CHAPTER 2: Sexual Anatomy
1. The uterus was once perceived to be unclean and poisonous, able to wander through the
woman’s body causing illness and even suffocation. This condition was referred to as
_______.
a. cervical cancer
b. premenstrual syndrome
c. menopause
d. hysteria
Answer: D
Rationale:
Prior to the 19th century, it was considered shameful to discuss human sexual anatomy, and
what passed for sex education was based on inaccurate information. The above is an example
of the kind of misguided beliefs that were held at the time.
2. The vagina was once perceived to be _______.
a. an internal scrotum
b. a collection of seven cells
c. an inwardly inverted penile foreskin
d. retained testicles
Answer: C
Rationale:
Before the 19th century, discussions of human sexual anatomy were considered inappropriate
because the belief was that such subjects might excite people to engage in “impure” acts. The
reluctance to discuss human sexual anatomy, coupled with the abundance of inaccurate
information, allowed such misguided beliefs, such as the one above, to become widely
accepted.
3. The penis is responsible for _______.
a. ejaculating semen and transporting urine
b. producing semen and storing testosterone
c. housing the testicles and storing semen
d. secreting testosterone and triggering ejaculation
Answer: A
Rationale:
The penis has two functions: to ejaculate semen and to transport urine from the inside of the
body to the outside.
4. If Abe is like most men, the part of his penis that is very sensitive to sexual stimulation is
_______.
a. the penile glans
b. corpora cavernosa
c. the underside of the scrotum
d. the epididymis
Answer: A
Rationale:
The penile glans, or the tip of the penis, is an especially sensitive area of the male organ, and
typically must be stimulated for most men to reach orgasm.
5. If Zach is like most men, the raised ridge at the base of the penile glans, called the _______
is somewhat more sexually sensitive than the rest of the tip of the penis.
a. penile shaft
b. corona
c. urethra
d. frenulum
Answer: B
Rationale:
Most men report that the corona is somewhat more sexually sensitive than the rest of the tip
of the penis.
6. The purpose of the _______ is to allow for expansion during erection.
a. penile glans
b. foreskin
c. penile shaft
d. corona
Answer: C
Rationale:
The skin on the penile shaft is loose so that it can expand when a man experiences an
erection.
7. Rigidity of the penis resulting from an inflow of blood during sexual arousal is referred to
as _______.
a. arousal
b. frenulum
c. circumcision
d. erection
Answer: D
Rationale:
During sexual arousal, both men and women experience changes in blood flow. As the flow
of blood to the penis and to the clitoris increases, both structures become rigid.
8. Male circumcision involves removal of the _______ that covers the glans of the penis.
a. foreskin
b. frenulum
c. corpora cavernosa
d. corona
Answer: A
Rationale:
All males are born with skin covering the penile glans, called the foreskin. The foreskin is the
largest portion of skin covering the penis, and it is this skin that is removed during
circumcision
9. Bart is experiencing an erection. Which parts of his penis are engorged with blood?
a. urethra and frenulum
b. corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum
c. urethra and corpora cavernosa
d. frenulum and corpus spongiosum
Answer: B
Rationale:
The penis consists of three spongy, cavernous tubes running along its length. The two tubes
on the top side of the penis are the corpora cavernosa, and the third tube, which runs along
the underside of the penis, is the corpus spongiosum. During sexual arousal, these three tubes
become engorged with blood, which results in a penile erection.
10. In men, the purpose of the _______ is to carry semen and urine from the inside to the
outside of the body.
a. frenulum
b. corpus spongiosum
c. urethra
d. corona
Answer: C
Rationale:
The urethra is the tube that runs the length of the penis and into the body, and transports
semen or urine to the outside of the body.
11. Research about male circumcision reveals that _______.
a. the glans of a circumcised penis is more sensitive to sexual stimulation than the glans of an
intact penis
b. the practice of circumcision is on the rise in the United States today
c. the differences between circumcised and intact males in rates of urinary tract infections,
penile irritations, and penile cancer are small or nonexistent
d. there is medical justification for circumcision of newborn males
Answer: C
Rationale:
Routine circumcision of male babies is still a controversial topic in the United States, and the
majority of circumcisions have been performed for perceived health reasons. Prior to 1980, it
was widely held that intact males were more prone to certain diseases, such as UTIs, penile
irritations, and penile cancer. Research has since indicated that in regard to the abovementioned health issues, there is little, if any, difference between circumcised and
uncircumcised males.
12. Which of the following statements is a myth concerning penis size?
a. A small flaccid or non-erect penis predicts a small erect penis.
b. Most partners of men don’t care or think very much about penis size.
c. Penis size is not related to overall build, height, or nose size.
d. Exercising the penis does not cause an increase in size.
Answer: A
Rationale:
While myths about penis size abound, many people would be surprised to learn that penises
are more similar in size than they are different. One such myth is that a small flaccid penis
predicts a small erect penis. The truth is that smaller flaccid penises tend to grow more than
larger flaccid penises upon erection.
13. The function of the scrotum is to _______.
a. support each testicle and encase the vas deferens
b. house and protect the testicles
c. produce sperm cells for reproduction
d. transport mature sperm cells during ejaculation
Answer: B
Rationale:
The scrotum is a pouch of two layers of skin that hangs below and behind the penis. The
testicles are located inside the pouch; this arrangement not only protects the testicles, but it
also provides the optimal conditions to produce sperm cells.
14. The _______ support each testicle and encases the vas deferens, nerves, and muscles.
a. scrotum
b. prostate gland
c. seminiferous tubules
d. spermatic cords
Answer: D
Rationale:
The scrotum and testicles move up and down depending on specific situations, especially
external temperature. They are able to move because of two small muscles, called the
spermatic cords.
15. How can frequent hot baths affect a man’s fertility?
a. It keeps the testicles close to the man’s body thereby increasing sperm production.
b. It decreases the temperature in the scrotum which decreases sperm production.
c. It raises the temperature in the scrotum which decreases sperm production.
d. It creates the ideal temperature for sperm production.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The testicles require a temperature that is slightly lower than normal body temperature to
maximize the production of sperm cells. Frequent hot baths can cause the scrotal skin to heat
up which can, in turn, inhibit the production of sperm cells.
