct. Cognitive psychologists believe disordered behavior is the result of distorted thought processes, such as negative interpretations of life events. a. learned behaviors of depression Incorrect. Behaviorists believe disordered behavior is the result of learned responses. Cognitive psychologists believe disordered behavior is the result of thought processes, such as negative interpretations of life events. 43. ____________ is a term that refers to the need to consider the unique characteristics of the culture in which a person’s behavior takes place. a. Cultural relativity b. Social context c. Situational context d. Situational relativity Answer: a. Cultural relativity Correct. Cultural relativity refers to the need to consider the unique characteristics of the culture in which a person’s behavior takes place. c. Situational context Incorrect. The situational context is the social or environmental setting in which a person’s behavior takes place. 44. Some Asian cultures view mental illness as ____________. a. a shameful thing that hurts the marriage chances of other family members b. a normal thing that does not affect the marriage chances of other family members c. an imbalance in bodily fluids d. a culture-bound syndrome Answer: a. a shameful thing that hurts the marriage chances of other family members Correct. Mental illness is viewed by some Asian cultures as shameful. c. an imbalance in bodily fluids Incorrect. Hippocrates, a physician during the ancient Greek period, viewed mental illness as an imbalance of bodily fluids. Some Asian cultures view mental illness as shameful. 45. What do psychologists call disorders that are found only in particular cultures? a. restricted syndromes b. naturalistic syndromes c. sociocultural disorders d. culture-bound syndromes Answer: d. culture-bound syndromes Correct. Disorders that are found only in particular cultures are known as culture-bound syndromes. c. sociocultural disorders Incorrect. Disorders that are found only in particular cultures are known as culture-bound syndromes. 46. Which of the following culture-bound syndromes is found mostly in Western cultures? a. anorexia nervosa b. amok c. susto d. koro Answer: a. anorexia nervosa Correct. Anorexia nervosa, which refers to a pattern of self-starvation, is most commonly seen in Western cultures such as the United States and Great Britain. c. susto Incorrect. Susto is a syndrome that is seen in Latino Indians of the Andes region. 47. Which model of abnormality holds that physical, mental, social and cultural factors are intertwined and that they must all be considered when dealing with psychology disorders? a. the eclectic model b. the biopsychosocial model c. the psychophysiological model d. the Gestalt model Answer: b. the biopsychosocial model Correct. The biopsychosocial model considers the input of multiple factors in the diagnosis of a mental illness. a. the eclectic model Incorrect. Eclecticism is a term that is more appropriate for a discussion of psychotherapy rather than psychopathology. 48. _______ is used to help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders. a. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) b. The Physician’s Desk Reference c. The Textbook of Psychological Disorders d. The Textbook of Physiological Disorders Answer: a. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) Correct. The DSM helps psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders. b. The Physician’s Desk Reference Incorrect. The Physician’s Desk Reference is used by medical professionals to diagnose physiological problems. 49. DSM stands for a. Diagrammatic and Statistical Manual. b. Deviance and Sadism Manual. c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. d. Developmental Sickness Model. Answer: c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. Correct. The correct answer is Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. The DSM (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders) is a handbook used by healthcare professionals around the world for the diagnosis and classification of mental disorders. It provides criteria for diagnosing various mental health conditions based on research, clinical expertise, and consensus among experts. a. Diagrammatic and Statistical Manual. Incorrect. This option is incorrect because DSM does not stand for "Diagrammatic and Statistical Manual." While the DSM does include diagnostic criteria presented in a structured format, it is primarily focused on diagnosing mental disorders, not diagrams. 50. The most recent version of the DSM is the ________. a. DSM-I b. DSM-IV-TR c. DSM-5 d. DSM-5-R Answer: c. DSM-5 Correct. The correct answer is DSM-5. The DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition) is the most recent version of the DSM, published in 2013 by the American Psychiatric Association. It replaced the DSM-IV-TR (Text Revision). a. DSM-I Incorrect. a (DSM-I) is incorrect because DSM-I (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, First Edition) was published in 1952, making it the oldest version and not the most recent. Option b (DSM-IV-TR) is incorrect because DSM-IV-TR (Fourth Edition, Text Revision) was published in 2000 and is not the most recent version. Option d (DSM-5-R) is incorrect because there is no version called DSM-5-R. The correct answer is option c (DSM-5). 51. The primary purpose of the DSM-5 is to _____. a. help psychologists assess only normal behavior b. keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum c. help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders d. describe the causes of common physiological disorders Answer: c. help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders Correct. The DSM-5 helps psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders. b. keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum Incorrect. The primary purpose of the DSM-5 is to help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders. 52. Dr. Nwoambi is a psychologist who is currently evaluating a new client. Dr. Nwoambi would most likely refer to the _________ to assist her in diagnosing her client’s psychological disorder. a. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders b. Physician’s Desk Reference c. Textbook of Psychological Disorders d. Textbook of Physiological Disorders Answer: a. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders Correct. The DSM helps psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders. b. Physician’s Desk Reference Incorrect. The Physician’s Desk Reference is used by medical professionals to diagnose physiological problems. 53. Which of the following statements is true about the DSM-5? a. It describes symptoms and includes a checklist of specific criteria for diagnosis. b. It lists information regarding symptoms but does not include a checklist of criteria that must be met for diagnosis. c. It is used to diagnose medical conditions that may have an impact on mental health. d. It is used to diagnose all kinds of medical conditions. Answer: a. It describes symptoms and includes a checklist of specific criteria for diagnosis. Correct. The DSM-5 provides symptoms and checklist of specific criteria that must be met for diagnosis of a disorder. c. It is used to diagnose medical conditions that may have an impact on mental health. Incorrect. The DSM-5 is used to diagnose mental illnesses, not medical conditions. 54. How many axes of data are considered in a diagnosis based on the DSM-5? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 Answer: a. 1 Correct. The DSM-5 uses a single axis. d. 5 Incorrect. The DSM-5 uses a single axis. Previous editions divided disorders and other significant factors along five 55. In the DSM-5, what term replaced “mental retardation?” a. developmental delay b. cognitive-emotional shortage c. intellectual disability d. mentally insufficient Answer: c. intellectual disability Correct. The correct answer is intellectual disability. The term "mental retardation" was replaced by "intellectual disability" in the DSM-5 to provide a more respectful and accurate description of the condition. a. developmental delay Incorrect. a (developmental delay) is incorrect because while it is a term used in developmental psychology, it did not replace "mental retardation" in the DSM-5. Option b (cognitive-emotional shortage) is incorrect because it is not a term used in the DSM-5. Option d (mentally insufficient) is incorrect because it is not a term used in the DSM-5. The correct answer is option c (intellectual disability). 56. In any given year, about ______ percent of adults over the age of 18 suffer from a mental disorder. a. 26 b. 12 c. 33 d. 43 Answer: a. 26 Correct. About 26 percent of adults over the age of 18 suffer from a mental disorder. b. 12 Incorrect. About 26 percent of adults over the age of 18 suffer from a mental disorder. 57. Which of the following is the most commonly diagnosed mood disorder in the United States? a. agoraphobia b. major depressive disorder c. dysthymia d. bipolar disorder Answer: b. major depressive disorder Correct. Major depressive disorder is diagnosed in over 6.7% of the US population each year. d. bipolar disorder Incorrect. Bipolar disorder is only diagnosed in approximately 2.6% of the US population in a given year. 58. What is the most frequently diagnosed anxiety-related disorder in the United States? a. specific phobia b. social phobia c. posttraumatic stress disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: a. specific phobia Correct. Specific phobias are diagnosed more than any other anxiety disorder each year. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder Incorrect. Of these four listed anxiety-related disorders, Obsessive-compulsive disorder is diagnosed with the least frequency in a given year. 59. The tendency of those studying psychopathology to start seeing themselves as suffering from the illnesses being discussed is known as _____________. a. accurate self-assessment b. unnecessary worrying c. psychopathological transference d. psychology student’s syndrome Answer: d. psychology student’s syndrome Correct. This happens when one starts to study illnesses and tends to self-diagnose. a. accurate self-assessment Incorrect. While we all may have some occasional behaviors that resemble the symptoms of a mental disorder, it does not indicate the presence of real psychopathology in each student. 60. Excessive or unrealistic fearfulness and worry are characteristic of ______. a. mood disorders b. dissociative neurosis c. anxiety disorders d. amnesia Answer: c. anxiety disorders Correct. Excessive or unrealistic fearfulness and anxiety are characteristic of anxiety disorders. a. mood disorders Incorrect. Mood disorders are disturbances in emotions from intense sadness and despair to extreme happiness and elation. 61. Which of the following statements is true about anxiety? a. It is never considered realistic or normal. b. Some anxiety is realistic when its source is understandable. c. It always manifests itself as a disorder. d. It is unusual for a mentally healthy person to experience anxiety. Answer: b. Some anxiety is realistic when its source is understandable. Correct. This statement is true because some types of anxiety are normal. d. It is unusual for a mentally healthy person to experience anxiety. Incorrect. This statement is false because some anxiety is normal and is experienced by mentally healthy people. 62. Which of the following is an anxiety disorder? a. bipolar disorder b. conversion disorder c. phobic disorder d. schizophrenia Answer: c. phobic disorder Correct. Phobic disorder is an anxiety disorder. a. bipolar disorder Incorrect. Bipolar disorder is a mood disorder. 63. Miguel has a great job, is well educated, and has a loving family. Despite these positive aspects of his life, he experiences anxiety every day. When asked by his therapist the reason for his anxiety, he says, “I don’t know why. I don’t have any reason to feel anxious, yet I worry all the time.” The therapist describes Miguel as having ______ anxiety. a. free-floating b. normal c. healthy d. restricted Answer: a. free-floating Correct. Free-floating anxiety is anxiety that is unrelated to any realistic, known source. d. restricted Incorrect. Since Miguel’s anxiety has no particular realistic, known factor, it is considered free-floating anxiety. 64. Free-floating anxiety refers to anxiety that is __________. a. related to a specific event b. unrelated to any realistic, known source c. related to a realistic source d. related to a specific object Answer: b. unrelated to any realistic, known source Correct. The definition of free-floating anxiety is anxiety that is unrelated to any realistic, known source. c. related to a realistic source Incorrect. Free-floating anxiety is unrelated to any realistic, known source. 65. Manny has such an intense fear of flying insects that he hardly ever goes outside his house during the summer months. He is probably suffering from a ______. a. somatoform disorder b. conversion reaction c. personality disorder d. phobic disorder Answer: d. phobic disorder Correct. Manny is experiencing an irrational, persistent fear of a particular thing. b. conversion reaction Incorrect. A person having a conversion reaction suffers specific symptoms related to the somatic nervous system, such as blindness, paralysis, deafness, or numbness of certain body parts, none of which have real physical causes. 66. An irrational, persistent fear of something is called a ______. a. mania b. obsession c. phobia d. compulsion Answer: c. phobia Correct. An irrational, persistent fear of something is called a phobia. a. mania Incorrect. Mania is having the quality of excessive excitement, energy, or elation, not an irrational, persistent fear of something. 67. Arlene has an irrational fear of flying in airplanes. She is probably suffering from a ______. a. mania b. obsession c. compulsion d. phobia Answer: d. phobia Correct. Arlene is experiencing an irrational fear of a particular thing or phobia. b. obsession Incorrect. An obsession is a disorder in which intruding thoughts that cause anxiety never go away. Arlene is experiencing an irrational fear of a particular thing. 