CH-7 Learning and Behaviour Analysis – Psychology and Life : Exam Guide

Chapter 7: Learning and Bahaviour Analysis 1) Why do researchers study an organism’s performance if they are really interested in whether or not the organism has learned? A) Performance and learning are equivalent. B) Only performance involves a change in behaviour or behaviour potential. C) Performance changes before learning has occurred. D) Learning cannot ordinarily be directly observed. Answer: D Rationale: You cannot ordinarily see the changes in your brain; learning is obvious only when we can demonstrate the results. Learning is apparent from improvements in performance. 2) Which school of psychology was founded by John Watson? A) structuralism B) functionalism C) behaviourism D) determinism Answer: C Rationale: John B. Watson founded the school of psychology known as behaviourism, and in 1919, he wrote the b.ook Psychology from the Standpoint of a Behaviourist. 3) What did John Watson believe that psychologists should study? A) observable behaviour. B) participants' verbal reports of sensations, images, and feelings. C) learning rather than performance. D) states of consciousness. Answer: A Rationale: Watson argued that introspection was too subjective, and that the subject matter of psychology should be observable behaviour. 4) A research assistant in listening to John Watson as he describes one of his potential experiments. What primary measure will Watson likely suggest? A) learning rather than performance. B) verbal reports of the thoughts of participants. C) responses on questionnaires about emotions. D) observable behaviour. Answer: D Rationale: Watson argued that the subject matter of psychology should be observable behaviour. 5) What position was formulated by B. F. Skinner? A) functionalism B) determinism C) behaviourism D) radical behaviourism Answer: D Rationale: Skinner founded radical behaviourism, or the idea that behaviour is caused by external stimuli, after reading Watson's book Behaviourism. 6) Cory deprives her dog of food just before she begins training him to sit down on command. Cory gives her dog food only when he sits on the floor after she presses on his back. Pretty soon the dog is sitting on the floor consistently. According to Skinner, what has caused the dog's sitting behaviour? A) the desire to get the food. B) the feelings of extreme hunger. C) a combination of the dog’s innate intelligence, problem-solving ability, and motivation. D) deprivation and the use of food as reinforcement. Answer: D Rationale: To understand what the dog does, you do not need to know anything about inner psychological states. The subjective feeling of hunger is the result of deprivation but cannot be directly observed or measured and is not the cause of the dog’s behaviour. To understand the dog’s learned behaviour (sitting on command), you need only to understand the principles of learning that allow the dog to acquire the association between behaviour (sitting) and reward (food). 7) A researcher considers herself to be a behaviour analyst. She does research on the psychology of learning, using both human and animal participants. What does this researcher most likely believe? A) there are few consistent regularities underlying the behaviour of animals. B) the laws of learning are universal, occurring in all types of animal species, including humans. C) humans are different from other animal species and are governed by a unique set of learning laws. D) there is a small overlap in the laws of learning that applies to both humans and nonhuman animals. Answer: B Rationale: Studies with nonhuman animals have been critical to progress in behaviour analysis. Behaviour analysts work to discover regularities in learning that are universal, occuring in all types of animal species. Complex forms of learning represent combinations and elaborations of simpler processes and are not qualitatively different phenomena. 8) What did B. F. Skinner argue about all behaviours? A) They are a function of an organism's internal mental states. B) They are genetically predetermined. C) They are simply forms of learning in response to environmental stimuli. D) They are the result of an interaction between motivation and personality. Answer: C Rationale: To understand behaviour, we only need to understand the principles of learning that allow an association between stimulus and reinforcement. Complex learning involves combinations and elaborations of simpler processes and not qualitatively different processes. 9) During classical conditioning, where is an association made? A) Between a stimulus and a response. B) Between a response and a stimulus. C) Between two responses. D) Between two stimuli. Answer: D Rationale: The association is made between a stimulus that did not previously elicit the response and one that naturally elicited the response. 10) Which of the following behaviours is most likely to have been acquired through the process of classical conditioning? A) blinking when a light strikes the eyes B) falling off a bicycle after hitting a bump C) wincing upon hearing the dentist's drill D) sneezing when an irritant enters the nasal cavity Answer: C Rationale: Classical conditioning is a basic form of learning in which one stimulus or event predicts the occurrence of another stimulus or event. The organism learns a new association between two stimuli, one that did not previously elicit the response and one that naturally elicited the response. In this case the new association is learned between the drilling, which causes wincing, and the sound of the drill. Once the association is learned, the sound of the drill will elicit wincing. 11) Who carried out the first rigorous study of classical conditioning? A) B. F. Skinner. B) John Watson. C) Sir Charles Sherrington. D) Ivan Pavlov. Answer: D Rationale: Pavlov's study with dogs salivating to different cues that signaled the arrival of food was the first formal study of classical conditioning. 