Preview Extract
Chapter 2 Process and Methods
2.1 True False
1) A procedure defines how to do a task.
Answer: True
Rationale:
A procedure is a set of steps or instructions that outline how a task is to be done. It provides a
clear sequence of actions to achieve a specific goal or result.
2) A business process is a collection of related, structured business activities or tasks in a
specific order that produce a specific service or product for a customer.
Answer: True
Rationale:
A business process is a series of interrelated tasks or activities conducted by an organization
to achieve a specific business goal. These activities are often structured in a specific order to
produce a desired outcome, such as a product or service for a customer.
3) Delivery is one of the PMBOK process groups.
Answer: False
Rationale:
In the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) framework, the process groups
are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. "Delivery" is
not recognized as a separate process group in this framework.
4) A project service request is a document that shows project details and the project team
with stakeholders' approval and customer authorization to work on a project.
Answer: False
Rationale:
A project service request (PSR) is a formal document used to request services from an
organization's IT department. It typically includes details such as the nature of the service
request, the desired outcome, and any relevant timelines. It is not specifically related to
project management and does not include project details or team information.
5) A work breakdown structure is a list of tasks broken down to small manageable activities.
Answer: True
Rationale:
A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of
work to be carried out by a project team. It breaks down the project into smaller, more
manageable activities, making it easier to plan, estimate, and track progress.
6) Stakeholders are people involved in the project or those who have an impact on the project
activities.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Stakeholders are individuals or groups who have an interest in the project or are affected by
its outcome. They can include project sponsors, team members, customers, and the
community at large.
7) Continuous Improvement Management is a methodology that involves all employees of an
organization in a systematic, structured process to implement continuous improvement in
quality in projects.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Continuous Improvement Management (CIM) is a methodology that aims to improve
processes, products, or services incrementally. It involves all employees in a systematic,
structured process to identify opportunities for improvement and implement changes to
achieve better results.
8) Tangible benefits arising from project implementation using CIM principles include a
shorter manufacturing cycle time, lower inventory, lower project reject rate, and increased
customer satisfaction.
Answer: True
Rationale:
CIM principles focus on improving quality, efficiency, and customer satisfaction.
Implementing CIM can lead to tangible benefits such as reduced cycle times, lower inventory
costs, decreased rejection rates, and increased customer satisfaction.
9) According to some researchers mentioned in the textbook, CIM leads organizations to be
innovators and not followers.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While CIM can lead to innovation and process improvement, it does not guarantee that
organizations will become innovators rather than followers. Innovation is influenced by
various factors, including organizational culture, leadership, and market conditions.
10) According to some researchers, CIM may hinder creativity due to enforcement of
standards, and cause organizations to be narrow-minded, to be totally focused only on serving
customers, and to focus too much on cost efficiency.
Answer: True
Rationale:
While CIM can lead to improvements in quality and efficiency, some researchers argue that it
may also have negative effects. For example, enforcing standards and focusing too much on
cost efficiency could stifle creativity and innovation. Additionally, a narrow focus on serving
customers may limit the organization's ability to explore new ideas and opportunities.
11) Seven Sigma is oriented toward the solution of problems at the root level and the
prevention of their recurrence.
Answer: False
Rationale:
There is no methodology known as "Seven Sigma." The correct term is "Six Sigma," which is
indeed oriented toward identifying and solving problems at their root causes to prevent their
recurrence.
12) Six Sigma asserts that continuous efforts to reduce process variation are important to
overall performance and customer satisfaction in a project.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Six Sigma focuses on reducing variation in processes to improve quality and customer
satisfaction. It emphasizes the importance of continuous improvement to achieve better
results.
13) The Capability Maturity Model for software implementation is used by many
organizations to identify best practices that are useful in increasing the maturity of their
processes.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is a framework that helps organizations
improve their processes and systems. It provides best practices and guidelines to increase the
maturity of processes, including those related to software development and implementation.
14) Software process capability focuses on achieved results.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Software process capability focuses on the ability of a process to consistently achieve its
objectives. It is not solely focused on achieved results but also on the process's ability to meet
requirements and deliver value.
