Preview (15 of 51 pages)

Chapter 13 Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is true of social cognition in social psychology? A. It refers to the way people select social information. B. It refers to the way people interpret social information. C. It refers to the way people remember social information. D. All of these. Answer: D 2. Professor Jenkins conducts research on how the behavior of candidates in interviews differs when they are interviewed by one interviewer and when they are interviewed by a panel of interviewers. His area of interest fits best into the field of _____ psychology. A. neurological B. cognitive C. social D. abnormal Answer: C 3. The processes by which individuals use social stimuli to form impressions of others is known as _____. A. self-perception B. cognitive dissonance C. person perception D. effort justification Answer: C 4. Chuck is a highly ambitious graduate student who does not intend to let anything get in the way of excelling in each of his classes and graduating at the top of his class. When he learns that the professor for one of his course modules is an attractive young woman, he opts for a different module. He believes that attractive women cannot be good educators. Chuck’s attitude toward attractive women best illustrates: A. altruism. B. a stereotype. C. affirmative action. D. the false consensus effect. Answer: B 5. Hiroko’s fifth-grade teacher was disappointed when he performed poorly in math. She believes that Asian students are academically excellent and never perform poorly. In this scenario, the teacher’s beliefs best illustrate: A. polarization. B. stereotyping. C. altruism. D. deindividuation. Answer: B 6. Mr. and Mrs. Lee warn their new babysitter that their son, Dennis, is very aggressive and mischievous and must be strictly disciplined. As a result, Alison is over-strict with Dennis and does not let him out of her sight. This facilitates Dennis’ aggressive and mischievous behavior. This scenario best illustrates: A. the self-fulfilling prophecy. B. altruism. C. the false-consensus effect. D. self-objectification. Answer: A 7. Research in psychology suggests that many attractive people possess a number of positive characteristics. One explanation for this is that expectations cause individuals to act in ways that serve to make their expectations about attractive people come true. This is known as the _____. A. fundamental attribution error B. false consensus effect C. self-serving bias D. self-fulfilling prophecy Answer: D 8. Billy is a third-grade student with a reputation for bullying his classmates. Billy is punished by his teacher even when he unknowingly hurts someone or unintentionally makes a mistake. When Billy tries to explain his innocence to his teacher, she refuses to believe him because he has always been a “troublemaker.” In this scenario, Billy’s teacher is encouraging Billy’s indiscipline through the _____. A. bystander effect B. door-in-the-face technique C. self-fulfilling prophecy D. false consensus effect Answer: C 9. In the context of research in the area of physical attractiveness, which of the following faces will most likely be rated as most attractive? A. A face in which the distinctive features have been digitally enhanced B. A face with an unusually small forehead and unusually large lips C. A round face with unusually large eyes D. A composite of multiple faces that have been digitally blended to produce an “average” face Answer: D 10. The process by which individuals come to understand the causes of others’ behavior and form an impression of them as individuals is called _____. A. attribution B. altruism C. egoism D. ethnocentrism Answer: A 11. Maria believes that her roommate did not clean the dirty dishes last night because she was exhausted after an unusually busy day at work. Maria is explaining her roommate’s behavior through _____. A. internal attribution B. external attribution C. the bystander effect D. the false consensus effect Answer: B 12. Felicia tells her mother that she failed the biology test because her professor made the test too difficult. Felicia is attributing her performance to _____ factors. A. external B. intuitive C. stable D. controllable Answer: A 13. Joseph does exceptionally well in his math exam. Which of the following represents internal attribution as an explanation for Joseph’s good performance? A. His hard work B. An easy test C. His good luck D. A good teacher Answer: A 14. Eric is known for his calm temperament, but one day he yelled at his roommate for not doing the laundry. When asked, Eric said he had been fired from his job that morning. According to the attribution theory, Eric’s yelling can best be attributed to _____ causes. A. internal B. unstable C. predictable D. controllable Answer: B 15. Greg feels that he did poorly on his first job interview only because the interviewer did not like him. He knows that he will perform better at other interviews. According to the attribution theory, Greg is attributing his performance at the first interview to: A. internal factors. B. unstable factors. C. controllable factors. D. predictable factors. Answer: B 16. In the context of the attribution theory, which of the following best illustrates a stable cause of behavior? A. A company lays off 10 employees because of economic downturn. B. A woman, who loves children, breaks up with her boyfriend because he does not want children of his own. C. A college student is unhappy during the first semester because he is finding his classes difficult. D. A family is rendered homeless after a tornado destroys their home. Answer: B 17. Samantha studied all night for her history exam and felt well-prepared. However, she did not get to give the exam because the power went out in the school and the exam was rescheduled for a later date. In the context of the attribution theory, which of the following best describes why Samantha did not give her exam on the original date? A. Internal causes B. Stable causes C. Uncontrollable causes D. Positive causes Answer: C 18. Lauren is watching a live golf tournament on television and sees a golfer frown after he makes his shot. Lauren would make the fundamental attribution error if she assumed that the golfer: A. just missed a putt. B. has a volatile personality. C. was thrown off by the flash of a camera. D. thought it looked like it was going to rain. Answer: B 19. Sheila is late for class. Assuming that she is the actor and her teacher is the observer, her teacher is most likely to attribute Sheila’s tardiness to: A. a faulty alarm clock. B. her lack of organizational skills. C. poor traffic. D. her parents letting her sleep late. Answer: B 20. Rachel’s new roommate, Berta, has not done laundry for an entire week. Her clothes are lying all over their room. This leads Rachel to assume that Berta is an untidy and undisciplined person. What Rachel does not know is that Berta is currently taking finals and working 40 hours per week. In the context of social cognition, Rachel is primarily _____ to explain Berta’s behavior. A. using social comparison B. making a fundamental attribution error C. using the self-serving bias D. relying on the false consensus effect Answer: B 21. Kaylee is in her car at a traffic light waiting for the light to turn green. Just as it does, a man driving a red truck goes speeding past Kaylee and just about misses crashing into her car. Kaylee abuses him and thinks to herself that his license should be revoked. What Kaylee does not know is that the truck’s breaks have failed. In this scenario, Kaylee is demonstrating _____ while attempting