16. Which of the following describes a function of the testicles?
a. They encase the vas deferens.
b. They manufacture sperm cells.
c. They store mature sperm cells.
d. They produce seminal fluid.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The testicles have two functions: the production of sperm cells and the secretion of
testosterone.
17. The testicles are also called _______.
a. scrotal cords
b. seminiferous organs
c. epididymal sacs
d. male gonads
Answer: D
Rationale:
The testicles are glands that are also referred to as gonads. Gonads are organs that produce
cells for reproduction.
18. Sperm cells require approximately _______ to mature before they are ready for
ejaculation.
a. 70 days
b. 70 hours
c. 70 minutes
d. 70 months
Answer: A
Rationale:
When sperm cells are formed, they migrate in an immature state to the epididymis, where
they mature and wait to be ejaculated. This maturation process takes about 70 days.
19. Sperm cells mature in the _______.
a. vas deferens
b. epididymis
c. seminal vesicles
d. prostate gland
Answer: B
Rationale:
The epididymis is the long, narrow structure attached to the back of each testicle. This is
where the sperm cells mature and wait to be ejaculated; it takes about 70 days for sperm cells
to mature before they are ready for ejaculation.
20. Which of the following is the correct sequence regarding the route that sperm take on
their journey out of a male’s body?
a. testes, vas deferens, urethral opening, epididymis
b. testes, epididymis, vas deferens, urethral opening
c. vas deferens, testes, urethra, ejaculatory duct
d. epididymis, vas deferens, prostate gland, urethra
Answer: B
Rationale:
When sperm cells are formed in the testes, they migrate in an immature state to the
epididymis, where they mature and wait to be ejaculated. Once they are mature, they travel
through the vas deferens to the man’s internal reproductive system, where they are mixed
with semen and ejaculated through the penis and out the urethral opening.
21. Elsa is taking a human sexuality course and is learning about the vas deferens. Her
professor probably explained to the class that the vas deferens is a _______.
a. structure where sperm cells are stored as they mature
b. structure where sperm cells are generated
c. tube through which mature sperm cells travel to the man’s internal reproductive system
d. tube that produces seminal fluid
Answer: C
Rationale:
The vas deferens is a tube that is attached to the epididymis. Mature sperm cells travel
through the vas deferens to the man’s internal reproductive system, where they are mixed
with semen and ejaculated through the penis.
22. Some men, regardless of sexual orientation, enjoy having their _______ caressed
manually during sexual activities.
a. gonads
b. anus
c. urethra
d. epididymis
Answer: B
Rationale:
The anus and the area around it contain nerve endings which are sensitive to stimulation and
are considered by some men (and some women) to be part of their sexual anatomy.
23. Miguel’s physician taught him how to conduct a testicular self-examination. His
physician probably told him _______.
a. to perform it after a warm bath or shower
b. to check for swelling on the prostate gland
c. to examine each testicle with only one hand
d. that it is abnormal if one testicle is slightly larger than the other
Answer: A
Rationale:
A testicular self-exam is best performed after a warm bath or a shower because heat relaxes
the scrotum, making it easier to feel anything abnormal.
24. Walid is going to have a vasectomy. As a result of this procedure, his _______ will be
severed and sealed off.
a. ejaculatory duct
b. prostate gland
c. urethral bulb
d. vas deferens
Answer: D
Rationale:
The procedure known as a vasectomy entails severing the vas deferens. If sperm cells cannot
travel from the epididymis up either vas deferens, they will never be ejaculated and will never
be able to fertilize an ovum.
25. _______ is primarily produced by the seminal vesicles and prostate gland.
a. Testosterone
b. Estrogen
c. Smegma
d. Semen
Answer: D
Rationale:
During sexual arousal and ejaculation, as sperm cells move through the vas deferens from
each epididymis, other anatomical organs are producing fluid that will mix with the sperm
and carry them out of the man’s body. This fluid is called semen, and it consists primarily of a
mixture of secretions from the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland.
26. The ejaculatory duct _______.
a. directs semen to the urethra
b. produces fluid that becomes part of the semen
c. produces sperm cells
d. directs sperm cells to the epididymis
Answer: A
Rationale:
The ejaculatory duct is a continuation of the tube that carries semen into the urethra for
ejaculation.
27. Norman is sexually aroused and approaching ejaculation. As a result, his _______ is
contracting, shutting off the possible flow of urine from his bladder.
a. seminal vesicle
b. ejaculatory duct
c. prostate gland
d. vas deferens
Answer: C
Rationale:
When a man is approaching ejaculation, the prostate contracts, shutting off the possible flow
of urine from the bladder so that semen and urine cannot reach the urethra at the same time.
28. Oliver was diagnosed with prostatitis. This means that he has _______.
a. cancer of the prostate gland
b. a bacterial infection
c. warts on the prostate gland
d. sores on the prostate gland
Answer: B
Rationale:
The prostate gland is prone to bacterial infections, called prostatitis, in men of any age.
Prostatitis may be acute or chronic, and can usually be successfully treated with antibiotics.
29. When a man experiences an orgasm, semen is forced into the _______.
a. urethral bulb
b. prostate gland
c. scrotum
d. penile glans
Answer: A
Rationale:
At orgasm, the semen that has been gathering from various structures is forced into the
urethral bulb, a portion of the urethra surrounded by the prostate gland.
30. The thick clear fluid that appears on the tip of the penis during sexual arousal is produced
by the _______.
a. Cowper’s glands
b. prostate gland
c. vas deferens
d. epididymis
Answer: A
Rationale:
As the semen passes through the urethra, the Cowper’s glands, one on each side of the
urethra, also add a small amount of fluid to the semen. Cowper’s glands often secrete fluid
into the urethra and out through the penis before ejaculation. This fluid is clear, thick, and
slippery, and appears at the urethral opening at the tip of the penis.
31. During sexual arousal, a small amount of clear, thick fluid appeared at the tip of Quincy’s
penis. This fluid is referred to as _______.
a. testosterone
b. sperm
c. estrogen
d. pre-ejaculate
Answer: D
Rationale:
The clear, thick fluid that is secreted by the Cowper’s glands before ejaculation is called preejaculate.
