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Chapter 7 Quality, Performance and Value
7.1 True False
1) According to the textbook, scholars have viewed cost, time, and quality as the success
criteria to project performance.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Cost, time, and quality are commonly accepted as the three key dimensions for evaluating
project performance. This concept is widely supported in project management literature.
2) The major goal of quality management is to prevent defects.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The primary objective of quality management is to ensure that products or services meet or
exceed customer expectations by preventing defects and errors. This approach emphasizes
prevention over inspection.
3) Quality planning is more about process and is based on problems related to processes.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Quality planning is a proactive process that focuses on defining quality standards and
specifications for the project's deliverables. It involves identifying both product and process
requirements, not just problems related to processes.
4) A project organization must apply quality standards and quality management at the
organizational, process, and project levels.
Answer: True
Rationale:
To ensure consistent quality across all projects, an organization must establish and maintain
quality standards and practices at the organizational, process, and project levels. This helps in
achieving overall quality objectives.
5) ISO 9002 deals with the requirements that an organization has to fulfill in order to meet
the standards and provides a model for quality assurance in design, development, production,
installation, and servicing for creation of new products, services, and systems.
Answer: False
Rationale:
ISO 9002 was a standard that specified requirements for a quality management system but
focused on production and installation. It was withdrawn in 2016 and merged into the revised

ISO 9001 standard.
6) ISO 10006:2003 emphasizes quality assurance via preventive actions instead of just
checking the final product, system or service.
Answer: False
Rationale:
ISO 10006:2003 is a guideline for quality management in projects. While it does emphasize
preventive actions, it also includes processes for monitoring and improving project
performance throughout the project life cycle, not just focusing on preventive actions.
7) ISO/IEC 9126-1 addresses a framework for software evaluation using the general
characteristics of software.
Answer: True
Rationale:
ISO/IEC 9126-1 provides a framework for defining quality characteristics and subcharacteristics for software products. It helps in evaluating software quality based on these
defined characteristics.
8) The scope document is an input to quality planning.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The scope document defines the project's deliverables, objectives, and constraints. It is a key
input to quality planning as it provides the necessary information to establish quality
standards and processes for the project.
9) The overall goal of the benchmarking process is to compare projects or organizations of
competitors, so that the competitors are better understood.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The primary goal of benchmarking is to improve performance by identifying best practices
and learning from others, including competitors. It is not solely focused on understanding
competitors but also on improving one's own performance.
10) Speed and efficiency are the primary drivers behind benchmarking.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While speed and efficiency can be motivations for benchmarking, the primary driver is
usually to improve overall performance by learning from others and adopting best practices.
Benchmarking focuses on achieving excellence rather than just speed and efficiency.

11) Benchmarking is always externally focused.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Benchmarking can be both externally focused (comparing performance against other
organizations) and internally focused (comparing performance against internal standards or
previous performance).
12) Overall benchmarking can be broken into two major processes: the external review
process and the internal review process.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Benchmarking typically involves four major processes: planning, analysis, integration, and
action. These processes can include both external and internal benchmarking activities.
13) Quality planning and work performance information are outputs of the quality assurance
process.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Quality planning is part of quality planning, not quality assurance. Work performance
information is an output of the monitoring and controlling process group.
14) Quality assurance is accomplished by quality audits, process analysis, and tools and
techniques used in quality control.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Quality assurance focuses on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled.
This is achieved through audits, analysis, and using tools and techniques that are part of
quality control.
15) Histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are used in quality control.
Answer: True
Rationale:
These are common tools used in quality control to analyze and present data, identify patterns,
and make decisions about quality improvement.
16) The biggest challenge in managing quality is ensuring that processes are consistent.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Consistency in processes is a key aspect of quality management as it helps in achieving