12) A research assistant is observing one of Pavlov's early experiments on classical conditioning. After a dog is placed in a harness, what is most likely to happen? A) A tone will be presented, and then a bell will ring. B) If the dog makes an orienting response, he will be given some food. C) A tone will be presented, and the dog will be given some food. D) If the dog barks, he will be given an electric shock. Answer: C Rationale: The tone has no prior meaning to the dog with respect to food or salivation. The dog's first reaction to the tone is an orienting response, but after repeated pairings of tone and food, the orienting response stops and salivation begins. 13) In the context of classical conditioning, what are reflex responses? A) learned responses to specific stimuli. B) naturally elicited, unlearned responses. C) conditioned behaviours. D) naturally occurring associations between stimuli. Answer: B Rationale: A reflex is a response that is triggered naturally by stimuli that are biologically relevant to the organism. A stimulus that naturally elicits a reflexive behaviour, such as food, is called an unconditioned stimulus because learning is not necessary in order for the stimulus to control the behaviour. 14) In a typical classical conditioning experiment, which statement about a neutral stimulus is accurate? A) It is repeatedly paired with the UCR. B) It is repeatedly paired with the CS. C) It is not paired with any other stimulus. D) It is repeatedly paired with the UCS. Answer: D Rationale: A neutral stimulus (a light or a tone) does not ordinarily elicit the reflex response of salivation. Over time, when paired repeatedly with the unconditioned stimulus, this neutral stimulus (called the conditioned stimulus) will produce an effect called the conditioned response. This will acquire some of the power to influence behaviour that was originally limited to the unconditioned stimulus. 15) In a classical conditioning experiment, which term characterizes the food? A) conditioned stimulus B) conditioned response C) unconditioned stimulus D) unconditioned response Answer: C Rationale: The unconditioned stimulus is a stimulus that doesn’t need to be learned about in order to elicit a response. 16) Which statement about classical conditioning is accurate? A) The CR cannot be similar to the UCR. B) The CS is the response the CR elicits as a product of learning. C) The UCS naturally elicits a reflexive behaviour. D) The stimulus paired with the UCS must bring about a CR prior to the beginning of conditioning trials. Answer: C Rationale: Learning is not necessary for the stimulus (such as food) to elicit the behaviour (such as salivation). 17) In classical conditioning trials, which term characterizes the behaviour that is naturally elicited by the stimulus? A) reflexive B) orienting C) conditioned D) unconditioned Answer: D Rationale: A stimulus that naturally elicits a reflexive behaviour is a stimulus that we don't need to learn about, so it is called the unconditioned stimulus. The response to that stimulus is also unlearned, so it is called the unconditioned response. 18) In classical conditioning, which connection does the conditioning provide? A) UCS-CS B) CS-CR C) UCR-CR D) UCS-UCR Answer: B Rationale: No learning is required for the unconditioned stimulus to elicit the unconditioned response (a reflex or response that is naturally triggered). Learning produced by classical conditioning (repeatedly pairing CS with UCS) creates the conditioned stimulus-conditioned response connection. 19) Colleen feels fine when enters the classroom, but as soon as the teacher announces a surprise quiz she immediately feels her pulse quicken and her stomach churn. Which term best describes Colleen’s reaction to the teacher's announcement? A) conditioned response. B) unconditioned response. C) orienting response. D) reflexive response. Answer: A Rationale: The conditioned response is whatever response the conditioned stimulus (the quiz) elicits as a product of learning (quick pulse and queasy feeling). If fear (of evaluation) elicits the natural reaction of quick pulse and queasy stomach and is paired often enough with a quiz, the quiz itself will take on some of the power to elicit the same behaviour (quick pulse and queasy stomach). At the heart of classical conditioning are reflex responses that are naturally triggered by specific stimuli that are biologically relevant to the organism. Fear elicits natural physiological responses in humans. 20) The first time a child is inoculated for measles, he responds by crying. The next time he visits the doctor for his booster shot, he cries as soon as he sees the nurse who gave him the first shot. In the context of classical conditioning, what does the nurse represent? A) CS B) UCS C) UCR D) CR Answer: A Rationale: The unconditioned stimulus (the pain) does not require learning. The conditioned stimulus (the nurse) was paired with the UCS. This pairing resulted in the nurse having some of the power of the pain to elicit crying. Pain elicits crying naturally. The nurse does not. 21) A child is bitten by a dog while delivering a newspaper to a house. The next day when he sees the house he feels anxious, even though the dog is nowhere in sight. What is the CS? A) The barking dog. B) The pain the child feels when bitten by the dog. C) The pain the child feels when remembering being bitten by the dog. D) The sight of the house. Answer: D Rationale: The dog bite naturally elicits pain. Pain elicits an anxious response. When paired with the pain, the sight of the house elicits the conditioned response, which is anxiety. 22) In general, for a conditioned response to be acquired, what must be paired several times? A) CS and UCS B) CS and CR C) UCS and UCR D) UCR and CR Answer: A Rationale: With systematic CS-UCS pairings, the CR is elicited with increasing frequency and the organism may be said to have acquired a conditioned response. 23) Which term characterizes the most widely used type of conditioning wherein the CS comes on prior to and stays on at least until the UCS is presented? A) trace B) simultaneous C) backward D) delay Answer: D Rationale: Delay conditioning occurs when the CS comes on and stays on at least until the UCS is presented. 24) Mary has a phobia of spiders and received treatment with a therapist. The therapy worked, because at the end of the sessions, she was able to hold a spider in her hands. However, she finished her therapy in the winter, so she went many months without seeing any spiders. The following spring when the spiders were out again, she found her fear was back as well. Which term best captures this scenario? A) extinction. B) acquisition. C) stimulus generalization. D) spontaneous recovery. Answer: D Rationale: Spontaneous recovery is the reappearance of an extinguished conditioned response after a rest period. 