68. An anxiety disorder that involves a fear of interacting with others or being in a social situation is called ______. a. agoraphobia b. social anxiety disorder (social phobia) c. a specific phobia d. generalized anxiety disorder Answer: b. social anxiety disorder (social phobia) Correct. Social anxiety disorder (social phobia) involves a fear of interacting with others or being in a social situation. c. a specific phobia Incorrect. A specific phobia involves a fear of a specific object or situation, such as dogs or going to the dentist. Fear of social interaction is not considered a specific phobia but rather a social phobia. a. specific b. social c. complex d. interactive Answer: b. social Correct. Fear of public speaking and stage fright are examples of phobias that involve a social situation. a. specific Incorrect. A specific phobia involves a fear of a specific object or situation, such as dogs or going to the dentist. Fear of embarrassment in front of others is not considered a specific phobia but rather a social phobia. 70. People who have ______ are afraid of being evaluated in some negative way by others, so they tend to avoid situations that can be embarrassing. a. agoraphobia b. social anxiety disorder (social phobia) c. a specific phobia d. an interactive phobia Answer: b. social anxiety disorder (social phobia) Correct. People who have a social anxiety disorder (social phobia) tend to avoid situations that can be embarrassing. c. a specific phobia Incorrect. People who have a social phobia tend to avoid situations that can be embarrassing. Specific phobias involve a fear of a specific object or situation, such as dogs or going to the dentist. 71. Kaylee refuses to change in the locker room during gym class. She is afraid that someone will see her body, make fun of it, and embarrass her. As a result, Kaylee skips gym class to avoid the situation. Based on this information, it is possible that Kaylee has ________. a. a specific phobia b. social anxiety disorder (social phobia) c. schizophrenia d. mood disorder Answer: b. social anxiety disorder (social phobia) Correct. Social anxiety disorder (social phobia) occurs when a person is afraid of embarrassment or humiliation in a public setting. a. a specific phobia Incorrect. Kaylee’s symptoms are better described as indicating social phobia, not a specific phobia. 72. Which of the following types of anxiety disorders is related to a history of shyness in childhood? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. panic disorder c. social anxiety disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: c. social anxiety disorder Correct. People with social anxiety disorder are anxious and fearful of interacting with others or being in social settings, symptoms which are distinctly related to early life shyness. a. generalized anxiety disorder Incorrect. There is no known relationship between being shy in childhood and developing this disorder. 73. Fears of snakes, thunderstorms, darkness, and water are classified as ______ phobias. a. specific b. social c. primary d. innate Answer: a. specific Correct. Specific phobias are irrational fears of particular objects or situations. b. social Incorrect. A social phobia is a fear of certain social situations, not a fear of a particular object or situation. 74. An irrational fear of some object or specific situation is called ____________. a. agoraphobia b. a social phobia c. a specific phobia d. an interactive phobia Answer: c. a specific phobia Correct. An irrational fear of some object or specific situation is called a specific phobia. b. a social phobia Incorrect. Because a social phobia is a fear of a type of situation, this answer makes sense; however, specific phobia is the best answer because it includes the fear of objects. 75. Which occupation would be especially difficult for a person who suffers from acrophobia? a. cashier b. baseball umpire c. window washer d. emergency room nurse Answer: c. window washer Correct. Someone who has acrophobia, or fear of heights, would have difficulty washing windows because the job would involve being high up, which would cause the person tremendous anxiety. b. baseball umpire Incorrect. A person who has acrophobia, or fear of heights, would not have any difficulty being a baseball umpire, since that job is conducted on the ground. Someone with social phobia would have difficulty being a baseball umpire. 76. Which occupation would be especially difficult for a person who suffers from acrophobia? a. cashier b. baseball umpire c. window washer d. emergency room nurse Answer: c. window washer Correct. Someone who has acrophobia, or fear of heights, would have difficulty washing windows because the job would involve being high up, which would cause the person tremendous anxiety. b. baseball umpire Incorrect. A person who has acrophobia, or fear of heights, would not have any difficulty being a baseball umpire, since that job is conducted on the ground. Someone with social phobia would have difficulty being a baseball umpire. 77. Ted runs from the biology laboratory straight to his therapist’s office. He is sweating and fear is etched on his face. He asks the therapist to apologize to his teacher and says he hopes she will understand that his arachnophobia made it difficult for him to _____. a. speak in class b. dissect a cat c. look at a spider d. take a blood sample Answer: c. look at a spider Correct. Someone with arachnophobia has a fear of spiders. d. take a blood sample Incorrect. Someone with arachnophobia has a fear of spiders; someone with a fear of blood has hematophobia. 78. Fear of being in a place or situation from which escape is difficult or impossible if something should go wrong is called ______. a. agoraphobia b. a social phobia c. a specific phobia d. trypanophobia Answer: a. agoraphobia Correct. Agoraphobia is fear of being in a place or situation from which escape is difficult or impossible. b. a social phobia Incorrect. People who have a social phobia tend to avoid situations that can be embarrassing. 79. Your aunt has a fear that makes it difficult for her to leave her home. She feels trapped and is unable to work or engage in any kind of activity that requires going outside of her home. You are not surprised when you find out your aunt is diagnosed with _________________. a. trypanophobia b. odontophobia c. agoraphobia d. a specific phobia Answer: c. agoraphobia Correct. People with severe agoraphobia fear leaving their homes. d. a specific phobia Incorrect. Specific phobias are irrational fears of particular objects or situations. Your aunt has a general anxiety about leaving her home, a condition known as agoraphobia. 80. Rey has feelings of extreme fear and unrealistic anxiety when he is in crowds and has had these fears for over a year. He actively avoids any place or situation where he expects to be among large groups of people. Rey is most likely to be diagnosed with _______. a. agoraphobia b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. social anxiety disorder Answer: a. agoraphobia Correct. Rey has experienced anxiety so frequently and strongly that it has caused him to change his behavior, and avoid situations with large groups of people to avoid the anxiety and fear. d. social anxiety disorder Incorrect. Rey’s fear is attributed to being in a crowd, not interacting in a social situation. 81. What is the main difference between generalized anxiety disorder and phobic disorder? a. Phobic disorder is linked to specific triggers while generalized anxiety disorder is not linked to a specific trigger. b. Generalized anxiety disorder is linked to a specific trigger while phobic disorder is not linked to a specific trigger. c. Generalized anxiety disorder is more common in women and phobic disorder is more common in men. d. Generalized anxiety disorder is more common in adults while phobic disorder is more common in children. Answer: a. Phobic disorder is linked to specific triggers while generalized anxiety disorder is not linked to a specific trigger. Correct. With a phobia the sufferer knows exactly what they are afraid of, while with generalized anxiety disorder the trigger of the tension and worry is not clear. c. Generalized anxiety disorder is more common in women and phobic disorder is more common in men. Incorrect. This statement regarding the gender differences between phobias and generalized anxiety disorder is not accurate. 82. Which of the following is the term used to describe a sudden onset of extreme panic with various symptoms including racing heart, rapid breathing, and sweating? a. phobia b. compulsion c. panic attack d. affective disorder Answer: c. panic attack Correct. A panic attack is a sudden onset of extreme panic with physical symptoms: racing heart, rapid breathing, a sensation of being “out of one’s body,” dulled hearing and vision, sweating, and dry mouth. a. phobia Incorrect. A phobia is an irrational fear of a particular thing or situation. 83. Darcy is sitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, her heart begins racing rapidly, she has a sensation of being “out of her body,” and she experiences dulled vision and hearing, rapid breathing, and sweating. She thinks she is having a heart attack. Nothing she is doing seems to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms MOST resemble ______. a. a phobic disorder b. a panic attack c. posttraumatic stress d. an affective disorder Answer: b. a panic attack Correct. A panic attack is a sudden onset of extreme panic with physical symptoms: racing heart, rapid breathing, a sensation of being “out of one’s body,” dulled hearing and vision, sweating, and dry mouth. c. posttraumatic stress Incorrect. Posttraumatic stress is a persisting anxiety in the wake of a terrifying event, not a sudden onset of extreme panic with physical symptoms. 84. An anxiety disorder characterized by frequent panic attacks that affect the person’s ability to function in day-to-day living is called ______. a. panic disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. phobic disorder Answer: a. panic disorder Correct. Panic disorder is characterized by frequent panic attacks. c. generalized anxiety disorder Incorrect. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive worry, not by frequent panic attacks. 85. During his college years, Jacob often experienced episodes of intense fear accompanied by the physical sensations of a heart attack. Jacob might have experienced a ________ disorder while in college. a. personality b. mood c. panic d. eating Answer: c. panic Correct. These symptoms indicate a history of panic attacks, which may be diagnosed as panic disorder. b. mood Incorrect. Jacob’s symptoms indicate an anxiety disorder, not a mood disorder. 86. Which of the following is true concerning panic disorder? a. People with panic disorder rarely worry about having more attacks. b. People with panic disorder rarely quit their job to avoid more panic attacks. c. Panic attacks usually occur in response to a specific trigger. d. Panic attacks are more common in adolescent girls and young women. Answer: d. Panic attacks are more common in adolescent girls and young women. Correct. Females tend to be affected more than males and these differences appear by age 14. a. People with panic disorder rarely worry about having more attacks. Incorrect. People experiencing panic attacks often obsess about the possibility of another attack occurring. 87. While each panic attack is different, the average duration of a panic attack is approximately how long? a. 3-5 minutes b. 10-15 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 60-90 minutes Answer: b. 10-15 minutes Correct. Though some attacks are shorter and others are longer, the average panic attack peaks within 10 to 15 minutes. d. 60-90 minutes Incorrect. It would be unusual for a panic attack to last for an hour or more. Most attacks last 10-15 minutes. 88. A disorder in which excessive anxiety and worry occur more days than not for at least six months is called __________. a. panic disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. phobic disorder Answer: c. generalized anxiety disorder Correct. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive worry and anxiety that occur more days than not for at least six months. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder Incorrect. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is characterized by intruding thoughts and ritualistic behavior. 89. Leo worries all of the time. He worries about his money, his children, and his dog. His muscles are always tense and sore, he has trouble sleeping, is often irritable, and has difficulty concentrating. Leo’s symptoms sound most like ______. a. panic disorder b. conversion disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. a dissociative disorder Answer: c. generalized anxiety disorder Correct. Leo’s worrying all the time about many different things is symptomatic of generalized anxiety disorder. a. panic disorder Incorrect. If Leo had panic disorder, he would suffer from intense panic attacks rather than the more generalized worrying that he experiences. 90. A disorder in which intruding thoughts that occur again and again are followed by repetitive, ritualistic behavior or mental acts meant to lower the anxiety caused by the thoughts is called ____________ disorder. a. obsessive-compulsive b. delusional c. posttraumatic stress d. passive-aggressive Answer: a. obsessive-compulsive Correct. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is one in which intruding thoughts occur again and again and are followed by repetitive, ritualistic behavior or mental acts meant to lower the anxiety caused by the thoughts. c. posttraumatic stress Incorrect. Posttraumatic stress disorder is a persisting anxiety in the wake of a terrifying event. 91. Intruding thoughts that occur again and again are called _________. Repetitive, ritualistic behaviors are called ________. a. intrusions; impulses b. obsessions; compulsions c. impulses; intrusions d. compulsions; obsessions Answer: b. obsessions; compulsions Correct. Obsessions are recurring thoughts and compulsions are ritualistic behaviors. d. compulsions; obsessions Incorrect. Compulsions are ritualistic behaviors and obsessions are recurring thoughts. 