Chapter 11 To Be or Not to Be a Parent: More Choices, More Constraints 1) ________ are pleasantly surprised and quietly welcoming of a child, even though they have not specifically planned a pregnancy? A) Planners B) Acceptance-of-fate couples C) Ambivalent couples D) Yes-no couples Answer: B Rationale: Acceptance-of-fate couples are those who are pleasantly surprised and quietly welcoming of a child, even though they have not specifically planned a pregnancy. They embrace the pregnancy once it occurs, accepting it as part of their fate or destiny. 2) ________ have mixed feelings before and after conception and even well into the pregnancy. A) Yes-no couples B) Acceptance-of-fate couples C) Planners D) Ambivalent couples Answer: D Rationale: Ambivalent couples have mixed feelings before and after conception and even well into the pregnancy. They may feel uncertain or conflicted about the idea of having a child, leading to mixed emotions throughout the pregnancy. 3) The ________ refers to the average number of children born to a woman during her lifetime. A) birth rate B) growth rate C) maternity rate D) total fertility rate Answer: D Rationale: The total fertility rate refers to the average number of children born to a woman during her lifetime. It is a key demographic indicator of a population's reproductive patterns. 4) A similarity between teen mothers and women who give birth after the age of 40 is that they both are ________. A) less likely to be married when compared to mothers between ages 22 and 34 B) more likely to be highly educated when compared to mothers between ages 22 and 34 C) more likely to have babies with birth defects when compared to mothers between ages 22 and 34 D) less likely to have trouble conceiving when compared to mothers between ages 22 and 34 Answer: C Rationale: Both teen mothers and women who give birth after the age of 40 are more likely to have babies with birth defects when compared to mothers between ages 22 and 34. This is due to factors such as biological immaturity in teens and increased maternal age-related risks in older mothers. 5) Which of the following causes infertility in men? A) chemical pollutants B) endometriosis C) chlamydia D) anorexia Answer: A Rationale: Chemical pollutants are known to be a cause of infertility in men. Exposure to certain chemicals, such as those found in pesticides and industrial pollutants, can negatively impact sperm production and function, leading to infertility. 6) Amanda agrees to artificially inseminate herself with Jim’s sperm as Jim’s wife, Maria, cannot conceive biologically. If Amanda gives birth to Jim and Maria’s child, she is referred to as a ________ mother. A) surrogate B) test-tube C) prenatal D) adoptive Answer: A Rationale: If Amanda agrees to carry and give birth to Jim and Maria's child using her own egg and Jim's sperm, she would be referred to as a surrogate mother. A surrogate mother carries and delivers a child for another couple or individual. 7) ________is the practice of sharing information and maintaining contact between biological and adoptive parents throughout the child’s life. A) Silent adoption B) Assisted adoption C) Open adoption D) Surrogate adoption Answer: C Rationale: Open adoption is the practice of sharing information and maintaining contact between biological and adoptive parents throughout the child’s life. This arrangement allows for ongoing communication and relationship between all parties involved in the adoption process. 8) Which of the following is True of abortion according to demographics? A) Abortion is seen least among white, unmarried women. B) Abortion is most common among married Latinas. C) The majority of abortions occur in the first 12 weeks of pregnancy. D) The majority of abortions are performed on people who live high-income households. Answer: C Rationale: The majority of abortions occur in the first 12 weeks of pregnancy. This is a common trend across different demographic groups and socioeconomic backgrounds. 9) How do women differ from men with regard to being childfree? A) Women with a college education and careers are more likely than their male counterparts to be child free. B) Men are more likely to be child free than women as there has been a steep increase in work-at-home dads. C) Married men are more likely to be child free when compared to married women. D) Involuntarily childless women are more likely to be child free than voluntary single men. Answer: A Rationale: Women with a college education and careers are more likely than their male counterparts to be childfree. This demographic trend reflects changing societal norms and increased opportunities for women in education and the workforce. 