32. What are some of the structures that comprise the vulva?
a. vagina, ovaries, clitoris, and cervix
b. vagina, anus, labia majora, and ovaries
c. urethra, pubic hair, ovaries, and fallopian tubes
d. urethral opening, clitoral glans, labia majora, and labia minora
Answer: D
Rationale:
The female external genitals are referred to as the vulva; components of the vulva are the
mons veneris, the labia majora, the labia minora, the urethral opening, the clitoral glans, the
vaginal opening, the hymen, the perineum, and the anus.
33. A function of the _______ is to cushion the impact with the pubic bone during sexual
intercourse.
a. labia minora
b. clitoris
c. mons veneris
d. labia majora
Answer: C
Rationale:
The mons veneris is a slightly raised layer of fatty tissue on the top of the pubic bone; part of
its evolutionary function for human reproduction is theorized to cushion the impact with the
pubic bone during sexual intercourse.
34. The _______ are smooth, hairless, inner lips of the vulva that are sensitive during sexual
arousal.
a. labia minora
b. labia majora
c. clitoris
d. mons veneris
Answer: A
Rationale:
The labia minora, or minor lips, form part of the vulva; they are smooth, hairless, and vary in
size and shape from woman to woman.
35. A human sexuality class has just learned ways to trigger a female orgasm. The professor
probably told the class that orgasms are triggered in most women by stimulation of the
_______.
a. labia majora
b. urethral bulb
c. mons veneris
d. clitoral glans
Answer: D
Rationale:
Stimulation of the clitoral glans, either directly or indirectly, is primarily responsible for
producing orgasm in most women.
36. The tissue that partially or fully covers the clitoral glans is referred to as the _______.
a. clitoral hood
b. labia majora
c. labia minora
d. cura
Answer: A
Rationale:
At the top of the labia minora is the clitoral glans, which is the tip of the clitoris and the part
that can be seen. It is typically covered partly or completely by the clitoral hood.
37. The most common explanation for why researchers discovered the true structure of the
clitoris so recently is that _______.
a. there was a lack of money for research on female anatomy
b. people already understood how the clitoris worked
c. there was cultural hesitancy over careful exploration of female sexuality and anatomy
d. researchers were more interested in sexual attitudes than in sexual anatomy.
Answer: C
Rationale:
One explanation is that before the 1990s, prudish attitudes on the parts of anatomists
prevented them from carefully studying female sexuality and anatomy. In other words, such
cultural hesitancy overcame scientific inquiry.
38. Noemi, a native of Africa, underwent a ritualistic, cultural practice that entailed the
removal of her clitoral glans and all or part of the labia minora when she was about to enter
puberty. This example illustrates _______.
a. a way to cure a urinary tract infection
b. premenstrual dysphoric disorder
c. female genital mutilation
d. a way to treat premenstrual syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale:
Female genital mutilation is typically performed on girls who are about to enter puberty. It is
found mostly in parts of Africa and the Middle East, and usually entails the cutting off of the
clitoral hood, glans, and part or all of the labia minora, lacerating the labia majora, and then
sewing together the labia majora, leaving only a small opening for the passage of urine and
menstrual fluid.
39. The urethral opening _______.
a. partially covers the clitoral glans
b. protects delicate genital structures
c. allows urine to pass from the body
d. expands greatly during pregnancy
Answer: C
Rationale:
About halfway down the vulva, between the clitoris and the vagina, is the urethral opening,
the outside end of the tube leading from the bladder.
40. Joyce is experiencing symptoms such as pain and stinging during urination, frequent
urination, slight fever, and pressure in her lower back. She probably has _______.
a. a urinary tract infection
b. premenstrual dysphoric disorder
c. premenstrual syndrome
d. cervical cancer
Answer: A
Rationale:
Typical symptoms of a UTI include pain and stinging, often intense, during urination; the
persistent feeling of a strong need to urinate even though the bladder has just been emptied;
frequent urination; darker and bad-smelling urine; the sensation of pressure and pain in the
lower back or abdomen; and sometimes slight fever, chills, nausea, or blood in the urine.
41. The _______ is a ring of tissue surrounding and partially covering the vaginal opening.
a. mons veneris
b. perineum
c. clitoral hood
d. hymen
Answer: D
Rationale:
At the entrance to the vagina is a structure known as the hymen, which is a thin layer of tissue
that partly covers or surrounds the vaginal opening.
42. Which of the following is a common myth about the hymen?
a. Some girls are born without a hymen.
b. Upon first sexual intercourse the hymen will break and bleed.
c. Sperm cells can make their way past the hymen into the vagina.
d. The hymen may be perforated due to tampon insertion.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The hymen has drawn nearly as much attention as the penis in terms of sexual mythology
because it is so closely tied to the notion of female virginity. Most of the common delusions
worldwide about female sexuality concern the hymen. One such incorrect belief is that the
hymen is indicative of whether or not a woman is a virgin. This belief is false because the
appearance of the hymen relates to many factors. The hymen may be separated due to
strenuous athletic movements, or due to tampon insertion. It may be separated during
behaviors such as masturbation; some women’s hymens are separated or perforated for no
apparent reason other than normal variations among humans.
43. Alma is concerned that she will be viewed as unmarriageable by her culture because her
hymen is separated. As a result, she decided to have a _______ to restore her hymen to an
intact appearing state.
a. episiotomy
b. vasectomy
c. hymenorrhaphy
d. mammography
Answer: C
Rationale:
The importance attached to the hymen and its role in presuming virginity persists in many
countries throughout the world. In some Muslim cultures, women seeking “certificates of
virginity” undergo a procedure called a hymenorrhaphy. This procedure surgically restores
the hymen to an intact-appearing state so that the women will not be deemed “unmarriagable”
and will bleed on the wedding night.
