Preview Extract
Chapter 8 Project Scheduling
8.1 True False
1) Project time includes all the required processes to manage and complete the project in a
timely fashion.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Project time management includes activities such as defining the scope, creating a schedule,
estimating resources, and monitoring progress to ensure the project is completed on time.
2) SAP PS is a free, web-based project software package.
Answer: False
Rationale:
SAP PS (Project System) is a project management module in SAP ERP (Enterprise Resource
Planning) software. It is not free and is part of a larger ERP suite, not a standalone web-based
package.
3) Project Evaluation and Review Technique is a project management tool used to schedule,
organize, and coordinate tasks within a project.
Answer: True
Rationale:
PERT is a project management technique that helps to analyze and represent the tasks
involved in completing a project. It is used to schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks to
ensure the project is completed efficiently.
4) Primary advantages of PERT are that it is flexible and easy to use.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While PERT has its advantages, such as providing a visual representation of the project
timeline and identifying critical paths, it is not necessarily considered flexible or easy to use.
PERT requires accurate estimates and can be complex to implement, especially for large
projects.
5) PERT is inexpensive to maintain and primarily used for small to medium-sized projects.
Answer: False
Rationale:
PERT can be cost-effective for projects of any size, but its use is not limited to small or
medium-sized projects. It can be used for large and complex projects as well, depending on
the project's requirements and the organization's resources.
6) A work breakdown flowchart is useful for all stakeholders to track the project from
beginning to finish.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While a work breakdown structure (WBS) is a useful tool for breaking down a project into
manageable components, a flowchart may not be the most effective way to track the project
from beginning to finish. Other tools, such as Gantt charts or project management software,
may be more suitable for tracking project progress.
7) Before any successor activity can be initiated in PDM, all the activities that precede that
activity have to be completed.
Answer: True
Rationale:
In Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM), successor activities cannot start until all their
predecessor activities are completed. This ensures that the project progresses in a logical
sequence and helps to avoid dependencies issues.
8) In PDM, a project will have one start activity and at least two finish activities.
Answer: False
Rationale:
In PDM, a project will have one start activity (represented by a node with no predecessors)
and one finish activity (represented by a node with no successors). There can be multiple
finish activities if the project has multiple end points or deliverables.
9) In PDM, an activity can have predecessors with no successors.
Answer: True
Rationale:
In PDM, an activity can have predecessors (activities that come before it) with no successors
(activities that come after it). This can happen if an activity is the last in a sequence or if its
successor activities have been removed or delayed.
10) In PDM, an activity can have successors with no predecessors.
Answer: True
Rationale:
In PDM, an activity can have successors (activities that come after it) with no predecessors
(activities that come before it). This can happen if an activity is the first in a sequence or if its
predecessor activities have been removed or completed.
11) One very important purpose of constructing and using PDM is to determine how much
time is needed to complete a project.
Answer: True
Rationale:
PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method) is used in project management to determine the
sequence of activities and dependencies, which helps in calculating the critical path and
ultimately, the project duration.
12) PDM uses time as a common factor to analyze other project success factors like scope,
resources, cost, performance, and value.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Time is a critical factor in project management, and PDM helps in analyzing how different
activities affect the project timeline, which in turn impacts other success factors like scope,
resources, cost, and performance.
13) When making a forward pass through a network, the earliest start time of a successor
activity is the earliest finish date of a predecessor.
Answer: True
Rationale:
In the forward pass calculation, the earliest start time of a successor activity is determined by
adding the duration of the predecessor activity to its earliest finish time. This helps in
determining the earliest possible start time for each activity in the network.
14) The earliest finish time is the total of the earliest start time and the activity duration.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The earliest finish time is not the total of the earliest start time and the activity duration. It is
simply the earliest possible time an activity can be completed based on its predecessors'
completion times.
15) Capacity measures how early or late an activity can start or finish.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Capacity refers to the maximum amount of work that can be completed in a given time
period. It is not directly related to how early or late an activity can start or finish.
16) Causing a delay to the whole project is called free float.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Causing a delay to the whole project is not called free float. Free float refers to the amount of
time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of its successor activities or
the project finish date.
17) An activity on the critical path has several days of free float.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Activities on the critical path have zero free float, meaning any delay in these activities will
directly impact the project's overall duration.
18) If the early start for an activity is 7 and the late start is 12, then the activity's slack is 84.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The slack or float of an activity is the amount of time that an activity can be delayed without
delaying the project completion date. In this case, the activity's slack would be 5, calculated
as late start (12) minus early start (7).