predictable results and meeting customer expectations consistently.
17) X-bar charts, R-charts, P-charts, and C-charts are four different control charts used in
controlling quality.
Answer: True
Rationale:
These are indeed four common types of control charts used in statistical process control to
monitor and control the variation in processes.
18) Poor design is an example of variation due to normal causes.
Answer: True
Rationale:
In the context of quality management, poor design can be considered a variation that is
inherent in the process and can be addressed through process improvement efforts.
19) The Taguchi Method suggests that quality should be designed into a product, not
inspected into it.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The Taguchi Method emphasizes the importance of designing products and processes that are
robust and less sensitive to variation, rather than relying solely on inspection to ensure
quality.
20) Simple random sampling stratifies the population by important variables.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Simple random sampling does not involve stratification. Stratified sampling involves dividing
the population into subgroups based on certain characteristics and then selecting samples
from each subgroup.
21) A random sample of clusters is considered, and then all members within those clusters are
examined defines quota sampling.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The described process actually defines cluster sampling, not quota sampling. Quota sampling
involves selecting participants non-randomly based on specific characteristics to ensure the
sample is representative of the population.
22) Judgment sampling is not prone to bias.
Answer: False

Rationale:
Judgment sampling is prone to bias because it relies on the judgment of the researcher to
select participants, which can introduce subjective bias into the sample selection process.
23) With quota sampling, knowledge of the population is not essential.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Knowledge of the population is essential in quota sampling to ensure that the quotas are set
appropriately and that the sample is representative of the population.
24) With random sampling, larger sample sizes generally lead to increased precision.
Answer: True
Rationale:
In random sampling, larger sample sizes tend to provide a more accurate representation of the
population, which leads to increased precision in the estimates derived from the sample.
25) As variability increases, accurate estimation decreases and the required sample size
increases.
Answer: True
Rationale:
As variability within a population increases, it becomes more difficult to accurately estimate
population parameters from a sample, requiring larger sample sizes to achieve the same level
of accuracy.
26) A configuration review is a formal procedure for reviewing a product, system, or service
against quality criteria set forth by the project organization.
Answer: False
Rationale:
A configuration review is a formal review process that assesses the configuration
management of a product, system, or service, ensuring that it meets the specified
requirements and is properly documented and controlled.
27) The earlier an error is identified, the better the success of a project.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Early identification of errors allows for timely correction, which can prevent the errors from
causing larger issues later in the project, leading to better project success.
28) The value of a project depends on the cost of the project.
Answer: False

Rationale:
The value of a project is not solely determined by its cost but also by its benefits, impact, and
alignment with organizational goals and objectives.
29) Project value is a relative worth or importance that is monetary in nature.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Project value is often expressed in monetary terms, representing the relative worth or
importance of the project to the organization.
30) The profitability index is the ratio of payoff to investment of a proposed project.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The profitability index is a financial metric that calculates the ratio of the present value of
future cash flows from a project to the initial investment required for the project. It is used to
assess the potential profitability of a project.
7.2 Multiple Choice
1) The execution or accomplishment of a project to fulfill customer requirements in
accordance with the project scope best defines
A) performance.
B) task.
C) objective.
D) activity.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Performance refers to the actual execution or accomplishment of a project to meet customer
requirements and deliverables in alignment with the project scope.
2) Garvin's eight dimensions of quality include each of the following except
A) serviceability.
B) flexibility.
C) performance.
D) reliability.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Garvin's eight dimensions of quality include performance, features, reliability, conformance,
durability, serviceability, aesthetics, and perceived quality. Flexibility is not one of the

dimensions.
3) The superiority or excellence of primary operating characteristics of a product best
describes
A) durability.
B) serviceability.
C) performance.
D) features.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Performance refers to the primary operating characteristics of a product, indicating its
superiority or excellence in fulfilling its intended purpose.
4) The availability and excellence of "bells and whistles" related to a product best describes
A) conformance.
B) serviceability.
C) performance.
D) features.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Features refer to the additional attributes or "bells and whistles" of a product that enhance its
value and appeal to customers.
5) The extent to which a product is unlikely to fail or break down best describes
A) reliability.
B) conformance.
C) serviceability.
D) aesthetics.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Reliability refers to the extent to which a product is unlikely to fail or break down under
normal or specified conditions of use.
6) The extent to which a product can be easily repaired and serviced best defines
A) reliability.
B) serviceability.
C) conformance.
D) durability.