44. During childbirth, Maria’s physician cut her _______ to allow for easier passage of her
daughter and less tearing of her vaginal opening.
a. hymen
b. frenulum
c. scrotum
d. perineum
Answer: D
Rationale:
The perineum is an area of skin between the vaginal opening and the anus. The perineum may
be cut during delivery in a procedure called an episiotomy. This procedure was once a
relatively routine part of hospital births because doctors believed it allowed more room for
the baby’s head to move through the birth canal. The procedure has become far less routine
than it used to be, and many health professionals now believe that it is unnecessary during a
routine birth.
45. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding episiotomies?
a. It is unnecessary during a routine birth.
b. It is routinely performed today.
c. The frenulum is cut during this procedure.
d. It is only performed during a cesarean section.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Episiotomies are not performed as often as in the past, as many health professionals now
believe that it is unnecessary during a routine birth.
46. Breast(s) _______.
a. may provide sexual pleasure for men and women
b. are only part of the female anatomy
c. size is related to sexual sensitivity
d. do not vary in shape
Answer: A
Rationale:
The breasts are usually a sexually responsive part of human anatomy for both men and
women, and may provide sexual pleasure for both sexes.
47. Which of the following statements about breasts is factual?
a. Women’s perceptions of their own breasts are not a determining factor in their overall body
image and self-esteem.
b. The breasts of both men and women are parts of human sexual anatomy that are prone to
cancer.
c. Stimulation of a woman’s breasts is always a source of intense sexual pleasure for all
women.
d. Female breasts have no other purpose besides producing milk.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The breasts are one of many parts of human sexual anatomy that are prone to cancer.
According to The National Cancer Institute, in the United States in 2010 there were
approximately 200,000 new cases of breast cancer among women and nearly 2,000 new cases
among men. Although breast cancer is more common among women, male breast cancer does
occur.
48. In addition to a personal level of breast self-awareness, women between the ages of 20
and 40 should _______.
a. have checkups by a health care professional every 3 years
b. not worry about problems with their breasts
c. only go to a health care professional if they experience extreme pain in the chest area
d. not examine their breasts if it makes them uncomfortable to do so
Answer: A
Rationale:
Professional recommendations on how to avoid breast cancer and maintain healthy breasts
have changed frequently in recent years. As of 2011, The American College of Obstetricians
and Gynecologists and The American Cancer Society recommend that women between the
ages of 20 and 40 have checkups by a health care professional every three years.
49. The vagina _______.
a. is an inflexible canal that can entrap a penis making it difficult for a man to withdraw
b. normally emits an unpleasant odor
c. extends from the cervix to the fallopian tubes
d. is normally about 3 to 4 inches in length when a woman is not sexually aroused
Answer: D
Rationale:
The vagina is a flexible, muscular canal or tube, normally about 3 to 4 inches in length when
a woman is not sexually aroused. It extends into the woman’s body at an angle toward the
small of the back, from the vulva to the cervix.
50. An especially sensitive area inside the vagina that some women have identified as
enhancing sexual arousal is referred to as the _______.
a. cervix
b. G-spot
c. os
d. areola
Answer: B
Rationale:
The Grafenberg spot, or G-spot, is believed to be an area of tissue located about a third of the
way in from the opening of the vagina in the anterior vaginal wall. Some women find that this
area is sexually responsive and enhances arousal and orgasm when stimulated during sexual
activities.
51. The _______ is the narrow bottom end of the uterus that connects the uterus to the
vagina.
a. fallopian tube
b. endometrium
c. cervix
d. ovum
Answer: C
Rationale:
The cervix is the narrow bottom end of the uterus, and serves to connect the vagina with the
uterus.
52. In order to collect and examine cervical cells for any abnormalities _______.
a. a woman has to undergo a long procedure in a hospital
b. the vagina is held open with a speculum, and a few cells are gently swabbed or brushed
from the cervix
c. a doctor shines a light into a woman’s vagina and visually examines her cervix
d. a woman is given a swab and told to collect a sample of her own cervical cells
Answer: B
Rationale:
The medical test that is used to check the cervix for any signs of abnormal cells is called a
Pap test. In this procedure, the vagina is held open with a device called a speculum and a few
cells are gently swabbed or brushed from the cervix. The cells are then sent to a lab to be
examined microscopically for any abnormalities.
53. In order to prevent or detect cervical cancer early, all girls and women should have a
_______ three years after they begin having intercourse, or at age 21, regardless of sexual
activity.
a. Pap test
b. mammogram
c. episiotomies
d. hysterectomy
Answer: A
Rationale:
The American Cancer Society recommends that all girls and women have a Pap test three
years after they begin having sexual intercourse or at age 21 regardless of sexual activity. The
American Cancer Society also recommends that they repeat the test every one to two years,
depending on the type of test and a woman’s risk factors.
54.The human papilloma virus is _______.
a. a medical condition caused by endometrial cells migrating outside the uterus
b. the primary cause of cervical cancer
c. uncommon and always has noticeable symptoms
d. curable
Answer: B
Rationale:
The primary cause of cervical cancer is a sexually-transmitted viral infection, the human
papilloma virus, or genital warts. Because of the causal connection between HPV and
cervical cancer, many health professionals recommend routine HPV screening, even though
only a small percentage of HPV infections lead to cancer, and Pap tests showing abnormal
cells to not always indicate cancer.
55. During pregnancy, the fetus grows in the _______.
a. fallopian tubes
b. endometrium
c. ovaries
d. uterus
Answer: D
Rationale:
The uterus is the organ in which a fertilized egg implants itself and an embryo and fetus grow
from a few days after fertilization until birth.
56. Andrea has a painful medical condition caused by cells and tissues migrating outside the
uterus into her abdominal cavity. Her condition is referred to as _______.
a. uterine cancer
b. cervical cancer
c. endometriosis
d. premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Answer: C
Rationale:
In some women, cells and tissue from the endometrium migrate to outside the uterus and
begin to grow in the abdominal cavity, especially on the ovaries as well as other areas in the
body. This condition is called endometriosis.
57. Fertilization of the _______ occurs in the _______.
a. ovum; uterus
b. sperm; endometrium
c. ovum; fallopian tubes
d. ovary; cervix
Answer: C
Rationale:
Fertilization of the ovum by a sperm cell occurs in the third of the fallopian tube nearest each
ovary. The newly released ovum is available for fertilization in that section of the fallopian
tube for about a day.