92. George is suffering from an obsessive-compulsive disorder. If he tries to stop his compulsive behaviors, he is likely to experience ______. a. severe depression b. severe anxiety c. amnesia d. hypochondriasis Answer: b. severe anxiety Correct. The compulsions lower the anxiety caused by the obsessive thoughts. a. severe depression Incorrect. George is likely to experience anxiety. Compulsions lower the anxiety caused by obsessive thoughts. 93. ________ is a repetitive behavior or mental act that an individual feels compelled to perform in response to an obsession. a. Bulimia b. An obsession c. A compulsion d. Rumination Answer: c. A compulsion Correct. The correct answer is a compulsion. In the context of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), a compulsion is a repetitive behavior or mental act that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession, which is an intrusive and unwanted thought or urge. b. An obsession Incorrect. a (Bulimia) is incorrect because bulimia is an eating disorder and not a specific behavior or mental act related to obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Option b (An obsession) is incorrect because an obsession is the intrusive thought or urge, not the behavior or mental act that one feels compelled to perform. Option d (Rumination) is incorrect because rumination refers to repetitive and intrusive thoughts, often associated with depression and anxiety, but not specific to OCD. The correct answer is option c (A compulsion). 94. Obsession is to compulsion as ________. a. thought is to behavior b. behavior is to thought c. response is to stimulus d. repetitive is to constant Answer: a. thought is to behavior Correct. An obsession is an intrusive thought. A compulsion is a ritualistic behavior. b. behavior is to thought Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. 95. As Carol and Ken are leaving for a trip, Carol repeatedly asks Ken, “Did we turn off the coffee pot?” For their entire trip, Carol worries about the coffee pot. Carol’s doubt about turning off the coffee pot is a(n) ________. a. obsession b. compulsion c. both an obsession and a compulsion d. neither an obsession nor a compulsion Answer: a. obsession Correct. An obsession is an intrusive thought. b. compulsion Incorrect. A compulsive is a ritualistic action or behavior. 96. Each day, while Sid is sitting at his desk at work, he continually thinks about germs. Each time this occurs, he washes his hands. Sid probably suffers from ___________. a. agoraphobia b. panic disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: d. obsessive-compulsive disorder Correct. Sid suffers from obsessive-compulsive disorder, as he is obsessed with germs and compulsively washes his hands to relieve his anxiety about germs. c. generalized anxiety disorder Incorrect. Sid’s anxiety is not a general one—it is specifically about germs. 97. A disorder resulting from exposure to a major stressor, with symptoms of anxiety, nightmares, poor sleep, reliving the event, and concentration problems, lasting for more than one month is called _________. a. acute stress disorder b. external locus of control c. catastrophic stress d. posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) Answer: d. posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) Correct. Posttraumatic stress disorder results from exposure to a major stressor, with symptoms of anxiety, nightmares, poor sleep, reliving the event, and concentration problems, lasting for more than one month. a. acute stress disorder Incorrect. Acute stress disorder is temporary, lasting less than one month. 98. Ali, a war veteran, has had nightmares, flashbacks, and anxiety attacks for the past three years. Ali is most likely suffering from _______________. a. acute stress disorder b. external locus of control c. catastrophic stress d. posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) Answer: d. posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) Correct. Nightmares, flashbacks, and anxiety attacks that continue for more than a month after a trauma indicate that a person is suffering from posttraumatic stress disorder. a. acute stress disorder Incorrect. Acute stress disorder is temporary, lasting less than one month. 99. Linda’s house was flooded in a hurricane. Upon losing her home, she had nightmares, disturbed sleep, and anxiety that lasted about two weeks. Linda most likely suffered from ______________. a. acute stress disorder b. external locus of control c. catastrophic stress d. posttraumatic stress disorder Answer: a. acute stress disorder Correct. Acute stress disorder is temporary, lasting less than one month. d. posttraumatic stress disorder Incorrect. Posttraumatic stress disorder would be the diagnosis if symptoms persisted for more than one month. 100. After returning from the Iraq war, Caddell was plagued by nightmares of the attacks. In addition, he avoided anything associated with the war and was hypervigilant for danger. He has been home for nearly six months, but these symptoms continue. Caddell might have ________. a. acute stress disorder. b. a mood disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. posttraumatic stress disorder Answer: d. posttraumatic stress disorder Correct. These are some of the symptoms of PTSD as they are lasting longer than one month. a. acute stress disorder. Incorrect. Acute stress disorder is only diagnosed for one month after a traumatic experience. 101. Which of the following is a symptom of PTSD? a. persistent re-experiencing of the event b. an obsessive need to be close to anything associated with the trauma c. decreased arousal d. symptoms of a manic episode Answer: a. persistent re-experiencing of the event Correct. The correct answer is persistent re-experiencing of the event. This symptom, also known as flashbacks or intrusive memories, is characteristic of PTSD (Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder). b. an obsessive need to be close to anything associated with the trauma Incorrect. (an obsessive need to be close to anything associated with the trauma) is incorrect because while it might be a behavioral response to trauma, it is not a defining symptom of PTSD. Option c (decreased arousal) is incorrect because PTSD typically involves heightened arousal, not decreased arousal. Option d (symptoms of a manic episode) is incorrect because symptoms of mania are associated with bipolar disorder, not PTSD. The correct answer is option a (persistent re-experiencing of the event). 102. Which of the following statements correctly describes the rate of PTSD among combat-exposed military personnel since 2001? a. PTSD has remained stable since 2001 since there have been no new combat experiences for soldiers since 2001. b. Since PTSD is more fully understood, PTSD has declined in soldiers due to better medications. c. The rate of PTSD has tripled since 2001. d. PTSD has increased in combat-exposed women but not in combat-exposed men since 2001. Answer: c. The rate of PTSD has tripled since 2001. Correct. PTSD is increasing over the past several years and there is no indication that PTSD is going away soon. b. Since PTSD is more fully understood, PTSD has declined in soldiers due to better medications. Incorrect. PTSD has increased significantly since 2001 and medication is only one of several strategies used to treat its symptoms. 103. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the research on posttraumatic stress disorder? a. Women seem to be more vulnerable than men. b. Men seem to be more vulnerable than women. c. Likelihood of the disorder increases if the traumatic experience took place before a woman was 15 years old. d. Children suffer from PTSD, but their symptoms are different than those of adults. Answer: b. Men seem to be more vulnerable than women. Correct. The statement is not true because women are more vulnerable than men to posttraumatic stress disorder. a. Women seem to be more vulnerable than men. Incorrect. The statement is true because women are more vulnerable than men to posttraumatic stress disorder. 104. The psychodynamic model views anxiety as __________. a. a danger signal that repressed conflicts are threatening to surface b. a learned reaction c. the result of illogical, irrational, thought processes d. linked to an imbalance in several neurotransmitters in the nervous system Answer: a. a danger signal that repressed conflicts are threatening to surface Correct. The psychodynamic model focuses on repressed conflicts, thoughts, and memories in the unconscious. c. the result of illogical, irrational, thought processes Incorrect. The cognitive perspective focuses on thought processes. 105. Dr. Garcia is treating a patient who has a fear of knives. He believes his patient’s fear is a kind of displacement, in which the phobic object is a symbol of whatever his patient has buried deep inside her unconscious mind. Dr. Garcia’s view is consistent with that of ___________. a. behaviorists b. cognitive psychologists c. the psychodynamic model d. the biological perspective Answer: c. the psychodynamic model Correct. Dr. Garcia’s view is consistent with that of the psychodynamic model because of his focus on the unconscious. b. cognitive psychologists Incorrect. Cognitive psychologists focus on thought processes. Dr. Garcia’s view is consistent with that of the psychodynamic model because of his focus on the unconscious. 106. The behavioral perspective views anxiety as __________. a. a danger signal that repressed conflicts are threatening to surface b. a learned reaction c. the result of illogical, irrational thought processes d. linked to an imbalance in several neurotransmitters in the nervous system Answer: b. a learned reaction Correct. Behaviorists view anxiety as a learned behavioral reaction. a. a danger signal that repressed conflicts are threatening to surface Incorrect. The psychodynamic model focuses on the unconscious. 107. Liza has an anxiety disorder. She is currently seeing a therapist who believes that anxiety disorders are a result of illogical, irrational thought processes. Liza is probably seeking treatment from a _____________. a. behaviorial psychologist b. cognitive psychologist c. psychoanalyst d. psychologist with a biological perspective Answer: b. cognitive psychologist Correct. Cognitive psychologists view anxiety disorders as a result of distorted thought processes. a. behaviorial psychologist Incorrect. Behaviorists view anxiety disorders as a result of learning. 108. Sandy has the tendency to make everything seem so much worse than it actually is. A cognitive psychologist would say that Sandy has a tendency to engage in ___________. a. overgeneralization b. minimization c. all-or-nothing-thinking d. magnification Answer: d. magnification Correct. A person who makes everything seem worse than it is in reality is engaging in magnification. a. overgeneralization Incorrect. A person who makes everything seem worse than it is in reality is engaging in magnification. 109. “Oh my gosh,” Sara exclaims as she leaves her biology exam. “I just KNOW that I got number 48 wrong! I just know that I’m going to fail this class.” According to a cognitive psychologist, Sara is engaging in which of the following distorted thought processes? a. all-or-nothing thinking b. magnification c. overgeneralization d. minimization Answer: a. all-or-nothing thinking Correct. All-or-nothing thinking occurs when a person believes that anything less than perfection represents failure. d. minimization Incorrect. Minimization is when a person assesses a situation with too little importance or emphasis. Sara is engaging in all-or-nothing thinking. 110. While talking with his best friend Johnny, Maurice, who is clearly down and out, says “Dude, I just have no luck with girls at all. I asked Gina out last night and she turned me down flat. Nobody will EVER want to go out with me. Why am I such a loser?” Because Johnny has recently taken an abnormal psychology class, he uses a cognitive-behavioral perspective to answer Maurice. Which of the following might Johnny say? a. “You know, buddy, it sounds like you’re really stuck in a battle between your id and superego!” b. “Hey, friend, I think that you’ve learned to see yourself negatively, so now you need to learn to see yourself positively!” c. “You know, dude, I think your neurotransmitters are all out of whack. Why don’t you go to a doctor?” d. “Hey, pal, you are really overgeneralizing. Just because Gina said no doesn’t mean that all girls will!” Answer: d. “Hey, pal, you are really overgeneralizing. Just because Gina said no doesn’t mean that all girls will!” Correct. Overgeneralization is the tendency to take a single negative event and interpret it as a never-ending pattern of defeat. a. “You know, buddy, it sounds like you’re really stuck in a battle between your id and superego!” Incorrect. This might be a statement that would come from a psychodynamic theorist. 111. According to the biological perspective, generalized anxiety disorder is _________. a. a danger signal that repressed conflicts are threatening to surface b. a learned reaction c. the result of illogical, irrational thought processes d. linked to an imbalance in several neurotransmitters in the nervous system Answer: d. linked to an imbalance in several neurotransmitters in the nervous system Correct. The biological perspective focuses on physiological causes for disorders. b. a learned reaction Incorrect. The behavioral perspective explains anxiety as a result of learning. 112. Which of the following cultural variations is most commonly seen in Latin America? a. ataque de nervios b. koro c. anorexia nervosa d. amok Answer: a. ataque de nervios Correct. This condition, which means “attack of nerves” in English, is seen as a form of an anxiety disorder in Latin American countries. b. koro Incorrect. Koro, or the fear of shrinking genitals, is not a Latin American affliction 113. In which of the following societies is panic disorder seen with the greatest frequency? a. the United States b. Germany c. England d. none of the above Answer: d. none of the above Correct. Panic disorder occurs at similar rates in adolescents and adults in the US and parts of Europe, but is found less often in Asian, African, and Latin American countries. a. the United States Incorrect. Panic disorder occurs at similar rates in adolescents and adults in the US and parts of Europe, but is found less often in Asian, African, and Latin American countries. 