to explain the man’s behavior. A. explicit racism B. the fundamental attribution error C. the mere exposure effect D. consensual validation Answer: B 22. Gerald, a high-school senior, sees another student stumble and drop her books in the hall. If Gerald makes the fundamental attribution error, how would he most likely explain the student’s behavior? A. She must have tripped over something. B. She is a clumsy person. C. She had too many books to carry. D. She was trying to get out of someone’s way. Answer: B 23. Joey and Phillip are high school students, in the same class. Joey imitates Phillip’s stammer in front of his friends and laughs. When none of his friends comment on his imitation, Joey assumes that they find Phillip’s stammer funny as well. This scenario best exemplifies the _____ effect. A. false consensus B. bystander C. group polarization D. mere exposure Answer: A 24. A very attractive woman walks by Henry and his friends while they are playing basketball. His friends begin to whistle at her, but Henry feels that it is demeaning for the woman and does not participate. According to the false consensus effect, Henry’s friends are most likely to think that: A. Henry is not interested in the girl. B. Henry did not find the girl attractive. C. Henry disapproves of their behavior. D. Henry feels the way they do. Answer: D 25. The _____ effect means individuals overestimating the degree to which other individuals think or act the way they do. A. mere exposure B. bystander C. group polarization D. false consensus Answer: D 26. Despite evidence to the contrary, Denise thinks she is smarter than most of the people in her class. Denise’s unfounded attitude about herself is an example of a(n): A. positive illusion. B. altruistic idea. C. fundamental attribution error. D. stereotype. Answer: A 27. Tommy hit the game-winning home run for his team. In the context of the self-serving bias, Tommy is the actor, and he is most likely to attribute his success to: A. his coach. B. his fans. C. luck. D. himself. Answer: D 28. When Karen does poorly on a weekly test, she blames it on the distractions she had at school that week. In this scenario, Karen is using the _____ to justify her performance on the test. A. mere exposure effect B. self-serving bias C. confirmation bias D. false consensus effect Answer: B 29. In a recent softball game, Cindy misplayed a ground ball, which was scored as an error, causing her team to lose the game. According to the self-serving bias, Cindy is likely to reason that she misplayed because: A. she is not a good player. B. of her low involvement in the game. C. she did not train well. D. of a bad bounce. Answer: D 30. In a basketball game, Jaquin made the winning shot and scored the maximum number of baskets. According to the self-serving bias, Jaquin is likely to attribute his victory to: A. his excellent skill in the game. B. his coach. C. his luck. D. the poor team spirit of the other team. Answer: A 31. If Cathy blames her history teacher for her poor performance on a history test she is engaging in: A. the self-serving bias. B. self-objectification. C. altruism. D. the false consensus effect. Answer: A 32. Mary is a very shy young woman. She wants to buy a dress to wear at a friend’s wedding. Mary tries on many dresses but does not buy any of them because she feels that they all will make her attract too much attention from the opposite sex. In this scenario, Mary is giving into the feeling of _____. A. altruism B. egoism C. self-objectification D. social contagion Answer: C 33. According to studies done in the area of self-objectification, which of the following statements is true? A. Women who feel objectified are more likely to reject sexism. B. Women who feel objectified are less likely to engage in social activism. C. Chronic feelings of objectification are associated with higher self-esteem. D. Chronic feelings of objectification are associated with lower levels of depression. Answer: B 34. Sally is very intelligent and has a great personality. However, she has always seen herself as unattractive and, as a result, is often depressed. Sally’s depression is most likely facilitated by feelings of: A. egoism. B. altruism. C. social contagion. D. self-objectification. Answer: D 35. According to research on stereotype threat, individuals should be especially concerned about tests of ability if they: A. ask for race or ethnic information before the test starts. B. include instructions that are long and complex. C. are administered by men and women from different racial or ethnic backgrounds. D. claim to be culturally or racially sensitive. Answer: A 36. Which of the following statements is true of stereotype threat? A. A person facing stereotype threat usually performs well in any test to prove he or she is better than what is indicated by the stereotype. B. A person who experiences stereotype threat is well aware of stereotypical expectations for him or her as a member of a group. C. In stereotype-relevant situations, a person experiences anxiety about exceeding the expectations of others. D. In stereotype-relevant situations, a person has the tendency to over-perform. Answer: B 37. Teresa asks herself whether she is as popular as Cathy. This question is an example of gaining self-knowledge through the process of: A. mere exposure. B. effort justification. C. reciprocity. D. social comparison. Answer: D 38. Which of the following statements is true of social comparison? A. When engaging in social comparison, people try to act like others and lose their true identity. B. Social comparison provides distinctive characteristics of a person and helps in building an identity. C. In downward social comparison, people consider themselves to be inferior and compare themselves to people superior to them. D. Social comparison is an individual’s fast-acting, self-fulfilling fear of being judged based on a negative stereotype about his or her group. Answer: B 39. The theory of social comparison was proposed by _____. A. Albert Bandura B. Leon Festinger C. Stanley Milgram D. Soloman Asch Answer: B 40. Eric gets a C on his science quiz, and rationalizes his performance by telling himself that he did not do too badly considering most of his friends got a D. In this scenario, Eric is making a(n) _____ social comparison. A. upward B. positive C. downward D. negative Answer: C 41. _____ are people’s opinions and beliefs about other people, objects, and ideas, and how they feel about the world. A. Attributions B. Traits C. Attitudes D. Skills Answer: C 42. According to studies over the past half-century, which of the following is a condition under which a person’s attitude will guide his or her actions? A. When the person shows a lack of awareness about the attitude B. When the person has a vested interest in the issue C. When the person has not practiced activities supporting the attitude D. When the person’s attitude is positive but weak Answer: B 43. An individual’s psychological discomfort caused by two inconsistent thoughts is known as: A. mere exposure B. egoism C. cognitive dissonance D. prejudice Answer: C 44. According to the cognitive dissonance theory, when attitudes and behavior conflict, individuals are most likely to reduce cognitive dissonance by: A. changing their attitudes to fit the behavior. B. moving on to a different task. C. ignoring the conflict. D. consulting others. Answer: A 45. Dan tells himself that even though smoking is injurious to health, he needs to smoke because he puts on too much weight if he stops, and that is worse for his health. In the context of social cognition, this