58. An ectopic pregnancy is one in which a fertilized ovum attaches and begins to grow
_______.
a. outside the uterus
b. inside the uterus
c. inside the scrotum
d. outside the scrotum
Answer: A
Rationale:
In one out of every 50 conceptions, the fertilized egg becomes lodged in the fallopian tube,
implants there, and begins to grow. This is called a tubal pregnancy, and is the most common
type of ectopic pregnancy, meaning the growth of a fertilized egg outside of the uterus.
59. The term gonads refers to _______.
a. all male and female sex organs
b. an internal organ in men that is involved in reproduction
c. an external structure in women that is involved in reproduction
d. a sex organ in either men or women that produces cells for reproduction
Answer: D
Rationale:
In popular usage, the word gonads is used as a euphemism for testicles, but the word actually
means a sex organ that produces cells for reproduction. The ovaries are gonads, and the
testicles are gonads.
60. The physical changes that girls undergo at puberty as they mature into women are
triggered by _______.
a. her age
b. the female hormones estrogen and progesterone
c. her height and weight
d. the composition of her diet
Answer: B
Rationale:
The ovaries are responsible for the production of the female hormones estrogen and
progesterone. These hormones are responsible for girls developing physically into mature
women during puberty.
61. The term used to describe the beginning of a girl’s menstrual cycle as she enters puberty
is _______.
a. menarche
b. menopause
c. ovulation
d. amenorrhea
Answer: A
Rationale:
When a girl enters puberty, hormonal secretions cause her body to undergo many changes;
one of these changes is called menarche, the onset of the menstrual cycle.
62. The purpose of the menstrual cycle is to _______.
a. create sexual stimulation
b. foster the development of female sex characteristics
c. create conditions that allow for conception and pregnancy
d. cleanse the reproductive organs of bacteria
Answer: C
Rationale:
The purpose of the menstrual cycle is to create conditions in a woman’s body that allow for
conception and pregnancy. The menstrual cycle corresponds to a woman’s fertility cycle, the
times during each menstrual cycle when she is more likely or less likely to be able to
conceive.
63. _______ and _______ hormones act together to stimulate ovulation.
a. Luteinizing; progesterone
b. Progesterone; follicle-stimulating
c. Testosterone; luteinizing
d. Follicle-stimulating; luteinizing
Answer: D
Rationale:
The female hormones involved in the regulation of the menstrual cycle include estrogen,
progesterone, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and luteinizing hormone (LH). In response
to follicle-stimulating hormone, an ovum in one of the ovaries starts to mature. At about day
14 of an average 28-day cycle, in response to a surge of luteinizing hormone, ovulation
occurs, and the egg leaves the ovary and enters the fallopian tube.
64. During each menstrual cycle, _______ are/is shed through the cervix and vagina.
a. ovarian cysts
b. unused hormones
c. the thickened uterine lining
d. tissue from the fallopian tubes
Answer: C
Rationale:
If pregnancy does not occur, the ovum moves down the fallopian tube, estrogen and
progesterone levels drop, and the thickened lining of the uterus is shed, along with the ovum,
during the menstrual period, and the cycle begins again.
65. A cause of amenorrhea is _______.
a. tampon use
b. uterine fibroids
c. prostaglandin
d. eating disorders
Answer: D
Rationale:
Amenorrhea is the term used to describe the absence of a period in women who haven’t
started menstruating by age 16 or the absence of a period in women who used to have a
regular period. Causes of amenorrhea can include pregnancy, breast-feeding, and extreme
weight loss caused by serious illness, eating disorders, excessive exercising, or stress.
66. Berneice has endometriosis and because of it, she experiences extremely painful
menstrual cramps. This is an example of _______.
a. amenorrhea
b. dysmenorrhea
c. toxic shock syndrome
d. abnormal uterine bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale:
Dysmenorrhea is the term applied to painful periods, including severe menstrual cramps. The
pain can be caused by a disease or condition, such as uterine fibroids or endometriosis.
67. _______ is a set of symptoms that may occur during the days just before and during the
start of a woman’s period including irritability, depressed mood, and feeling bloated.
a. Premenstrual syndrome
b. Menopause
c. Perimenopause
d. Dysmenorrhea
Answer: A
Rationale:
The cycling of hormones in a woman’s body may affect some women emotionally and
psychologically. The best-known of these effects is a set of symptoms that may occur during
the days leading up to the start of a woman’s period, called pre-menstrual syndrome. PMS
can include dysphoria, mood swings, depression, irritability, tension, aggression, fatigue,
headaches, breast soreness, abdominal cramping, backache, and water retention, among
others.
68. During the week before the start of her period, Zahara always experiences major
depressive symptoms, radical mood swings, persistent irritability, poor concentration, fatigue,
and physical symptoms such as bloating and breast tenderness which cause her to avoid
social activities. Zahara’s symptoms are illustrative of _______.
a. amenorrhea
b. premenstrual dysphoric disorder
c. major depression
d. dysmenorrhea
Answer: B
Rationale:
A relatively rare but significantly more intense form of PMS has been identified by health
professionals and is now a proposed official clinical diagnosis, called premenstrual dysphoric
disorder, or PMDD.
69. Stella is 51; she has stopped ovulating and no longer has menstrual periods. She is in
_______.
a. perimenopause
b. dysmenorrhea
c. menarche
d. menopause
Answer: D
Rationale:
Women usually continue having regular period until they pass through the menopause
process, when ovulation and menstruation gradually cease. On average, menopause has been
thought to occur around the age of 51, but these changes may begin in a woman’s early- to
mid-40s and extend into her mid-50s. Some women may experience menopausal changes
earlier in life due to surgery, illness, or medications that interrupt her normal hormonal cycle.
TRUE-FALSE
1. In the past, it was believed that the cervix is an internal penis.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Historically, there have been misconceptions about female anatomy, and some early
anatomists mistakenly believed the cervix to be an internal equivalent of the male penis due
to its protruding nature within the vagina.