15) At the CMMI Level 5, software processes are defined by individuals in an organization.
Answer: False
Rationale:
At CMMI Level 5, organizations are expected to focus on continuous process improvement.
Processes are typically well-defined and managed at this level, but they are not defined by
individuals; rather, they are defined and maintained by the organization as a whole.
16) At the CMMI Level 4, an organization typically does not provide a stable environment
for developing and maintaining software.
Answer: False
Rationale:
At CMMI Level 4, organizations are expected to establish a stable environment for
developing and maintaining software. This includes providing resources, tools, and support
needed for consistent process execution.
17) At the CMMI Level 2, all projects in an organization use an approved, tailored version of
the organization's standard and tested software process for developing and maintaining
software.
Answer: False
Rationale:
At CMMI Level 2, organizations are expected to establish and maintain a defined process for
developing and maintaining software. While projects may use a standard process, it may not
always be tailored or approved for each project.
18) The CMMI Level 3 uses an organization-wide software process database to collect and
analyze data available from a project's defined software processes.
Answer: False
Rationale:
At CMMI Level 3, organizations are expected to establish and maintain a standard process
for developing and maintaining software. While data collection and analysis are important,
there is no specific requirement for an organization-wide software process database at this
level.
19) At the CMMI Level 1, an organization focuses on continuous process improvement.
Answer: False
Rationale:
At CMMI Level 1, organizations are characterized by processes that are ad hoc and chaotic.
There is no focus on continuous process improvement at this level.
20) At the CMMI Level 5, common causes of defects are discovered, identified, prioritized,
and eliminated.
Answer: True
Rationale:
At CMMI Level 5, organizations are expected to focus on continuous process improvement.
This includes identifying and eliminating common causes of defects to improve overall
process performance.
21) The traditional SDLC's popularity is because of its flexibility.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The traditional Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is known for its structured and
sequential approach to software development, which is often seen as less flexible compared
to other methodologies like Agile. Its popularity is not primarily due to its flexibility but
rather its systematic approach to development.
22) The spiral model uses a linear approach for project definition and implementation.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The spiral model is a risk-driven model that involves iterative development. It does not use a
strictly linear approach but instead emphasizes risk analysis and mitigation throughout the
project lifecycle.
23) Restricted development means that project activities are packaged to fit time boxes.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Restricted development is not a commonly used term in software development
methodologies. It is unclear what is meant by "restricted development" in this context.
24) Environment is a supporting RUP workflow.
Answer: True
Rationale:
In the Rational Unified Process (RUP), "Environment" is indeed a supporting workflow that
focuses on ensuring that the development environment is suitable for the project's needs.
25) Higher stability of deliverables is one of the reasons why agile methods are used.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Agile methods emphasize iterative development, frequent collaboration with stakeholders,
and continuous feedback, which can lead to higher stability of deliverables as issues are
identified and addressed early in the development process.
26) The most important feature of the XP philosophy relative to SDLC is that programmers
can respond to changing customer requirements at any time.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Extreme Programming (XP) is an Agile methodology that prioritizes customer satisfaction by
allowing for changes in requirements throughout the development process. This flexibility is
a key feature that distinguishes XP from more traditional SDLC approaches.
27) With the spiral model, activities are managed concurrently and more people are working
on the project so the complexity of projects increases.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The spiral model involves managing activities concurrently in multiple iterations, which can
increase the complexity of projects compared to linear SDLC approaches where activities are
often more sequentially managed.
28) The extreme programming model is very suitable for large projects.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Extreme Programming (XP) is generally considered more suitable for small to medium-sized
projects due to its focus on close collaboration and communication, which can be challenging
to maintain in large projects.
29) When compared to the traditional SDLC, changing scope is more costly with the iterative
SDLC.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The iterative SDLC (e.g., Agile methodologies) is often more adaptable to changing scope
compared to the traditional SDLC. In Agile, changes can be incorporated more easily due to
the iterative and incremental nature of development.
30) A disadvantage of the traditional SDLC is that it does not work well with global and
virtual teams.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While the traditional SDLC can pose challenges for global and virtual teams, it is not
inherently incompatible with them. With proper communication and collaboration tools,
global and virtual teams can still effectively use the traditional SDLC.