justification best illustrates an attempt to reduce: A. the exposure effect. B. cognitive dissonance. C. self-objectification. D. the consensus effect. Answer: B 46. Millicent knows that she puts on weight whenever she eats cake, yet she bakes a cake every week. In the context of social cognition, Millicent will most likely experience _____. A. cognitive dissonance B. altruism C. effort justification D. egoism Answer: A 47. Gary’s mother tells him that he must complete his homework before he goes out to play. Gary does not like to disobey his mother but he really wants to go out and play. He convinces himself that his mother has been mean to him lately so he can disobey her just this one time without feeling guilty. Gary is trying to change his attitude to fit his behavior most likely to reduce the _____ he is experiencing. A. social contagion B. cognitive dissonance C. deindividuation D. egoism Answer: B 48. Chelsea is a chain smoker. She plans to stop smoking because she knows that smoking will harm her health. In this scenario, Chelsea is trying to change her behavior to fit her attitude, which will most likely reduce her _____. A. consensual validation B. cognitive dissonance C. prejudice D. egoism Answer: B 49. Hugh buys a new calculator for $125 from the Paper Mills stationery store. A week later, he sees an ad from another stationery store, Station Max, selling the same calculator for $65. Hugh feels guilty about having wasted so much money on the calculator but justifies his action by saying that Station Max items are always of poor quality. In the context of attitudes, Hugh’s statement reflects an attempt to reduce his: A. cognitive dissonance. B. self-perception. C. informational influence. D. absentmindedness. Answer: A 50. _____ means coming up with a rationale for the amount of work a person puts into getting something, typically by increasing the value associated with things that are difficult to attain. A. Conceptual validation B. Effort justification C. Informational social influence D. Self-perception Answer: B 51. In the context of attitudes, _____ theory contends that behaviors can influence attitudes. A. self-perception B. self-efficacy C. social identity D. social comparison Answer: A 52. When Cameron was asked if he liked animated movies, he said yes. According to the self-perception theory, which of the following statements is the best explanation for Cameron’s answer? A. Cameron likes animated movies, because his friends like them. B. Cameron has a positive attitude toward animated movies, so he likes them. C. Cameron likes animated movies because he has watched and enjoyed all of them. D. Cameron has been told that he likes animated movies so he believes it to be true. Answer: C 53. Which of the following is proposed by the self-perception theory? A. Behavior can change and influence the attitude of a person. B. A person’s attitude is always constant while the behavior can change. C. Individuals make inferences about their behavior by assessing their attitude. D. Individuals’ attitudes determine their behavior. Answer: A 54. Avery returns home after being away for one year. When she sees her dog again, she is overcome with happiness and hugs him. Based on her reaction, she determines that she must like him more than she thought she did before she left home. Her opinion about her dog can be best explained with the help of the _____ theory of attitudes. A. self-efficacy B. social contagion C. self-perception D. social facilitation Answer: C 55. According to the self-perception theory of attitudes, if people are not sure how they feel about something, what should they do? A. They should compare themselves to others. B. They should assess their emotions. C. They should ask a friend. D. They should consider their behavior. Answer: D 56. Which of the following is a similarity between the cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory? A. Both theories suggest that behavior can change attitudes. B. Both theories suggest that when attitude changes, behavior changes too. C. Both theories suggest that attitude remains constant while behavior changes. D. Both theories suggest that individuals should change their behavior to fit their attitude. Answer: A 57. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that increases the credibility of a communicator and helps the communicator persuade other people? A. Similarity B. Prejudice C. Expertise D. Attractiveness Answer: B 58. In the context of persuasion, attempts at persuasion may be more difficult when: A. the audience has a weak attitude. B. the audience is younger. C. a source has a vested interest in the message. D. a source has too much power. Answer: C 59. According to Carl Hovland, which of the following is NOT an element of persuasion? A. Communicator B. Audience C. Intention D. Message Answer: C 60. Professor Green has to make an important presentation to his company’s board members. He is struggling to choose between a PowerPoint presentation and a short video to get his point across. Which element of persuasion is the professor struggling with? A. Communicator B. Audience C. Medium D. Message Answer: C 61. Which of the following is generally considered to be a more powerful medium for changing attitudes in the context of persuasion? A. Television B. A blog C. A social networking site D. Newspaper Answer: A 62. Jeremy is struggling with whether the presentation he makes should consist of strong logical arguments, or should be short with elements of surprise in it. In the context of the elements of persuasion, which element is Jeremy struggling with? A. Communicator B. Target C. Medium D. Message Answer: D 63. Allison is attending a seminar where a presenter is attempting to persuade people to make a rather risky but potentially profitable financial investment. The presenter provides a rational and factual explanation for why the investment is profitable, even though there are risks involved. Alison finds the presenter’s idea compelling and decides to invest. The way the presenter persuades Allison to invest exemplifies the: A. fundamental attribution error. B. cognitive dissonance theory. C. central route to persuasion. D. foot-in-the-door technique. Answer: C 64. Twelve-year-old Ryan’s father returns from work tired. Ryan wants his father to take him to his favorite movie, which starts in an hour. Which route of persuasion should Ryan attempt to obtain the highest rate of success? A. Central B. Peripheral C. Egotistic D. Altruistic Answer: B 65. Which of the following statements is true of the elaboration likelihood model of persuasion? A. The central route is effective when people lack the time or energy to think about the message. B. The central route works by engaging the audience thoughtfully with a sound, logical argument. C. The central route involves factors such as the source’s attractiveness or the emotional power of an appeal. D. The central route is often used by television advertisers to persuade the viewers into buying their products. Answer: B 66. Which of the following is a difference between the central and peripheral route to persuasion? A. The central route is effective when people have the ability and the motivation to pay attention, while the peripheral route is not. B. The central route involves factors like the source’s attractiveness and emotional power, while the peripheral route involves logical arguments. C. The central route uses short presentations that require very little time, while the peripheral route uses detailed presentations. D. The central route is more often used by television