2. Stimulation to the penile glans is primarily responsible for male orgasm.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Stimulation of the penile glans, particularly during sexual activity, is a primary trigger for
male orgasm due to its high concentration of nerve endings.
3. The frenulum is the layer of skin covering the glans of the penis.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The frenulum is a sensitive band of tissue on the underside of the penis that connects the
glans to the shaft, not a layer of skin covering the glans.
4. Male circumcision involves removal of the corpora cavernosa.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Male circumcision involves the removal of the foreskin, not the corpora cavernosa, which are
spongy tissue chambers inside the penis that fill with blood during an erection.
5. A baby’s intact penis requires very little care other than washing the outside of the foreskin.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Proper hygiene, including washing the outside of the foreskin, is typically sufficient for
maintaining the cleanliness of a baby's intact penis.
6. Penis size increases with frequent sexual activity and decreases with the lack of sex.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Penis size is primarily determined by genetics and physical characteristics, not by sexual
activity or lack thereof.
7. Masters and Johnson found that a larger flaccid penis does not predict a larger erect penis.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Masters and Johnson's research concluded that there is no significant correlation between
flaccid penis size and erect penis size.
8. The scrotum houses and protects the urethra.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The scrotum is a sac of skin that houses the testicles, not the urethra, which is the tube that
carries urine and semen out of the body.
9. Gonads are tubes that extend from the testicles into the male’s body and transport mature
sperm cells during ejaculation.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Gonads are the reproductive glands (testes in males, ovaries in females), not tubes. The
description provided seems more fitting for the vas deferens.
10. Sperm cells are continuously formed within the seminiferous tubules throughout a man’s
life.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Sperm production occurs within the seminiferous tubules of the testes and continues
throughout a man's life.
11. Testicular cancer is the most common form of cancer in males between the ages of 15 and
35.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Testicular cancer is one of the most common forms of cancer in young males, typically
occurring between the ages of 15 and 35.
12. During a vasectomy each vas deferens is severed and sealed off.
Answer: True
Rationale:
During a vasectomy, each vas deferens is surgically cut and sealed off to prevent the passage
of sperm, thus serving as a permanent form of contraception.
13. Fluid from the seminal vesicles makes up about 70 percent of the volume of the semen.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Fluid from the seminal vesicles contributes a significant portion of the volume of semen,
providing nutrients and energy for sperm.
14. Prostatitis is a form of cancer in men.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland, not a form of cancer.
15. Sexually-transmitted infections can be transmitted by the Cowper’s gland fluid.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Cowper's gland (bulbourethral gland) produces a fluid that contributes to pre-ejaculatory fluid
and can transmit sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
16. The female external genitals are called the vulva.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The external female genitalia, collectively known as the vulva, include structures such as the
labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, and vaginal opening.
17. The mons veneris is a tissue that partially covers the clitoral glans.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The mons veneris is the rounded fatty mound of tissue overlying the pubic bone. It does not
cover the clitoral glans.
18. Stimulation of the labia minora is primarily responsible for triggering orgasm in most
women.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Stimulation of the clitoris, particularly the clitoral glans, is often the primary trigger for
orgasm in most women, rather than the labia minora.
19. Typically, female genital mutilation is performed when girl approaches puberty.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is typically performed on girls before puberty, although the
exact age varies depending on cultural and regional practices.
20. Women are more prone to urinary tract infections than men.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Due to differences in anatomy, women are more prone to urinary tract infections (UTIs) than
men, primarily because the urethra is shorter and closer to the anus, making it easier for
bacteria to enter the urinary tract.
21. The condition of a woman’s hymen is indicative of whether or not she is a virgin.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The presence or absence of an intact hymen does not reliably indicate virginity. Hymens can
vary significantly in appearance and may be stretched or torn due to various activities
unrelated to sexual intercourse.
22. The perineum is surgically cut during an episiotomy.
Answer: True
Rationale:
An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum (the area between the vagina and
the anus) during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening and facilitate delivery.
23. The mammogram is the gold standard in detecting breast cancer.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Mammography, which involves X-ray imaging of the breast, is widely considered the gold
standard for breast cancer detection, particularly for routine screening in asymptomatic
women.
24. In some men, when the G-spot is stimulated it causes enhanced sexual arousal.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The existence of a G-spot in men, analogous to that in women, is a topic of debate among
researchers. While some men may experience enhanced sexual arousal from certain forms of
stimulation, it is not universally recognized as a distinct anatomical structure like in women.
25. A Pap test is used to check the uterus for signs of abnormal cells.
Answer: False
Rationale:
A Pap test, also known as a Pap smear, is a screening test used to detect abnormal cells in the
cervix, not the uterus.
26. The primary cause of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is a major risk factor for cervical cancer. Persistent
infection with high-risk strains of HPV can lead to the development of cervical dysplasia and
eventually cervical cancer.
27. The tissue lining the uterus that thickens in anticipation of pregnancy is referred to as the
endometrium.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus that thickens during the menstrual cycle in
preparation for possible implantation of a fertilized egg. If pregnancy does not occur, the
endometrium is shed during menstruation.
28. In the U.S., the average age of menarche is about 12, but there is a great deal of variation
among girls and differences among racial and ethnic groups.
Answer: True
Rationale:
While the average age of menarche (first menstrual period) in the United States is around 12
years old, there is considerable variation among individuals and differences based on factors
such as genetics, nutrition, and socio-economic status.
29. A woman who is perimenopausal is in her prime childbearing years.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Perimenopause refers to the transitional period leading up to menopause, during which a
woman's menstrual cycle becomes irregular and eventually ceases. Women in perimenopause
are typically nearing the end of their reproductive years, rather than in their prime
childbearing years.
30. The physical changes associated with menopause occur suddenly and without warning.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Menopause is a gradual process marked by a decline in reproductive hormones and typically
occurs over several years. While some women may experience sudden onset of symptoms,
such as hot flashes, others may have a more gradual transition.
SHORT ANSWER
1. It was once believed that the _______ body was the norm and the female body was merely
a variation.
Answer: male
Rationale:
Historically, many societies have held patriarchal views where the male body was considered
the standard or norm, and the female body was often regarded as a deviation or variation
from this perceived norm.