2.2 Multiple Choice
1) A specific ordering of structured activities with defined inputs and outputs best defines
A) process.
B) value chain.
C) function.
D) system.
Answer: A
Rationale:
A process is a series of structured activities that are performed in a specific order to achieve a
particular goal. These activities have defined inputs and outputs, and the process is typically
repeatable and measurable.
2) Benefits of process improvements include
A) improvements in project quality.
B) increase in project value.
C) improved efficiency and effectiveness.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Process improvements can lead to various benefits, including improved project quality,
increased project value, and enhanced efficiency and effectiveness. Therefore, all of the
above options are correct.
3) Which of the following is a collection of processes and knowledge areas generally
accepted as best practices within the project management discipline?
A) RAD
B) PMBOK
C) UCOK
D) PMBPR
Answer: B
Rationale:
The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) is a comprehensive collection of
processes and knowledge areas that are widely accepted as best practices within the project
management discipline.
4) The PMBOK process groups include each of the following except
A) executing.
B) monitoring and controlling.
C) maintaining.
D) closing.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The PMBOK process groups are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling,
and Closing. The term "maintaining" is not one of the recognized process groups in the
PMBOK framework.
5) PMBOK knowledge areas include
A) project quality management.
B) project communication management.
C) project procurement management.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The PMBOK knowledge areas include Project Integration Management, Project Scope
Management, Project Schedule Management, Project Cost Management, Project Quality
Management, Project Resource Management, Project Communications Management, Project
Risk Management, and Project Procurement Management.
6) Coordinating all other project management knowledge areas describes
A) project integration management.
B) project communications management.
C) project procurement management.
D) project quality management.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Project Integration Management involves coordinating and integrating all other project
management knowledge areas throughout the project life cycle.
7) Project scope management involves
A) developing a project charter.
B) collecting requirements.
C) defining activities.
D) acquiring a project team.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Project Scope Management involves defining and controlling what is included in and
excluded from the project. Collecting requirements is a key part of this process.
8) Developing schedules, milestones, and critical paths is associated with the
A) initiating process group and the cost management knowledge area.
B) executing process group and the communications management knowledge area.
C) planning process group and time management knowledge area.
D) executing process group and the risk management knowledge area.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Developing schedules, milestones, and critical paths is part of the planning process group and
falls under the time management knowledge area.
9) Assessing the value and performance of the project and surveying satisfaction are
associated with the
A) planning process group and the time management knowledge area.
B) initiating process group and the human resource management knowledge area.
C) controlling process group and the scope management knowledge area.
D) closing process group and the communications management knowledge area.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Assessing the value and performance of the project and surveying satisfaction are activities
associated with the closing process group and the communications management knowledge
area.
10) A systematic method to continuously augment how organizations conduct business and
projects best defines
A) process improvement.
B) product improvement.
C) value chain improvement.
D) business process reengineering.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Process improvement refers to the systematic method of continuously improving how
organizations conduct their business and projects. It involves identifying, analyzing, and
improving existing processes to achieve better results.
11) Deming, Juran, and other scholars found the common denominator in any quality system
is
A) people.
B) change.
C) communication.
D) structure.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Scholars such as Deming and Juran emphasized the importance of change in any quality
system. They believed that organizations must embrace change and continuously improve to
achieve and maintain quality.
12) Continuous Improvement Management principles include each of the following except
A) fact-based decision making.
B) employee involvement.
C) rapid engineering.
D) strategic alliance.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Continuous Improvement Management (CIM) principles focus on systematic and incremental
improvements in processes and products. Rapid engineering is not typically considered a core
principle of CIM.
13) A process improvement approach that is used to find and eliminate errors and defects,
reduce cycle times, reduce cost, improve productivity, and meet customer expectations best
defines
A) Join Application Design.
B) Rapid Application Development.
C) Object Oriented Analysis and Design.
D) Six Sigma.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Six Sigma is a process improvement approach that aims to reduce defects and errors in
processes, improve efficiency, and meet customer expectations. It uses a data-driven
methodology to achieve these goals.