advertisers as compared to the peripheral route. Answer: A 67. The advertising committee for a politician is going door-to-door and asking people to place a big, unattractive election sign on their lawns. Assuming that most people will refuse at first, the advertising committee is prepared to ask them to place a small sign on their lawns, which is the actual plan. Which strategy for successful persuasion is the advertising committee using in this scenario? A. The foot-in-the-door strategy B. The door-in-the-face strategy C. The inoculation technique D. The negative appeal approach Answer: B 68. Samuel walks up to Katie and asks if she would be willing to wear a ribbon to show support for his cause. Though the ribbon is unattractive, it is small, so Katie agrees to wear it. Once Katie has agreed to this request, Samuel asks her if she would be willing to make a donation of $15 to his cause. Katie cannot refuse because she feels that Samuel is relying on her. In the context of persuasion, this scenario best demonstrates the _____ technique. A. door-in-the-face B. inoculation C. deindividuation D. foot-in-the-door Answer: D 69. In the context of persuasion strategies, the door-in-the-face technique involves: A. making a smaller request at the beginning. B. relying on the notion that the person doing the persuading has formed a relationship with the person being persuaded. C. making the biggest pitch first. D. avoiding the notion that the person being persuaded feels a sense of obligation to the person doing the persuading. Answer: C 70. _____ helps individuals to resist persuasion. A. Conformity B. Inoculation C. Proximity D. Groupthink Answer: B 71. Random acts of kindness, such as helping a visually impaired person cross the street, are examples of _____. A. obedience behaviors B. inoculation C. discrimination D. prosocial behaviors Answer: D 72. In the context of prosocial behaviors, which of the following is an accurate description of egoism? A. Egoism involves helping others so that they may return the favor. B. Egoism involves helping another person to avoid guilt. C. Egoism involves helping another in order to appear powerful. D. All of these. Answer: D 73. If Jennifer is ready to donate one of her kidneys to anybody who needs it, she is demonstrating _____ behavior. A. obedient B. persuasive C. altruistic D. stereotypical Answer: C 74. Paula tumbles down the steps and twists her ankle. Parker, a passerby, stops to help Paula. He supports her to her car and drives her to the hospital so that she gets immediate treatment. Once she is with the doctor, he leaves, leaving Paula with no way to contact him. In the context of prosocial behavior, Parker has best demonstrated _____. A. egoism B. altruism C. reciprocity D. prejudice Answer: B 75. Caroline has volunteered to work with the underprivileged children who are participants in her professor’s literacy project. She is hoping that her professor will take this into consideration when calculating her grades. In this scenario, Caroline is demonstrating an expectation of _____. A. prejudice B. reciprocity C. false consensus D. inoculation Answer: B 76. Betty sent Christmas cards to everyone in her address book and received Christmas cards in return from most of the recipients. This result is consistent with the social behavior known as: A. reciprocity. B. inoculation. C. altruism. D. ethnocentrism. Answer: A 77. Which of the following statements is true of the biological factors associated with prosocial behavior? A. People having low levels of serotonin exhibit prosocial behavior. B. The hypothalamus is associated with nurturing parental behaviors. C. Dopamine receptors in the brain are associated with prosocial behavior. D. When a person feels compassion for others, areas of the cerebellum are activated. Answer: C 78. In the context of social behavior, _____ is the key to altruism. A. sympathy B. empathy C. selfishness D. prejudice Answer: B 79. _____ is the personality trait most strongly associated with prosocial behaviors. A. Prejudice B. Extraversion C. Egoism D. Agreeableness Answer: D 80. Which of the following is true of agreeableness in the context of prosocial behavior? A. It has no association with brain structures. B. It is the personality trait that is least associated with prosocial behavior. C. It is related to greater volume in the posterior cingulate cortex. D. It is independent of the trait of kindness. Answer: C 81. In the context of social behavior, which of the following best explains why the bystander effect occurs? A. People tend to look to the behavior of others for cues about what to do. B. People wait for others to offer help. C. When witnesses are present, there is a diffusion of responsibility. D. All of these. Answer: D 82. Which of the following behaviors is an example of aggression? A. Billy kicks Shana in the shin. B. Sally shouts at Franco. C. Hillary calls Minnie a bad name. D. All of these. Answer: D 83. If a person is demonstrating aggressive behavior, it is likely that he or she has low levels of _____ in the brain. A. dopamine B. serotonin C. norepinephrine D. testosterone Answer: B 84. The hormone that is typically implicated in aggressive behavior is _____. A. estrogen B. thyroxin C. testosterone D. oxytocin Answer: C 85. According to research on aggressive behavior, which of the following personality factors is mostly associated with aggression? A. Low levels of hostility B. Low levels of irritability C. Low levels of neuroticism D. Low levels of conscientiousness Answer: D 86. Which of the following statements is true of the frustration-aggression hypothesis? A. It states that besides frustration, no other experiences can cause aggression. B. It states that frustration can lead to aggression or passivity. C. It states that aggression usually leads to obedience. D. It states that aggression stems from an attitude of altruism. Answer: B 87. John Dollard’s frustration-aggression hypothesis states that: A. frustration is caused by aggression. B. aggression is independent of frustration. C. frustration always leads to aggression. D. aggression might cause frustration. Answer: C 88. According to research done on aggressive behavior, when compared with adolescents who do not play violent video games, adolescents who play such games are: A. more likely to engage in delinquent acts. B. more sensitive to real-life violence. C. less likely to engage in aggressive behaviors. D. more likely to be sensitive to the feelings of others. Answer: A 89. Which of the following statements best defines conformity? A. A change in a person’s behavior to coincide more closely with a group standard B. Behavior that resists the explicit demands of an individual in authority C. The ability of a person to overcome a social influence D. Unselfish interest in helping another person Answer: A 90. Several of Sheldon’s friends suggest that the new girl in their class is very pretty. Sheldon does not think that she is pretty. If Sheldon is exhibiting conformity, he will probably: A. tell his friends that he did not get a good look at her. B. disagree with his friends and say that she is not very pretty. C. agree with his friends and say that she is very pretty. D. ignore his friends’ comments. Answer: C 91. Lily and her classmates are asked to write an essay on what they want to be when they are older. Although Lily wants to be a florist, she does not write about it. Instead, she writes about wanting to be a doctor because most of her friends want to be doctors. In the context of social influence, Lily is best exhibiting _____. A. conformity B. obedience