Chapter 4 Project Initiation
4.1 True False
1) Project initiation consists of identifying and selecting projects and developing project
charters for the selected projects.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Project initiation involves the identification and selection of projects that align with the
organization's goals and strategy. Developing project charters is part of this process, as it
formally authorizes the project and provides the project manager with the authority to
proceed.
2) The selection and prioritization process of organizational projects has to align with the
goals and strategy of the organization.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Selecting and prioritizing projects based on the organization's goals and strategy ensures that
resources are allocated to projects that contribute most effectively to the organization's
objectives.
3) During the early stages of a project, tactics are more integral to success than strategy.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While tactics are important for executing a project, strategy is essential for defining the
project's goals, scope, and approach. A well-defined strategy guides the project's direction
and ensures that tactics are aligned with the project's objectives.
4) Organizations usually prepare feasibility studies as the first means of starting a project.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Feasibility studies are typically conducted after a project idea has been identified and before a
project charter is developed. They assess the viability of the project, including its technical,
economic, and organizational feasibility.
5) The construction of a new data center would be categorized as an emergency project.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Emergency projects are typically unexpected and require immediate action to address a
critical issue. The construction of a new data center is a planned project that would go
through the normal project initiation process.
6) Scorecard analysis is used to select and prioritize projects based on quantitative criteria.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Scorecard analysis is a method used to evaluate and measure the effectiveness of an
organization's activities against its strategic objectives. While it can inform project selection
and prioritization, it is not the primary method for selecting and prioritizing projects.
7) NPV is the result of cash flow divided by the cost of the project.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Net Present Value (NPV) is calculated by subtracting the project's initial investment cost
from the present value of its expected cash inflows. It is not a simple division of cash flow by
the cost of the project.
8) An organization should consider projects only if the NPV is negative.
Answer: False
Rationale:
An organization should consider projects with a positive NPV, as this indicates that the
project is expected to generate more value than it costs to implement. Projects with a negative
NPV are typically not considered unless there are strategic or other non-financial reasons to
pursue them.
9) Generally speaking, the IRR should be lower than the hurdle rate.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate at which the Net Present Value (NPV)
of a project is zero. The hurdle rate is the minimum acceptable rate of return set by the
organization. The IRR should be equal to or greater than the hurdle rate for a project to be
considered acceptable.
10) The higher the ROI, the better for the organization.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Return on Investment (ROI) measures the profitability of an investment relative to its cost. A
higher ROI indicates that an investment is more profitable, which is generally better for the
organization. However, it's important to consider other factors such as risk and strategic
alignment when evaluating investments.
11) Payback occurs when net costs equal net benefits accumulated over the project years.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Payback is the period of time required for the cumulative net benefits of a project to equal the
initial investment or costs. It signifies when the project has recouped its initial investment.
12) In a decision tree, an alternative's expected value is calculated by multiplying each
possible payoff of the alternative by its probability and summing the results.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The expected value of an alternative in a decision tree is calculated by multiplying each
possible outcome by its probability and summing the results. This provides a weighted
average of the possible payoffs, taking into account the likelihood of each outcome.
13) Posterior probability is the probability that an event will reflect established beliefs about
the event before the arrival of new evidence or information.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Posterior probability is the revised probability of an event occurring after taking into
consideration new evidence or information. It is updated based on prior beliefs and the
likelihood of new information.
14) The most important benefit of a project charter is that it authorizes a project and ensures
that necessary resources and management commitments are provided to achieve success.
Answer: True
Rationale:
One of the key purposes of a project charter is to formally authorize the project and secure
the necessary resources, support, and commitment from stakeholders. It also establishes the
project manager's authority to proceed with the project.
15) The ability to present outcomes effectively is a professional characteristic of a project
manager.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While the ability to present outcomes effectively can be a valuable skill for a project
manager, it is not necessarily a defining characteristic. Other skills such as leadership,
communication, and problem-solving are often considered more critical for success in project
management.
16) Having a high energy level is a personal characteristic of a project manager.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Project managers often need to work long hours and manage multiple tasks simultaneously,
requiring a high level of energy and stamina to maintain productivity and focus.