114. Disorders characterized by disturbances in emotion are known as ______ disorders. a. conversion b. somatoform c. mood d. dissociative Answer: c. mood Correct. Mood disorders are characterized by disturbances in emotion. b. somatoform Incorrect. Somatoform disorders take the form of bodily ailments that have no physical cause. 115. The term affect is used by psychologists to refer to ______. a. thought b. emotion c. behavior d. intuition Answer: b. emotion Correct. Affect refers to emotion. a. thought Incorrect. Affect refers to emotion. 116. Major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder are examples of ______ disorders. a. neurotic b. somatoform c. psychotic d. mood Answer: d. mood Correct. Major depressive disorder, and bipolar disorder are mood disorders. c. psychotic Incorrect. Major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder are mood disorders. 117. Severe depression that comes on suddenly and seems to have no external cause is called ______. a. dysthymia b. bipolar disorder c. hypomania d. major depressive disorder Answer: d. major depressive disorder Correct. Major depressive disorder is severe and sometimes comes on suddenly. a. dysthymia Incorrect. Dysthymia is a mild form of depression. 118. Which of the following is a characteristic of major depression? a. depressed mood that comes and goes frequently b. diminished interest in daily activities c. heightened interest in sexual activity d. an enhanced sense of creativity Answer: b. diminished interest in daily activities Correct. The correct answer is diminished interest in daily activities. This is a common symptom of major depression, also known as major depressive disorder, characterized by persistent feelings of sadness or loss of interest or pleasure in activities once enjoyed. a. depressed mood that comes and goes frequently Incorrect. a (depressed mood that comes and goes frequently) is incorrect because major depression typically involves persistent and pervasive low mood rather than mood fluctuations. Option c (heightened interest in sexual activity) is incorrect because decreased interest in sexual activity is more commonly associated with major depression. Option d (an enhanced sense of creativity) is incorrect because major depression often involves feelings of worthlessness and low self-esteem that may hinder creativity. The correct answer is option b (diminished interest in daily activities). 119. Which of the following is a legitimate hypothesis that explains why the rate of depression appears to be twice as high for women as compared to men across various cultures? a. Women seek treatment more often than men. b. Women appear to have excessive amounts of the neurotransmitter that plays a key role in depression. c. The increased divorce rate has been more traumatic to how women view themselves and their purpose in life. d. Women tend to ruminate on negative emotions. Answer: d. Women tend to ruminate on negative emotions. Correct. Researchers believe women repeatedly focus more on negative emotions than men and this may be a contributing factor for reported gender differences. c. The increased divorce rate has been more traumatic to how women view themselves and their purpose in life. Incorrect. Researchers have not found that women experience depression due to divorce more than men. 120. Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) seems to be related to __________. a. low levels of thyroxine b. low levels of sunlight c. high levels of thyroxine d. high levels of sunlight Answer: b. low levels of sunlight Correct. SAD is related to low levels of sunlight in winter months. d. high levels of sunlight Incorrect. SAD is related to low levels of sunlight in winter months. 121. __________ is a mood disorder that is caused by the body’s reaction to low levels of light present in the winter months. a. Panic disorder b. Bipolar disorder c. Dysthymic disorder d. Seasonal affective disorder Answer: d. Seasonal affective disorder Correct. Seasonal affective disorder occurs primarily during the winter months. c. Dysthymic disorder Incorrect. Dysthymic disorder is not seasonal. 122. Which of the following is true regarding gender differences in the diagnosis of depression? a. gender differences are nonexistent in college students and single adults b. gender differences get larger as adults get older c. gender differences in childhood tend to reverse themselves in adulthood d. women are always diagnosed with depression more than men, regardless of occupation. Answer: a. gender differences are nonexistent in college students and single adults Correct. When single adults and college students are studied there are no gender differences in the diagnosis of depression. d. women are always diagnosed with depression more than men, regardless of occupation. Incorrect. While women tend to have an overall higher diagnosis of depression when compared to men, this is not true in every case, particularly when other sociocultural factors are taken into consideration. 123. A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between periods of ________. a. anxiety and mania b. severe depression and manic episodes c. mania and schizophrenia d. depression and schizophrenia Answer: b. severe depression and manic episodes Correct. Bipolar disorder is characterized by severe depression and manic episodes. c. mania and schizophrenia Incorrect. Bipolar disorder is characterized by mania an dsevere depression, not schizophrenia. 124. Padma is extremely confident and feels that lately she needs very little sleep. In addition, she reports that her thoughts seem to be going fast, similar to watching three television shows at once. Padma most likely is experiencing ________. a. a manic episode b. a dysthymic episode c. a loss of mental control d. a psychotic break Answer: a. a manic episode Correct. Enhanced self-esteem and energy, and a decreased need for sleep are classic symptoms of a manic episode. d. a psychotic break Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that indicates the presence of psychosis in Padma. 125. When a patient arrives in the emergency room, he is restless and irritable with unlimited energy and a rapid rate of speech. The attending psychiatrist believes the patient has taken cocaine or amphetamines and admits him for observation. The next day the symptoms are the same. What condition with symptoms that are similar to those associated with amphetamine use might the psychiatrist now consider as a condition that is relevant to the diagnosis? a. mania b. dissociative fugue c. conversion disorder d. catatonic schizophrenia Answer: a. mania Correct. Restlessness, irritability, and rapid speech are characteristic of both amphetamine use and mania. b. dissociative fugue Incorrect. Dissociative fugue involves leaving home and losing the memory of one’s personal information. 126. What symptoms of bipolar disorder are present in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder? a. irrational thinking b. mania c. hyperactivity d. depression Answer: c. hyperactivity Correct. Hyperactivity is a symptom of both bipolar and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. a. irrational thinking Incorrect. Irrational thinking is a symptom of bipolar disorder but is not present in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. 127. Which cognitive event is hypothesized as contributing to the development and maintenance of major depression? a. self-efficacy b. learned helplessness c. reciprocal determinism d. all-or-none thinking Answer: b. learned helplessness Correct. Learned helplessness has been linked to an increase in such self-defeating thinking and depression in studies with people who have experienced uncontrollable, painful events. c. reciprocal determinism Incorrect. This is a personality theory associated with Albert Bandura, not Martin Seligman. 128. Which of the following is the biological explanation for mood disorders? a. They are a result of learned helplessness. b. They are a result of anger turned inward on oneself. c. They are a result of distortions in thinking. d. They are a result of an imbalance of brain chemicals. Answer: d. They are a result of an imbalance of brain chemicals. Correct. The biological explanation emphasizes an imbalance of brain chemicals. c. They are a result of distortions in thinking. Incorrect. The social-cognitive perspective, not the biological perspective, focuses on distortions in thinking. 129. Which neurotransmitters are most important in the development of mood disorders? a. GABA, endorphins, and serotonin b. acetylcholine, serotonin, and GABA c. dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine d. norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and serotonin Answer: c. dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine Correct. Dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine all play a role in the development of mood disorders. d. norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and serotonin Incorrect. Acetylcholine does not play a role in the development of mood disorders. 130. Which neurotransmitter is not implicated in the development of mood disorders? a. serotonin b. endorphins c. dopamine d. norepinephrine Answer: b. endorphins Correct. Endorphins play a role in the body’s ability to reduce physical pain. They are not involved in mood disorders. c. dopamine Incorrect. While dopamine is also believed to be largely responsible for the development of schizophrenia, it has also been linked to mood disorders. 131. Tara and Sarah are identical twins. If Tara has bipolar disorder, then Sarah has ________. a. a 100% chance of developing a mood disorder b. a 100% chance of developing bipolar disorder c. a 40-70%% chance of developing a mood disorder d. a 60-80% chance of developing a bipolar disorder Answer: c. a 40-70%% chance of developing a mood disorder Correct. This is the concordance rate that has been reported in the existing literature. a. a 100% chance of developing a mood disorder Incorrect. Because mood disorders are not completely biological, this is an overestimate of the likelihood that Sarah would develop any mood disorder. 132. People who are attempting to become extremely thin by refusing to eat suffer from __________________. a. bulimia nervosa b. obesity phobia c. anorexia nervosa d. dissociation Answer: c. anorexia nervosa Correct. People who are attempting to become extremely thin by refusing to eat suffer from anorexia nervosa. a. bulimia nervosa Incorrect. People with bulimia eat but then force themselves to vomit. 133. Jenny has an intense interest in food but eats sparingly and with disgust. She has an intense fear of becoming obese, and even though she looks emaciated, she still claims she “feels fat” and refuses to eat enough to maintain even a minimal normal body weight for her frame. She is most likely suffering from __________. a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia c. hormone under secretion d. leptin reduction Answer: a. anorexia nervosa Correct. Anorexics refuse to maintain their body weight at or above a minimal normal weight. b. bulimia Incorrect. Bulimics do not refuse to eat; in fact, they often overeat. 134. Each of the following is true of people with anorexia nervosa EXCEPT _________. a. they may be obsessed with food b. they have a distorted view of their own body c. They may have high levels of perfectionism d. they almost always require hospitalization Answer: d. they almost always require hospitalization Correct. It is only when one’s weight drops to 40% below expected body weight that hospitalization is required. c. They may have high levels of perfectionism Incorrect. Many anorexic individuals have issues with the need to be perfect. 135. As a serious dancer, Justine watches what she eats. She knows that she is underweight, but fears that if she starts eating more that she will get fat. In addition to a preoccupation with food she has also stopped menstruating. Her behaviors suggest that she might be suffering from ________. a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia nervosa c. compulsive exercise d. phobic disorder Answer: a. anorexia nervosa Correct. These are several symptoms of anorexia nervosa. b. bulimia nervosa Incorrect. The fact that Justine is so vastly underweight indicates that she suffers from anorexia, not bulimia. 136. An eating disorder characterized by eating binges followed by self-induced vomiting is called ________. a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia c. hormone under secretion d. leptin reduction Answer: b. bulimia Correct. Individuals with bulimia binge and then vomit. a. anorexia nervosa Incorrect. Individuals with anorexia do not binge; they abstain from eating. 137. Each of the following is a symptom of bulimia EXCEPT ______. a. recurrent episodes of binge eating b. refusal to maintain body weight at or above minimal normal weight for age and height c. recurrent inappropriate behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting, to try and prevent weight gain d. body shape and weight excessively influencing the person’s self-image Answer: b. refusal to maintain body weight at or above minimal normal weight for age and height Correct. Individuals with bulimia typically maintain a body weight at or above normal. a. recurrent episodes of binge eating Incorrect. Recurrent episodes of binge eating are a symptom of bulimia. 138. The neurotransmitter associated with bulimia nervosa is ______________. a. dopamine b. insulin c. serotonin d. endorphin Answer: c. serotonin Correct. Serotonin is the neurotransmitter associated with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. b. insulin Incorrect. Insulin is not a neurotransmitter. 139. Which statement is CORRECT concerning the cultural components of eating disorders? a. Anorexia and bulimia are only found in Western, high-socioeconomic cultures. b. African American women rarely, if ever, suffer from eating disorders. c. Eating disorders are found in both Western and non-Western cultures. d. Chinese women never report suffering from anorexia. Answer: c. Eating disorders are found in both Western and non-Western cultures. Correct. The only differences appear to be in the rates. b. African American women rarely, if ever, suffer from eating disorders. Incorrect. Recent research demonstrates that African American women are among a growing population of sufferers. 