25) What occurs during trace conditioning? A) the CS is turned off before the UCS is presented. B) both the CS and the UCS are presented at the same time. C) the UCS is turned off before the CS is presented. D) both the CS and the CR are presented at the same time. Answer: A Rationale: With trace conditioning, there is a gap in time between the CS and UCS where no stimulus occurs. 26) Which CS-UCS time interval is most effective? A) The shorter the interval the better. B) The longer the interval the better. C) The optimal interval primarily depends upon the person who is being conditioned. D) The optimal interval primarily depends upon the response being conditioned. Answer: D Rationale: For muscular responses, such as eye blinks, a short interval of a second or less is best. For visceral responses, such as heart rate and salivation, longer intervals of five to fifteen seconds work best. 27) A new dog owner is trying to use classical conditioning to train her dog to blink whenever she says "Blink." She blows into his eyes, then says "Blink," but the dog is not learning to blink at her command. What should she do to improve her training technique? A) not say "Blink" until after the dog has blinked. B) say "Blink" before blowing into the dog's eyes. C) say "Blink" without blowing into the dog's eyes. D) give the dog a treat whenever he blinks. Answer: B Rationale: Delay conditioning is strongest; the CS precedes the UCS by a second or two. When this is repeated over time, the CS comes to predict the UCS and the CR becomes stronger. 28) "In classical conditioning, as in telling a good joke, timing is critical." What did the authors of the textbook mean? A) The CR and the UCR must be presented closely enough in time to be perceived as related. B) The CR and the UCR must be presented far enough apart in time to be perceived as unrelated. C) The CS and the UCS must be presented far enough apart in time to be perceived as unrelated. D) The CS and the UCS must be presented closely enough in time to be perceived as related. Answer: D Rationale: In the most widely used and most effective type of conditioning, delay conditioning, the CS comes on before the UCS and stays on at least until the UCS is presented. However, the exact time interval that will produce optimal conditioning depends upon several factors. 29) What occurs during simultaneous conditioning? A) both the CS and the UCS are presented at the same time. B) the CS is turned off before the UCS is presented. C) both the CS and the CR are presented at the same time. D) the UCS is turned off before the CS is presented. Answer: A Rationale: In simultaneous conditioning, both the CS and UCS are presented simultaneously. 30) Conditioning is usually most effective in which type of paradigm? A) reverse B) backward C) trace D) delay Answer: D Rationale: Backward conditioning doesn't work very well because the CS is a better predictor of the time between trials than it is of the UCS. Delay conditioning is most effective at producing a CR because the CS predicts the UCS and it occurs close in time to the UCS. 31) In which form of conditioning is the CS presented after the UCS? A) reverse B) backward C) delay D) trace Answer: B Rationale: In backward conditioning, the CS is presented after the UCS. 32) A girl classically conditions her dog to blink by blowing into her dog's eyes just after saying "Blink." Unfortunately, her parrot overhears the procedure, and says "Blink" all day long when the girl is out. When she returns, the girl says "Blink" to her dog, but he does not blink. What is the most likely explanation for the dog’s behaviour? A) shaping has occurred. B) spontaneous recovery has occurred. C) the dog's behaviour has generalized. D) extinction has taken place. Answer: D Rationale: When the conditioned response no longer appears in the presence of the conditioned stimulus, extinction is said to have occurred. The CS no longer predicts the UCS, and the CR becomes weaker and weaker over time and finally disappears. 33) A girl has been hit by the school bully and is afraid to go to school. During summer break her fear of going to school decreases and she is eager to go back. However, the first day back to school her fear returns once again. Which term best reflects the reappearance of her fear? A) savings. B) extinction. C) stimulus generalization. D) spontaneous recovery. Answer: D Rationale: The CR (fear) will reappear in a weak form when the CS (school) is presented alone again after extinction. 34) In classical conditioning, what happens following extinction if the original CS-UCS pairing is renewed? A) More time will be necessary to reacquire the CR than it took to acquire it originally. B) Less time will be necessary to reacquire the CR than it took to acquire it originally. C) The behaviour will be less likely to generalize in the future. D) The UCS will no longer be an effective stimulus and another UCS must be chosen. Answer: B Rationale: The CR becomes rapidly stronger. This is called "savings," indicating that some of the original conditioning has been retained even after extinction appears to have eliminated the CR. 35) Once a CR has been conditioned to a particular CS, similar stimuli may also elicit the response. Which term best reflects this phenomenon? A) instinctual drift. B) spontaneous recovery. C) stimulus discrimination. D) stimulus generalization. Answer: D Rationale: Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli that are similar to the original CS are also able to elicit a CR. 36) A friend has taught her dog to bark whenever she says "Speak." Now, she wants to teach him a new trick by saying "Sit," but he barks whenever she says "Sit." Which term best captures the dog's behaviour? A) spontaneous recovery. B) stimulus generalization. C) stimulus discrimination. D) extinction. Answer: B Rationale: The new stimulus ("Sit") is similar to the original CS ("Speak") so the response (barking) to "Sit" is strong. 