17) The ability to plan projects effectively is an attribute of a project manager.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Planning is a fundamental aspect of project management, and the ability to develop
comprehensive project plans is a key attribute of a successful project manager. Effective
planning helps ensure that projects are completed on time, within budget, and meet their
objectives.
18) Technology employed in projects should not determine project team member selection.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The technology employed in a project can influence the selection of project team members,
as certain technical skills and expertise may be required to work with specific technologies. It
is important to match the skills of team members with the technical requirements of the
project.
19) It is not necessary to identify the stakeholders before a project is planned.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Identifying stakeholders is a critical step in project planning, as stakeholders can significantly
impact the project's success. Understanding their interests, expectations, and influence on the
project helps in developing a more effective project plan.
20) The more the authority and the responsibility are shared between the functional and
project managers, the better the chances of project success.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Sharing authority and responsibility between functional and project managers can lead to
better decision-making, improved communication, and increased stakeholder buy-in, all of
which contribute to the overall success of a project.
21) Stakeholder analysis does not include the ability to help mitigate the project risks.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Stakeholder analysis helps identify stakeholders, their interests, and their potential impact on
the project. By understanding stakeholders' perspectives, project managers can proactively
manage their expectations and concerns, which can help mitigate project risks.
22) Shapers should be relied upon for help, guidance, and advice.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Shapers, as defined in Belbin's Team Role theory, are typically dynamic and outgoing
individuals who focus on driving the team forward. While they can provide valuable input
and energy to a team, they may not always be the best source of help, guidance, or advice, as
they may prioritize action over deliberation.
23) Observers have neither interest in nor influence on the project.
Answer: True
Rationale:
In Belbin's Team Role theory, Observers are characterized as individuals who prefer to
observe rather than actively participate in team activities. They may have little interest in or
influence on the project's outcome.
24) Project requirements can be gathered through brainstorming, focus groups, and facilitated
workshops.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Brainstorming, focus groups, and facilitated workshops are common techniques used to
gather project requirements. They allow stakeholders to collaborate, share ideas, and provide
input, which can help ensure that project requirements are comprehensive and well-defined.
25) Requirements gathering documents should provide initial solutions to a problem.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Requirements gathering documents should focus on capturing the needs and objectives of the
project, not on providing specific solutions. The purpose of requirements gathering is to
define what needs to be achieved, leaving the implementation details to be determined later in
the project lifecycle.
26) All stakeholders need to agree upon the requirements before the start of the project.
Answer: True
Rationale:
It is important for all key stakeholders to agree upon the project requirements before the start
of the project to ensure that there is a shared understanding of what needs to be achieved.
This can help prevent misunderstandings and conflicts later in the project lifecycle.
27) JAD is very effective for large complex projects.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Joint Application Development (JAD) is a technique used to accelerate the requirements
gathering process by bringing together key stakeholders and development team members.
While it can be effective for large complex projects, its effectiveness depends on factors such
as the availability of stakeholders and the facilitation skills of the JAD team.
28) Requirements gathering is perhaps the most complex and critical process of any project
success.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Requirements gathering is a critical process in project management, as it lays the foundation
for the entire project. Gathering accurate and complete requirements is essential for ensuring
that the project delivers the intended outcomes and meets stakeholders' expectations. It can
also be complex, as it involves identifying and documenting the needs of multiple
stakeholders with potentially conflicting interests.
29) Document analysis is the most common technique for gathering requirements.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While document analysis is a common technique for gathering requirements, it is not
necessarily the most common. Other techniques, such as interviews, surveys, and
observation, are also commonly used depending on the nature of the project and the
availability of stakeholders.
30) A use case is a technique used in software projects to document the potential
requirements of a new system or software.
Answer: True
Rationale:
A use case is a technique used in software development to describe how a system will interact
with its users or other systems to achieve a particular goal. Use cases help document the
potential requirements of a new system or software by describing the system's behavior in
various scenarios.
4.2 Multiple Choice
1) A big picture of the company consisting of a sentence or short paragraph that provides a
broad, aspiring image of the future of the organization best defines
A) vision.
B) mission.