2. The _______ is the raised edge at the base of the penile glans where the tip of the penis
joins the shaft.
Answer: corona
Rationale:
The corona of the penis refers to the ridge or raised edge at the base of the penile glans,
where it meets the shaft. It is a distinct anatomical feature of the male genitalia.
3. The _______ carries urine from the inside to the outside of the body.
Answer: urethra
Rationale:
The urethra is the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body during
urination in both males and females. In males, it also serves as the passage for semen during
ejaculation.
4. _______ are structures that support the testicles and encase the vas deferens, nerves, and
muscles.
Answer: Spermatic cords
Rationale:
The spermatic cords are cord-like structures that contain the vas deferens, blood vessels,
nerves, and other tissues. They provide support to the testicles and facilitate their movement
within the scrotum.
5. Each testicle is composed of tightly packed microscopic _______, where the sperm cells
are generated.
Answer: seminiferous tubules
Rationale:
The seminiferous tubules are coiled structures within the testes where sperm production
(spermatogenesis) takes place. Sperm cells are generated within these tubules.
6. The _______ is the tube connecting each testicle and epididymis with the internal
reproductive structures.
Answer: vas deferens
Rationale:
The vas deferens is a muscular tube that carries sperm from the epididymis, where they
mature and are stored, to the ejaculatory duct during ejaculation.
7. The _______ are small glands that produce fluid that becomes part of the semen.
Answer: seminal vesicles
Rationale:
The seminal vesicles are accessory glands located near the base of the bladder. They produce
a significant portion of the fluid that makes up semen, providing nutrients and energy for
sperm.
8. The _______ are folds of skin and fatty tissue that close over and protect the more
sensitive and delicate genital structures underneath them.
Answer: labia majora
Rationale:
The labia majora are the outermost folds of skin and fatty tissue in the female external
genitalia. They enclose and protect the internal genital structures, including the clitoris,
urethral opening, and vaginal opening.
9. The _______ is the outside end of the tube leading from the bladder, located between the
clitoris and the vagina.
Answer: urethral opening
Rationale:
The urethral opening is the external opening of the urethra, located between the clitoris and
the vaginal opening in females. It serves as the exit point for urine from the body.
10. The darker skin encircling each nipple is referred to as the _______.
Answer: areola
Rationale:
The areola is the circular, pigmented area of skin surrounding the nipple on the breast. It
contains specialized glands and helps lubricate the nipple during breastfeeding.
11. A _______ is a low-dose X-ray of the breast that is used to detect breast cancer.
Answer: mammogram
Rationale:
A mammogram is a common screening test for breast cancer that uses low-dose X-rays to
produce images of the breast tissue. It is an important tool for early detection and diagnosis of
breast abnormalities.
12. The passageway through the cervix, called the _______, becomes slightly smaller or
larger on different days during the menstrual cycle.
Answer: os
Rationale:
The os, or cervical os, is the opening of the cervix that connects the uterus to the vagina. Its
size and shape can change throughout the menstrual cycle, particularly in response to
hormonal fluctuations.
13. The _______ are the organs responsible for the production of the female hormones
estrogen and progesterone.
Answer: ovaries
Rationale:
The ovaries are the primary female reproductive organs responsible for producing eggs (ova)
and female sex hormones, including estrogen and progesterone.
14. _______ is the term used to describe painful periods, including severe menstrual cramps.
Answer: Dysmenorrhea
Rationale:
Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation, often characterized by severe cramping in the
lower abdomen or pelvis. It can interfere with daily activities and quality of life for some
individuals.
15. _______ is a rare but potentially deadly bacterial infection that has been associated with
tampon use.
Answer: Toxic shock syndrome
Rationale:
Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a rare but serious bacterial infection, often associated with
Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria. It can be triggered by the use of
certain types of tampons, particularly those made of synthetic materials, and can lead to
severe complications if not treated promptly.
16. The physical and psychological changes many women experience during the decade
leading to menopause are referred to as _______ changes.
Answer: perimenopausal
Rationale:
Perimenopause refers to the transitional stage leading up to menopause, during which a
woman may experience various physical, hormonal, and psychological changes as her body
adjusts to the natural decline in ovarian function and hormone production.
ESSAY
1. Identify and define four external structures of the male sexual anatomy.
Responses should consider:
The penis
• It’s the primary male sexual organ.
• It has two jobs: to ejaculate semen and to transport urine from the inside of the body to the
outside.
• It consists of the penile shaft, the foreskin (in uncircumcised men), the penile glans, the
corona, the frenulum, and the urethral opening.
The scrotum
• It’s a pouch of two layers of skin that hangs below and behind the penis.
• Its function is to house and protect the testicles and to help provide them with optimal
conditions to produce sperm cells.
• It’s divided into two sacs, one for each testicle.
The testicles
• Also called testes.
• The testicles float freely, one in each sac within the scrotum.
• Testicles are glands, referred to as gonads, which produce cells for reproduction.
• The primary function of the testicles is to manufacture sperm cells and secrete the male sex
hormone, testosterone.
The anus
• The anus and the area around it contain nerve endings that are sensitive to stimulation and
are considered by some men to be part of their sexual anatomy.
• The anal area and the walls of the rectum consist of delicate tissues that can be easily
damaged during sexual activity.
• Such damage can create an easy route of transmission for blood-borne sexually-transmitted
infections.
• Bacteria that exist normally and harmlessly in the anal area and rectum may cause
infections if they are transferred to other parts of the anatomy.
2. Discuss the prevalence of testicular cancer and three important issues related to this form
of cancer. Explain the four steps in conducting a testicular self-examination.
• Testicular cancer is the most frequently diagnosed cancer in men between the ages of 13 and
35; approximately 8,500 new cases were identified in the U.S. in 2010.
• The incidence of testicular cancer worldwide has increased more than 50% since the mid1900s.
• The average age at which it is diagnosed has been decreasing from 30 to under 25 years of
age.
• There’s a greater incidence of testicular cancer among men who work in certain professions
(agricultural workers, miners, firefighters, and utility workers).
• This has led some researchers to suspect that exposure to environmental toxins may play an
important role.
