Preview Extract
Chapter 5 Project Planning
5.1 True False
1) Planning helps project managers to clarify and focus a project's development and
prospects.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Planning is crucial for project managers to define the project scope, objectives, and
deliverables. It helps in identifying tasks, resources, and timelines, which clarifies the
project's direction and ensures everyone is aligned towards the same goals.
2) Decisions made at the beginning stage of a project life cycle have less influence than those
made at later stages.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Decisions made at the beginning of a project can significantly impact its success. Early
decisions involve defining the project scope, objectives, and requirements, which lay the
foundation for the entire project. Changes later in the project can be more costly and timeconsuming.
3) According to a study referenced in the textbook, there is a positive correlation between the
quality of planning and the success of a project.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The quality of planning directly impacts the success of a project. Comprehensive planning
helps in identifying potential risks, allocating resources effectively, and setting realistic goals,
all of which contribute to project success.
4) Proper planning can guarantee project success.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While proper planning is essential for project success, it does not guarantee it. Projects are
influenced by various factors, including unforeseen risks, changes in requirements, and
external factors. Good planning increases the likelihood of success but cannot eliminate all
potential challenges.
5) A requirement is a condition needed by a user to achieve a project goal.
Answer: True
Rationale:
A requirement is a condition or capability that must be met by the project to satisfy a
contract, standard, specification, or other formally imposed documents. These conditions are
needed to achieve the project's goals and objectives.
6) A functional requirement is a detailed description of technology suitable for the actual
design, development, and production processes of a project.
Answer: False
Rationale:
A functional requirement is a description of a system's behavior under specific conditions. It
describes what the system should do, not how it should be designed or developed. Detailed
descriptions of technology are typically part of design specifications.
7) The overall objective of the scope management plan is to document and inform project
stakeholders about the project, what tools will be used, and how they will be applied by the
project to ensure success.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The scope management plan outlines how the project scope will be defined, validated, and
controlled. It focuses on managing changes to the scope and ensuring that the project stays
within its defined boundaries, rather than informing stakeholders about tools and their
application.
8) The configuration management plan documents how the project scope will be defined,
managed, controlled, verified, and communicated to stakeholders.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The configuration management plan focuses on managing the configuration of the project's
deliverables, such as documents, code, and other artifacts. It does not specifically address
how the project scope will be defined or communicated.
9) The requirements management plan identifies risks posed by all requirements, including
new technology and new process risks.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The requirements management plan defines how requirements will be analyzed, documented,
and managed throughout the project. This includes identifying risks associated with
requirements, such as those related to new technology or processes.
10) The purpose of the process improvement plan is to provide guidance on how to develop,
manage, and control the schedule over the project's lifespan.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The process improvement plan focuses on identifying and implementing improvements to the
project's processes. It aims to enhance efficiency, quality, and effectiveness, rather than
solely managing the project schedule.
11) The process improvement plan defines the acceptable level of quality in a project in
accordance with the requirements of the customers and describes how the project will ensure
an acceptable level of quality in its deliverables and processes.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The process improvement plan focuses on improving processes to enhance efficiency and
effectiveness. It does not define the acceptable level of quality or how quality will be
ensured; that is typically covered in the quality management plan.
12) The quality improvement plan includes any improvement methods that were learned from
past projects.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The quality improvement plan focuses on improving the quality of deliverables and processes
within the current project. While lessons learned from past projects may inform the plan, it is
not specifically about incorporating improvement methods from past projects.
13) The staffing management plan defines the project team, the roles and responsibilities of
the team, tools for team development, and the approaches for managing team performance
and group dynamics.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The staffing management plan focuses on how human resources will be identified, acquired,
managed, and released. It does not typically include detailed information about team roles,
responsibilities, or team development tools.
14) The human resources plan is a document that explains the various human resource
requirements of a project.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The human resources plan is a part of the project management plan and outlines how human
resources will be utilized and managed on the project. It includes information such as roles
and responsibilities, project organization charts, and staffing management.
15) The communications management plan defines the communications requirements for a
project throughout its lifespan.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The communications management plan outlines the communication needs of the project,
including who needs what information, when they will need it, and how it will be delivered.