C) objective statement.
D) organizational scope.
Answer: A
Rationale:
A vision statement is a forward-looking statement that describes the long-term aspirations
and goals of an organization. It provides a broad, inspiring image of the future that the
organization is working towards.
2) A plan, method, or action employed to achieve the goals and objectives, which in turn
achieve the mission of an organization toward the realization of its vision best defines
A) organizational strategy.
B) organizational mission statement.
C) business statement.
D) project charter.
Answer: A
Rationale:
An organizational strategy is a plan or method used to achieve the goals and objectives of an
organization, which in turn help achieve its mission and realize its vision.
3) A sentence or short paragraph written by an organization to reflect its core purpose,
identity, and values best defines
A) organization scope.
B) mission statement.
C) project charter.
D) vision.
Answer: B
Rationale:
A mission statement is a concise statement that reflects an organization's core purpose,
identity, and values. It communicates why the organization exists and what it aims to achieve.
4) Wheelwright and Clark's framework for classifying project types includes each of the
following except
A) basic research projects.
B) alliances and partnership projects.
C) end-user projects.
D) platform projects.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Wheelwright and Clark's framework for classifying project types includes basic research
projects, alliances and partnership projects, and platform projects. End-user projects are not
explicitly mentioned in their framework.
5) According to Wheelwright and Clark, which of the following project types breeds future
commercial products, new systems, and novel services?
A) alliances and partnership projects
B) breakthrough projects
C) derivative projects
D) basic research projects
Answer: D
Rationale:
According to Wheelwright and Clark, basic research projects breed future commercial
products, new systems, and novel services by generating new knowledge and technologies.
6) According to Wheelwright and Clark, which of the following project types involve
significant changes to existing products, systems, services, and processes?
A) alliances and partnership projects
B) breakthrough projects
C) derivative projects
D) basic research projects
Answer: B
Rationale:
According to Wheelwright and Clark, breakthrough projects involve significant changes to
existing products, systems, services, and processes, leading to innovations and competitive
advantages.
7) Saaty's multiple criteria decision-making technique that allows subjective as well as
objective factors to be considered during the decision-making process is
A) NGT.
B) JRP.
C) AHP.
D) DML.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Saaty's Analytic Hierarchy Process (AHP) is a decision-making technique that allows
subjective as well as objective factors to be considered by structuring complex decisions into
a hierarchy and then evaluating the alternatives based on pairwise comparisons.
8) AHP is based on each of the following principles except
A) synthesis of priorities.
B) decomposition.
C) comparative judgment.
D) iteration.
Answer: D
Rationale:
AHP is based on the principles of synthesis of priorities, decomposition, and comparative
judgment. Iteration is not a fundamental principle of AHP.
9) Project proposals include each of the following except
A) an implementation plan.
B) a statement of work.
C) perceived benefits by year.
D) high-level schedule requests.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Project proposals typically include a statement of work, perceived benefits by year, and highlevel schedule requests. An implementation plan is usually included in the project plan, not
the project proposal.
10) Which of the following describes the work to be done in detail and will be used in the
project charter in the future and in all project documents?
A) organization mission statement
B) statement of work
C) business case
D) project scope statement
Answer: B
Rationale:
The statement of work (SOW) describes the work to be done in detail and is used in the
project charter and all project documents to define the project scope, deliverables, and
objectives.
11) Project selection criteria include
A) strategic goals of the organization.
B) market need.
C) technological advancement.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Project selection criteria are the standards or rules used to select projects for implementation.
These criteria often include alignment with the organization's strategic goals, addressing a
market need, and leveraging technological advancements.
12) Projects can be categorized as any of the following except
A) resourceful.
B) compliance.
C) operational.
D) mission critical.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Projects can be categorized based on various criteria such as their purpose, impact, or nature.
The categories typically include compliance projects, operational projects, and missioncritical projects, but "resourceful" is not a standard category.
13) Projects that are essential to support the long-range mission are categorized as
A) operational.
B) strategic.
C) mission critical.
D) emergency.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Strategic projects are essential to supporting the long-range mission and goals of an
organization. They are often high-priority projects that have a significant impact on the
organization's future success.