10) Briefly explain why people typically choose to be childfree. Answer: Demographic Variables: Child-free women tend to be those who have never married and aren’t cohabiting, have a bachelor’s degree or higher, grew up with both biological parents, and are white. Women with a college education and careers are more likely than their male counterparts to be child free. This gender gap probably reflects women’s awareness of the challenges of balancing employment and parenthood, particularly because women still have more responsibility than men for housework and child care. Individual Choices: Some people decide not to have children because their family has a history of diseases such as breast and other cancers, early Alzheimer’s, and muscular dystrophy. Because social pressure to bear children has diminished, both women and men feel freer to focus on their own goals and interests, value their independence, and do whatever they want without worrying about raising children. 1) Jane and Jack actively discussed having children and jointly decided to conceive a child. The thought of having their own children excited them as well. They are an example of ________ couples. A) planner B) acceptance-of-fate C) ambivalent D) yes-no Answer: A Rationale: Planner couples actively discuss and make joint decisions about having children. They have a clear plan and are excited about the prospect of becoming parents. 2) James and Marie are a couple that had mixed feelings before and after conception and even well into Marie’s pregnancy. They decide to have the baby because James feels strongly about having a child. In this scenario, James and Marie are an example of ________. A) planner couples B) acceptance-of-fate couples C) ambivalent couples D) yes-no couples Answer: C Rationale: Ambivalent couples have mixed feelings before and after conception and even well into the pregnancy. They may have conflicting emotions about parenthood, leading to uncertainty and indecision. 3) John did not want to have a child, but his wife, Jane, decided to go ahead with the pregnancy regardless of his wishes. They eventually divorced over the situation. John and Jane are an example of a(n) ________couple. A) planner B) acceptance-of-fate C) ambivalent D) yes-no Answer: D Rationale: Yes-no couples are characterized by one partner wanting a child while the other does not. This disagreement over parenthood can lead to conflict and ultimately separation or divorce. 4) Karen and Tim are having a debate on the benefits and costs of having children. Karen believes that having babies is a benefit, while Tim argues otherwise. Which of the following is an accurate statement that strengthens Karen’s argument? A) There has been a steep decline in postpartum depression cases in the country. B) Child-rearing costs tend to be more in urban areas that in the rural areas. C) The abortion rate in the country has decreased over the past decade. D) Most American parents have been found to be overjoyed at the birth of their first baby. Answer: D Rationale: Option D strengthens Karen's argument by suggesting that most American parents experience joy at the birth of their first child, indicating that parenthood is perceived as a positive experience by many. 5) Which of the following is typically a feature in the first trimester of an expectant mother? A) awkwardness and clumsiness B) frequent nausea, heartburn, and insomnia C) movement of the fetus D) frequent backaches Answer: B Rationale: During the first trimester, expectant mothers often experience symptoms such as nausea, heartburn, and insomnia, which are common features of early pregnancy. 6) The mother starts to feel the fetus move and become active ________. A) from the time of fertilization B) in the first trimester C) in the second trimester D) in the third trimester Answer: C Rationale: Fetal movement and activity are typically felt by the mother during the second trimester of pregnancy, usually around 18 to 20 weeks gestation. 7) Lean, a pregnant woman, was advised by doctors to opt for a surgical procedure to remove the baby from her womb because the baby was in an abnormal birth position. The surgical procedure mentioned in this scenario is known as a ________. A) caesarean section B) surrogate surgery C) postnatal operation D) water birth Answer: A Rationale: A caesarean section, commonly referred to as a C-section, is a surgical procedure to deliver a baby when vaginal delivery is not possible or safe, such as when the baby is in an abnormal birth position. 8) Henry argues that having newborns can have a negative effect on fathers. Which of the following is an accurate statement that strengthens Henry’s claim? A) Typically, the responsibility for a baby’s care tends to fall heavily on new fathers, they are more likely than mothers to experience marital dissatisfaction B) Between four and ten percent of fathers are found to have postpartum depression symptoms in the first year of their children’s birth. C) Fatherhood has found to enhance the sense of maturity and responsibility in most men. D) Bonding between the mother and the newborn has always been found to be more endearing and instant than between the father and the newborn. Answer: B Rationale: Option B strengthens Henry's claim by providing evidence that a significant percentage of fathers experience postpartum depression symptoms, indicating a potential negative effect of newborns on fathers' mental health. 