Answer: B
Rationale:
Serviceability refers to the ease with which a product can be repaired and serviced, including
factors such as accessibility of components and availability of service personnel.
7) The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics of a project fulfill project scope best
defines
A) scope durability.
B) project reliability.
C) project quality.
D) project performance.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Project quality refers to the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics of a project fulfill
the project scope and requirements, meeting or exceeding customer expectations.
8) Which of the following was defined by Edwards Deming as a predictable degree of
uniformity and dependability at low cost suitable to the market?
A) reliability
B) durability
C) serviceability
D) quality
Answer: D
Rationale:
Edwards Deming defined quality as a predictable degree of uniformity and dependability at
low cost suitable to the market, emphasizing the importance of meeting customer needs and
expectations.
9) Crosby, Deming, and Juran suggest achieving outstanding quality requires
A) quality leadership from senior management.
B) a customer focus.
C) continuous improvement based on rigorous analysis of processes.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Crosby, Deming, and Juran emphasize the importance of quality leadership, a customer
focus, and continuous improvement based on rigorous analysis of processes in achieving

outstanding quality.
10) Components of quality management include
A) customer satisfaction.
B) defect prevention.
C) continuous improvement.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Quality management encompasses various components, including customer satisfaction,
defect prevention, continuous improvement, and other factors aimed at ensuring products or
services meet or exceed customer expectations.
11) The world's largest developer and publisher of international standards and is a network of
the national standards institutes of 162 countries describes
A) ISO.
B) PMBOK.
C) KPM.
D) DMAIC.
Answer: A
Rationale:
ISO (International Organization for Standardization) is a global organization that develops
and publishes international standards to ensure quality, safety, and efficiency of products,
services, and systems.
12) A family of standards that addresses quality management to help organizations to fulfill
the quality requirements of the customer with applicable regulatory requirements while
aiming to enhance customer satisfaction and achieve continual process and quality
improvement describes the
A) ISO 892 family.
B) ISO 9000 family.
C) TCP/IP 920 family.
D) BORAC 764 family.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The ISO 9000 family of standards provides guidelines and tools for organizations to
implement quality management systems and improve overall performance and customer

satisfaction.
13) The eight quality management principles identified by the ISO include each of the
following except
A) customer focus.
B) leadership.
C) accuracy.
D) involvement of projects.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The eight quality management principles identified by ISO are customer focus, leadership,
involvement of people, process approach, system approach to management, continual
improvement, factual approach to decision making, and mutually beneficial supplier
relationships.
14) Which of the following addresses a framework for software evaluation using the general
characteristics of software?
A) ISO/IEC 12207
B) ISO/IEC 14143
C) ISO/IEC15504
D) ISO/IEC 9126-1
Answer: D
Rationale:
ISO/IEC 9126-1 provides a framework for software evaluation based on its general
characteristics, such as functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, and
portability.
15) Quality in use is defined by
A) effectiveness.
B) productivity.
C) safety.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Quality in use refers to the overall effectiveness, efficiency, satisfaction, and safety of a
product or system when it is used in its intended environment.
16) Which of the following is a prestigious award in performance for an organization?