140. Disorders in which there is a break in consciousness, memory, the sense of identity, or some combination are called _________. a. paraphilias b. anxiety disorders c. somatoform disorders d. dissociative disorders Answer: d. dissociative disorders Correct. Dissociative disorders are characterized by a break in consciousness, memory, the sense of identity, or some combination. c. somatoform disorders Incorrect. Somatoform disorders take the form of bodily ailments that have no physical cause. 141. Steve’s psychiatrist notes that Steve is experiencing a disruption of the usually integrated functions of consciousness, memory, and identity. Therefore, Steve most likely has a(n)________ disorder. a. psychotic b. adjustment c. dissociative d. impulse-control Answer: c. dissociative Correct. Dissociative disorders would be defined by these symptoms. a. psychotic Incorrect. Psychotic disorders involve a disruption in contact with reality, not in one’s consciousness. 142. After being passed up for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got there. He appears to be suffering from ______. a. paraphilia b. schizophrenia c. a somatoform disorder d. a dissociative disorder Answer: d. a dissociative disorder Correct. Dissociative disorders are characterized by a break in conscious awareness, memory, sense of identity, or some combination. c. a somatoform disorder Incorrect. Somatoform disorders take the form of bodily ailments that have no physical cause. 143. A dissociative disorder characterized by a partial or complete loss of memory for personal information that is usually associated with a stressful or emotionally traumatic experience is known as ______. a. dissociative identity disorder b. depersonalization disorder c. dissociative amnesia d. dissociative fugue Answer: c. dissociative amnesia Correct. Dissociative amnesia is a loss of memory of personal information usually associated with a stressful experience. d. dissociative fugue Incorrect. Dissociative fugue involves leaving home and loss of memory of personal information. 144. The police find a man who is disheveled and in a daze wandering through the downtown area. When the police ask him for his name, he seems bewildered. A search of missing persons photographs reveals that this man was reported missing three months ago in a town more than 700 miles away. The man is most likely suffering from _________. a. schizophrenia b. dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue c. dissociative amnesia d. dissociative identity disorder Answer: b. dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue Correct. Dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue involves suddenly leaving home and loss of memory of personal information. c. dissociative amnesia Incorrect. Dissociative amnesia does not cause one to leave home. 145. A dissociative disorder that involves sudden travel from home, the taking on of a new identity, and amnesia regarding the trip and one’s actual personal information is called ______. a. dissociative identity disorder b. dissociative amnesia c. depersonalization disorder d. dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue Answer: d. dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue Correct. Dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue entails suddenly leaving home and loss of memory of one’s personal information. b. dissociative amnesia Incorrect. Dissociative amnesia alone does not involve sudden travel. 146. In which disorder does a person seem to experience at least two or more distinct personalities existing in one body? a. schizophrenia b. panic disorder c. depersonalization d. dissociative identity disorder Answer: d. dissociative identity disorder Correct. People with dissociative identity disorder show signs of having at least two distinct personalities. a. schizophrenia Incorrect. People with schizophrenia do not experience multiple personalities. 147. Eve seeks treatment to learn how to relax. When her therapist hypnotizes her, her voice changes and someone claiming her name is “Joan” begins to speak. During therapy, 23 separate entities, each with its own name, personal style, and memories emerge. Eve appears to be suffering from ______ disorder. a. depersonalization b. dissociative identity c. conversion d. schizoid personality Answer: b. dissociative identity Correct. Dissociative identity disorder, once known as multiple personality disorder, involves two or more separate personalities living within one body. a. depersonalization Incorrect. Depersonalization disorder involves feeling disconnected from oneself but does not involve different personalities with different names. 148. Ned seeks therapy after having recurrent episodes of feeling “detached from himself” for several months, but he has not lost his self-awareness or memory. He notes that he feels like a robot, disconnected from his movements and actions. He is most likely suffering from ______. a. dissociative fugue b. conversion disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. depersonalization/derealization disorder Answer: d. depersonalization/derealization disorder Correct. Depersonalization/derealization disorder involves feeling detached from oneself. a. dissociative fugue Incorrect. A person experiencing dissociative fugue experiences a loss of memory. 149. A team of investigators has found that persons suffering from depersonalization/derealization disorder show significant differences in _________ when different personalities are present. a. metabolism b. PET scan activity c. brain wave activity d. hormone release Answer: b. PET scan activity Correct. Significant differences in PET scan activity have been found when different personalities are present. c. brain wave activity Incorrect. Brain wave activity is associated with an EEG. Significant differences in PET scan activity have been found when different personalities are present 150. Which of the following perspectives claims that shaping may play a big role in the development of some cases of dissociative identity disorder? a. behavioral b. humanistic c. biological d. psychoanalytic Answer: a. behavioral Correct. Behavioral psychologists emphasize shaping through positive and negative reinforcement as a factor in the development of some cases of dissociative identity disorder. d. psychoanalytic Incorrect. Psychoanalytic theory sees repression as a large element that contributes to dissociative identity disorder. 151. What is the name of the culture-bound syndrome that involves a period of increased agitation and violence? a. taijin-kyofu-sho b. ghost sickness c. amok d. susto Answer: c. amok Correct. The correct answer is amok. Amok is a culture-bound syndrome that involves a sudden outburst of violent and aggressive behavior, often followed by amnesia or a period of confusion. It is most commonly found in Southeast Asian cultures. a. taijin-kyofu-sho Incorrect. Option a (taijin-kyofu-sho) is incorrect because taijin-kyofu-sho is a culture-bound syndrome in Japan characterized by a fear of offending others with one's appearance or behavior, not by increased agitation and violence. Option b (ghost sickness) is incorrect because ghost sickness is a culture-bound syndrome among some Native American tribes, involving symptoms such as anxiety, feelings of impending death, and preoccupation with death or the dead, but it does not typically involve increased agitation and violence. Option d (susto) is incorrect because susto is a culture-bound syndrome found in Latin American cultures, characterized by a fear of a loss of one's soul, but it does not typically involve increased agitation and violence. The correct answer is option c (amok). 152. A person who is suffering from disordered thinking, bizarre behavior, and hallucinations and who is unable to distinguish between fantasy and reality is likely suffering from _______. a. schizophrenia b. bipolar disorder c. a dissociative disorder d. passive-aggressive personality Answer: a. schizophrenia Correct. Disordered thinking, bizarre behavior, hallucinations, and an inability to distinguish between fantasy and reality are all symptoms of schizophrenia. b. bipolar disorder Incorrect. Bipolar disorder is characterized by mood swings between depression and mania and does not involve hallucinations or inability to distinguish between fantasy and reality. 153. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding schizophrenia? a. It is the same thing as split personality b. It is the same thing as multiple personality disorder c. It is the same thing as dissociative identity disorder d. It is a type of psychotic disorder Answer: d. It is a type of psychotic disorder Correct. The hallmark of schizophrenia is psychosis, or loss of contact with reality. a. It is the same thing as split personality Incorrect. This is a very common misconception regarding this illness. 154. A patient in a psychiatric hospital exhibits disordered thinking, bizarre behavior, and hallucinations. This person is probably suffering from ___________. a. schizophrenia b. bipolar disorder c. a dissociative disorder d. passive-aggressive personality Answer: a. schizophrenia Correct. Disordered thinking, bizarre behavior, and hallucinations are all symptoms of schizophrenia. b. bipolar disorder Incorrect. Bipolar disorder is characterized by mood swings between depression and mania and does not involve hallucinations. 155. False beliefs held by a person who refuses to accept evidence of their falseness are known as ______. a. delusions b. hallucinations c. obsessions d. compulsions Answer: a. delusions Correct. Delusions are false beliefs. b. hallucinations Incorrect. Hallucinations are false sensory perceptions; delusions are false beliefs. 156. Gigi, who has schizophrenia, believes that she was sent by God to one day rule the world. Her belief is an example of a(n) ________. a. phobia b. delusion c. alogia d. hallucination Answer: b. delusion Correct. Delusions are beliefs that are bizarre and have no supporting evidence in the real world. d. hallucination Incorrect. An hallucination is a pathological sensory experience. 157. Shreen is diagnosed with schizophrenia. She believes that she is a powerful person who can save the world. Shreen is experiencing __________. a. delusions of persecution b. delusions of grandeur c. delusions of reference d. delusions of influence Answer: b. delusions of grandeur Correct. Delusions of grandeur are false beliefs in which people are convinced that they are powerful enough to save the world. c. delusions of reference Incorrect. Delusions of reference are false beliefs in which people are convinced that other people, television characters, and even books are talking to them. 158. Delusions of ________ are false beliefs held by a person who is convinced that others are trying to hurt them in some way. a. persecution b. grandeur c. reference d. influence Answer: a. persecution Correct. Delusions of persecution are false beliefs in which people are convinced that others are trying to hurt them in some way. c. reference Incorrect. Delusions of reference are false beliefs in which people are convinced that other people, television characters, and even books are talking to them. 159. The television talks to Heidi. It tells her the police are out to get her. Because Heidi has schizophrenia, she is mostly experiencing a(n) ________. a. delusion b. flat affect c. evolution d. hallucination Answer: d. hallucination Correct. Having a sensory experience without a real stimulus is an hallucination. a. delusion Incorrect. The fact that Heidi actually believes the TV is talking to her indicates an hallucination. 160. False sensory perceptions that often take the form of hearing voices are called ______. a. delusions b. hallucinations c. obsessions d. compulsions Answer: b. hallucinations Correct. Hallucinations are false sensory perceptions. a. delusions Incorrect. Delusions are false beliefs; hallucinations are false sensory perceptions. 161. Of the five known human sensory systems, which type of hallucination is the most common? a. visual b. tactile c. gustatory d. auditory Answer: d. auditory Correct. Hearing voices is the most common form of hallucination, followed by visual hallucinations. c. gustatory Incorrect. Tasting things that are not there is a possible yet rare form of hallucination. 162. Nick is admitted to a mental institution because he hears voices talking to him that no one else can hear, and he sees demons attacking him, though no one else could see anything near him. Nick’s symptoms are known as ______. a. delusions b. hallucinations c. obsessions d. compulsions Answer: b. hallucinations Correct. When one experiences false perceptions, such as seeing demons or hearing voices, one is having hallucinations. a. delusions Incorrect. Delusions are false beliefs, not false sensory perceptions such as those that Nick is experiencing. 163. Which of the following is a condition in which a person shows little or no emotion? a. hallucinations b. delusions c. inappropriate affect d. flat affect Answer: d. flat affect Correct. A flat affect is a lack of emotional responsiveness. c. inappropriate affect Incorrect. Inappropriate affect is a condition in which a person shows emotion that does not match the situation. 164. Which of the following is a disturbed behavior ranging from statue-like immobility to burst of energetic, frantic movement and talking? a. hypomanic b. circumscribed c. flat affect d. catatonia Answer: d. catatonia Correct. Catatonia is a disturbed behavior ranging from statue-like immobility to bursts of energetic, frantic movement, and talking. a. hypomanic Incorrect. This option is incorrect because hypomania refers to a distinct period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and increased activity or energy levels. It is typically associated with bipolar disorder and is characterized by symptoms opposite to those of catatonia. 