C. reactance D. altruism Answer: A 92. In the context of social influence, Solomon Asch’s experiment demonstrates _____. A. conformity B. obedience C. reactance D. altruism Answer: A 93. In the context of psychological factors in conformity, which of the following best describes informational social influence? A. It refers to the influence people have on an individual because the individual wants to be right. B. It refers to how people resist authority when they feel their authority is being threatened. C. It refers to the influence people have on an individual because the individual wants them to like him or her. D. It refers to the focused interest that some individuals have in influencing others. Answer: A 94. Joyce has the potential to be an honor student. However, she frustrates her teachers because of her actions. Rather than using her skills to excel, she tends to hide her intellectual abilities to act more like the students she is friends with. She sometimes answers questions incorrectly just to be more like her friends. In the context of the key aspects of social influence, which of the following perspectives explains Joyce’s behavior most accurately? A. Informational social influence B. Prejudice C. Defense mechanism D. Normative social influence Answer: D 95. Which of the following cultural factors is most likely to increase conformity? A. An individualistic culture B. A collectivist culture C. Inoculation D. Ethnocentrism Answer: B 96. Stanley Milgram’s experiment demonstrated the effect of _____. A. reactance B. obedience C. conformity D. kindness Answer: B 97. Which of the following conclusions was drawn from the Stanford prison experiment conducted by Zimbardo? A. Good people can never act evil. B. People are more likely to be evil when personal responsibility is removed. C. Bad people will act evil regardless of the situation. D. Authority forces people to act evil. Answer: B 98. _____ refers to an individual’s motivation to reject attempts to be controlled. A. Obedience B. Conformity C. Reactance D. Aggression Answer: C 99. In the context of group influence, _____ occurs when being part of a group reduces personal identity and erodes the sense of personal responsibility. A. inoculation B. group polarization C. social facilitation D. deindividuation Answer: D 100. June is usually very quiet, but she recently discovered a different side of herself. She was at the Mardi Gras and found herself swept up in the festivities, doing the things that the other party-goers were doing. These were not behaviors that she would have ever considered engaging in on her own. Social psychologists would most likely attribute June’s behavior to: A. inoculation. B. social loafing. C. deindividuation. D. the bystander effect. Answer: C 101. One explanation for the effects of deindividuation in groups is that groups: A. make people more inhibited. B. reduce the diffusion of responsibility. C. give people anonymity. D. increase personal identity. Answer: C 102. Jasmine believes that she is a poor basketball player, yet she plays with her friends whenever they ask her. Jasmine claims that when she is with her friends she feels like a different person and can play much better than when she practices on her own. Jasmine’s change in ability when she is with her friends can best be attributed to the group influence phenomenon known as _____. A. social facilitation B. deindividuation C. social loafing D. risky shift Answer: A 103. Mickey is a pop star. His fans observe that his live stage performances are better than his studio recorded songs. Mickey explains that he performs better on a live stage because the presence of the audience increases his enthusiasm to perform. Mickey’s improved performance in the presence of an audience best illustrates the concept of: A. social contagion. B. social facilitation. C. groupthink. D. deindividuation. Answer: B 104. A bicyclist claims that bicycle racing times would be faster if individuals raced in groups, because the knowledge of being in a group produces more energy to perform better. The bicyclist’s claim is based on the concept of: A. social loafing. B. cognitive dissonance. C. groupthink. D. social facilitation. Answer: D 105. Six people are competing in a tug-of-war competition. First, they compete as individuals, and then they compete as a team. It is observed that when they are competing as a team their combined effort level is less than the sum of their individual efforts. In the context of group influence, this reduction in effort when competing as a team is most likely due to the effect of: A. obedience. B. conformity. C. social loafing. D. social facilitation. Answer: C 106. The tendency of each person in a group to exert less effort in the group because of reduced accountability is known as _____. A. obedience. B. conformity. C. social loafing. D. social facilitation. Answer: C 107. Dr. McCall found that student performance was poor when students worked in groups compared to when each student worked on an individual project. In the context of group influence, this difference in performance can be best explained with the concept of: A. inoculation. B. social loafing. C. mere exposure effect. D. group polarization. Answer: B 108. Which of the following is the best way to decrease social loafing? A. Increase the size of the group. B. Make the group’s task less attractive. C. Make each individual’s contributions more unique. D. Intensify the evaluation of individuals’ contributions. Answer: C 109. Risky shift and group polarization are aspects of _____. A. social contagion B. group performance C. group decision making D. deindividuation Answer: C 110. Which of the following statements is true of the concept of risky shift? A. It is the tendency to shift to a group that makes less risky decisions. B. It is the tendency for a group decision to be riskier than the average decision made by the individual group members. C. It refers to a person’s loss of personal identity when he or she becomes a part of a group. D. It refers to each person’s tendency to exert less effort in a group because of reduced accountability for individual effort. Answer: B 111. In the context of group decision making, the term risky shift is used to describe the tendency to: A. make big decisions quickly. B. make riskier decisions when a person is younger. C. endorse more conservative decisions when they are related to work environment. D. endorse riskier decisions when it is a group rather than a personal decision. Answer: D 112. Madison and her friends have never been on a rollercoaster because they are afraid. On the school trip to Disney World however, they decide that if they get on the rollercoaster together, they will not be afraid. In the context of group decision making, their behavior best demonstrates: A. altruism. B. reactance. C. risky shift. D. prejudice. Answer: C 113. Katie, who is moderately liberal, attends a very liberal college. According to the group polarization effect, after four years at this college, Katie is likely to become: A. politically conservative. B. less interested in politics. C. more politically liberal. D. indifferent to social causes. Answer: C 114. The solidification and further strengthening of an individual’s position as a consequence of a group discussion or interaction is known as: A. groupthink. B. social loafing. C. the group polarization effect. D. the fundamental attribution error. Answer: C 115. _____ refers to the impaired group decision making that occurs when making the right decision is less important than maintaining group harmony. A. Informational social