• Today the average cure rate for testicular cancer is 90%, with a much greater success rate
(nearly 99%) when the disease is diagnosed early.
Testicular self-examination
1. Stand in front of a mirror; check for swelling on the scrotum skin.
2. Examine each testicle with both hands. Place the index and middle fingers under the
testicle with the thumbs placed on top, and roll the testicle gently between the thumbs and
fingers.
3. Find the epididymis. Once one becomes familiar with this structure, it is less likely to be
mistaken for a suspicious lump. Cancerous lumps are usually found on the sides of the
testicle, but can also show up on the front or at the bottom.
4. If you find a lump, see a doctor right away; only a physician can make a positive diagnosis.
3. Identify and define four external structures of the female sexual anatomy.
Responses should consider:
• The vulva, or female external genitals; components are the mons veneris, the labia majora,
the labia minora, the urethral opening, the clitoral glans, the vaginal opening, the hymen, the
perineum, and the anus.
• The mons veneris: it’s a slightly raised layer of fatty tissue on the top of the pubic bone and
is usually covered with public hair.
• Part of its evolutionary function is theorized to cushion the impact with the pubic bone
during sexual intercourse.
• The labia majora, or major lips: they are folds of skin and fatty tissue and extend from the
mons down both sides of the vulva, past the vaginal opening to the perineum.
• The labia minora: they are smooth, hairless, and vary in size and shape from woman to
woman. They are sexually sensitive; during sexual arousal they become engorged with blood,
become moist, and darken in color.
• The clitoral glans and hood: at the top of the labia minora is the clitoral glans, which is the
tip of the clitoris and the part that can be seen.
• It is typically covered partly or completely by the clitoral hood. Stimulation of the clitoral
glans, either directly or indirectly, is primarily responsible for producing orgasm in most
women.
• The clitoris: the clitoral shaft is about 0.5 inches in diameter and divides into two legs as it
extends 3-4 inches into a woman’s body. These shafts pass on either side of the urethra and
vagina.
• The clitoris engorges with blood along its entire length, straightens out, and becomes erect
during sexual activity.
• The urethral opening; it’s the outside end of the tube leading from the bladder and is about
halfway down the vulva, between the clitoris and the vagina.
• It’s sensitive, and can provide pleasurable sexual sensations for some when stimulated.
• The hymen: it’s a thin layer of tissue that partly covers or surrounds the vaginal opening.
• It’s closely tied to the notion of female virginity.
• The condition of a woman’s hymen does not indicate virginity.
• First intercourse usually causes little or no damage to the hymen.
• If it does tear, the trauma to the structure is minor and usually not painful.
• Pregnancy can still occur when the hymen is intact.
4. Identify and explain the four guiding principles of breast health awareness.
Responses should consider:
1. Know what is normal for you. Women should become familiar with their breasts so that if
something changes in the appearance or feel, it will be easier to detect.
2. Look and feel. Some women are hesitant to touch their bodies or to look at themselves,
especially at their sexual areas. When showering, bathing, or dressing, women should take the
opportunity to feel and look at their breasts closely so they can learn how breast tissue
changes normally during their normal hormonal cycle and be better able to spot changes if
they occur.
3. Become aware of breast changes that may signal a problem. These include: a new, clearlydefined lump that has not been there all along; an unusual change in the outline, shape, or
size of a breast; lumps, bumps, or swelling in one breast but not in the other that do not go
away; unusual pain or discomfort that is focused in one part of a breast; nipple discharge,
particularly if it is watery or bloody and is from only one breast; a nipple that has begun to
pucker or retract inward.
4. Report any such changes immediately to your health care professional. Odds are that
whatever change you detect is not cancer, but if it is, you’ll be in the best possible position to
treat it early and recover completely.
5. Define and identify the symptoms of premenstrual syndrome and premenstrual dysphoric
disorder. Distinguish between these disorders and explain the treatment for premenstrual
dysphoric disorder.
Responses should consider:
PMS
• It’s a set of symptoms that may occur during the days leading up to the start of a woman’s
period.
• It’s caused by the cycling of hormones in a woman’s body, which may affect some women
emotionally and psychologically.
• Symptoms include dysphoria, mood swings, depression, irritability, tension, aggression,
fatigue, headaches, breast soreness, abdominal cramping, backache, water retention,
constipation, and specific food cravings.
PMDD
• It’s a relatively rare but significantly more intense form of PMS that is now a proposed
official clinical diagnosis.
• It differs from PMS in terms of the number and severity of symptoms.
• Diagnosis of PMDD applies only to those with the most serious and most debilitating
symptoms.
• Diagnosis of PMDD requires that five or more of the following symptoms be present during
the week before the start of menstruation, must vary over a woman’s fertility cycle, and must
be severe enough to seriously impair her relationships with others, interfere with work,
school, and effective functioning in the normal activities of her daily life.
• Symptoms include:
• major depressive symptoms
• intense anxiety, tension
• radical mood swings such as sudden sadness or increased sensitivity in social situations
• persistent, extreme anger, irritability, or increased interpersonal conflicts
• loss of interest in usual or favorite activities
• poor concentration
• fatigue, general lack of energy
• changes in appetite such as overeating or cravings for specific foods
• difficulty sleeping or sleeping too much
• feeling overwhelmed or out of control
• physical symptoms such as bloating, breast tenderness, headaches, and muscle pains
Treatment of PMDD
• Treatment depends on many issues relating to a woman’s specific symptoms, the
seriousness of the overall symptomology, the individual patient’s profile, and the treatment
preferences of the doctor.
• The most effective treatment currently in use is one of the selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors, such as Prozac, Zoloft, Paxil, and Celexa.
• These drugs were originally developed to treat depression.
• They trigger changes in the brain’s balance of neurotransmitter chemicals, particularly
serotonin, and can significantly reduce both the psychological and the physical symptoms
commonly associated with PMDD for many women.
• There are other treatments that are somewhat beneficial, including dietary changes, various
relaxation and stress-reduction strategies, hormone therapy, and regular exercise.
Test Bank for Human Sexuality
Roger R. Hock
ISBN's: 9780205989409, 9780133971385, 9780134224961