9) The number of live children born every year per 1,000 women ages 15 to 44 refers to the ________. A) paternity rate B) surrogacy rate C) infancy rate D) fertility rate Answer: D Rationale: The fertility rate refers to the number of live children born every year per 1,000 women ages 15 to 44. It is a key demographic indicator of a population's reproductive patterns. 10) Which of the following is True of nonmarital births in America? A) The majority of children born in America are from nonmarital births. B) Births to unmarried women are similar across racial-ethnic groups. C) Teenagers account for less than one percent of all nonmarital births. D) White women have more nonmarital babies than do other groups. Answer: D Rationale: Option D is True of nonmarital births in America. White women have historically had more nonmarital births compared to other racial-ethnic groups, although this trend has been changing in recent years. 11) Which of the following is a macro-level factor that contributes to changing birthrates? A) Postponing marriage decreases birthrates. B) Economic recessions tend to decrease birthrates because of unemployment. C) Social contexts such as education have a great effect on birthrates. D) Birth spacing, or how often women have babies, also affects birthrates. Answer: B Rationale: Economic recessions can lead to decreased birthrates due to factors such as unemployment, financial instability, and uncertainty about the future, which may deter couples from having children. 12) During a debate about birthrates, Charlie is of the opinion that prenatal care affects birth rates. However, his colleague Randy disagrees and states that the receipt of prenatal care does not impact birth rates. Which of the following is an accurate statement that weakens Randy’s argument? A) Women who receive prenatal care during their third trimester are less likely to opt for future births. B) Women who get prenatal care after the first trimester are more likely to have a second child within 18 months than those who get prenatal care early in pregnancy. C) Women who receive prenatal care early in pregnancy are more likely to have at least two or more children. D) Women in many African American societies are increasingly receiving more prenatal care during their second trimester and hence are less likely to have children for another 24 months. Answer: B Rationale: Option B weakens Randy's argument by suggesting that the timing of prenatal care may influence subsequent birth decisions, indicating a potential impact of prenatal care on birth rates. 13) In a ________ birth, the baby is less than 37 weeks compared with 39 to 41 weeks for a full-term birth. A) surrogate B) vaginal C) caesarean D) pre-term Answer: D Rationale: A pre-term birth refers to the delivery of a baby before 37 weeks of gestation, compared to the typical 39 to 41 weeks for a full-term birth. 14) Which of the following is True of unintended pregnancies? A) Majority of pregnancies in the United States are unintended. B) Repeated unintended childbearing has increased among black women. C) The fathers of unintended pregnancies typically tend to be more engaged with their toddlers. D) They are relatively rare among women between the ages of 20 and 29. Answer: B Rationale: Option B is True. Repeated unintended childbearing has increased among black women, indicating a demographic trend regarding unintended pregnancies. 15) Which of the following is a likely consequence of lower rates of contraceptive use among African American women? A) The African American population has the lowest rates of abortion. B) There has been an increase in the rates of unintended childbearing in the African American population. C) The effect of marriage squeeze is found to be lowest in the African American population. D) There has been an increase in the number of married couples in the African American population. Answer: B Rationale: Option B is a likely consequence. Lower rates of contraceptive use among African American women can contribute to an increase in unintended childbearing within this population. 16) ________ is the prevention of pregnancy by behavioral, mechanical, or chemical means. A) Pre-natalization B) Fertilization C) Contraception D) Post-natalization Answer: C Rationale: Contraception refers to methods used to prevent pregnancy by behavioral, mechanical, or chemical means, thus distinguishing it from prenatal or postnatal processes. 17) How do African American women or teens differ from Latinas with regard to using contraceptives? A) African American women have lesser percentage of unintended births than their Latina counterparts. B) African American women between the ages of 15 to 44 are less likely to use contraceptives than their Latina counterparts. C) Never married African American teens are less likely to have used contraceptives in their last sexual intercourse when compared to their Latina counterparts. D) African American women living on low-income are more likely to use contraceptives than Latinas living on high-income. Answer: B Rationale: Option B indicates a difference between African American women and Latinas regarding contraceptive use, highlighting lower usage among African American women. 18) Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning how micro-level factors lead to postponed parenthood? A) Daunting jobs and careers make it more difficult to meet prospective mates. B) A number of national studies show that the higher a woman’s education level, the more likely she is to delay childbearing. C) Many young adults are delaying marriage and having children because they have high college and credit card debts. D) Disturbed by high divorce rates, some young couples delay parenthood until they feel confident that their marriage will work. Answer: A Rationale: Option A highlights how micro-level factors such as demanding careers can influence the postponement of parenthood by affecting individuals' abilities to form relationships and start families. 19) Which of the following is a micro-level reason why people postpone childbearing? A) the fear of being a single, working mom B) the rise in divorce rates across all populations of the country C) the difficulty in finding a suitable job to sustain a family D) the lack of a national child care program Answer: A Rationale: Option A presents a micro-level reason for postponing childbearing by highlighting concerns about being a single, working mother, which may deter individuals from starting families. 20) Mark believes that micro-level factors are primarily responsible for delayed or postponed parenthood. However, Carlos disagrees and is of the opinion that macro-level factors actually delay parenthood. Which of the following is an accurate statement that will strengthen Carlos’s view? A) Attitudes about the “ideal” family size have changed, resulting in less pressure to have more than two children. B) Women who enjoy their jobs and need money to boost their household income are often reluctant to take on balancing child rearing and paid work. C) Daunting jobs and careers make it more difficult to meet prospective mates. D) Advances in reproductive technology have reduced many women’s concerns about their biological clock and finding a mate. Answer: D Rationale: Option D supports Carlos's view by highlighting how macro-level factors such as advances in reproductive technology can impact individuals' decisions about delaying parenthood, suggesting that these factors play a role in shaping reproductive choices. 21) Ross believes that micro-level factors are typically responsible for delayed or postponed parenthood. However, Ryan disagrees and is of the opinion that macro-level factors typically contribute to postponed parenthood. Which of the following is an accurate statement that will strengthen Ryan’s view? A) Attitudes about the “ideal” family size have changed, resulting in less pressure to have more than two children. B) Many single women don’t want to conceive or adopt a child on their own. C) The United States—especially compared with many European countries—has abysmal family leave policies, and rigid work schedules. D) Women who enjoy their jobs and need money to boost their household income are often reluctant to take on balancing child rearing and paid work. Answer: C Rationale: Option C supports Ryan's view by highlighting macro-level factors such as inadequate family leave policies and rigid work schedules in the United States, which can discourage individuals from starting families or lead to postponed parenthood. 22) Which of the following is True of infertility? A) Men are more likely than women to be infertile. B) Women are more likely than men to be infertile. C) About one-fourth of infertility cases are diagnosed as having idiopathic infertility. D) Infertility affects about 50 percent of all couples of reproductive age. Answer: C Rationale: Option C is True. Idiopathic infertility, where the cause of infertility is unknown, accounts for about one-fourth of infertility cases, indicating that a significant portion of cases lack a clear identifiable cause. 23) An infection of the uterus that spreads to the tubes as well as to the ovaries and surrounding tissues is called ________. A) pelvic inflammatory disease B) endometriosis C) gonorrhea D) chlamydia Answer: A Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) refers to an infection of the female reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries, often caused by sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia or gonorrhea. 24) Tyler was diagnosed with a bacterial STD known as the “silent epidemic.” However, doctors concurred that a strong dosage of antibiotics would cure Tyler. Which of the following did Tyler most likely incur? A) chlamydia B) herpes C) endometriosis D) PID Answer: A Rationale: Option A is correct. Chlamydia is often referred to as the "silent epidemic" because it can cause serious complications like PID in women, yet it often presents with no symptoms, making it easy to go undetected and untreated. 25) In which of the following diseases does the tissue that forms the lining of the uterus spread outside the womb and attach itself to other pelvic organs, such as the ovaries or the fallopian tubes? A) endometriosis B) chlamydia C) HIV D) herpes Answer: A Rationale: Option A describes endometriosis, a condition where the tissue that lines the uterus grows outside of it, commonly affecting pelvic organs like the ovaries and fallopian tubes, leading to pain and fertility issues. 