influence B. Social facilitation C. Groupthink D. Group polarization Answer: C 116. Michael is the new department head at his company. He expects everyone to agree with his restructuring plan for the department, and he publicly reprimands anyone who disagrees with his new policies. On the other hand, Michael praises department members for unanimity, cohesiveness, and harmony. In the context of group decision making, Michael is creating an atmosphere most conducive to: A. collectivism. B. groupthink. C. altruism. D. isolation. Answer: B 117. In the context of group decision making, which of the following is a symptom of groupthink? A. Willingness to hear all sides of an argument B. Underestimation of the power of a group C. Preference for accuracy over conformity D. Pressure for uniformity Answer: D 118. In the context of group decision making, groupthink can be prevented by: A. selecting an impartial leader. B. encouraging close-mindedness. C. isolating the group and members. D. excluding outside experts in a debate. Answer: A 119. Which of the following is true of majority and minority influence in a group? A. The majority influences group decision making only through informational influence. B. The majority influences group decision making only through normative influence. C. The minority in a group cannot win through informational pressure. D. The minority in a group cannot win through normative pressure. Answer: D 120. In the context of intergroup relations, which of the following theories best explains why individuals like to think of their group as an in-group? A. Cognitive dissonance theory B. Social identity theory C. Social exchange theory D. Self-perception theory Answer: B 121. Rob and Deandra are strong supporters of a football team, the Dallas Cowboys. Their self-esteem is greatly affected by the performance of the Cowboys. Which of the following theories best explains this scenario in the context of intergroup relations? A. The social identity theory B. The realistic conflict theory C. The social exchange theory D. The self-perception theory Answer: A 122. In a study based on Tajfel’s theory of social identity, Cathy is randomly assigned to Group A, and Sara is randomly assigned to Group B. When asked to award money to other study participants, both Cathy and Sara award money only to members of their own groups. This behavior is predicted by Tajfel’s theory and best exemplifies: A. in-group favoritism. B. ethnocentrism. C. cultural bias. D. group polarization. Answer: A 123. In the context of social identity, thinking that cultural out-groups are not only different but are worse than one’s own group is called: A. groupthink. B. ethnocentrism. C. enculturation. D. normative social influence. Answer: B 124. Ethnocentrism involves: A. asserting one’s own group’s dominance. B. accepting all ethnicities. C. resisting prejudice. D. being self-centered within a group. Answer: A 125. _____ is an unjustified negative attitude toward an individual based on the individual’s membership in a particular group. A. Groupthink B. Inoculation C. Deindividuation D. Prejudice Answer: D 126. Dymatrix Inc., a real estate firm that has been around for over 50 years, is recruiting personnel for its management positions. The senior management at Dymatrix interviews people from different ethnic backgrounds: Whites, Blacks, Hispanics, and others. Ultimately, the senior management hires only White candidates, even though some of the Black candidates have better qualifications. This apparent discrimination in the hiring process at Dymatrix is most likely facilitated by the attitude of: A. prejudice. B. egoism. C. empathy. D. altruism. Answer: A 127. Which of the following is the least likely reason that people develop prejudice? A. Competition between groups B. Cultural learning C. Limited information-processing abilities D. Inborn tendencies Answer: D 128. _____ is an unjustified negative or harmful action toward a member of a group simply because the person belongs to that group. A. Groupthink B. Discrimination C. Deindividuation D. Prejudice Answer: B 129. According to Gordon Allport, intergroup contact is NOT likely to reduce prejudice when group members _____. A. think that they are of equal status B. engage in competitive tasks C. feel that an authority figure sanctions their positive relationships D. believe that friendship might emerge from an interaction Answer: B 130. According to Gordon Allport, intergroup contact is likely to reduce prejudice when group members: A. engage in uncooperative tasks. B. think they are of unequal status. C. believe friendships can emerge from interaction. D. know that an authority figure is not present to monitor them. Answer: C 131. When groups of individuals work together on a shared goal, which then reduces tensions between the groups, it is known as: A. the mere exposure effect. B. effort justification. C. the investment model. D. task-oriented cooperation. Answer: D 132. In order to improve interactions among students from different ethnic backgrounds, a teacher would be best advised to use: A. a reward structure based on race. B. competition among students. C. group polarization. D. the jigsaw classroom. Answer: D 133. Susan drives by an unusually colorful Apartment building each day on her way to and from work. Initially, she does not think much of the structure and has a mild dislike for it. However, after several months of commuting, she starts to like the Apartment building and is even considering renting an Apartment there. This change in Susan’s feelings about the building best demonstrates: A. the social comparison effect. B. normative social influence. C. the mere exposure effect. D. informational social influence. Answer: C 134. Which of the following statements about attraction between people is true? A. The attitudes and behavior of others who are similar give rise to greater competitiveness. B. The more times a person encounters something, the less likely he or she is to like it. C. People tend to shy away from the unknown, which is why similarity facilitates attraction. D. People tend to approach people who are different from them because they believe differences are exciting. Answer: C 135. According to the concept of consensual validation in close relationships, a heterosexual young man is more likely to be attracted to: A. a girl from a completely different cultural background. B. a girl who has the same interests as him. C. a girl who is completely different from him. D. a girl he saw at the traffic signal. Answer: B 136. According to the concept of consensual validation in close relationships, Haley, a dog lover, is most likely attracted to Alex, because: A. he does not like dogs. B. he loves dogs. C. he is from a foreign country. D. he does not speak her language. Answer: B 137. In the context of close relationships, _____ best explains why people are attracted to others who are similar to them. A. the investment model B. consensual validation C. social comparison D. the social exchange theory Answer: B 138. Affectionate love is also called _____ love. A. passionate B. compassionate C. companionate D. romantic Answer: C 139. Which of the following is experienced in the initial stages of a close relationship? A. Passionate love B. Compassionate love C. Companionate love D. Affectionate love Answer: A 140. In the context of close relationships, which of the following statements is true of romantic love? A. It occurs during the latter part of a love relationship. B. It involves strong components of sexuality and infatuation. C. It is the natural result of companionate