165. A hospital patient was diagnosed as suffering from schizophrenia because she was having both delusions and hallucinations. What type of symptoms are these? a. atypical b. positive c. negative d. a mix of positive and negative Answer: b. positive Correct. Delusions and hallucinations are considered positive symptoms because they are the result of an excess or distortion of normal function. c. negative Incorrect. Negative symptoms are the result of a decrease in function. Delusions and hallucinations are considered positive symptoms because they are the result of an excess or distortion of normal function. 166. What is the best way to describe the positive symptoms of schizophrenia? a. clearly identifiable symptoms b. a decrease in normal functioning c. an excess or distortion of normal functions d. symptoms that psychologists are certain are occurring Answer: c. an excess or distortion of normal functions Correct. Positive symptoms are the result of an excess or distortion of normal functions. b. a decrease in normal functioning Incorrect. Decreases in functioning are negative symptoms. 167. Which pair consists of negative symptoms of schizophrenia? a. Poor attention and flat affect b. blunted affect and delusions c. abolition and hallucinations d. delusions and hallucinations Answer: a. Poor attention and flat affect Correct. Poor attention and flat affect are negative symptoms because they are the result of a decrease in function. d. delusions and hallucinations Incorrect. Delusions and hallucinations are considered positive symptoms because they are the result of an excess or distortion of normal function. 168. Sal has decreased levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine in his frontal lobe areas. Which disorder might he be at risk of experiencing? a. antisocial personality disorder b. agoraphobia c. schizophrenia d. dissociative fugue Answer: c. schizophrenia Correct. Schizophrenia is associated with dopamine dysfunction, and lower levels of dopamine production have been found in the prefrontal cortex. b. agoraphobia Incorrect. Schizophrenia is associated with dopamine dysfunction. 169. Which of the following statements might someone with a biological perspective make about schizophrenia? a. It is a severe breakdown of the ego as a result of a disturbed relationship between mother and child. b. Its symptoms are shaped by the processes of reinforcement and extinction. c. Its symptoms, such as irrational beliefs, are a severe form of illogical thinking. d. It is caused by genetics, chemical influences, and brain structural defects. Answer: d. It is caused by genetics, chemical influences, and brain structural defects. Correct. Someone with a biological perspective focuses on physiological causes. b. Its symptoms are shaped by the processes of reinforcement and extinction. Incorrect. The behavioral perspective, not the biological perspective, focuses on learning processes, such as reinforcement and extinction. 170. Approximately ___% of people worldwide will develop schizophrenia at some point during their lives. a. 0.7 b. 1.0 c. 2.5 d. 4.5 Answer: a. 0.7 Correct. The correct answer is 0.7%. Schizophrenia is a relatively rare mental disorder, and approximately 0.7% of people worldwide will develop it at some point during their lives. b. 1.0 Incorrect. Option b (1.0) is incorrect because the prevalence of schizophrenia worldwide is lower than 1.0%. Option c (2.5) is incorrect because while schizophrenia is a serious mental disorder, its prevalence is not as high as 2.5% of the population. Option d (4.5) is incorrect because 4.5% would be an exceedingly high prevalence rate for schizophrenia. The correct answer is option a (0.7), which reflects a more accurate estimate of the lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia. 171. According to family, twin, and adoption studies, a person is at greatest risk for developing schizophrenia _________. a. if he or she has an identical twin diagnosed with the disorder b. if he or she has a nonidentical twin diagnosed with the disorder c. if he or she has an adoptive parent diagnosed with the disorder d. if he or she has a biological parent diagnosed with the disorder Answer: a. if he or she has an identical twin diagnosed with the disorder Correct. A person with an identical twin diagnosed with schizophrenia is at greatest risk for developing this disorder. b. if he or she has a nonidentical twin diagnosed with the disorder Incorrect. A person with a nonidentical twin is at a lower risk for developing schizophrenia than someone who has an identical twin diagnosed with this disorder. 172. Research suggests that a reduction in myelin coating neurons in the uncinate fasciculus and the cingulum bundle, two important parts of the brain, is related to developing symptoms of __________. a. schizophrenia b. major depression c. conversion disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder Answer: a. schizophrenia Correct. Recent MRI research has identified these two structures of the brain as being related to schizophrenia. d. generalized anxiety disorder Incorrect. These parts of the brain are unrelated to generalized anxiety disorder. 173. People with ______ disorders have an excessively rigid, maladaptive pattern of behavior and ways of relating to others. a. personality b. somatoform c. affective d. schizophrenic Answer: a. personality Correct. People with personality disorders have a rigid and maladaptive pattern of behavior. d. schizophrenic Incorrect. People with schizophrenia suffer from disordered thinking, bizarre behavior, and hallucinations and are unable to distinguish between fantasy and reality. 174. John has made a career of stealing older people’s retirement money by taking advantage of their trust and selling them phony retirement investments. John explains that he has done nothing wrong—if these people were not so greedy, they would not be so eager to invest in his phony schemes. In his mind, his victims got exactly what they deserved. John’s behavior and attitude are typical of someone with ______ personality disorder. a. schizoid b. schizotypal c. passive-aggressive d. antisocial Answer: d. antisocial Correct. Someone with antisocial personality disorder has no real conscience and feels no guilt about deceiving or cheating people. a. schizoid Incorrect. People with schizoid personality disorder are loners who are unable to form relationships with people; John is able to form relationships with people, even though they are dishonest relationships. 175. Antisocial, paranoid, and schizoid are all types of ________ disorders. a. mood b. dissociative c. personality d. anxiety Answer: c. personality Correct. The correct answer is personality. Antisocial, paranoid, and schizoid are all types of personality disorders, characterized by enduring patterns of behavior, cognition, and inner experience that deviate from cultural expectations and cause distress or impairment. a. mood Incorrect. Option a (mood) is incorrect because mood disorders involve disturbances in mood, such as depression or bipolar disorder, and do not encompass personality disorders. Option b (dissociative) is incorrect because dissociative disorders involve disruptions or breakdowns of memory, awareness, identity, or perception, and do not include personality disorders. Option d (anxiety) is incorrect because anxiety disorders involve excessive fear or anxiety, and do not include personality disorders. The correct answer is option c (personality). Antisocial, paranoid, and schizoid are all types of personality disorders characterized by enduring patterns of behavior, cognition, and inner experience that deviate from cultural expectations. 176. Which of the following people would be most likely to receive a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder? a. Marlon, who works as a long-distance truck driver so that he doesn’t have to interact with people more than necessary. b. Monet, who is described as moody, manipulative, and untrusting of others. c. Jared, who enjoys stealing cars and going for joy rides around his neighborhood. d. Lizette, who has a history of multiple suicide attempts. Answer: c. Jared, who enjoys stealing cars and going for joy rides around his neighborhood. Correct. Antisocial personality disorder is marked by a disregard for the rules of society and the rights of others. b. Monet, who is described as moody, manipulative, and untrusting of others. Incorrect. Monet is showing symptoms of borderline personality disorder. 177. Marty is moody, manipulative, unstable, lacks a clear sense of identity, and often clings to others. He wants to have close relationships but is unable to do so because he is untrusting of others. Marty is suffering from ______ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. avoidant c. dependent d. borderline Answer: d. borderline Correct. Marty’s moodiness, manipulativeness, instability, lack of identity, and untrusting behavior are symptoms of borderline personality disorder. a. antisocial Incorrect. People with antisocial personality disorder lack morals and a conscience and often behave in an impulsive manner without regard for the consequences of their behavior. 178. Kevin shows a pattern of instability in his relationships, self-image, and feelings. As such, he most likely has ________ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline c. dependent d. avoidant Answer: b. borderline Correct. These are several of the symptoms of borderline personality disorder. a. antisocial Incorrect. Nothing in this question indicates the presents of avoidant personality disorder. 179. Which of the following statements represents the cognitive-behavioral theorist’s view of personality disorders? a. They are due to an inadequate resolution of the Oedipus complex. b. They are a type of learned behavior. c. They have physiological causes. d. They are due to disturbances in family relationships. Answer: b. They are a type of learned behavior. Correct. Cognitive-behavioral theorists believe that the behavior displayed by people with personality disorders is learned through reinforcement, shaping, and modeling. a. They are due to an inadequate resolution of the Oedipus complex. Incorrect. Psychoanalysts, not cognitive-behavioral theorists, believe personality disorders are due to an inadequate resolution of the Oedipus complex. 180. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the causes of antisocial personality disorder? a. Close biological relatives of people with this disorder are more likely to be diagnosed than those who are not related. b. Lower than normal levels of fearfulness and inhibition in childhood are associated with greater incidence of antisocial personality disorder in adulthood. c. Children who are adopted by a parent who has antisocial personality disorder have an elevated risk of developing the illness themselves, even though there is no genetic connection to that parent. d. There is a greater risk of antisocial personality disorder in relatives of people with schizotypal personality disorder. Answer: d. There is a greater risk of antisocial personality disorder in relatives of people with schizotypal personality disorder. Correct. This statement is false because there is a greater risk of schizophrenia in relatives of people with schizotypal personality disorder. a. Close biological relatives of people with this disorder are more likely to be diagnosed than those who are not related. Incorrect. This statement is true because close biological relatives of people with this disorder are more likely to be diagnosed than those who are not related. TRUE OR FALSE 1. The process of cutting holes in the skull of a person with the symptoms of a mental disorder is a part of traditional exorcism. Answer: False Rationale: Trepanation, or cutting holes in the skull, was indeed practiced historically for various reasons, including medical ones, but it wasn't a part of traditional exorcism. Trepanation was done for purposes such as treating head injuries or relieving intracranial pressure. Exorcism, on the other hand, involves religious or spiritual rituals aimed at casting out perceived evil spirits or demons, and it typically does not involve physical surgery. 2. Though his work was done over two thousand years ago, current medical research has found that Hippocrates’s theories regarding the relationship between the “four humors” and mental disturbance were correct. Answer: False Rationale: Hippocrates's theory of the four humors (blood, phlegm, yellow bile, black bile) as the basis of human personality and health was influential in ancient medicine but has been largely discredited by modern medical research. Mental disturbances are not attributed to imbalances in these bodily fluids, as Hippocrates proposed, but rather to a complex interplay of genetic, environmental, and neurological factors. 3. One clear sign of abnormality is when the behavior the person engages in creates a great deal of subjective discomfort. Answer: True Rationale: Subjective discomfort, such as distress, anxiety, or dissatisfaction experienced by the individual, can indeed be a significant indicator of abnormal behavior. However, it's important to note that abnormal behavior is typically assessed based on a combination of factors, including distress, dysfunction, deviance, and danger to self or others. 4. The psychodynamic model views abnormal behavior as resulting from illogical thinking patterns. Answer: False Rationale: The psychodynamic model, developed by Freud and his followers, attributes abnormal behavior to unconscious conflicts, unresolved issues from childhood, and other intrapsychic dynamics. It does not primarily focus on illogical thinking patterns as the cause of abnormal behavior, as cognitive-behavioral approaches might. 5. Behaviorists believe that abnormal behaviors are the result of the process of learning, including classical and operant conditioning. Answer: True Rationale: Behaviorism emphasizes that abnormal behaviors are learned through processes such as classical conditioning (association of stimuli) and operant conditioning (association of behaviors with consequences). This perspective suggests that abnormal behaviors can be modified or unlearned through interventions that target these learned associations. 6. The model of psychological abnormality that combines the influences of all of the other models in varying amounts is called the omnilogical model. Answer: False Rationale: There isn't a model known as the omnilogical model in psychology. The integrative or eclectic model, however, does combine elements from various psychological theories and approaches to understanding abnormal behavior. This model recognizes that no single approach can fully explain the complexity of psychological disorders. 