14) Six Sigma's problem solving methodology is called
A) DMAIC.
B) RAPID.
C) ENGAGE.
D) REVIVE.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Six Sigma's problem-solving methodology is known as DMAIC, which stands for Define,
Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control. It is used to improve processes and reduce defects.
15) The Six Sigma DMAIC phase that identifies the problem statement of a project is
A) measure.
B) define.
C) analyze.
D) investigate.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The Define phase of DMAIC focuses on identifying and defining the problem statement of a
project. It sets the foundation for the rest of the DMAIC process.
16) Which of Six Sigma's DMAIC phases focuses on the measurement of internal process
that affect factors that are critical to quality?
A) analyze
B) define
C) measure
D) improve
Answer: C
Rationale:
The Measure phase of Six Sigma's DMAIC process focuses on measuring internal processes
that affect factors critical to quality. It involves collecting data to understand the current state
of the process.
17) Which Six Sigma DMAIC phase focuses on why and how defects and errors occur?
A) control
B) define
C) measure
D) analyze
Answer: D
Rationale:
The Analyze phase of Six Sigma's DMAIC process focuses on analyzing data to understand
why and how defects and errors occur in a process. It helps identify root causes of problems.
18) A model for software implementation used to identify the software process maturity level
of organizations best defines
A) CMM.
B) PDM.
C) SPM.
D) SAP.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a model used to assess and improve the software
process maturity level of organizations. It provides a framework for organizations to evaluate
and improve their processes.
19) A set of activities, methods, practices, and transformations that people use to develop and
maintain software and its associated products that include project plans, design documents,
code, test cases, and user manuals best defines
A) system.
B) software process.
C) business process.
D) work process.
Answer: B
Rationale:
A software process is a set of activities, methods, practices, and transformations used to
develop and maintain software and its associated products. It includes various artifacts such
as project plans, design documents, code, test cases, and user manuals.
20) A potential for growth in capability that indicates both the richness of an organization's
software process and the consistency with which it is applied in projects throughout the
organization best defines
A) system maturity.
B) organizational maturity.
C) software process maturity.
D) business process maturity.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Software process maturity refers to the capability of an organization's software process and
the consistency with which it is applied in projects. It indicates the organization's ability to
improve its software processes over time.
21) CMM benefits include
A) allowing software organizations to focus on software process activities.
B) allowing software organizations to strategize how to evolve toward a culture of software
engineering and management excellence.
C) providing guidance to organizations on how to gain control of their processes to develop
and maintain software.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) benefits include allowing software organizations to
focus on software process activities, strategize for excellence, and gain control of their
processes. These benefits contribute to improved software development and maintenance
practices.
22) A software company where software process is ad hoc and occasionally even chaotic is at
the CMMI
A) Level 0.
B) Level 1.
C) Level 3.
D) Level 5.
Answer: B
Rationale:
CMMI Level 1 is characterized by ad hoc and chaotic processes. At this level, processes are
unpredictable and poorly controlled, leading to inconsistent results.
23) Each of the following is an objective of the CMMI Level 2 except
A) identify and control requirements, specifications, and test plans.
B) document and control all changes in software projects.
C) use a reactionary approach to projects.
D) keep software activities consistent with system requirements.
Answer: C
Rationale:
CMMI Level 2 objectives include identifying and controlling requirements, specifications,
and test plans, documenting and controlling changes, and ensuring consistency with system
requirements. Using a reactionary approach is not an objective at this level.
24) At which CMMI level are software processes documented, standardized, and integrated
into a standard "to-be" practiced process for an organization?
A) Level 7
B) Level 0
C) Level 1
D) Level 3
Answer: D
Rationale:
At CMMI Level 3, software processes are documented, standardized, and integrated into a
standard process for the organization. This level focuses on process standardization and
improvement.
25) The CMMI Level 3 objectives include
A) planning organization-level process development and improvement activities.
B) developing and maintaining a standard software process for the organization.