19) Free float is an early warning and an indicator that corrective measures to scheduling
have to be taken.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Free float is a measure of schedule flexibility and is not necessarily an early warning or an
indicator that corrective measures need to be taken. It simply indicates the amount of time an
activity can be delayed without delaying the project.
20) A significant disadvantage of PDM and PERT is that they should not be used in times of
uncertainty.
Answer: False
Rationale:
PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method) and PERT (Program Evaluation and Review
Technique) are actually designed to handle uncertainty in project scheduling. They allow for
estimating activity durations with uncertainty and analyzing the impact of this uncertainty on
the project schedule.
21) Optimistic time is the completion time having the highest probability.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Optimistic time is the shortest possible time in which an activity can be completed, not the
completion time with the highest probability. It is one of the three time estimates used in
PERT analysis, along with pessimistic and most likely times.
22) The standard deviation of the critical path is computed by summing the standard
deviations of the activities.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The standard deviation of the critical path is not computed by summing the standard
deviations of the activities. Instead, it is calculated based on the variances of the critical path
activities. The standard deviation of the critical path represents the variability or uncertainty
in the total project duration.
23) The total path standard deviation can be calculated as the square root of the sum of
variances of the critical path.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The total path standard deviation represents the total variability or uncertainty in the project
duration. It can be calculated as the square root of the sum of variances of the critical path
activities. This helps project managers understand the overall risk associated with the project
duration.
24) In order to keep the whole project on schedule, the CCPM method requires project
personnel to be strict with their start times.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM) focuses on managing resource constraints and
reducing variability in project schedules. It does not require strict adherence to start times but
rather emphasizes the efficient use of resources and the identification of critical paths to
ensure timely project completion.
25) The CCPM method modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources.
Answer: True
Rationale:
CCPM recognizes that limited resources can impact project schedules. It modifies the project
schedule by incorporating buffers and focusing on resource allocation to ensure that critical
tasks are completed on time, even in the presence of resource constraints.
26) Multitasking is when a resource is responsible for doing more than one activity at the
same time.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Multitasking occurs when a resource is assigned to multiple activities simultaneously. This
can lead to inefficiencies and delays due to the need to switch between tasks, potentially
impacting the overall project schedule.
27) The total project duration is the sum of all critical tasks.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The total project duration is the sum of the durations of all critical tasks, which are the tasks
that determine the overall duration of the project. Any delay in a critical task will directly
impact the project's completion date.
28) Contraction rate is the duration at which the project can be compressed with available
resources.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Contraction rate is not a standard term in project management. It is not used to describe the
duration at which a project can be compressed with available resources. It is important to
clarify the context in which this term is being used to provide a more accurate response.
29) Each activity can be crashed at least once.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Crashing an activity refers to shortening its duration by adding more resources to it. Each
activity can be crashed at least once to reduce its duration, but there may be limitations based
on resource availability, cost, and other project constraints.
30) Boeing used FastTrack for scheduling, tracking, and resource allocation throughout the
Boeing 767 project.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Boeing did not use FastTrack for scheduling, tracking, and resource allocation throughout the
Boeing 767 project. FastTrack is a project management software, but there is no evidence to
suggest that it was specifically used by Boeing for this project.
8.2 Multiple Choice
1) A plan to implement a project using an ordered sequence of activities with time allotted for
each activity best defines
A) scheduling.
B) feasibility study.
C) thought process map.
D) quality functional deployment.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Scheduling is the process of creating a plan that includes an ordered sequence of activities
with allotted time for each activity to ensure the project is completed on time.
2) Which of the following is the delivery of a project scope?
A) quality functional deployment
B) project schedule
C) burndown chart
D) thought process map
Answer: B
Rationale:
The project schedule outlines the timeline for delivering the project scope, indicating when
each aspect of the project will be completed.
3) Which of the following was chosen by Coca-Cola Bottling Co. Consolidated to improve
their project cost estimations and use their resources effectively?
A) Zoho
B) Primavera
C) Microsoft Office Enterprise Project Management Solution
D) SAP PS
Answer: C
Rationale:
Microsoft Office Enterprise Project Management Solution is a project management software
that integrates with Microsoft Office and can help improve project cost estimations and
resource utilization.
4) Popular project management software packages include each of the following except
A) Primavera.
B) Zoho.
C) FastTrack.
D) Microsoft Access.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Microsoft Access is not a project management software package. The other options—
Primavera, Zoho, and FastTrack—are popular project management software packages.