14) A project involving renovations due to a fire or other disaster would be classified as
A) compliance.
B) emergency.
C) mission critical.
D) strategic.
Answer: B
Rationale:
A project involving renovations due to a fire or other disaster would be classified as an
emergency project, as it requires immediate action to address the urgent situation.
15) Models for project selection and prioritization include
A) scorecard analysis.
B) decision tree analysis.
C) net present value.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Models for project selection and prioritization include various techniques such as scorecard
analysis, decision tree analysis, and net present value analysis. These models help
organizations evaluate and compare projects based on different criteria.
16) Assuming a discount rate of 8 percent, what is the present value of $800,000 three years
from now?
A) 635,065.79
B) 685,871.06
C) 740,740.74
D) None of the above is correct.
Answer: A
Rationale:
The present value of $800,000 three years from now, assuming a discount rate of 8 percent,
can be calculated using the formula PV = FV / (1 + r) n, where PV is the present value, FV is
the future value, r is the discount rate, and n is the number of years. Plugging in the values,
we get PV = $800,000 / (1 + 0.08)3 = $635,065.79.
17) Which of the following is the return or discount rate that makes NPV = 0?
A) ROI
B) IRR
C) PMI
D) QFD
Answer: B
Rationale:
The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the return or discount rate that makes the Net Present
Value (NPV) of a project equal to zero. It represents the rate at which the project's cash
inflows equal its cash outflows.
18) The amount of time a project will take to recuperate its investments best defines
A) recuperation time frame.
B) net present value.
C) payback analysis.
D) internal rate of return.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The payback analysis is a method used to determine the amount of time it will take for a
project to recoup its initial investment. It is calculated by dividing the initial investment by
the annual cash inflows.
19) The purpose of the project charter is to
A) define the reasons for undertaking the project.
B) define objectives and constraints of the project.
C) define directions concerning the solution.
D) do all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
The project charter serves several purposes, including defining the reasons for undertaking
the project, defining the objectives and constraints of the project, and providing directions
concerning the solution. It is a key document that authorizes the project and establishes the
project manager's authority.
20) A project charter should contain each of the following except project
A) test plan.
B) purpose or justification.
C) objectives.
D) description.
Answer: A
Rationale:
A project charter should contain the purpose or justification for the project, the objectives of
the project, a description of the project, and other key information such as project scope,
stakeholders, and budget. A test plan is typically included in the project plan, not the project
charter.
21) A document that formally recognizes a project and includes a problem statement, project
objectives, benefits, process owners, and a project sponsor or a champion best defines
A) business case.
B) organizational mission statement.
C) project charter.
D) statement of work.
Answer: C
Rationale:
A project charter is a document that formally recognizes a project and includes key
information such as the problem statement, project objectives, benefits, process owners, and
project sponsor or champion. It authorizes the project and provides the project manager with
the authority to proceed.
22) Categories of project manager characteristics include each of the following except
A) personal.
B) technical.
C) relational.
D) professional.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Categories of project manager characteristics typically include personal, relational, and
professional characteristics. Technical skills are important but are usually considered
separately from these categories.
23) Personal characteristics of a project manager include
A) able to work under uncertainty.
B) good written and oral communication skills.
C) friendly and optimistic.
D) understands business issues.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Personal characteristics of a project manager include qualities such as the ability to work
under uncertainty, good communication skills, and understanding of business issues. Being
friendly and optimistic can contribute to effective leadership and team morale.
24) Professional characteristics of a project manager include
A) is honest and has integrity.
B) assertive and confident.
C) team player.
D) adaptable to situations.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Professional characteristics of a project manager include qualities such as honesty, integrity,
assertiveness, confidence, and adaptability. These traits contribute to effective leadership and
decision-making.
25) Attributes of a project manager include
A) possessing good people skills.
B) knowing how to solve disputes.
C) having a great attitude and enthusiasm.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Attributes of a project manager include possessing good people skills, knowing how to solve
disputes, and having a great attitude and enthusiasm. These attributes contribute to effective
communication, conflict resolution, and team motivation.