7. The DSM-5 describes disorders in terms of symptoms and specific criteria that must be met in order for diagnosis to be made. Answer: True Rationale: The DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition) indeed outlines specific criteria and symptom descriptions for diagnosing mental disorders. It provides a standardized classification system used by clinicians and researchers to diagnose and classify psychological disorders based on observable symptoms and clinical criteria. 8. A phobia is a type of mood disorder. Answer: False Rationale: A phobia is a type of anxiety disorder, not a mood disorder. Phobias involve an intense, irrational fear of a specific object, situation, or activity, leading to avoidance behaviors. Mood disorders, on the other hand, involve disturbances in mood, such as depression or bipolar disorder. 9. It is only when panic attacks become so frequent that they affect a person’s ability to function in day-to-day living that the person is said to have a panic disorder. Answer: True Rationale: According to diagnostic criteria, experiencing frequent and unexpected panic attacks, accompanied by persistent worry about having additional attacks or changes in behavior to avoid panic attacks, is indicative of panic disorder. These panic attacks can indeed significantly impair a person's ability to function in daily life. 10. A repetitive ritualistic behavior that helps to reduce anxiety is called an obsession. Answer: False Rationale: A repetitive ritualistic behavior aimed at reducing anxiety is actually called a compulsion, not an obsession. Obsessions are intrusive, unwanted thoughts, images, or urges that cause distress, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts performed in response to obsessions to alleviate anxiety or prevent a feared outcome, as seen in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). 11. Excessive worry is a feature of mood disorders. Answer: False Rationale: Excessive worry is a characteristic symptom of anxiety disorders, not mood disorders. Mood disorders, such as depression and bipolar disorder, primarily involve disturbances in mood, such as persistent sadness (depression) or episodes of mania and depression (bipolar disorder), rather than excessive worry. 12. When a person suffers from bipolar disorder, he or she experiences mood swings that can range from severe depression to manic episodes. Answer: True Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by mood swings that alternate between periods of severe depression and episodes of mania or hypomania. Manic episodes involve symptoms such as elevated mood, increased energy, impulsivity, and decreased need for sleep. These mood swings are a defining feature of bipolar disorder. 13. Dissociative disorders involve a break in consciousness, memory, or a person’s sense of identity. Answer: True Rationale: Dissociative disorders are characterized by disruptions or discontinuities in consciousness, memory, identity, or perception of the environment. Symptoms can include dissociative amnesia (memory loss), depersonalization (feeling detached from oneself), derealization (feeling disconnected from one's surroundings), and identity disturbance (multiple identity states). 14. Delusions are false sensory perceptions, such as hearing voices that do not really exist. Answer: False Rationale: Delusions are fixed, false beliefs that are not based on reality and are resistant to reason or contradictory evidence. They can involve various themes, such as persecution, grandiosity, or reference, but they are not sensory perceptions. Hallucinations, on the other hand, involve false sensory perceptions, such as hearing voices or seeing things that aren't there. 15. Biological explanations of schizophrenia include genetics, chemical influences, and brain structural defects. Answer: True Rationale: Schizophrenia has a strong biological component, with genetic factors playing a significant role in its development. Additionally, neurotransmitter imbalances, particularly involving dopamine and glutamate, are implicated in the disorder. Structural brain abnormalities, such as enlarged ventricles or reduced gray matter volume in certain brain regions, have also been observed in individuals with schizophrenia. 16. A person diagnosed with a personality disorder has an excessively rigid, maladaptive pattern of behavior and ways of relating to others. Answer: True Rationale: Personality disorders are characterized by enduring patterns of inner experience and behavior that deviate markedly from the expectations of the individual's culture, manifested in cognition, affectivity, interpersonal functioning, and impulse control. These patterns are typically inflexible, pervasive, and lead to significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning. SHORT ANSWER 1. Define the term maladaptive as it relates to understanding abnormal behavior. Answer: Maladaptive refers to behaviors, thoughts, or patterns of functioning that are ineffective or counterproductive in helping an individual adapt to their environment or achieve their goals. In the context of understanding abnormal behavior, maladaptive behaviors are those that impair a person's ability to function adequately in daily life or cause distress. 2. How does the biological model explain the cause of psychological disorders? Answer: The biological model attributes psychological disorders to biological factors, such as genetics, neurochemical imbalances, brain abnormalities, and hormonal disturbances. According to this perspective, abnormalities in the structure or functioning of the brain and nervous system contribute to the development of psychological disorders. 3. Define the term cultural relativity. Answer: Cultural relativity refers to the idea that behaviors, beliefs, and norms should be understood within the cultural context in which they occur. It emphasizes that what is considered normal or abnormal behavior can vary across different cultures, and judgments about behavior should be made with consideration for cultural values and norms. 4. What is the DSM-5? Answer: The DSM-5, or Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, is a standardized classification system published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) used by mental health professionals to diagnose and classify mental disorders. It provides criteria for the diagnosis of various psychological disorders based on symptoms and clinical observations. 5. What are specific phobias? Answer: Specific phobias are a type of anxiety disorder characterized by an intense, irrational fear of a specific object, situation, or activity. Common examples include fear of heights (acrophobia), fear of spiders (arachnophobia), and fear of flying (aviophobia). Individuals with specific phobias often go to great lengths to avoid the feared stimulus, leading to significant distress or impairment in daily functioning. 6. What are some ways in which a panic attack resembles a heart attack? Answer: Panic attacks and heart attacks can share some similar symptoms, such as chest pain or discomfort, shortness of breath, rapid heart rate, dizziness, and sweating. These similarities can lead individuals experiencing a panic attack to mistakenly believe they are having a heart attack, resulting in heightened anxiety and fear. 7. What is the difference between acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder? Answer: Acute stress disorder (ASD) and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) are both anxiety disorders that can develop after exposure to a traumatic event. The main difference between the two is the duration of symptoms. ASD is diagnosed when symptoms occur within one month of the traumatic event and persist for a minimum of three days but no longer than one month. If symptoms persist beyond one month, the diagnosis is typically changed to PTSD. 8. What are the symptoms of major depression? Answer: Symptoms of major depression, also known as major depressive disorder, can include persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, or emptiness, loss of interest or pleasure in activities once enjoyed, changes in appetite or weight, sleep disturbances, fatigue or loss of energy, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, difficulty concentrating or making decisions, and recurrent thoughts of death or suicide. 9. Define anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. Answer: Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, a distorted body image, and severe restriction of food intake, leading to significantly low body weight. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, followed by compensatory behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. 10. What are the characteristics of dissociative fugue? Answer: Dissociative fugue is a dissociative disorder characterized by sudden, unexpected travel away from home or usual surroundings, accompanied by an inability to recall one's past and confusion about personal identity or assumption of a new identity. During a dissociative fugue episode, individuals may temporarily forget their past life, including their name, family, and personal history, and may unexpectedly travel to new locations. 11. What is a delusion of reference? Answer: A delusion of reference is a type of delusion in which individuals falsely believe that certain neutral or irrelevant stimuli in the environment are personally significant or directed specifically at them. For example, someone experiencing a delusion of reference may believe that strangers on the street are talking about them or that events in the news are somehow related to their own life in a meaningful way. 12. What are the characteristics of antisocial personality disorder? Answer: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. Some of the key characteristics include a lack of empathy and remorse, manipulative and deceitful behavior, impulsivity, irresponsibility, repeated violations of societal norms and rules, and a history of conduct problems starting in childhood or adolescence. Individuals with antisocial personality disorder may also engage in aggressive or criminal behavior without remorse. ESSAY 1. Explain the three ways in which abnormal behavior is defined in the field of psychology. Answer: Abnormal behavior is defined in three main ways in psychology: 1. Deviation from Statistical Norms: This definition considers behavior abnormal if it occurs infrequently or deviates significantly from the average or typical behavior in a given population. For example, if a behavior is rare or falls outside the range of what is considered normal in a particular society, it may be deemed abnormal. 2. Deviation from Social Norms: This definition considers behavior abnormal if it violates social or cultural norms and expectations. Behaviors that are considered unacceptable or inappropriate within a particular cultural context may be classified as abnormal. For instance, behaviors such as public nudity or extreme aggression might be viewed as abnormal because they violate social norms. 3. Functional Impairment or Dysfunction: This definition considers behavior abnormal if it interferes with an individual's ability to function effectively in daily life or causes significant distress. If a behavior disrupts one's work, relationships, or overall well-being, it may be considered abnormal even if it is relatively common or conforms to social norms. 2. List and describe two anxiety disorders. List the most relevant symptoms of the disorders that you choose. Describe the viewpoints of two different psychological models on the cause of anxiety disorders. Answer: Two common anxiety disorders are generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and panic disorder. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD): • Symptoms: Persistent and excessive worry or anxiety about various aspects of life, including work, health, family, or finances, for at least six months. Other symptoms may include restlessness, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances. • Biological Model Viewpoint: Biological models attribute GAD to factors such as genetic predisposition, neurotransmitter imbalances (e.g., serotonin and GABA), and abnormalities in brain structure and function. • Cognitive-Behavioral Model Viewpoint: Cognitive-behavioral models suggest that GAD arises from maladaptive thought patterns, such as excessive worry and catastrophic thinking, coupled with avoidance behaviors and heightened physiological arousal. Panic Disorder: • Symptoms: Recurrent and unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden episodes of intense fear or discomfort accompanied by physical symptoms such as chest pain, heart palpitations, sweating, trembling, shortness of breath, dizziness, or feelings of impending doom. Individuals may also develop anticipatory anxiety about future panic attacks and may avoid places or situations associated with previous attacks. • Biological Model Viewpoint: Biological models emphasize genetic vulnerabilities, neurobiological factors (e.g., dysregulation of the amygdala and locus coeruleus), and abnormalities in the stress response system (e.g., hypersensitivity of the sympathetic nervous system) as contributors to panic disorder. • Cognitive-Behavioral Model Viewpoint: Cognitive-behavioral models propose that panic disorder arises from a combination of catastrophic misinterpretation of bodily sensations (e.g., interpreting palpitations as a heart attack) and conditioned fear responses (e.g., associating certain situations with panic attacks), perpetuated by avoidance behaviors and safety-seeking strategies. 3. What is acute stress disorder (ASD)? Give examples of at least four symptoms of both ASD and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). What characterizes the stressful event and the reaction of someone experiencing posttraumatic stress disorder? Do you think that ASD and PTSD represent real psychiatric problems, or are they just a way to pathologize normal stress responses? Support your position with examples. Answer: Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) is a psychological condition that develops in response to exposure to a traumatic event. It shares similarities with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) but differs in terms of symptom duration and onset. Examples of symptoms of ASD: 1. Intrusive memories or flashbacks of the traumatic event. 