37) What do stimulus generalization gradients demonstrate? A) human behaviour is relatively slow to adapt. B) the most important attribute of a CS is its intensity. C) less time is necessary to reacquire a response than to acquire it originally. D) the more similar a stimulus is to the original CS, the stronger a CR will be. Answer: D Rationale: The gradient is made up of increasingly dissimilar stimuli. This builds an adaptive factor into our lives by extending the range of learning beyond the original CS-UCS pairing, so that similar experiences can have the same meaning or behavioural significance. 38) Which process increases the range of stimuli to which a CR will be made? A) extinction B) spontaneous recovery C) stimulus discrimination D) stimulus generalization Answer: D Rationale: Stimulus generalization allows organisms to recognize events as having the same meaning or behavioural significance despite apparent differences. Stimulus discrimination allows organisms to learn to respond differently to stimuli that are distinct from the CS on some dimension. 39) A pigeon is in a box pecking different coloured keys. When the red key lights up, food is delivered shortly after, but when the green key lights up, no food is delivered. After a while, the pigeon starts pecking the red key but not the green key. What is this experiment most likely examining? A) stimulus discrimination. B) stimulus generalization. C) spontaneous recovery. D) extinction. Answer: A Rationale: Stimulus discrimination occurs when an organism learns to respond differently to stimuli that differ from the CS on some dimension. 40) A researcher pairs a tone of 1200 Hz with an electric shock in a conditioning experiment. On some trials, tones of 1000 Hz or 1500 Hz are presented without the shock. What is this experiment most likely to illustrate? A) blocking. B) trace conditioning. C) stimulus discrimination. D) stimulus generalization. Answer: C Rationale: An organism's discrimination among stimuli is sharpened with discrimination training in which only one of the stimuli predicts the UCS and the other stimuli are repeatedly presented without the UCS. 41) What did Pavlov believe to be fundamental to the success of classical conditioning? A) The informativeness of the CS. B) The law of effect. C) The mere pairing of the CS and UCS. D) The contingent relationship between the CS and UCS. Answer: C Rationale: Pavlov believed that all you had to do to produce a CR is pair the CS followed close in time by the UCS. Rescorla found that contingency is also important. 42) In Robert Rescorla's experiment, how did the dogs exposed to contingency training behave? A) They jumped more frequently in the presence of the tone than the dogs in the contiguous condition. B) They jumped less frequently in the presence of the tone than the dogs in the contiguous condition. C) They jumped in the presence of the tone at similar levels to the dogs in the contiguous condition. D) They were more traumatized by the shock of the tone than were the dogs in the contiguous condition. Answer: A Rationale: This demonstrated that in addition to the CS being contiguous, occurring close in time to the UCS, it must also reliably predict the occurrence of the UCS for classical conditioning to occur. 43) Which scenario best supports the results of Robert Rescorla's research on the importance of contingency in classical conditioning? A) Individuals ignore car alarms because they are not dependable predictors of burglary attempts. B) Individuals enter a door that says "no admittance" if they see others using the door. C) Individuals predict weather based on idiosyncratic physiological states or hunches. D) Individuals believe the predictions of horoscopes because they are positive and general in nature. Answer: A Rationale: The CS must not only occur closely in time to the UCS, but it must also reliably predict the occurrence of the UCS. The car alarm occurs close in time with the occasional burglary, but it happens so frequently in other situations that it does not reliably predict a break-in attempt. 44) Laboratory animals are taught that a tone predicts food delivery. A light is then added as a second CS and they are given additional trials paired with food. If the animals now are tested with the light alone, what will they do? A) salivate more to the light than when it was presented with the tone. B) salivate equally to the light as they did to the tone. C) salivate to the light, but less quickly than they did to the tone. D) not salivate to the light. Answer: D Rationale: The light provided no additional information beyond that which the animals already had. The conditioning with the tone blocked the conditioning with the light. In order for conditioning to occur, the CS must stand out among the many stimuli in the environment. It must be informative 45) What must a neutral stimulus be to become an effective CS? A) contingent and informative. B) contiguous and novel. C) noncontingent and familiar. D) contiguous and informative. Answer: A Rationale: It must reliably predict the occurrence of the UCS (contingency) and provide powerful enough information that it stands out from other stimuli in the environment in relation to the UCS (that is, it must be informative). 46) To condition fear in Little Albert, what did Watson and Rayner use as a UCS? A) A white rat B) A dog C) A loud noise D) A pin prick Answer: C Rationale: Watson and Rayner conditioned fear in a toddler named Little Albert to a white rat (that he initially liked) by pairing the presentation of the rat with a loud noise. After 7 pairings, his fear was developed. 47) After Watson and Rayner established conditioned fear in Little Albert, what did they find? A) Albert’s fear generalized to other furry objects. B) stimulus discrimination occurred C) it was fairly easy to extinguish the experimentally conditioned fear. D) Albert experienced no long-term effects from the experiment. Answer: A Rationale: The conditioning extended to similar objects in his environment such as a rabbit, a dog, and even a Santa mask. No one knows what happened to him because his mother removed him from the experiment. 