A) Malcom Baldridge National Quality Award
B) AITP National Quality Award
C) Crosby Nash National Quality Award
D) PMBOK National Award for Quality
Answer: A
Rationale:
The Malcom Baldridge National Quality Award is a prestigious award in the United States
presented annually by the President of the United States to organizations that demonstrate
excellence in quality and performance.
17) A set of activities planned at the beginning of the project that helps achieve quality in a
project describes
A) risk mitigation plan.
B) project quality plan.
C) project scope plan.
D) feasibility study.
Answer: B
Rationale:
A project quality plan is a document that outlines the quality objectives, processes, and
standards that will be used to ensure that the project delivers a quality product or service.
18) A process to measure the performance of an organization and compare that measure with
other organizations in the same industry to understand industry best practices defines
A) project initiation.
B) project scope planning.
C) benchmarking.
D) contingency planning.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Benchmarking is a process used by organizations to measure their performance against
industry best practices and identify areas for improvement.
19) A process used to evaluate project performance periodically and ensure that the project
will satisfy the quality standards of an organization best defines
A) project baseline evaluation.
B) scope development.
C) risk mitigation.

D) quality assurance.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Quality assurance is a process that ensures that the project will satisfy the quality standards of
an organization by evaluating project performance periodically and implementing corrective
actions as necessary.
20) A review of the quality plan to determine whether the project activities comply with
organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures defines
A) quality audit.
B) benchmarking.
C) risk management.
D) configuration management.
Answer: A
Rationale:
A quality audit is a review of the quality plan to ensure that project activities comply with
organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures, and to identify areas for
improvement.
21) A quality audit needs to do each of the following except
A) identify all the processes and procedures of the project.
B) identify the audit inspection steps.
C) identify all the constraints of the project.
D) identify all the issues with the project.
Answer: B
Rationale:
While a quality audit does involve identifying processes, procedures, constraints, and issues
within a project, it does not specifically involve identifying the audit inspection steps, as
these are part of the audit process itself.
22) During planned audits, which of the following is discussed and concretized between the
auditor and the team?
A) the actual date of the audit
B) the location of project plans and artifacts to be audited
C) the names of project team members whom the auditor can contact should questions arise
D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: D

Rationale:
During planned audits, it is important to discuss and finalize details such as the date of the
audit, the location of project plans and artifacts to be audited, and the contact information of
project team members who can provide further information or clarification.
23) Which of the following follows all the steps outlined in the process improvement plan in
order to identify the improvements necessary to enhance the quality of a project?
A) quality process analysis
B) quality inspections
C) quality audit
D) quality work review
Answer: A
Rationale:
Quality process analysis involves following the steps outlined in the process improvement
plan to identify necessary improvements to enhance the quality of a project. This includes
analyzing and prioritizing accountabilities, establishing performance monitoring, and
describing and analyzing processes.
24) Quality process analysis steps include each of the following except
A) describe and prioritize accountabilities.
B) activate contingency plan.
C) establish performance monitoring.
D) describe and analyze processes.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Activating a contingency plan is not typically a step in quality process analysis. The focus of
quality process analysis is on describing and prioritizing accountabilities, establishing
performance monitoring, and describing and analyzing processes to identify improvement
opportunities.
25) The operational technique and activity used to fulfill quality requirements best describes
A) quality process analysis.
B) risk analysis.
C) quality control.
D) configuration management.
Answer: C
Rationale:

Quality control is the operational technique and activity used to fulfill quality requirements
by monitoring and controlling processes to ensure that products and services meet specified
requirements.
26) Tools and techniques used in quality control include
A) process maps.
B) control charts.
C) statistical sampling.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Process maps, control charts, and statistical sampling are all tools and techniques used in
quality control to monitor and control processes to ensure that products and services meet
specified requirements.
27) Which of the following provide a visual model of how inputs, activities, and outputs of a
process are linked and are the most fundamental of all process design and process
improvement tools?
A) process maps
B) control charts
C) Six Sigma
D) run charts
Answer: A
Rationale:
Process maps provide a visual model of how inputs, activities, and outputs of a process are
linked. They are fundamental tools in process design and improvement, helping to identify
areas for optimization and efficiency.
28) Which of the following is a tool used to determine whether a project or a business process
is in a state of statistical control?
A) run chart
B) SPC control chart
C) process map
D) Pareto chart
Answer: B
Rationale:
SPC (Statistical Process Control) control charts are used to monitor and analyze process