26) Which of the following can cause male infertility? A) chlamydia B) endometriosis C) endocrine disorders D) pelvic inflammatory disease Answer: C Rationale: Option C is correct. Endocrine disorders, such as hormonal imbalances, can disrupt sperm production and affect male fertility. 27) Due to her husband’s infertility, Lily had to opt for a medical procedure in which she was fertilized with a donor’s sperm while she was ovulating. In this scenario, Lily is undergoing ________. A) caesarean section B) surrogacy C) fertility drugging D) artificial insemination Answer: D Rationale: Lily is undergoing artificial insemination, a fertility treatment where sperm is directly inserted into a woman's reproductive tract to facilitate fertilization, typically used in cases of male infertility or when the male partner's sperm cannot reach the egg naturally. 28) Which of the following is True of in vitro fertilization? A) It always requires a surrogate mother in order to be carried out. B) It requires the surgical removal of eggs from a woman’s ovaries. C) It has very low rates for multiple births. D) It involves storing unfertilized eggs for future use. Answer: B Rationale: Option B is correct. In vitro fertilization (IVF) involves surgically retrieving eggs from a woman's ovaries, fertilizing them with sperm in a laboratory dish, and then transferring the embryos back into the woman's uterus. 29) Which of the following is an example of assisted reproductive technology (ART)? A) in vitro fertilization B) chorionic villus sampling C) fertility drug use D) amniocentesis Answer: A Rationale: Option A is correct. In vitro fertilization (IVF) is a form of assisted reproductive technology (ART) that involves fertilizing eggs with sperm outside the body, often used to overcome infertility or genetic disorders. 30) Samantha, a pregnant wife, found that she was set to have septuplets. However, she feared that she would be unable to support all her children financially and decided to undergo an operation that would abort some fetuses. In this scenario, Samantha is undergoing a procedure known as ________. A) egg freezing B) artificial insemination C) surrogacy D) selective reduction Answer: D Rationale: Samantha is undergoing selective reduction, a medical procedure where one or more fetuses in a multiple pregnancy are selectively aborted to improve the chances of survival for the remaining fetuses and reduce potential health risks for both the mother and the babies. 31) After many failed attempts to conceive naturally, Victoria is thinking about taking fertility drugs in order to boost her chances of getting pregnant. Which of the following is an accurate statement that will support Victoria’s idea of taking fertility drugs? A) Fertility drugs have a success rate of 50 to 70 percent. B) Fertility drugs are known to produce multiple births for its takers. C) Fertility drugs increase the chances of preterm births. D) Fertility drugs have been found to cause no side effects on babies. Answer: A Rationale: Option A supports Victoria's idea by stating that fertility drugs have a relatively high success rate of 50 to 70 percent in aiding conception, making them a viable option for couples struggling with infertility. 32) A(n) ________ refers to the developing organism up to the eighth week of pregnancy. A) embryo B) fetus C) egg cell D) zygote Answer: A Rationale: Option A is correct. An embryo refers to the developing organism from fertilization through the eighth week of pregnancy, after which it is typically referred to as a fetus. 33) Which of the following is True of in vitro fertilization? A) It typically results in overweight babies. B) It is an extremely inexpensive method. C) It is also known as artificial insemination. D) It presents high chances of preterm births. Answer: D Rationale: Option D is accurate. In vitro fertilization (IVF) presents a higher risk of preterm births compared to natural conception, primarily due to factors such as multiple pregnancies and underlying maternal health conditions. 34) A similarity between in vitro fertilization and using fertility drugs is that they both ________. A) involve removing eggs from a woman’s ovaries, fertilizing them in a petri dish B) help identify any possible genetic disease that fetus may be carrying C) require a third-person to act as surrogate to the pregnancy D) are more likely to produce preterm, multiple births Answer: D Rationale: Option D is correct. Both in vitro fertilization (IVF) and fertility drugs have been associated with higher rates of preterm births and multiple pregnancies, making them similar in terms of these outcomes. 