5) Which of the following demands extensive hardware, is used by larger organizations, and
may not be ideal for managers working with smaller projects?
A) Primavera
B) Zoho
C) FastTrack
D) SAP PS
Answer: A
Rationale:
Primavera is known for demanding extensive hardware resources and is typically used by
larger organizations for managing complex projects. It may not be ideal for managers
working with smaller projects due to its complexity and resource requirements.
6) Which of the following is a free, web-based project software package?
A) Microsoft Project
B) Zoho
C) Primavera
D) SAP PS
Answer: B
Rationale:
Zoho is a free, web-based project management software package that offers a range of tools
for managing projects, tasks, and collaboration.
7) Which of the following is integrated with the organization's finance and human resources
databases?
A) Primavera
B) Zoho
C) SAP PS
D) Microsoft Project
Answer: C
Rationale:
SAP PS (Project System) is a project management module in SAP ERP (Enterprise Resource
Planning) software that is integrated with the organization's finance and human resources
databases.
8) Benefits of networking project activities include
A) an estimate of time and cost at any point of a project.
B) the interdependence of the activities of a project.
C) a graphical representation of work to be performed.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Networking project activities allows for an estimate of time and cost at any point in the
project, shows the interdependence of activities, and provides a graphical representation of
the work to be performed.
9) A project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks within a
project best defines
A) PERT.
B) TMAP.
C) SWOT.
D) Delphi.
Answer: A
Rationale:
PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is a project management tool used to
schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks within a project, particularly useful for projects with
uncertain durations.
10) Which of the following was developed by Du Pont de Nemours & Co. and Remington
Rand Corporation?
A) PERT
B) CPM
C) TMAP
D) QFD
Answer: B
Rationale:
CPM (Critical Path Method) was developed by Du Pont de Nemours & Co. and Remington
Rand Corporation as a project management technique for scheduling and coordinating project
activities.
11) Which of the following is used in project planning because it helps a project manager to
identify interdependencies and problems between various activities?
A) QFD
B) TMAP
C) PERT
D) SWOT
Answer: C
Rationale:
PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is used in project planning to identify
interdependencies and problems between various activities, helping project managers to
schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks effectively.
12) Advantages of PERT include
A) inexpensive to maintain.
B) flexibility.
C) easy to use.
D) ability to identify interdependencies and problems between activities.
Answer: D
Rationale:
One of the advantages of PERT is its ability to identify interdependencies and problems
between activities, which helps in effective project planning and management.
13) Which of the following is used to help project managers plan, schedule, monitor, and
control their projects?
A) PDM
B) SWOT
C) DFD
D) ERD
Answer: A
Rationale:
PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method) is used by project managers to plan, schedule,
monitor, and control their projects by visualizing the relationships between project activities.
14) PDM is useful because it provides
A) the start and end times of all activities.
B) expected project completion time.
C) the probability of completion at any given period during the project.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
PDM provides the start and end times of all activities, the expected project completion time,
and the probability of completion at any given period during the project, making it a useful
tool for project management.
15) A specific task, or set of tasks, that is part of the scope of a project, uses up some of the
resources of a project, and requires some finite time to be completed best defines
A) activity.
B) deliverable.
C) SWOT summary.
D) product.
Answer: A
Rationale:
An activity is a specific task or set of tasks that is part of the scope of a project, uses up some
of the resources of a project, and requires some finite time to be completed.
16) When constructing the PDM, an activity can have
A) predecessors with no successors.
B) successors with no predecessors.
C) both predecessors and successors.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
When constructing the PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method), an activity can have
predecessors with no successors, successors with no predecessors, or both predecessors and
successors.
17) Which of the following is the longest path of the network, determines the total duration of
the project, and is also the shortest amount of time necessary to accomplish the project?
A) burst path
B) critical path
C) project path
D) designated path
Answer: B
Rationale:
The critical path is the longest path of the network, determines the total duration of the
project, and is also the shortest amount of time necessary to accomplish the project.
18) Basic reasons for creating dependencies of project activities include each of the following
except
A) external dependencies.
B) discretionary dependencies.
C) desirable dependencies.
D) mandatory dependencies.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Desirable dependencies are not a basic reason for creating dependencies of project activities.
The other options—external dependencies, discretionary dependencies, and mandatory
dependencies—are basic reasons for creating dependencies.
19) If prototype testing can be started only after the completion of the prototype, then this is
an example of a(n)
A) external dependency.
B) discretionary dependency.
C) replicated dependency.
D) mandatory dependency.