48) A research assistant proposes to replicate Watson and Rayner’s study. How would an ethics review board likely respond? A) A replication has been needed for some time. B) The study must include debriefing on how to extinguish phobias. C) The study is unnecessary as there are sufficient data from the original study. D) This study would cause too much harm to the participant. Answer: D Rationale: Watson and Rayner’s study with Little Albert would never receive ethical support in modern times. 49) When individuals take drugs repeatedly in the same setting, the body responds with countermeasures intended to reestablish homeostasis. In the language of classical conditioning, which term refers to these countermeasures to the drug? A) conditioned responses B) compensatory responses C) unconditioned responses D) contingent responses Answer: C Rationale: The CS is the setting that signals the body to start these compensatory measures. The compensatory measures are the UCR reacting to the UCS of drug use. Eventually the CS (setting) sets off the compensatory response (CR), leading to higher and higher doses needed for the same effect (tolerance). 50) A drug addict always "shoots up" at his girlfriend's house. On the day that they break up, he injects himself with his usual dose of heroin, but this time it is in his own home. Based on the research findings of Shepard Siegel, what will most likely happen to the addict? A) He is more likely to overdose. B) He is less likely to overdose. C) His psychological response to the drug will be similar. D) His physiological response to the drug will be similar. Answer: A Rationale: Taking heroin in the usual setting made the addict more physiologically prepared because the CS (the context) brought about a physiological response (CR) that countered the drug's usual effects. The compensatory physiological effects would not occur in the new setting. 51) A young man does not enjoy the feeling of being drunk, so when he drinks alcohol he attempts to drink in moderation. Based on the research findings of Shepard Siegel, what else should this individual do? A) avoid drinking outdoors. B) drink only with good friends. C) avoid smoking while drinking. D) avoid drinking in unfamiliar places. Answer: D Rationale: Unfamiliar places do not protect him, because no tolerance to the alcohol has been built up in the unfamiliar setting. If the setting is associated with alcohol use (CS), the body physiologically prepares itself (CR) for the alcohol's expected effects. 52) According to Thorndike's law of effect, which two variables are related? A) the CS and the UCS. B) stimuli and reinforcement. C) behaviour and its consequences. D) "stamping in" and "stamping out." Answer: C Rationale: He discovered that as behaviours produced desired responses, they increased in frequency. Responses followed by satisfying consequences become more probable and those followed by unsatisfying responses become less probable. 53) In a study quoted in the text, what did the women who attended the clinic for breast cancer treatment report? A) higher levels of preinfusion fatigue. B) lower levels of postinfusion fatigue. C) higher levels of postinfusion fatigue. D) lower levels of depression. Answer: A Rationale: The chemotherapy drugs were the UCS producing post-treatment fatigue (UCR). The clinic environment was the CS. As the clinic (CS) was paired over time with the UCS (chemotherapy), the women began to have anticipatory fatigue as a conditioned response as soon as they arrived at the clinic. 54) Nick experiences nausea immediately upon entering the clinic where his chemotherapy sessions take place. In the context of classical conditioning, which term best characterizes the clinic setting? A) unconditioned stimulus B) conditioned stimulus C) unconditioned response D) conditioned response Answer: B Rationale: The UCS is the chemotherapy, which produces the UCR, the nausea. As the clinic (CS) is paired with the chemotherapy (UCS) over time, a CR (nausea) occurs in relation to the clinic setting even before the chemotherapy begins. 55) B. F. Skinner is most closely associated with which aspect of learning? A) connectionist models of learning. B) cognitive influences on learning. C) observational learning. D) operant conditioning. Answer: D Rationale: Operant conditioning procedures were developed by Skinner, in which he manipulated the consequences and observed how this affected the future likelihood of behaviour. 56) A researcher decides to replicate some of the work on operant conditioning carried out by B. F. Skinner. Which approach would the researcher most likely take? A) Measure the time it takes a rat to run a maze. B) Measure the number of drops of saliva that a dog secretes. C) Determine the probability that a given response will occur. D) Determine the changes in a research participant's thoughts. Answer: C Rationale: Skinner studied the effect that consequences of an organism's behaviour have on subsequent behaviour. He embraced Thorndike’s idea that environmental consequences are powerful influences on behaviour. If the consequences are satisfying, the behaviour is likely to increase, and if they are dissatisfying, it is likely to decrease. 57) To assist in his experimental analysis of behaviour, Skinner invented a device known as the "operant chamber." What did this apparatus allow researchers to manipulate? A) an organism's level of motivation. B) the amount of planning behaviour that was required of an organism. C) an organism's state of mind. D) the consequences of an organism's behaviour. Answer: D Rationale: Skinner invented the operant chamber, or Skinner box, to manipulate the consequences of behaviour. 58) Which statement is an example of a reinforcement contingency? A) A child's mother will give him what he wants, but only if he says "please." B) When a door is closed, one must should knock before entering. C) Hot dogs and peanuts are related, because both are sold at baseball games. D) A piece of food is delivered to a rat 2 seconds after a tone is presented. Answer: A Rationale: A reinforcement contingency is a consistent relationship between a response (the child saying "please") and the changes in the environment it produces (the parent gives him what he wants). 59) What does negative reinforcement do to the probability of a behaviour over time? A) Decreases it. B) Increases it. C) Eliminates it. D) Generalizes it. Answer: B Rationale: If reinforcement is contingent on a specific behaviour, it increases the probability of the behaviour over time. Reinforcement can be positive if a satisfying consequence follows the behaviour, or negative if the behaviour results in removal of an aversive stimulus. 