love. D. It involves individuals having a deep, caring affection for a person. Answer: B 141. In the context of close relationships, which of the following statements is true of companionate love? A. It has more romantic ingredients than passionate love. B. It occurs during the early part of a love relationship. C. It involves strong components of sexuality and infatuation. D. It involves having a deep, caring affection for the other person. Answer: D 142. According to the social exchange theory of close relationships, Peter and Berta are most likely to be happily married because: A. they go for vacations often. B. they find each other attractive. C. they have similar interests. D. they contribute equally to chores. Answer: D 143. Melissa and John have been happily married for 30 years because they have ensured that they have no opportunities to fight. Both of them have jobs so they contribute proportionately to the household income, and they equally share all other responsibilities. Melissa and John’s happy marriage can best be explained by the _____. A. social exchange theory B. social contagion theory C. social identity theory D. elaboration likelihood model Answer: A 144. The _____ of close relationships asserts that the partners in a relationship keep a mental balance sheet, tallying the pluses and minuses associated with each other. A. social exchange theory B. investment model C. social identity theory D. elaboration likelihood model Answer: A 145. According to the _____ theory, the success of a relationship is a function of how a person feels about the equity in his or her relationship. A. social identity B. social exchange C. social loafing D. social contagion Answer: B 146. _____ of close relationships examines the ways that commitment, contribution, and the availability of attractive alternative partners predict satisfaction and stability in relationships. A. The social exchange theory B. The investment model C. The social identity theory D. The availability heuristic model Answer: B 147. According to the investment model of close relationships, _____ a relationship most clearly predicts a willingness to sacrifice for a romantic partner. A. reciprocity in B. commitment to C. temporariness of D. tension in Answer: B 148. From the perspective of the investment model of close relationships, long-term relationships are most likely to continue when: A. one person is more committed to the relationship than the other person. B. both persons have invested less in the relationship. C. there are few tempting alternatives for the partners. D. one person has invested more in the relationship than the other person. Answer: C 149. According to research in the area of health and social psychology, who among the following is likely to have the earliest death? A. A person with a large family B. A chronically lonely person C. A married person D. A person with lot of friends Answer: B 150. According to research, which of the following statements is true of the impact of social ties on a person’s health? A. Married people have a shorter life span compared to single people. B. Social isolation has a lower mortality rate than smoking cigarettes. C. People who interact often with family members live longer than those who don’t. D. People with narrow social relationships live longer than those with diverse social networks. Answer: C Short Answer Questions 151. What is the fundamental attribution error? Explain with the help of an example. Answer: Student answers will vary. The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency of observers to overestimate the importance of internal traits and underestimate the importance of external factors when they explain an actor’s behavior. For example, Karen failed her math test because she was ill the previous night. Her friends assumed that she failed because she is bad in math. They failed to consider factors like her health. 152. Define and give an example of Leon Festinger’s cognitive dissonance theory. How can cognitive dissonance be reduced? Answer: Cognitive dissonance is the psychological discomfort (dissonance) caused by two inconsistent thoughts. According to the theory, people feel uneasy when they notice an inconsistency between what they believe and what they do, in other words, when there is an inconsistency between their attitudes and their behavior. When attitudes and behavior conflict, people can reduce cognitive dissonance in one of two ways: change their behavior to fit their attitudes or change their attitudes to fit their behavior. If a person believes in recycling but pitched a soda can, he or she might feel dissonance (“Wait, I believe in recycling, yet I just pitched that can”) and relieve that dissonance by telling himself or herself, “Recycling is not really that important.” Through cognitive dissonance, the person’s behavior changed his or her attitude. 153. Define and provide an example of persuasion using the central and the peripheral route. Answer: The central route to persuasion works by engaging someone thoughtfully with a sound, logical argument. For example, a salesperson trying to sell a product by explaining all its advantages and uses implements the central route. The peripheral route involves non-message factors such as the source’s credibility and attractiveness or emotional appeals. The peripheral route is effective when people are not paying close attention or do not have the time or energy to think about what the communicator is saying, for example, a television advertiser. 154. Discuss conformity in terms of informational social influence and normative social influence. Answer: Conformity is a change in a person’s behavior to coincide more closely with a group standard. Informational social influence refers to the influence other people have on individuals because the individuals want to be right. They are more likely to conform if they have confidence in their own judgment and if they perceive the group to be well informed. Normative social influence refers to the influence others have on individuals because the individuals want to be liked by them. Individuals might conform to be accepted into a desirable group. 155. Describe two social psychological effects that can be observed in the context of group performance. Answer: Social facilitation occurs when an individual’s performance improves because of the presence of others. Social facilitation, then, improves people’s performance on well-learned tasks. For new or difficult tasks, individuals might be best advised to work things out on their own before trying them in a group. Social loafing refers to each person’s tendency to exert less effort in a group because of reduced accountability for individual effort. The effect of social loafing is lowered group performance 156. In the context of social influence, explain why Sean may benefit from having friends around while giving a class presentation, but not while doing his calculus homework. Answer: Sean will benefit from having friends around while giving a class presentation because the presence of his friends will boost his confidence and help him perform better. This is known as social facilitation, which occurs when an individual’s performance improves because of the presence of others. Robert Zajonc (1965) argued that the presence of other individuals arouses people. The arousal produces energy and facilitates performance in groups. 