It ensures that the right information is communicated to the right people at the right time.
16) The risk management plan defines how risks associated with the project will be
identified, analyzed, and managed.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The risk management plan outlines how risks will be managed throughout the project. It
includes processes for risk identification, analysis, response planning, and monitoring and
control.
17) The scope baseline is the end result of a method that decomposes a project into small
manageable activities.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The scope baseline consists of the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS
dictionary. It is used to evaluate whether requests for changes or additional work are scope
changes.
18) Accomplishing schedules and status reporting is one of several WBS benefits.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) helps in organizing and defining the total scope of
the project. It also provides a basis for estimating costs and durations, assigning
responsibilities, and monitoring and controlling the project.
19) Level 2 of the WBS is used for project authority.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the
project team. Level 2 typically represents the major project phases or deliverables, not project
authority.
20) The WBS is created by decomposing a project into smaller pieces of manageable work.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition
of the work to be executed by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create
the required deliverables.
21) When using a lifespan-based structure, the highest-level entries in the WBS correspond to
the major phases of the lifespan.
Answer: True
Rationale:
A lifespan-based structure in a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) organizes work according
to the phases of the project's lifespan. The highest-level entries in this structure represent the
major phases of the project, such as initiation, planning, execution, monitoring, and closure.
22) At a minimum, a milestone will have a duration of at least one day.
Answer: False
Rationale:
A milestone is a significant event or achievement in a project, and it does not have a duration.
It represents a moment in time rather than a period of time. Therefore, a milestone can occur
on a single day or even a specific moment within a day.
23) In the RACI matrix, the accountable individual (A), is the individual responsible for the
activities in a project.
Answer: False
Rationale:
In the RACI matrix, the accountable individual (A) is the person who is ultimately
answerable for the correct and thorough completion of the deliverable or task. The
responsible individual (R) is the one who actually does the work.
24) Target profit is the negotiated profit in a contract assuming the target cost is met.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Target profit is the profit negotiated in a contract, assuming that the target cost (the estimated
cost of the project) is met. It represents the amount of profit the contractor expects to make if
everything goes according to plan.
25) The sharing ratio is the negotiated fee in a contract assuming the target cost is met.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The sharing ratio in a contract refers to how costs above the target cost are shared between
the buyer and the seller. It is not the negotiated fee but rather a ratio that determines how
much each party will bear the additional costs.
26) The point of total assumption is the point where the contractor assumes all liability for
additional costs once the target price reaches the ceiling price.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The point of total assumption (PTA) is the point in a cost-plus-incentive-fee contract where
the contractor assumes all liability for costs above the target cost and up to the ceiling price.
Beyond this point, the contractor bears all additional costs.
27) Fixed-price contracts are preferred by both clients and contractors when the scope of the
project is clear and well defined.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Fixed-price contracts provide a clear and predictable cost for the client and incentivize
contractors to complete the project within the agreed-upon scope and budget. They are
preferred when the project scope is well-defined to avoid cost overruns.
28) With cost-plus percentage fee contracts, all the risks are on the contractor.
Answer: False
Rationale:
In cost-plus percentage fee contracts, the buyer pays the actual costs of the work plus a
percentage of these costs as a fee to the contractor. While the contractor bears the risk of cost
overruns, the buyer bears the risk of the project taking longer or costing more than expected.
29) Designation is one of the five stages of the procurement cycle.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The five stages of the procurement cycle are identification, selection, solicitation, award, and
contract administration. Designation is not typically considered one of these stages.
30) X12 standards serve as a common business language allowing all EDI trading partners to
communicate electronically with one another.
Answer: True
Rationale:
X12 standards are a set of standards for electronic data interchange (EDI) between
businesses. They define the structure and format of electronic documents used in business
transactions, allowing trading partners to communicate effectively and efficiently.
5.2 Multiple Choice
1) Any process-related assets that can be used toward a project's success best defines
A) organizational assets.
B) organizational control.
C) environmental asset.