35) ________ is an arrangement in which a woman carries and delivers a child for another person or couple. A) Artificial insemination B) Egg freezing C) In Vitro fertilization D) Surrogacy Answer: D Rationale: Option D, surrogacy, describes the arrangement where a woman carries and delivers a child for another person or couple, typically using assisted reproductive technologies such as IVF. 36) Tania, who is in her tenth week of pregnancy, is concerned about the fetus growing inside her. Having her first child at the age of 40, she is worried that the baby may suffer from Down syndrome. Which of the following prenatal tests would best suit Tania if she plans to obtain such information? A) pap smear test B) in vitro fertilization C) amniocentesis D) chorionic villus sampling Answer: D Rationale: Option D, chorionic villus sampling (CVS), is a prenatal test suitable for detecting genetic disorders such as Down syndrome by analyzing a small sample of cells from the placenta. 37) Jenny underwent a surgical procedure during the twentieth week of her pregnancy in which the doctors inserted a needle into her amniotic sac through her abdomen and withdrew some fluid. The fluid was then studied for any abnormalities such as signs of Down syndrome and spina bifida. In this scenario, Jenny underwent a procedure known as ________. A) amniocentesis B) artificial insemination C) preimplantation genetic diagnosis D) chorionic villus sampling Answer: A Rationale: Option A is correct. Jenny underwent amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic procedure involving the removal of a small amount of amniotic fluid for genetic testing and evaluation of fetal health. 38) In a(n) ________ adoption, the records of the adoption are kept sealed, and the birth parents aren’t involved in the adoptee’s life. A) mediated B) open C) closed D) semi-open Answer: C Rationale: Option C describes a closed adoption, where the records are sealed, and the birth parents have no involvement in the adoptee's life. 39) The Rutherfords are planning to adopt a child, but they do not wish to expose the child to the birth parents, nor are they interested in co-parenting the child with the birth parents. Which of the following types of adoption practices would best suit the Rutherfords? A) semi-open adoption B) open adoption C) mediated adoption D) closed adoption Answer: D Rationale: Option D, closed adoption, aligns with the Rutherfords' preference for minimal contact with birth parents and maintaining privacy in the adoption process. 40) Which of the following is an advantage of open adoptions? A) Birth parents can maintain privacy while providing some information. B) Adoptive parents are safe from the interference or co-parenting by birth parents. C) Adopted children are safe from unstable or emotionally disturbed birth parents. D) Adopted children are less likely to feel abandoned and can increase their circle of supportive adults. Answer: D Rationale: Option D highlights an advantage of open adoptions by emphasizing that adopted children are less likely to feel abandoned and can benefit from having access to information about their birth parents and a broader support network. 41) Semi-open adoptions differ from open adoptions in that in semi-open adoptions ________. A) the child has no contact with the birth parent B) communication between the adoptive and birth parents takes place only through a third party C) adoptive parents don’t have access to much medical information about the birth family D) adoptive parents are safe from the interference or co-parenting by birth parents Answer: B Rationale: Option B accurately describes semi-open adoptions, where communication between the adoptive and birth parents occurs through a third party, maintaining some level of privacy and distance between the two parties. 42) Milo believes that open adoptions are better than closed adoptions, and Rico believes that semi-open adoptions are better than closed adoptions. Which of the following points would they agree upon? A) that birth parents should not be informed of who the adoptive parents are B) that adoptive parents should not be allowed medical information about the birth family C) that adoptive parents should be completely insulated from interference by the birth parents D) that adopted children should not be deprived of information regarding their birth parents Answer: D Rationale: Option D aligns with both Milo and Rico's viewpoints as it emphasizes the importance of adopted children having access to information about their birth parents regardless of the adoption type. 43) Closed adoption differs from semi-open adoption in that in a closed adoption ________. A) the adopted child is co-parented by the adoptive parents and the birth parents B) birth parents are allowed to develop a relationship with the child as she or he grows C) the adopted child has no contact with the biological parents and little, if any, information about them D) communication between the adoptee and the adoptive and biological parents takes place only through a third party Answer: C Rationale: Option C accurately describes closed adoption, where the adopted child has no contact with the biological parents and minimal information about them is available. 