157. A woman, who has mixed feelings about abortion, attended a rally supported by an anti-abortion group. After the rally, she decided that she would never consider having an abortion. Describe the concept that explains the woman’s reinforced decision after attending the rally. Answer: Group polarization effect explains why the woman made a stronger decision after attending the rally. The group polarization effect is the solidification and further strengthening of an individual’s position as a consequence of a group discussion or interaction. 158. Explain the social identity theory proposed by Henry Tajfel. Answer: Tajfel’s social identity theory states that people’s social identities are a crucial part of their self-image and a valuable source of positive feelings about themselves. To feel good about themselves, people need to feel good about the groups to which they belong. For this reason, individuals invariably think of the group to which they belong as an in-group, a group that has special value in comparison with other groups, called out-groups. To improve their self-image, they continually compare their in-groups with out-groups. In the process, they often focus more on the differences between the two groups than on their similarities. 159. Explain the concept of ethnocentrism. Answer: Ethnocentrism is the tendency to favor one’s own ethnic group over other groups. Ethnocentrism is not simply taking pride in one’s group; it involves asserting the group’s superiority over other groups. As such, ethnocentrism encourages in-group/out-group or we/they thinking. Consequently, ethnocentrism implies that ethnic out-groups are not just different; they are worse than one’s group. 160. In American society, it is socially unacceptable to admit to racial prejudice. Identify and describe a test that might allow social scientists to find out if this trend is due to a real change in social consciousness or is merely a form of expected social correctness? Answer: The Implicit Associations Test is used to detect racism at the implicit rather than explicit level. The test is designed to detect biases that make it easier to associate some social stimuli with positive rather than negative items. The test measures implicit forms of prejudice related to nonverbal aspects of interracial interactions. 161. Describe the main difference between prejudice and discrimination. Answer: Prejudice is an unjustified negative attitude toward an individual based on the individual’s membership in a particular group, while discrimination is an unjustified negative or harmful action toward a member of a group simply because the person belongs to that group. 162. Explain the concept of consensual validation in the context of attraction in close relationships. Answer: The concept of consensual validation explains why people are attracted to others who are similar to them. People’s own attitudes and behavior are supported when someone else’s attitudes and behavior are familiar, thus validating the individuals’ attitudes and behavior. 163. Explain the social exchange theory in the context of close relationships. Answer: Social exchange theory is based on the notion of social relationships as involving an exchange of goods, the objective of which is to minimize costs and maximize benefits. From the social exchange perspective, the most important predictor of a relationship’s success is equity—a feeling on the part of the individuals in the relationship that each is doing his or her “fair share.” Essentially, social exchange theory asserts that the partners keep a mental balance sheet, tallying the pluses and minuses associated with each other. 164. Describe the investment model of close relationships. Answer: The investment model examines the ways that commitment, investment, and the availability of attractive alternative partners predict satisfaction and stability in relationships. From the investment model perspective, long-term relationships are likely to continue when both partners are committed to the relationship and both have invested a great deal; in addition, relationships are more enduring when there are few tempting alternatives for the partners. 165. Explain what studies in psychology have revealed about social ties as variables in predicting health. Answer: A long list of studies has shown that social ties are an important, if not the most important variable in predicting health. For example, in a landmark study, social isolation had six times the effect on mortality rates that cigarette smoking had. Loneliness is linked with impaired physical health. Chronic loneliness can lead to an early death. Without a doubt, being connected to others is crucial to human survival. Having many different social ties may be especially important during difficult times. Individuals who participate in more diverse social networks—for example, having a close relationship with a partner; interacting with family members, friends, neighbors, and fellow workers; and belonging to social and religious groups—live longer than those with a narrower range of social relationships. True/False Questions 166. Effort justification is one type of dissonance reduction. Answer: True 167. Egoism refers to helping another person to receive direct or indirect benefits. Answer: True 168. Agreeableness is the personality trait most strongly associated with prosocial behaviors. Answer: True 169. Sympathy is a person’s feeling of oneness with the emotional state of another. Answer: False 170. The bystander effect refers to the inability of witnesses to recall the circumstances of the accident or crime they witnessed. Answer: False 171. Humans have a specific aggression center in the brain. Answer: False 172. Children who play violent video games are less likely to engage in delinquent acts than those who do not play such games. Answer: False 173. In the context of social influence, conformity cannot be destructive. Answer: False 174. When people believe that they have no control over their own actions, they are more likely to demonstrate reactance. Answer: True 175. Feeling a reduction in one’s personal identity in a group is referred to as social contagion. Answer: False 176. Social contagion is demonstrated when someone coughs in a crowded room and then several other people cough as well. Answer: True 177. Social loafing is more likely to occur in larger groups than smaller groups. Answer: True 178. People do not always make riskier decisions in a group than when alone. Answer: True 179. Groupthink tends to lead to better decisions because of pooled resources and more information. Answer: False 180. To feel good about themselves, people need to feel good about the groups to which they belong. Answer: True 181. Ethnocentrism is not simply taking pride in one’s group Answer: True 182. The tendency to favor one’s own group over other groups is called prejudice. Answer: False 183. In a jigsaw classroom, educators overlook the ethnic/racial composition of their classes. Answer: False 184. In the context of close relationships, proximity or physical closeness is not a strong predictor of attraction. Answer: False 185. Experiencing loneliness at the beginning of one’s college career is quite common and normal. Answer: True Test Bank for The Science of Psychology: An Appreciative View Laura A. King 9780078035401, 9781260500523, 9780073532066, 9781259255533

Document Details

Related Documents

person
Sophia Martinez View profile
Close

Send listing report

highlight_off

You already reported this listing

The report is private and won't be shared with the owner

rotate_right
Close
rotate_right
Close

Send Message

image
Close

My favorites

image
Close

Application Form

image
Notifications visibility rotate_right Clear all Close close
image
image
arrow_left
arrow_right