26) Individuals or organizations who are affected by a project best defines
A) end users.
B) project manager.
C) customers.
D) stakeholders.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Stakeholders are individuals or organizations who are affected by a project or who can
influence the project's outcome. They include a wide range of people and entities, such as end
users, customers, project managers, and others.
27) Purposes for identifying stakeholders include each of the following except
A) knowing the individual to blame if the project fails.
B) improving working conditions.
C) streamlining business and project processes.
D) stabilizing the project when things go in the wrong direction.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Identifying stakeholders helps improve working conditions, streamline business and project
processes, and stabilize the project when things go wrong. It is not about assigning blame but
about ensuring that all relevant parties are considered and involved in the project.
28) Stakeholders include
A) customers and users.
B) project team.
C) upper management.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Stakeholders include customers and users, the project team, upper management, and other
individuals or groups who have an interest in or are affected by the project. It is important to
identify and manage stakeholders effectively to ensure project success.
29) Which stakeholder group provides financial resources for the project?
A) project sponsors and champions
B) customers and users
C) upper management
D) functional managers
Answer: A
Rationale:
Project sponsors and champions are stakeholders who provide financial resources for the
project. They are often responsible for ensuring that the project receives the necessary
funding and support.
30) A methodology used in incorporating the requirements of those who have an interest in a
project best defines
A) stakeholder analysis.
B) stakeholder synthesis.
C) requirements review.
D) logical review.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Stakeholder analysis is a methodology used to identify and incorporate the requirements,
needs, and expectations of those who have an interest in a project. It helps ensure that the
project meets the needs of its stakeholders and addresses their concerns.
31) Stakeholder analysis includes
A) stakeholder characteristics.
B) level of interest of the stakeholders in the specific project.
C) ability to affect the project policies through power and/or leadership.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Stakeholder analysis involves identifying and assessing stakeholders based on their
characteristics, level of interest in the project, and their ability to influence project policies
through power and leadership. Considering all these factors helps in understanding
stakeholders' needs and expectations.
32) Which stakeholders have high influence as well as high interest in the project?
A) promoters
B) shapers
C) advocates
D) observers
Answer: A
Rationale:
Promoters are stakeholders who have high influence as well as high interest in the project.
They are typically supportive of the project and actively work to ensure its success.
33) Which stakeholders have high influence but have some or no interest in the project?
A) promoters
B) shapers
C) advocates
D) observers
Answer: B
Rationale:
Shapers are stakeholders who have high influence but may have some or no interest in the
project. They can significantly impact the project's outcome but may not be directly affected
by it.
34) A capability of a system, product, or service to include the quantified and documented
needs and expectations of the sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders best defines
A) task.
B) requirement.
C) process.
D) activity.
Answer: B
Rationale:
A requirement is a capability of a system, product, or service that includes the quantified and
documented needs and expectations of the sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders.
Requirements help define what the system or product should do or how it should behave.
35) A process used in prototyping to collect requirements while developing new information
systems for a company best defines
A) QFD.
B) KMAP.
C) JAD.
D) RAD.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Joint Application Development (JAD) is a process used in prototyping to collect requirements
while developing new information systems for a company. It involves structured group
meetings with stakeholders to gather requirements and ensure their active involvement in the
development process.
36) A structured group meeting of stakeholders to gather requirements by actively involving
the stakeholders to replace individual interviews best defines
A) QFD.
B) KMAP.
C) BPR.
D) JRP.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Joint Requirements Planning (JRP) is a structured group meeting of stakeholders to gather
requirements by actively involving them. It aims to replace individual interviews with a
collaborative approach to requirement gathering.
37) Which of the following creates requirements from "as-is" process documents?
A) document analysis
B) nominal group technique
C) interface analysis
D) focus group
Answer: A
Rationale:
Document analysis is a technique used to create requirements from "as-is" process
documents. It involves analyzing existing documents such as policies, procedures, and
guidelines to extract requirements for the project.
38) A technique used in software projects to document the potential requirements of a new
system or software by conveying how the system should interact with the end user or another
system to achieve a specific business goal graphically best defines
A) interface analysis.
B) use case analysis.