C) identifying all defects in software using CIM and Six Sigma and removing defects to
improve quality.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
CMMI Level 3 objectives include planning process development and improvement,
developing a standard software process, and improving quality by identifying and removing
defects.
26) CMMI Level 4 objectives include
A) manage measurable metrics and software goals.
B) plan organization-level process development and improvement activities.
C) establish a baseline for software engineering process and management.
D) constantly changing the software process as the project progresses.
Answer: A
Rationale:
CMMI Level 4 objectives include managing measurable metrics and software goals. This
level focuses on using metrics to manage and improve the software process.
27) CMMI Level 5 objectives include
A) establishing a baseline for software engineering process and management.
B) planning continuous process improvement activities and encouraging employees to
participate in those activities.
C) keeping software activities consistent with system requirements.
D) reverting back to coding and testing during a crisis.
Answer: B
Rationale:
CMMI Level 5 objectives include planning for continuous process improvement and
encouraging employee participation. This level focuses on optimizing the software process.
28) The conceptual phase of any system or just the software facet of a system best describes
the SDLC
A) preliminary design phase.
B) analysis phase.
C) systems investigation phase.
D) launch phase.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The systems investigation phase of the SDLC involves understanding the system's
requirements, constraints, and objectives. It is the phase where the concept of the system,
including the software facet, is developed.
29) A working prototype that is implemented to design and define various functionalities of
the project and show customers the friendly software interface and the story line of
functionalities involved in the project best describes the SDLC
A) analysis phase.
B) systems investigation phase.
C) preliminary design phase.
D) testing phase.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The preliminary design phase of the SDLC involves developing a working prototype to
define the project's functionalities and demonstrate the software's interface to customers.
30) The final output of the analysis SDLC phase describes
A) how various processes will work with the proposed system or software.
B) how the system will interact with other systems.
C) how and what data, information, and knowledge are collected in the organization.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The analysis phase of the SDLC involves determining how various processes will work with
the proposed system, how the system will interact with other systems, and what data,
information, and knowledge will be collected.
31) Documentation resulting from the SDLC launch phase includes
A) operating instructions and user manuals.
B) final design specifications.
C) software requirements.
D) interface design specifications.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The launch phase of the SDLC focuses on deploying the software to users. Documentation
produced during this phase typically includes operating instructions and user manuals to
guide users on how to use the software.
32) The spiral model of software process involves
A) determination of objectives, alternatives, and constraints.
B) evaluation of alternatives, risk identification, and risk resolution.
C) planning and development of the next level of the project.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The spiral model of software process is a risk-driven model that involves determining
objectives, evaluating alternatives, identifying and resolving risks, and planning the next
iteration of the project. It combines elements of both iterative and waterfall models.
33) A process model used to develop object-oriented software best defines
A) unified process.
B) XML.
C) CMMI.
D) AM.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The Unified Process (UP) is a process model used to develop object-oriented software. It is
iterative and incremental, focusing on use cases and components.
34) A graphical language for visualizing, specifying, constructing, and documenting objectoriented software best defines
A) CASE.
B) UML.
C) JAD.
D) RAD.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The Unified Modeling Language (UML) is a graphical language used for visualizing,
specifying, constructing, and documenting the artifacts of an object-oriented softwareintensive system.
35) The UP phase focused on specification of use-cases and scope definition of a project is
A) construction.
B) elaboration.
C) inception.
D) transition.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The inception phase of the Unified Process (UP) focuses on establishing the project scope,
identifying key stakeholders, and specifying high-level requirements and use cases.
36) The UP phase concentrating on "high-risk" components of the proposed system in order
to minimize the overall risk of the proposed system best defines
A) construction.
B) inception.
C) transition.
D) elaboration.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The elaboration phase of the Unified Process (UP) focuses on addressing the most critical and
high-risk aspects of the project, such as architecture and key functionality, to reduce overall
project risk.
37) The UP phase where components of the system are developed and tested is
A) construction.
B) transition.
C) inception.
D) elaboration.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The construction phase of the Unified Process (UP) involves developing, integrating, and
testing the components of the system.
38) The UP phase where the proposed, implemented system is deployed to end users best
describes the
A) construction phase.