60) Laurel covers her ears when she finds herself in a room that is too noisy. What type of conditioning is being described? A) escape B) avoidance C) aversive D) classical Answer: A Rationale: In escape conditioning, animals learn that a response will allow them to escape an aversive stimulus. Animals learn through avoidance conditioning that their responses allow them to avoid aversive stimuli. 61) How does negative reinforcement increase the probability of a response? A) By the presentation of an aversive stimulus. B) By the removal of an aversive stimulus. C) By the removal of an appetitive stimulus. D) By the presentation of an appetitive stimulus. Answer: B Rationale: We are more likely to perform a specific behaviour if it allows us to avoid something aversive to us. 62) A youngster finds that whenever he cries, he receives attention from his mom. He, therefore, cries a lot more in order to receive attention. Which term best describes the attention received? A) a negative reinforcer. B) a positive reinforcer. C) a positive punishment. D) a negative punishment. Answer: B Rationale: Positive reinforcement increases the probability that a specific behaviour will happen. In this case, attention increases the probability of crying because attention is a positive reinforcer. 63) In negative punishment, what happens to the probability of a response when the desired stimulus is initially removed? A) It increases. B) It decreases. C) It generalizes. D) It extinguishes. Answer: B Rationale: Removal of a desired stimulus decreases the behaviour that brought on the consequences. For instance, removal of a child's allowance for hitting her brother will decrease the probability that the child will hit her brother in the future. 64) A boy runs on an icy sidewalk, falls, and experiences pain. In the future, he no longer runs on icy sidewalks. In the context of operant conditioning, which term best characterizes the pain? A) positive reinforcement. B) negative reinforcement. C) positive punishment. D) negative punishment. Answer: C Rationale: When a specific behaviour (running on the icy sidewalk) is followed by an aversive stimulus (pain), the behaviour is likely to decrease in the future. 65) A boy is sent to his room and is not allowed to watch television with the rest of the family until he can do so without yelling and jumping in the living room. When he returns to the living room, he sits down quietly. What does the boy's change in behaviour illustrate? A) positive reinforcement. B) positive punishment. C) negative reinforcement. D) negative punishment. Answer: D Rationale: When something desirable is removed in response to a specific behaviour, the behaviour is likely to decrease in the future; this is called negative punishment. 66) A teacher sends a student out of the classroom because she is disturbing the other children. The teacher tells the student that she will be allowed to return to the classroom in fifteen minutes and that she is expected to be quiet when she returns. When the student returns, she is even more disruptive. What can be concluded? A) The teacher has used punishment as a way to control the student's behaviour. B) The student's behaviour is an example of positive punishment. C) The student's behaviour is an example of negative punishment. D) The student’s misbehaviour was reinforced. Answer: D Rationale: Being allowed to leave the room can be seen as a negative reinforcer because the removal of a stimulus (the classroom) resulted in increased disruptive behaviour. 67) A tennis player has learned that a "lob" shot is likely to be successful whenever her opponent runs up to the net. Which term best characterizes the sight of her opponent at the net? A) three-term contingency B) discriminative stimulus C) conditioned response D) secondary gain Answer: B Rationale: Through their associations with reinforcement (a successful shot, in this case) or punishment, certain stimuli (discriminative stimuli) that precede a particular response (opponent misses the shot) set the context for a behaviour (the lob shot). 68) According to Skinner, what is three-term contingency? A) an operant chain of three events. B) a three-part schedule of reinforcement. C) a discriminative stimulus-behaviour-consequence sequence. D) a stimulus, a response, and a punisher. Answer: C Rationale: Skinner's three-term contingency is composed of the sequence of discriminative stimulus behaviour - consequences. Skinner believed this sequence could explain almost all human behaviour. 69) According to Gerald Patterson's coercion model, what role do parents play in the development of their children's antisocial behaviour? A) They use exceedingly large amounts of reinforcement with their children to prevent misbehaviour. B) They occasionally use large amounts of reinforcement, but often ignore misbehaviour. C) They encourage children to misbehave, then punish them when they do so. D) They make threats that often have no consequences, but are sometimes followed by strong discipline. Answer: D Rationale: Observations suggest that children are at risk for antisocial behaviour when parents make threats for small misbehaviours while at other times use harsh or explosive discipline toward the same behaviours. The children learn that large acts of aggression and coercive behaviour are appropriate and necessary for reaching their goals. 70) A child was very sick and unable to attend school. While she was ill, she received lots of attention and was excused from her normal responsibilities. Although she no longer has symptoms, the child says that she still does not feel well. How would a behaviour analyst explain the child's current behaviour? A) It is due to unresolved attachment issues. B) It is due to irrational or inappropriate thought processes. C) It is due to secondary gains. D) It is due to instinctual drift. Answer: C Rationale: Secondary gains reinforce undesirable behaviours because the person receives attention or sympathy and is excused from normal responsibilities. 