Answer: D
Rationale:
This is an example of a mandatory dependency, where the start of prototype testing depends
on the completion of the prototype.
20) Dependencies defined by the project team are
A) discretionary dependencies.
B) specific dependencies.
C) external dependencies.
D) mandatory dependencies.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Dependencies defined by the project team are discretionary dependencies, which are
dependencies based on the project team's judgment or preference.
21) Dependencies involving relationships between the project and non-project activities best
defines
A) mandatory dependencies.
B) external dependencies.
C) discretionary dependencies.
D) internal dependencies.
Answer: B
Rationale:
External dependencies are relationships between project activities and non-project activities
or events that can impact the project schedule or outcome.
22) When working with project management software, factors that drive the calculation of
time include each of the following except
A) resource assignments and types.
B) task dependencies.
C) task iterations.
D) project calendars.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Task iterations are not a factor that drives the calculation of time in project management
software. The other options—resource assignments and types, task dependencies, and project
calendars—are factors that affect the calculation of time.
23) The amount of time that an activity in a project network can be delayed without causing a
delay to subsequent activities or project completion best defines
A) restricted flow.
B) task obstruction.
C) capacity.
D) slack.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Slack is the amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying subsequent
activities or the project completion date.
24) Causing a delay to a subsequent activity is called
A) free float.
B) designated slack.
C) reduced slack.
D) total float.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Free float is the amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the early
start of any immediately following activities.
25) Causing a delay to the whole project is called
A) acquired float.
B) total float.
C) accumulated float.
D) negative float.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Total float is the amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completion date.
26) For an activity, assume the early start is 3 weeks, early finish is 6 weeks, late start is 4
weeks, and late finish is 7 weeks. What is the activity's slack?
A) 3 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) 1 week
D) 2 weeks
Answer: C
Rationale:
Slack is calculated as late start minus early start, so 4 weeks (late start) minus 3 weeks (early
start) equals 1 week of slack.
27) For an activity, assume the early start is 12, early finish is 27, late start is 19, and late
finish is 34. What is the activity's slack?
A) 9
B) 6
C) 8
D) 7
Answer: D
Rationale:
Slack is calculated as late start minus early start, so 19 (late start) minus 12 (early start)
equals 7.
28) Which of the following usually occurs when the forward pass extends beyond the
customer's requested end date?
A) negative slack
B) positive slack
C) proportional slack
D) designated slack
Answer: A
Rationale:
Negative slack occurs when the forward pass extends beyond the customer's requested end
date, indicating that the project may be delayed unless corrective action is taken.
29) Negative slack can occur due to
A) unavailability of resources.
B) resources were either incorrect or did not do their job right.
C) some activities slipped during project execution.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Negative slack can occur due to various reasons, including unavailability of resources,
incorrect resource allocation, or activities slipping during project execution.
30) The shortest time in which an activity can be completed best defines
A) realistic time.
B) optimistic time.
C) pessimistic time.
D) designated time.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Optimistic time is the shortest time in which an activity can be completed, assuming
everything progresses better than expected.
31) The completion time having the highest probability best defines
A) preferred time.
B) pessimistic time.
C) most likely time.
D) optimistic time.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The most likely time in project management is the completion time having the highest
probability of occurrence, based on past experience or expert judgment.
32) The longest time that an activity might require best defines
A) expected time.
B) optimistic time.
C) most likely time.
D) pessimistic time.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Pessimistic time is the longest time that an activity might require, assuming everything goes
wrong or takes longer than expected.
33) If the optimistic time is 3, the most likely time is 5, and the pessimistic time is 7, then the
expected time is
A) 6.
B) 5.
C) 15.
D) 4.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The expected time (TE) in PERT is calculated as TE = (O + 4M + P) / 6 = (3 + 4*5 + 7) / 6 =
(3 + 20 + 7) / 6 = 30 / 6 = 5.
34) An overall management philosophy introduced by Goldratt to help organizations
continually achieve their goals best describes
A) six sigma.
B) theory of constraints.
C) scrum.
D) TMAP.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The Theory of Constraints (TOC) is an overall management philosophy introduced by
Eliyahu M. Goldratt to help organizations continually achieve their goals by identifying and
managing constraints in the system.
35) A method of planning and managing projects that are having difficulty due to lack of the
resources required to execute project tasks best defines
A) quality functional deployment.
B) fishbone diagram.
C) critical chain project management.
D) thought process map.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM) is a method of planning and managing projects
that are having difficulty due to a lack of the resources required to execute project tasks. It
focuses on managing resources effectively to complete projects on time.