D) project tool.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Organizational assets are resources such as policies, procedures, templates, and historical
information that can be used to support project success. These assets are part of the
organization's knowledge base and can provide valuable guidance and support to project
teams.
2) Organizational process assets include each of the following except
A) guidelines.
B) future implementation strategies.
C) prior project documents.
D) knowledge of prior projects.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Organizational process assets (OPAs) include guidelines, templates, processes, and historical
information that can be used to support project work. Future implementation strategies are
not typically considered part of OPAs.
3) Requirements that satisfy the needs of the customers and the end-users best defines
A) mandatory requirements.
B) desirable requirements.
C) customer requirements.
D) designated requirements.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Customer requirements are the needs and expectations of the customers and end-users of a
product or service. These requirements are critical for ensuring that the final product or
service meets the needs of its intended users.
4) Documents prepared during the project planning stages include
A) project plans and documents.
B) technical requirements.
C) functional requirements.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
During the project planning stages, various documents are prepared to define the project
scope, objectives, and approach. These documents include project plans and documents,
technical requirements, and functional requirements, among others.
5) A document that specifies a project's requirement in a complete, precise, verifiable manner
and includes the procedures for determining whether the requirement is satisfied best defines
A) specifications.
B) request for proposal.
C) request for quotation.
D) project charter.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Specifications are detailed descriptions of a project's requirements, including how they will
be verified. Specifications help ensure that all stakeholders have a clear understanding of
what is expected from the project.
6) Which of the following contains a brief summary and a rationale that help project
stakeholders and outsourced contractors understand why the requirement is needed and track
the requirement through the progress of the project?
A) technical requirement
B) functional requirement
C) project charter
D) project scope document
Answer: B
Rationale:
Functional requirements describe what the system should do. They provide a rationale for
why the requirement is needed and help stakeholders and contractors track the requirement
throughout the project.
7) A detailed description of technology that is suitable for the actual design, development,
and production processes of a project best defines
A) technical requirement.
B) functional requirement.
C) project charter.
D) project scope document.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Technical requirements describe the specific technologies that will be used in the project,
including design, development, and production processes. They help ensure that the project is
implemented using the appropriate technologies.
8) Documents that are formal, approved documents used to guide both project execution and
project control best describe
A) project templates.
B) project plans.
C) resource allocation documents.
D) project structure maps.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Project plans are formal, approved documents that guide both project execution and project
control. They outline the project's scope, objectives, deliverables, schedule, budget, and other
key aspects of the project.
9) Project documents associated with the integration management knowledge area include
A) project schedule.
B) requirement document.
C) statement of work.
D) activity cost estimates.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The integration management knowledge area includes documents such as the project charter,
project management plan, and project scope statement. The statement of work (SOW) is a
key document that defines the project's objectives, scope, and deliverables.
10) Project documents associated with the scope management knowledge area include
A) project charter.
B) project change requests.
C) duration estimates.
D) requirement traceability matrix.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The scope management knowledge area includes documents such as the project scope
statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and requirement traceability matrix. These
documents help ensure that the project stays on track and meets its objectives.
11) Project documents associated with the time management knowledge area include
A) milestone list.
B) project funding requirements.
C) scope document.
D) project closure reports.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The time management knowledge area includes processes related to the timely completion of
the project. Project documents such as the milestone list help track and manage the project
schedule.
12) Project management plans include
A) project organizational structure.
B) project charter.
C) project closure reports.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Project management plans encompass all plans related to the project, including scope,
schedule, cost, quality, resources, communications, risk, procurement, and stakeholder
management.
13) Which of the following refers to a project management process where changes to a
project are formally introduced and approved?
A) change management
B) resource management
C) scope management
D) direction management
Answer: A
Rationale:
Change management is the process of identifying, documenting, approving, and controlling
changes to the project baselines. It ensures that changes are evaluated and implemented in a
controlled manner.
14) The change management plan includes
A) actual change reports.
B) procedures to evaluate and authorize change requests.
C) any reporting formats.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The change management plan outlines how changes to the project will be managed, including
the process for evaluating, approving, and implementing changes. It may also include
reporting formats and documentation requirements.