44) Which of the following is True of the differences between open adoptions and semiopen adoptions? A) Adoptive parents are safe from the interference or co-parenting by birth parents in open adoptions when compared to semi-open adoptions. B) Adopted children are safe from unstable or emotionally disturbed birth parents in open adoptions when compared to semi-open adoptions. C) Adoptive parents have a greater sense of control in semi-open adoptions when compared to open adoptions. D) Adopted children are less likely to experience identity confusion in semi-open adoptions when compared to open adoptions. Answer: C Rationale: Option C is correct. Semi-open adoptions offer adoptive parents a greater sense of control and privacy compared to open adoptions, where communication with birth parents is more direct. 45) Brandon is against transracial adoption and states that the child’s race should match that of the adoptive parent’s. However, Bryan argues otherwise and states that the American society is open-minded and accepting of such differences. Which of the following is an accurate statement that strengthens Bryan’s claim? A) Forty percent of adopted children in the United States are of a different race, ethnicity, or culture than their adoptive parent/parents. B) Studies have shown that adopted children are more likely to be physically abused by their adoptive parents. C) Adopted children comprise 50 percent of the U.S. child population. D) The Multiethnic Placement Act (MEPA) requires that all transracial adoption be open adoptions. Answer: A Rationale: Option A supports Bryan's claim by providing statistical evidence that a significant portion of adopted children in the United States are of a different race, ethnicity, or culture than their adoptive parents, indicating societal acceptance of transracial adoption. 46) International adoptions increased steadily from 1998 to 2004 but then started dropping. Which of the following is a reason for this? A) Host countries have curtailed international adoptions for cultural, political, and economic reasons. B) More childless American couples are adopting within America as the adoption process has become less rigid. C) The waiting period for adoption in the United States has been revised to less than that of most international countries. D) American laws do not encourage childless couples to engage in intercountry adoption. Answer: A Rationale: Option A correctly identifies that host countries have implemented restrictions on international adoptions due to various reasons such as cultural, political, and economic considerations, leading to a decline in international adoption rates. 47) Nelly, an unmarried woman, found out that she was pregnant. However, she did not want to go through with the pregnancy and decided to have an abortion. In this scenario, Nelly should go for a ________. A) miscarriage B) induced abortion C) surrogate abortion D) spontaneous abortion Answer: B Rationale: Option B, induced abortion, is the appropriate choice for Nelly, as it involves the deliberate termination of pregnancy through medical or surgical means. 48) While Amber was pregnant with her fourth child, she feared that she would not be able to support all her children. Therefore, during her first trimester, she used medically approved pills to kill the fetus. In this scenario, Amber opted for a ________. A) legal abortion B) spontaneous abortion C) selective reduction D) silent miscarriage Answer: A Rationale: Option A, legal abortion, accurately describes Amber's action of intentionally terminating her pregnancy using medically approved methods during the first trimester due to concerns about her ability to support all her children. 49) Trisha is planning to get an abortion. In order for her to obtain a safe physical abortion, she must opt for it during the ________. A) third trimester B) 18th week of pregnancy C) first trimester D) 24th week of pregnancy Answer: C Rationale: Option C is correct. To ensure a safe physical abortion, Trisha should opt for it during the first trimester of pregnancy, as later stages pose higher risks and may limit the available options for abortion. 50) Laura, a student, plans to have children in the future. However, she does not plan to get married and prefers to be a single mom. In this scenario, Laura is considered to be ________. A) reluctantly childless B) temporarily childless C) voluntarily childless D) biologically childless Answer: B Rationale: Option B, temporarily childless, accurately describes Laura's situation as she plans to have children in the future but currently does not have any immediate plans for parenthood. 51) Briefly explain yes-no couples. Answer: In yes–no couples, one partner may not want children, even late in the pregnancy. Typically, the woman decides to go ahead with the pregnancy regardless of what the father thinks, which sometimes causes a separation or divorce. Or, in the case of unmarried couples, the father may simply stop seeing the woman after she becomes pregnant. 52) Briefly describe a few benefits of becoming a parent. Answer: Many people believe that their lives would be incomplete without children. Parents often say that children bring love and affection; it’s a pleasure to watch them grow; and children bring fulfilment and a sense of satisfaction. Even new parents who are struggling with a colicky infant (whose abdominal distress causes frequent crying) delight in the baby’s social and physical growth. 