2. Avoidance of reminders or triggers associated with the trauma. 3. Negative changes in mood or cognition related to the trauma. 4. Hyperarousal or heightened reactivity (e.g., hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response). Examples of symptoms of PTSD: 1. Intrusive thoughts, memories, or nightmares related to the trauma. 2. Avoidance of trauma-related stimuli or situations. 3. Negative alterations in mood or cognition (e.g., persistent negative beliefs about oneself or the world). 4. Alterations in arousal and reactivity (e.g., irritability, reckless or self-destructive behavior). Characteristics of the stressful event and the reaction of someone experiencing PTSD: The stressful event that precipitates ASD or PTSD is typically one that involves actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence, and evokes intense fear, helplessness, or horror. Examples include combat exposure, natural disasters, physical assault, or sexual abuse. Someone experiencing PTSD may exhibit symptoms such as emotional numbing, dissociation, or impaired social and occupational functioning as a result of the trauma. Regarding whether ASD and PTSD represent real psychiatric problems or pathologize normal stress responses, it's important to consider the impact of trauma on individuals' functioning and well-being. While it's normal to experience stress reactions in response to traumatic events, ASD and PTSD involve symptoms that significantly impair daily functioning and persist beyond what is considered a typical stress response. For example, individuals with PTSD may experience debilitating flashbacks or avoidance behaviors that interfere with their ability to work, maintain relationships, or engage in daily activities. 4. Distinguish between major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. How are they similar? How are they different? Answer: Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) and Bipolar Disorder are both mood disorders but differ in the nature and pattern of mood disturbances. Similarities: • Both disorders involve disturbances in mood, energy, and functioning that significantly impair daily life. • Symptoms of both disorders can include depressed mood, loss of interest or pleasure in activities, changes in appetite or weight, sleep disturbances, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, and thoughts of death or suicide. • Both disorders can lead to significant distress and impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning. Differences: • Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) is characterized by episodes of persistent and pervasive sadness or loss of interest, lasting for at least two weeks. Individuals with MDD typically experience depressive episodes without periods of mania or hypomania. • Bipolar Disorder involves episodes of both depression and mania or hypomania. Manic episodes are characterized by abnormally elevated mood, increased energy or activity, racing thoughts, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep. Hypomanic episodes are similar to manic episodes but less severe in intensity and duration. Overall, the key distinction between the two disorders lies in the presence or absence of manic or hypomanic episodes. While MDD is characterized by recurrent depressive episodes without mania, bipolar disorder involves cycles of both depressive and manic/hypomanic episodes. 5. What are dissociative disorders? Explain dissociative identity disorder. Discuss the controversy surrounding this diagnosis. Answer: Dissociative disorders are a group of psychological conditions characterized by disruptions or discontinuities in consciousness, memory, identity, or perception of the environment. Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) is one such disorder. Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID): • DID involves the presence of two or more distinct personality states or identity states, each with its own way of perceiving and interacting with the world. • Individuals with DID may experience amnesia between identity states and may exhibit behaviors, mannerisms, or preferences specific to each identity. 6. Can you think of any legal or logistical problems that might be associated with an individual experiencing an extended case of dissociative fugue? How would you attempt to resolve those problems if you were an authority or treating professional dealing with such clients? Answer: Individuals experiencing an extended case of dissociative fugue may encounter several legal or logistical problems: 1. Identity Issues: The individual may assume a new identity and may have difficulty proving their true identity, leading to challenges in accessing essential documents (e.g., identification, financial records). 2. Legal Obligations: The individual may fail to fulfill legal obligations such as paying bills, attending court hearings, or fulfilling work responsibilities, which could result in legal consequences such as financial penalties or loss of employment. 3. Personal Relationships: Extended dissociative fugue episodes may strain personal relationships if loved ones are unaware of the individual's whereabouts or condition, leading to misunderstandings, conflict, or abandonment. 4. Safety Concerns: There may be safety concerns if the individual engages in risky behaviors or finds themselves in dangerous situations while in a fugue state, such as traveling to unfamiliar locations or engaging in reckless activities. As an authority or treating professional dealing with individuals experiencing extended dissociative fugue, I would employ several strategies to address the legal and logistical problems: 1. Establishing Identity: Work with the individual and their support network to gather evidence and documentation to establish their true identity. This may involve contacting family members, reviewing medical records, or collaborating with law enforcement agencies. 2. Legal Support: Provide legal assistance and advocacy to help the individual navigate any legal issues or obligations they may face as a result of their dissociative fugue, such as obtaining legal representation or negotiating with creditors or employers. 3. Psychoeducation: Educate the individual and their support system about dissociative fugue and its potential impact on legal and logistical matters. Provide information about coping strategies, safety precautions, and resources available for support. 4. Treatment: Offer therapeutic interventions, such as psychotherapy (e.g., cognitive-behavioral therapy, dialectical behavior therapy) or medication management, to address underlying trauma and facilitate integration of dissociated experiences, reducing the likelihood of future fugue episodes. 5. Collaborative Care: Work collaboratively with other professionals involved in the individual's care, including mental health professionals, medical providers, social workers, and legal advisors, to ensure comprehensive support and coordination of services. By addressing legal and logistical challenges proactively and providing appropriate support and interventions, individuals experiencing extended dissociative fugue can receive the assistance they need to navigate these difficulties and regain stability in their lives. Chapter 14 - Quick Quiz 1 1. During the Renaissance, abnormal behavior was believed to result from ______. a) witchcraft b) demon possession c) disease organisms d) body fluid imbalance Answer: a Explanation: The previous eras’ belief in demonic possession gave way to the belief in witchcraft during the Renaissance. 2. Any behavior that does not allow a person to function within or adapt to the stresses and everyday demands of life is considered __________. a) deviant b) uncomfortable c) rare d) maladaptive Answer: d Explanation: Behavior is considered maladaptive if it does not allow a person to functionor adapt to the stresses and everyday demands of life. 3. According to the behaviorists, disordered behavior is a result of _____________. a) repressed thoughts and memories that try to resurface b) a set of learned responses c) illogical thinking patterns d) chemical imbalances and brain damage Answer: b Explanation: The behaviorists believe disordered behavior is a result of a set of learned responses. 4. The primary purpose of the DSM-5 is to _____. a) help psychologists assess only normal behavior b) keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum c) help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders d) describe the causes of common physiological disorders Answer: c Explanation: The DSM-5 helps psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders. 5. How many axes of data are considered in a diagnosis based on the DSM-5? a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: a Explanation: The DSM-5 uses a single axis. 6. Which of the following is an anxiety disorder? a) bipolar disorder b) conversion disorder c) phobic disorder d) schizophrenia Answer: c Explanation: Phobic disorder is an anxiety disorder. 7. Severe depression that comes on suddenly and seems to have no external cause is called ______. a) dysthymia b) bipolar disorder c) hypomania d) major depressive disorder Answer: d Explanation: Major depressive disorder is severe and sometimes comes on suddenly. 8. In which disorder does a person seem to experience at least two or more distinct personalities existing in one body? a) schizophrenia b) panic disorder c) depersonalization d) dissociative identity disorder Answer: d Explanation: People with dissociative identity disorder show signs of having at least two distinct personalities. 9. What is the best way to describe the positive symptoms of schizophrenia? a) clearly identifiable symptoms b) a decrease in normal functioning c) an excess or distortion of normal functions d) symptoms that psychologists are certain are occurring Answer: c Explanation: Positive symptoms are the result of an excess or distortion of normal functions. 10. Kevin shows a pattern of instability in his relationships, self-image, and feelings. As such, he most likely has ________ personality disorder. a) antisocial b) borderline c) dependent d) avoidant Answer: b Explanation: These are several of the symptoms of borderline personality disorder. Chapter 14 - Quick Quiz 2 1. Joanna is experiencing severe anxiety. Her psychiatrist attributes her disorder to a chemical imbalance. Her psychiatrist is using the ___________ of abnormality. a) psychoanalytic model b) intrapersonal model c) biological model d) behavioral model Answer: c Explanation: The biological model proposes that psychological disorders have physiological causes. 2. Which of the following cultural variations is most commonly seen in Latin America? a) ataque de nervios b) koro c) anorexia nervosa d) amok Answer: a Explanation: This condition, which means “attack of nerves” in English, is seen as a form of an anxiety disorder in Latin American countries. 3. According to the biological perspective, generalized anxiety disorder is _________. a) a danger signal that repressed conflicts are threatening to surface b) a learned reaction c) the result of illogical, irrational thought processes d) linked to an imbalance in several neurotransmitters in the nervous system Answer: d Explanation: The biological perspective focuses on physiological causes for disorders. 4. The term affect is used by psychologists to refer to ______. a) thought b) emotion c) behavior d) intuition Answer: a Explanation: Affect refers to emotion. 5. Padma is extremely confident and feels that lately she needs very little sleep. In addition, she reports that her thoughts seem to be going fast, similar to watching three television shows at once. Padma most likely is experiencing ________. a) a manic episode b) a dysthymic episode c) a loss of mental control d) a psychotic break Answer: a Explanation: Enhanced self-esteem and energy, and a decreased need for sleep are classic symptoms of a manic episode. 6. As a serious dancer, Justine watches what she eats. She knows that she is underweight, but fears that if she starts eating more that she will get fat. In addition to a preoccupation with food she has also stopped menstruating. Her behaviors suggest that she might be suffering from ________. a) anorexia nervosa b) bulimia nervosa c) compulsive exercise d) phobic disorder Answer: a Explanation: These are several symptoms of anorexia nervosa. 7. Which of the following perspectives claims that shaping may play a big role in the development of some cases of dissociative identity disorder? a) behavioral b) humanistic c) biological d) psychoanalytic Answer: a Explanation: Behavioral psychologists emphasize shaping through positive and negative reinforcement as a factor in the development of some cases of dissociative identity disorder. 8. Shreen is diagnosed with schizophrenia. She believes that she is a powerful person who can save the world. Shreen is experiencing ______. a) delusions of persecution b) delusions of grandeur c) delusions of reference d) delusions of influence Answer: b Explanation: Delusions of grandeur are false beliefs in which people are convinced that they are powerful enough to save the world. 9. Sal has decreased levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine in his frontal lobe areas. Which disorder might he be at risk of experiencing? a) antisocial personality disorder b) agoraphobia c) schizophrenia d) dissociative fugue Answer: c Explanation: Schizophrenia is associated with dopamine dysfunction, and lower levels of dopamine production have been found in the prefrontal cortex. 10. People with ______ disorders have an excessively rigid, maladaptive pattern of behavior and ways of relating to others. a) personality b) somatoform c) affective d) schizophrenic Answer: a Explanation: People with personality disorders have a rigid and maladaptive pattern of behavior. Test Bank for Psychology: Dsm 5 Saundra K. Ciccarelli, J. Noland White 9780205986378