15) Which of the following focuses on establishing and maintaining the consistency of the
performance of a system or product?
A) scope management
B) configuration management
C) change management
D) schedule management
Answer: B
Rationale:
Configuration management focuses on establishing and maintaining the consistency of the
performance, functional, and physical attributes of a system or product throughout its
lifecycle.
16) The configuration management plan includes
A) the statement of work.
B) a change management process.
C) a description of audit process.
D) a description of how the scope will be planned, executed, and controlled.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The configuration management plan describes how configuration management will be
performed on the project, including the process for configuration identification, change
control, status accounting, and audits.
17) Which of the following documents how the project scope will be defined, managed,
controlled, verified and communicated to stakeholders?
A) configuration management plan
B) scope direction report
C) scope statement
D) scope management plan
Answer: D
Rationale:
The scope management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes
how the project scope will be defined, managed, controlled, verified, and communicated to
stakeholders.
18) The scope management plan includes
A) a description of how to break down the WBS into manageable work packages.
B) a representation of stakeholder problems.
C) a requirements document.
D) stakeholder requirements.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The scope management plan includes a description of how the project scope will be broken
down into smaller, more manageable work packages, which are then used to create the WBS.
19) Which of the following establishes the requirements, requirement types, requirement
attributes, and traceability of a project in order to manage project requirements?
A) requirements definition plan
B) requirements management plan
C) requirements statement
D) requirements proposal
Answer: B
Rationale:
The requirements management plan establishes how requirements will be identified,
analyzed, documented, and managed throughout the project. It includes the types of
requirements, their attributes, and how their traceability will be maintained.
20) A requirements management plan includes
A) a description of how scope changes will be identified and classified.
B) procedures to evaluate and authorize change requests.
C) all the features required by customers and users.
D) a description of the audit process.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The requirements management plan describes how requirements will be managed throughout
the project, including how they will be elicited, documented, analyzed, and prioritized. It
ensures that all the features required by customers and users are captured and addressed.
21) A document that determines the basic criteria for developing and maintaining the actual
project schedule is the
A) requirements management plan.
B) scope management plan.
C) cost management plan.
D) schedule management plan.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The schedule management plan is a component of the project management plan that
establishes the criteria and activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the project
schedule. It outlines how the schedule will be created, updated, and maintained throughout
the project.
22) The schedule management plan includes
A) the schedule monitoring and control process.
B) the scope statement of the project.
C) a cost management strategy.
D) quality improvement methods.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The schedule management plan includes processes for developing, monitoring, and
controlling the project schedule. It outlines how the schedule will be monitored, how
variances will be addressed, and how schedule changes will be managed.
23) Which of the following provides guidance on how to develop, manage, and control costs
throughout the project lifespan?
A) quality management plan
B) cost management plan
C) process improvement plan
D) staffing management plan
Answer: B
Rationale:
The cost management plan provides guidance on how project costs will be estimated,
budgeted, managed, and controlled throughout the project lifespan. It includes cost estimation
methods, budgeting procedures, and cost control measures.
24) The cost management plan includes
A) quality improvement methods.
B) quality control methods and expected results.
C) project funding requirements.
D) duration estimates.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The cost management plan includes details on how project costs will be planned, estimated,
budgeted, and controlled. It also includes information on project funding requirements and
how funds will be managed and disbursed.
25) A part of the project management plan that is the baseline of the scope of a project and
includes the project scope document, WBS, and WBS dictionary best defines
A) network diagram.
B) definitive schedule.
C) WBS.
D) scope baseline.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The scope baseline is a component of the project management plan that includes the project
scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and WBS dictionary. It represents the
approved, detailed project scope and is used to manage scope changes.
26) The end result of a method that decomposes a project into small manageable activities
best defines
A) WBS.
B) QFD.
C) BPR.
D) KAP.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of
work to be carried out by the project team. It breaks down the project into smaller, more
manageable activities and deliverables.
27) Outputs of the WBS process include
A) statement of work.
B) a baseline of scope.
C) project closure report.
D) specifications.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The WBS process outputs include the WBS itself, which is a hierarchical decomposition of
the project scope, along with the WBS dictionary. These documents form the baseline of the
project scope.