performance over time to determine whether a process is in a state of statistical control. This
helps identify any potential issues or variations in the process.
29) The application of statistical methods to monitor and control a process in order to reduce
variability best defines
A) testing and inspection.
B) scope analysis.
C) statistical process control.
D) random review.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Statistical process control (SPC) involves the application of statistical methods to monitor
and control a process to ensure it operates efficiently and produces consistent results by
reducing variability.
30) Control charts used in controlling quality include
A) X-bar charts.
B) R-charts.
C) P-charts.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Control charts used in controlling quality include X-bar charts, R-charts, P-charts, and other
types of charts that help monitor process performance and identify any deviations or trends
that may indicate a need for corrective action.
31) A process control chart used to monitor the sample means of variables that result from a
process and is often used in quality control best defines
A) X-bar charts.
B) R-charts.
C) P-charts.
D) C-charts.
Answer: A
Rationale:
X-bar charts are used to monitor the sample means of variables that result from a process.
They help to assess whether the process is operating consistently and within control limits.
32) A computer crashing is an example of a(n)

A) reviewable cause.
B) assignable cause.
C) unassignable cause.
D) disruptive cause.
Answer: B
Rationale:
An assignable cause is a specific reason or factor that can be identified as the cause of a
variation or problem in a process. A computer crashing could be due to an identifiable cause,
such as a software issue or hardware failure.
33) Control charts that monitor the dispersion or variability of the process are
A) P-charts.
B) C-charts.
C) R-charts.
D) X-bar charts.
Answer: C
Rationale:
R-charts (range charts) are used to monitor the dispersion or variability of a process. They
help to identify changes in process variability that may indicate a need for corrective action.
34) Which of the following measures the proportion of items in a sample that are defective?
A) PERT charts
B) X-bar charts
C) C-charts
D) P-charts
Answer: D
Rationale:
P-charts (proportion charts) are used to measure the proportion of items in a sample that are
defective. They are often used in quality control to monitor the quality of a process over time.
35) A critical aspect of quality control and evaluates the ability of a project process to meet or
exceed the expectations or preset specifications best describes
A) process capability.
B) risk assessment.
C) resource breakdown structure.
D) cluster sampling.
Answer: A

Rationale:
Process capability is a critical aspect of quality control that evaluates the ability of a project
process to meet or exceed expectations or preset specifications. It helps to assess whether a
process is capable of producing within specified limits.
36) A process capability index above 1 means that the process variability
A) just meets specifications and the process is minimally capable.
B) is tighter than specifications and the process exceeds minimal capability.
C) is outside the range of specification, the process is not capable of producing within
specification, and the process must be improved.
D) is none of the above.
Answer: B
Rationale:
A process capability index (such as Cpk) above 1 indicates that the process variability is
tighter than specifications, and the process exceeds minimal capability. This means the
process is capable of producing within specification limits with minimal variation.
37) A process capability index equal to 1 means that the process variability
A) just meets specifications and the process is minimally capable.
B) is tighter than specifications and the process exceeds minimal capability.
C) is outside the range of specification, the process is not capable of producing within
specification, and the process must be improved.
D) is none of the above.
Answer: A
Rationale:
A process capability index (such as Cpk) equal to 1 indicates that the process variability just
meets specifications, and the process is minimally capable. This means the process is capable
of producing within specification limits, but there is little room for variation.
38) A statistical method for identifying which factors influence specific variables of a product
or process and which variable has the greatest effect best describes
A) process capability.
B) statistical control process.
C) design of experiments.
D) statistical sampling.
Answer: C
Rationale:

Design of experiments is a statistical method used to identify which factors influence specific
variables of a product or process and determine which variable has the greatest effect. It helps
to optimize processes and improve product quality.
39) Which of the following is the sampling selection method where every member of the
population is given an equal chance?
A) judgment sampling
B) cluster sampling
C) quota sampling
D) simple random sampling
Answer: D
Rationale:
Simple random sampling is a sampling selection method where every member of the
population is given an equal chance of being selected. This helps to ensure that the sample is
representative of the population.
40) Which of the following is the sampling selection method where the population is
stratified by important variables, and the required quota is obtained from each stratum or
level?
A) judgment sampling
B) cluster sampling
C) quota sampling
D) simple random sampling
Answer: C
Rationale:
Quota sampling is a sampling selection method where the population is stratified by
important variables, and the required quota is obtained from each stratum or level. This helps
to ensure that the sample represents the population's characteristics.
41) Which of the following is the sampling selection method that uses deliberate choices of
information and excludes any random process?
A) judgment sampling
B) cluster sampling
C) quota sampling
D) simple random sampling
Answer: A
Rationale:

Judgment sampling is a sampling selection method where the researcher deliberately chooses
information or participants based on their judgment and expertise, excluding any random
process.
42) The range in which the true value of the population is estimated best defines level of
A) confidence.
B) precision.
C) variability.
D) viability.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The level of precision in statistics refers to the range in which the true value of the population
is estimated to lie. It indicates the degree of exactness or accuracy of the estimate.
43) The likelihood that the result obtained from the sample is within the level of precision
defines level of
A) confidence.
B) flexibility.
C) variability.
D) viability.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The level of confidence in statistics refers to the likelihood that the result obtained from the
sample is within the level of precision. It indicates the certainty or reliability of the estimate.
44) Quality review methods include
A) expert reviews.
B) process reviews.
C) management reviews.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Quality review methods include various approaches such as expert reviews, process reviews,
and management reviews, which are used to evaluate and improve the quality of processes,
products, or services.
45) Which of the following types of reviews is conducted to evaluate the status of a project in
order to understand and allocate resources?

A) formal reviews
B) walk-through reviews
C) management reviews
D) process reviews
Answer: C
Rationale:
Management reviews are conducted to evaluate the status of a project, understand its
progress, and allocate resources effectively. These reviews help project managers make
informed decisions and ensure that the project is on track to meet its objectives.
7.3 Essay
1) What is a project quality plan? What steps are involved?
Answer: A project quality plan is a set of activities planned at the beginning of the project
that helps achieve quality in a project. The steps include gathering input data, analyzing data,
setting quality metrics, and developing an improvement plan.
2) Identify and describe four control charts.
Answer: X-bar chart, R-chart, P-chart, and C-chart are four control charts discussed in the
textbook. An X-bar chart is a process control chart used to monitor the sample means of
variables that result from a process. An R-chart monitors the dispersion or variability of the
process. A P-chart measures the proportion of items in a sample that are defective. A C-chart
counts the actual number of defects.
3) Define metric. In order to be widely used in an organization, what must a metric do?
Answer: A metric is a measure of the activities of a project and specifically a measure of the
final deliverables of a project. To be widely used, the metrics should provide information
about the health of a project; provide data for project control; measure what is essential for
project success; be a part of the project process; be used consistently in all projects; be easy
to collect and analyze; and make sure that the cost of measurement and analysis of metrics
should be affordable and provide value.
4) Describe the process for peer reviews.
Answer: The process consists of the code walk-throughs are initiated by the project manager;
the code is described by its author; the code is reviewed by peers; if there is a need, the code
is changed; and a final code validation confirms the changes.
5) Identify five reasons why scope changes are forced into projects.
Answer: Scope changes are forced into projects due to change in project priority, new
opportunities for the organization, change in business needs, change in technology, and

problems with project design or development.

Test Bank for Project Management: Process, Technology and Practice
Ganesh Vaidyanathan
9780132807180

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