36) In CCPM, a finite amount of time that can be added to a sequence of activities to noncritical tasks best describes
A) negative float.
B) safety float.
C) relaxed capacity.
D) feeding buffers.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Feeding buffers in Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM) are a finite amount of time
that can be added to a sequence of activities to non-critical tasks to protect the project from
delays and uncertainties.
37) In CCPM, a definite amount of time that can be added at the end of the project is called
A) project buffer.
B) feeding buffer.
C) relaxed capacity.
D) safety buffer.
Answer: A
Rationale:
A project buffer in Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM) is a definite amount of time
that can be added at the end of the project to protect the project completion date from delays.
38) Shortening an activity is called
A) float.
B) crash.
C) reduction.
D) smoothing.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Crashing is a project management technique used to shorten the duration of a project by
reducing the time needed for one or more critical activities.
39) The shortest time an activity can be completed assuming a reasonable level of resources
best defines
A) activation.
B) response time.
C) crash time.
D) task reduction.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Crash time is the shortest time an activity can be completed assuming a reasonable level of
resources are allocated to the activity.
40) Which of the following includes activities performed more quickly than they normally
would be performed?
A) relaxed program
B) floating program
C) reduced program
D) crashed program
Answer: D
Rationale:
A crashed program includes activities performed more quickly than they normally would be
performed, often by adding resources or changing the approach to the work.
41) The ratio of rise and run of the project crash line describes
A) cost slope.
B) crash time.
C) crash buffer.
D) expected time.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The ratio of rise and run of the project crash line describes the cost slope, which indicates the
additional cost incurred for each unit of time saved by crashing the project.
42) Disadvantages of accelerating the duration of a project include
A) customer satisfaction may suffer.
B) sometimes adding manpower late to a software project makes it later.
C) scheduling overtime may cause problems with direct and intangible costs.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Accelerating the duration of a project can have several disadvantages, including potential
impacts on customer satisfaction, the risk of adding manpower late to a project, and issues
related to scheduling overtime.
43) A technique to shorten the duration of a project to meet the target dates best describes
A) project enhancement.
B) fast tracking.
C) thought process mapping.
D) quantitative project assessment.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Fast tracking is a project management technique used to shorten the duration of a project by
overlapping tasks that would normally be done in sequence.
44) A scheduling approach driven by dates and deadlines best describes
A) quantitative scheduling.
B) effort-driven scheduling.
C) duration-based scheduling.
D) SWOT scheduling.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Duration-based scheduling is a scheduling approach driven by dates and deadlines, focusing
on the duration of activities and the overall project timeline.
45) A scheduling approach driven by the quantity of assigned resources best describes
A) effort-driven scheduling.
B) duration-based scheduling.
C) event-based scheduling.
D) task-based scheduling.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Effort-driven scheduling is a scheduling approach driven by the quantity of assigned
resources, where the duration of an activity is based on the amount of effort (or resources)
applied to it.
8.3 Essay
1) Identify five benefits of networking project activities.
Answer: Benefits include providing an estimate of project completion time; an overview of
how resources will be utilized in the project; a graphical representation of work to be
performed; project progress, and the start and end times of all activities in a project.
2) What is PDM? Why is it useful?
Answer: The precedence diagramming method is used to help project managers plan,
schedule, monitor, and control their projects. PDM is useful because it provides the expected
project completion time; probability of completion at any given period during the project;
critical activities that directly affect the completion time; activities that have extra time so
that resources can be shifted to critical activities during those activities with extra time; and
the start and the end times of all activities.
3) Identify and describe three dependencies of project activities.
Answer: Mandatory, discretionary, and external are three dependencies. Mandatory
dependencies are inherent to a project; discretionary dependencies are defined by the project
team; and external dependencies involve relationships between the project and non-project
activities.
4) When using project management software, what are six factors that drive the calculation of
time?
Answer: Six factors that drive the calculation of time include start time of the project, task
durations, project calendars, task dependencies, task constraints and deadlines, and resource
assignments and task types.
5) What is negative slack? Why does it occur?
Answer: Negative slack occurs when the forward pass extends beyond the customer's
requested end date. Reasons for negative slack are an unrealistic schedule due to either
customer requests or poor planning; very optimistic schedule due to either customer requests
or poor planning; some activities slipped during project execution; resources were either
incorrect or did not do their job right; and unavailability of resources.
Test Bank for Project Management: Process, Technology and Practice
Ganesh Vaidyanathan
9780132807180