28) Benefits provided by the WBS to the project include
A) schedules and status reporting can be accomplished.
B) objectives can be linked to company resources.
C) costs and budget can be established.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The WBS provides several benefits to the project, including facilitating schedules and status
reporting, linking objectives to company resources, establishing costs and budgets, and aiding
in project planning and control.
29) Which of the following WBS levels is used for project authority?
A) Level 1
B) Level 2
C) Level 3
D) Level 4
Answer: A
Rationale:
Level 1 of the WBS represents the highest level of the project hierarchy and is used for
project authority. It represents the overall project and is typically divided into lower levels
that represent project phases, deliverables, or work packages.
30) Which of the following WBS levels describes work packages?
A) Level 1
B) Level 2
C) Level 3
D) Level 4
Answer: D
Rationale:
Level 4 of the WBS represents work packages, which are the lowest level of the WBS
hierarchy. Work packages are the smallest units of work that can be assigned to a team
member and managed independently.
31) Which of the following WBS levels is used for scheduling?
A) Level 1
B) Level 2
C) Level 3
D) Level 4
Answer: C
Rationale:
Level 3 of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is typically used for scheduling. This level
provides enough detail to schedule activities and allocate resources, while still being
manageable and not too granular.
32) Small project activities possibly with very short durations with definable results best
defines
A) primary activities.
B) work packages.
C) secondary activities.
D) Level 1 projects.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Work packages are small, manageable units of work within a project that have definable
results and can be scheduled and assigned to team members. They are the lowest level of the
WBS hierarchy.
33) When creating a WBS, you should keep in mind that
A) a good understanding of the project is needed.
B) a good scope document must be developed.
C) good requirements documentation with good input from all stakeholders is needed.
D) all of the above are needed.
Answer: D
Rationale:
When creating a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), it is important to have a good
understanding of the project, a well-developed scope document, and good requirements
documentation with input from all stakeholders. All of these factors contribute to a successful
WBS.
34) The structure of the WBS should consider and reflect
A) project scope.
B) quality and other performance criteria.
C) reporting and other communication methods.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The structure of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) should consider and reflect the
project scope, quality and other performance criteria, as well as reporting and communication
methods. All of these factors help ensure that the WBS is comprehensive and aligned with
project goals.
35) Which of the following provides the descriptions of activities that can be easily
understood by the team members who are scheduled to carry out those activities?
A) WBS dictionary
B) WBS scope
C) WBS communication plan
D) WBS resource plan
Answer: A
Rationale:
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) dictionary provides detailed descriptions of the
activities included in the WBS. These descriptions are written in a way that can be easily
understood by team members who are responsible for carrying out those activities.
36) Major events occurring during a project that do not have duration best describes
A) deliverables.
B) milestones.
C) sections.
D) resources.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Milestones are major events or achievements in a project that do not have duration. They
represent key points in the project timeline and are used to track progress and measure
success.
37) Which of the following summarizes the tasks to be accomplished and delineates who is
responsible for the project?
A) scorecard
B) SWOT analysis
C) responsibility matrix
D) configuration management plan
Answer: C
Rationale:
A responsibility matrix, also known as a RACI matrix, summarizes the tasks to be
accomplished in a project and delineates who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and
informed for each task.
38) A formal agreement between two parties, a contractor and a client, wherein the contractor
agrees to perform a service and the client is obligated to pay for the service best defines
A) request for quotation.
B) request for proposal.
C) system service request.
D) contract.
Answer: D
Rationale:
A contract is a formal agreement between two parties, such as a contractor and a client,
wherein the contractor agrees to perform a service or provide goods, and the client agrees to
pay for those services or goods.
39) The expense that has been agreed upon by a contractor and a client best defines
A) target cost.
B) ceiling price.
C) target fee.
D) target price.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Target cost is the expense that has been agreed upon by a contractor and a client. It represents
the estimated cost of completing a project, including a reasonable profit for the contractor.
40) The maximum price the client expects to pay a contractor regardless of cost overruns in a
project best defines
A) target price.