71) Which reinforcer is a conditioned reinforcer? A) food. B) water. C) sleep. D) money. Answer: D Rationale: Primary reinforcers have reinforcing properties that are biologically determined. Money is a neutral stimulus that has become associated with primary reinforcers. It is a conditioned reinforcer. 72) Which example illustrates the use of a primary reinforcer? A) a twenty-dollar bill slipped to Gary by his dad. B) a chuckle from a friend when Gary makes a joke. C) a plate of spaghetti when Gary is hungry. D) a trophy for Gary for winning a miniature golf tournament. Answer: C Rationale: Food is a primary reinforcer when we are hungry. Its reinforcing properties are biologically determined. 73) After engaging in more positive social interactions, psychiatric patients are given plastic chips that can be exchanged later for rewards and privileges. Which term best reflects this approach? A) self-reinforcement systems. B) token economies. C) verbal reinforcements. D) reinforcement exchanges. Answer: B Rationale: Desired behaviours are explicitly defined, and token payoffs are given by the staff when the behaviours are performed. Tokens can be dispensed rapidly and are portable. Their reinforcing effects depend only on the perception of receiving them and not on biological processing, as in the case of primary reinforcers. 74) Every morning Tiffany makes a list of what she is going to do that day. She then performs the tasks in order of their appeal to her, doing the least appealing thing first and the most appealing thing last. Which term best characterizes Tiffany’s approach? A) successive approximations. B) a schedule of reinforcement. C) response deprivation. D) biological constraint. Answer: C Rationale: When we are deprived of an activity to a level that is below its normal inclusion in our lives, the behaviour becomes more reinforcing. To overcome the deprivation of the most preferred activity, the woman will work on the other activities. The most preferred activity becomes a reinforcer for the less desirable activities, which will be done to get to the more desirable one. 75) The parents are trying to get their three-year-old daughter to go to bed without fussing, but sometimes they give in to her tears and let her stay up later. What can be expected of the child's fussing behaviour? A) It will be difficult to stop. B) It will be easy to stop. C) It will disappear for a while, but then reappear. D) It will develop into a discriminative stimulus. Answer: A Rationale: Responses acquired under schedules of partial reinforcement are more resistant to extinction than those acquired under continuous reinforcement. 76) On average, a telemarketer makes a sale after every 72 calls. What schedule of reinforcement is being described? A) fixed-interval B) fixed-ratio C) variable-ratio D) variable-interval Answer: C Rationale: With ratio schedules, reinforcement is delivered after a certain number of responses; the schedule is variable when reinforcement comes after an average number of responses (a sale after an average of 72 calls). 77) In a study described in the textbook, what was discovered about the relationship between harsh punishments and aggression in children? A) very few of the parents used physical punishment with their children. B) nearly all of the parents hit their children with fists or closed hands. C) the less intense the force used by the parents, the less cooperative the child. D) the more children were spanked early in life, the more they showed an increase in aggressive behaviours as they grew older. Answer: D Rationale: Experts suggest that providing positive reinforcement for desired behaviours rather than spanking for an undesired behaviour is a better long-term strategy. For example, you can praise a child for sitting quietly rather than spanking him for running around. The undesirable behaviour will be suppressed by the incompatible, desirable one. An abundance of data confirms that physical punishment leads to negative child outcomes. One study demonstrated that for both “easy” and “difficult” children, the more the children were spanked early in life, the more likely they were to show increases in negative behaviours such as aggression. 78) Which schedule of reinforcement generates the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction? A) fixed-interval B) fixed-ratio C) variable-interval D) variable-ratio Answer: D Rationale: In a VR schedule, the average number of responses between reinforcers is predetermined. When the reinforcement will come is unclear, so we are left guessing until reinforcement appears. On the premise that it might be the very next response, we respond in a steady, continuous way. 79) A woman is paid for every two bushels of fruit that she picks. What schedule of reinforcement is being applied? A) variable-interval B) variable-ratio C) fixed-interval D) fixed-ratio Answer: D Rationale: An FR schedule refers to a reinforcement that will be delivered after a set number of responses (two bushels). 80) Under which schedule of reinforcement do response rates show a "scalloped" pattern? A) FR B) VR C) FI D) VI Answer: C Rationale: FI schedules refer to a reinforcement that will be delivered after a fixed period of time. Their scalloped pattern comes from the fact that immediately after each reinforced response, the individual makes very few, if any, responses. As the time for reinforcement comes closer, the individual responds more and more in anticipation of the reinforcer. 81) A teacher gives five occasional but irregularly scheduled pop quizzes during the semester. If Kevin studies his notes each day before class, what type of reinforcement schedule will be in place? A) FI B) FR-1 C) VI D) FR-5 Answer: C Rationale: Kevin will be reinforced by being ready for the pop quiz from time to time. The intervals between quizzes (the intervals between the incidents in which Kevin is rewarded for studying) are different each time. 82) A boy is teaching his younger sister how to make her bed. At first, he tells her that she did a good job when she gets the bedspread pulled up, even if the sheets are still rumpled. Each following day, he encourages her to be a little neater before telling her that she did a good job. Which term best characterizes this approach to learning? A) secondary reinforcement. B) primary reinforcement. C) a fixed-interval schedule. D) shaping. Answer: D Rationale: Shaping reinforces each increment in the behaviour that leads to a particular goal behaviour. 