53) Explain three macro-level factors that affect birthrates. Answer: The reasons for variations in birthrates are diverse, complex, and interrelated. Some of the key factors for lower fertility rates include the following: 1. Economic recessions tend to decrease birthrates because of unemployment, home foreclosures, and related income problems. 2. Access to health care reduces fertility rates when women get emergency contraception (EC). Emergency contraception is most effective when taken right after sexual intercourse, but prevents pregnancy up to three days after intercourse. 3. Publicly funded family planning services that provide counseling and contraceptives, particularly for teenagers and young adults, reduce unintended pregnancies and birthrates. 54) Briefly explain teen pregnancy and contraceptive usage in America. Answer: Teen pregnancy rates in the United States have declined, but the incidence is still the highest in the developed world. Nearly 80 percent of teen pregnancies are unintended, and young adults between the ages of 20 and 24 have the highest rate of unintended pregnancy. Girls who start having sex at age 14 or younger are the least likely to use contraception and the most likely to postpone using any birth control methods. 55) Explain three micro-level factors that contribute to postponed marriages. Answer: 1. Daunting jobs and careers make it more difficult to meet prospective mates. 2. Women who enjoy their jobs and need money to boost their household income are often reluctant to take on balancing child rearing and paid work. 3. Many single women don’t want to conceive or adopt a child on their own. According to a 43-year-old woman whose mother raised her and her siblings, “The hardest thing you can be is a single, working mom.” 56) Briefly explain preimplantation genetic diagnosis. Answer: Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is a recent but widely used ART procedure that enables physicians to identify genetic diseases, such as cystic fibrosis or Down syndrome, in the embryo before implantation. This technology allows a couple to choose only healthy embryos for transfer into a woman’s uterus. 57) Robert’s mother gave him up for adoption when he was an infant. However, his adoptive parents allowed her to visit regularly, and he had regular contact with her while he was growing up. Identify and briefly explain the type of adoption seen in this scenario. Answer: This scenario is an example of an open adoption. Open adoption is the practice of sharing information and maintaining contact between biological and adoptive parents throughout the child’s life. 58) Tina was given for adoption as a baby. Her adoptive parents were not informed of who the biological parents were. Tina, who knows she was adopted, is contemplating using social media networks to find out who her birth parents are. What kind of adoption is exemplified here and what are the effects of social media on such adoptions? Answer: Tina’s adoption is an example of a closed adoption. In a closed adoption, the records of the adoption are kept sealed, the birthparent isn’t involved in the adoptee’s life, and the child has no contact with the biological parents and little, if any, information about them. Because of social media networks, especially Facebook, adopted children have found and contacted their birth mothers. Some birth mothers don’t mind, but others resent the violation of their right to privacy, especially if the birth resulted from a rape or violent relationship. Being contacted by a biological child can renew past traumas that the mothers may have struggled to overcome. Adopted children argue, however, that they have a right to meet their biological parents and learn about genetic health histories that may affect their own children. 59) Some social scientists believe that same-sex couples adopt children in order to be socially accepted as parents. However, critics to this theory maintain that both same-sex couples and heterosexual couples adopt for the same reasons. Provide an explanation that justifies the critics’ view. Answer: Same-sex adoptive parents tend to be disproportionately white and with high income and education levels, but their reasons for pursuing parenthood echo those of heterosexuals. For example, gay couples adopt children because they love kids, believe that raising children is an important part of life, and want to improve a child’s life by providing a good home, and/or because a partner has a strong desire to be a parent. 60) Women are temporarily childless if they plan to have children in the future. Briefly explain the terminology used to describe a woman who is biologically incapable of having children. Answer: Women are involuntarily childless because of fertility or other biological problems. People who aren’t infertile and have chosen not to have children prefer to call themselves child free rather than childless. Childless implies a lack or a loss, whereas child free connotes a choice. Test Bank for Marriages and Families Nijole V Benokraitis 9780205957224, 9780134736150
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