B) ceiling price.
C) maximum price.
D) nonnegotiable price.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The ceiling price is the maximum price that the client expects to pay a contractor for a
project, regardless of any cost overruns. It represents the upper limit of what the client is
willing to pay.
41) A contract where the contractor agrees to perform the work at a fixed price best defines
A) cost-plus fixed fee contract.
B) fixed-price incentive fee contract.
C) fixed-price contract.
D) cost-plus incentive fee contract.
Answer: C
Rationale:
In a fixed-price contract, the contractor agrees to perform the work for a specified price. The
price is fixed and does not change, regardless of the actual costs incurred by the contractor.
42) Which of the following types of contracts pays the contractor allowable performance
costs along with a predetermined percentage based on actual total costs?
A) cost-plus incentive fee contract
B) guaranteed maximum-shared savings contract
C) cost-plus fixed fee contract
D) cost-plus percentage fee contract
Answer: D
Rationale:
In a cost-plus percentage fee contract, the contractor is paid allowable performance costs
along with a predetermined percentage of those costs. The percentage fee is based on the
actual total costs incurred by the contractor.
43) Stages in the procurement cycle include each of the following except
A) implementation.
B) transaction.
C) improvement.
D) selection.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The stages in the procurement cycle typically include identification of needs, selection of
suppliers, negotiation of terms, awarding of contracts, and management of supplier
performance. Implementation is not typically considered a separate stage in the procurement
cycle.
44) Factors that can be used to evaluate scorecards include each of the following except
A) resources.
B) results.
C) value.
D) schedule.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Scorecards are used to evaluate the performance of contractors or suppliers based on various
factors, such as resources used, value delivered, and adherence to schedule. Results are
typically included as part of the evaluation criteria.
45) When selecting contractors or suppliers, information gathering documents include
A) RFIs.
B) RFQs.
C) RFPs.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
When selecting contractors or suppliers, organizations often use request for information
(RFI), request for quotation (RFQ), and request for proposal (RFP) documents to gather
information about potential suppliers' capabilities, pricing, and proposed solutions. These
documents help organizations make informed decisions about supplier selection.
5.3 Essay
1) List the basic steps to create a delivery-based WBS structure.
Answer: The basic steps include (1) list the committed deliverables; (2) break down the
committed deliverables into groups of activities; (3) break down each of those groups of
activities into manageable activities; (4) identify the supplementary deliverables; (5) add the
supplementary deliverables as activities to the WBS; (6) evaluate all activities for optimum
hierarchical planning; and (7) validate the WBS.
2) What is a quality management plan? What might it include?
Answer: A quality management plan defines the acceptable level of quality in a project in
accordance with the requirements of the customers and describes how the project will ensure
an acceptable level of quality in its deliverables and processes. A quality management plan
includes (1) roles and responsibilities of a quality management team; (2) quality tools and
interfaces to be used in order to ensure quality in deliverables; (3) rationale and purpose of
quality processes; (4) required quality standards; (5) quality control methods and expected
results; (6) quality assurance activities and expected results; and (7) quality improvement
methods.
3) What is the WBS dictionary? What does it contain?
Answer: The WBS dictionary provides the descriptions of activities that can be easily
understood by the team members who are scheduled to carry out those activities. The WBS
dictionary contains definitions of the scope or statement of work; definition of deliverables; a
list of associated activities; a list of recognized milestones; identification of who is
responsible for a specific WBS component; scheduled start and end dates; required resources;
and estimated cost of the project.
4) What is a contract? List six types of contracts.
Answer: A contract is a formal agreement between two parties, a contractor and a client,
wherein the contractor agrees to perform a service and the client is obligated to pay for the
service. Types of contracts include fixed-price, fixed-price incentive fee, cost-plus fixed fee,
cost-plus percentage fee, cost-plus incentive fee, and guaranteed maximum-shared savings.
5) What are the five stages in a procurement cycle?
Answer: The five stages are identification, evaluation, selection, transaction, and
improvement.
Test Bank for Project Management: Process, Technology and Practice
Ganesh Vaidyanathan
9780132807180