B) transition phase.
C) inception phase.
D) elaboration phase.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The transition phase of the Unified Process (UP) focuses on deploying the implemented
system to end users and ensuring that it meets their needs and expectations.
39) Best practices supported by RUP include each of the following except
A) manage requirements.
B) use component-based architectures.
C) develop software iteratively.
D) facilitate a linear approach to software development.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Rational Unified Process (RUP) supports best practices such as managing requirements,
using component-based architectures, and developing software iteratively. It does not
facilitate a linear approach to software development, as it is iterative and incremental in
nature.
40) Core RUP workflows include each of the following except
A) integration.
B) deployment.
C) implementation.
D) business modeling.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Core Rational Unified Process (RUP) workflows include business modeling, requirements,
analysis and design, implementation, test, deployment, and configuration and change
management. Integration is not a core workflow in RUP.
41) Supporting core RUP workflows include each of the following except
A) configuration and change management.
B) affirmation.
C) project management.
D) environment.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Core Rational Unified Process (RUP) workflows include configuration and change
management, project management, and environment workflows. Affirmation is not a
recognized core workflow in RUP.
42) Factors for using Agile methods include
A) prioritization of tasks is done by key stakeholders.
B) works well with true teamwork and collaboration.
C) shortened development cycles.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Agile methods are characterized by prioritization of tasks by key stakeholders, emphasis on
teamwork and collaboration, and shortened development cycles. These factors make Agile
methods suitable for iterative and adaptive development.
43) Advantages of the Scrum model include
A) great when requirements are fluid.
B) works well with inexperienced team members.
C) does not require a significant time commitment from customers.
D) very suitable for large projects.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The Scrum model is advantageous when requirements are fluid because it allows for
flexibility and adaptation to changing requirements. It may not be as suitable for
inexperienced team members or large projects due to its focus on self-organizing teams and
iterative development.
44) Disadvantages of the iterative SDLC include each of the following except
A) revisiting and revising prior phases is not easy to accomplish.
B) high-level design has to predict all integrations well in advance.
C) needs great effort to manage all integrations.
D) project teams should be able to estimate well enough to plan all integrations.
Answer: A
Rationale:
One advantage of the iterative SDLC is the ability to revisit and revise prior phases, making it
more adaptable to changing requirements. The other options highlight some challenges of the
iterative SDLC, such as the need for accurate estimation and management of integrations.
45) The Unified Process
A) is great for development of large-scale projects.
B) is great for development of geographically and globally dispersed projects.
C) provides better overall quality.
D) is all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The Unified Process (UP) is suitable for development of large-scale projects, geographically
and globally dispersed projects, and provides a framework for achieving better overall quality
through its iterative and incremental approach.
2.3 Essay
1) Identify five benefits of process improvements.
Answer: Benefits include improvements in project quality, increase in internal and external
customer satisfaction, increase in project value, better customer satisfaction, and
improvement in productivity. Additional benefits are provided in the textbook.
2) List the nine PMBOK knowledge areas.
Answer: The nine PMBOK knowledge areas are project integration management, project
scope management, project time management, project cost management, project quality
management, project human resources management, project communications management,
project risk management, and project procurement management.
3) For the quality management knowledge area, identify five activities that would be carried
out.
Answer: Determine quality processes, determine quality standards, manage quality and
perform quality assurance, quality evaluation and control, and final acceptance are five
activities.
4) Define CIM. What are its seven principles?
Answer: CIM is a methodology that involves all employees of an organization in a
systematic, structured process to implement continuous improvement in quality in projects.
The seven principles are customer focus, employee involvement, process centered, strategic
alliance, fact-based decision making, good communications, and continuous improvement.
5) What is Six Sigma? What is DMAIC?
Answer: Six Sigma is a process improvement approach that is used to find and eliminate
errors and defects, reduce cycle times, reduce cost, improve productivity, and meet customer
expectations. DMAIC is Six Sigma's problem-solving methodology and includes define,
measure, analyze, improve, and control processes.
Test Bank for Project Management: Process, Technology and Practice
Ganesh Vaidyanathan
9780132807180