C) joint requirements planning.
D) nominal group technique.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Use case analysis is a technique used in software projects to document the potential
requirements of a new system or software. It conveys how the system should interact with the
end user or another system to achieve a specific business goal graphically.
39) Which of the following reviews various points where two or more systems interact with
each other?
A) prototyping
B) mind maps
C) interface analysis
D) use case analysis
Answer: C
Rationale:
Interface analysis reviews various points where two or more systems interact with each other.
It helps ensure that interfaces between systems are well-defined and function correctly.
40) A sample or a model built usually to test a concept, a process, a system, or a product best
defines
A) use case.
B) test case.
C) mind map.
D) prototype.
Answer: D
Rationale:
A prototype is a sample or a model built usually to test a concept, a process, a system, or a
product. It is used to validate ideas, gather feedback, and refine the final product or system.
41) Steps involved in generating a mind map include
A) continuing until no more risks can be identified.
B) begin by drawing a circle that represents a risk category.
C) for each major risk, identify smaller risks that are part of that risk.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Generating a mind map involves several steps, including continuing until no more risks can
be identified, beginning by drawing a circle that represents a risk category, and for each
major risk, identifying smaller risks that are part of that risk. These steps help organize and
visualize risks in a structured manner.
42) A graphical method of taking mental notes or ideas in a structured fashion best defines
A) mind map.
B) prototype.
C) use case.
D) object diagram.
Answer: A
Rationale:
A mind map is a graphical method of taking mental notes or ideas in a structured fashion. It
uses branches radiating from a central concept to represent related ideas or information,
allowing for visual organization and understanding.
43) A table captured to map all the requirements of all stakeholders in order to track them
until the project is complete best defines
A) mind map.
B) requirements traceability matrix.
C) decision tree.
D) project charter.
Answer: B
Rationale:
A requirements traceability matrix is a table that captures and maps all the requirements of all
stakeholders in order to track them until the project is complete. It helps ensure that all
requirements are addressed and provides a baseline for managing changes.
44) Which of the following defines a baseline for performance measurement?
A) object diagram
B) sequence diagram
C) project scope
D) use case diagram
Answer: C
Rationale:
Project scope defines the boundaries of the project, including what is included and excluded
from the project. It serves as a baseline for performance measurement, helping to ensure that
the project stays on track and meets its objectives.
45) The addition of scope after it is defined in the scope document best defines
A) scope evolution.
B) scope iteration.
C) scope increment.
D) scope creep.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Scope creep refers to the addition of scope after it is defined in the scope document. It often
occurs gradually and can lead to project delays, increased costs, and decreased quality if not
properly managed.
4.3 Essay
1) When recruiting effective project managers, what five challenges might an organization
face?
Answer: Challenges include (1) ensuring that only qualified individuals are assigned to
project management positions; (2) ensuring that an internal policy is designed, instituted, and
followed to foster professional growth and development of such project management
positions; (3) providing proper authority and accountability to project managers; (4)
providing the necessary management support; and (5) ensuring that necessary resources are
available for projects.
2) Identify three categories of project manager characteristics. For each category, provide two
examples.
Answer: Personal, professional and relational are the three broad categories. Honesty and
assertiveness are two examples of the personal characteristic. Adaptability and organization
are two examples of the professional characteristic. Being a team player and the ability to
actively listen are two examples of the relational characteristic.
3) Identify five objectives that must be achieved for a project.
Answer: Objectives include satisfying end user and customer requirements; performing
flawlessly; satisfying a myriad of technical performance criteria; being user friendly and cost
effective; and designing and implementing with quality.
4) Identify five ways that project requirements may be gathered.
Answer: Project requirements may be gathered by brainstorming, Delphi technique, mind
mapping, affinity diagrams, and interviews. Additional tools are provided in the textbook.
5) Define project scope. What does the scope document contain?
Answer: Project scope defines the baseline for performance measurement. The scope
document contains project scope description, project acceptance criteria, project deliverables,
project exclusions, project constraints, and project assumptions.
Test Bank for Project Management: Process, Technology and Practice
Ganesh Vaidyanathan
9780132807180