83) According to psychologists, learning is a process that can take place in one way only. What is it? A) through trial and error B) through positive and negative consequences C) through classical conditioning D) through experience Answer: D Rationale: Experience includes taking in information, evaluating and transforming it, and making responses that affect the environment. Learning also consists of responses influenced by the lessons of memory. Learning can take place only through experience. Psychologists look for the aspects of behaviour that can be changed through experience and how those changes come about. 84) Sheila's new puppy, a type of terrier, was originally bred to hunt and kill rats by shaking them. Sheila doesn't want her dog to kill rats, but she does want to teach her dog to fetch a ball. The problem is that as soon as her puppy reaches the ball, he picks it up, shakes it, and won't give it back. What does Sheila need to consider to best understand her dog’s behaviour? A) cognitive maps. B) species-specific tendencies. C) operant conditioning. D) classical conditioning. Answer: B Rationale: Learned behaviour drifts toward instinctual behaviour. Species-specific behavioural tendencies are imposed by an animal's genotype, which overrides operant conditioning. For example, in teaching animals to put tokens in a bank, pigs poke at the coins with their snouts and toss them in the air, while raccoons rub coins together, much as they would do with their food. 85) In their use of operant conditioning techniques to train animals from many species to perform various behaviours, Keller and Marion Breland described instances of animal "misbehaviour." To what do they attribute this misbehaviour? A) spontaneous recovery of extinguished behaviours. B) use of punishment rather than reinforcement. C) tendency for learned behaviour to drift toward instinctual behaviour. D) use of shaping by successive approximations. Answer: C Rationale: The Breland's attributed animal 'misbehaviour' to the tendency for learned behaviour to drift toward instinctual behaviour. 86) Unlike most other instances of classical conditioning, what can be said about taste aversion? A) It requires many CS-UCS pairings. B) It is easy to extinguish. C) It does not involve a CS-UCS association. D) It can be learned with a long delay between a CS and an illness. Answer: D Rationale: There is survival value in learning quickly what foods to avoid because they result in illness. Having this genetic capacity to sample foods and learn which are safe and which are not remains in effect even if the time between consuming foods and becoming ill is long. This association is also permanent after only one experience. 87) What did the research of John Garcia and Robert Koelling on taste aversion demonstrate? A) organisms are biologically prepared to learn certain associations. B) complex behaviours may be acquired by shaping of successive approximations. C) a more probable activity can be used to reinforce a less probable one. D) the association principles of learning are common to all organisms. Answer: A Rationale: Animals appear to have encoded within their genetic inheritance the types of sensory cues (taste, smell, appearance) that are most likely to signal dimensions of reward or danger. 88) Which statement about Edward Tolman’s conditioning experiments is accurate? A) conditioned reinforcers were used instead of primary reinforcers. B) one-to-one associations between stimuli and responses could not explain animals' behaviour. C) animals' biological preparation to learn certain associations was experimentally manipulated. D) the operant chamber could be used to test animal cognitions. Answer: B Rationale: Tolman's work demonstrated that conditioning involves more than simple associations between responses and reinforcers, including the ability to use other facets of the environment to problem solve. If a rat knows the route to the food in a maze and that route is blocked, the rat with prior experience in the maze will find the shortest detour around the barrier, even though this alternative response has never been reinforced. 89) Dr. Laval is studying the bird called "Clark's nutcracker". What is the most likely reason that Dr. Laval has chosen this type of bird to study? A) Its ability to mimic the songs of other birds. B) Its use of reinforcement techniques when teaching its young. C) Its spatial memory. D) Its reasoning ability. Answer: C Rationale: Animals use spatial memory to recognize and identify features of their environment; they can therefore return with a high percentage of accuracy to the thousands of locations in which they have buried their seeds. 90) In a study by Lazareva and colleagues that is described in the textbook, pigeons were presented with photographs of people, flowers, cars, and chairs, and were taught to respond by pecking keys of different colours. What did this research demonstrate? A) Pigeons were capable of categorizing objects in different ways. B) Pigeons were responding exclusively on the basis of perceptual similarity. C) Pigeons showed marked preferences for people in their response choices. D) Pigeons could learn a complex task by applying blind trial-and-error solutions. Answer: A Rationale: The pigeons learned general categories into which to place the photos, rather than learning individual responses to particular stimuli. 91) A student notices that a classmate is praised by the teacher for asking questions in class. The student then begins asking questions also. Which concept is being illustrated? A) stimulus generalization. B) vicarious reinforcement. C) negative reinforcement. D) stimulus discrimination. Answer: B Rationale: We have the capacity to use our cognitive processes to change behaviours on the basis of vicarious rewards and punishments; we use memory and reasoning to change our own behaviours in light of the experiences of others. 92) Which statement about viewing television violence is supported by the majority of research studies? A) It does not bring about increases in aggressive behaviour. B) It leads viewers to underestimate the occurrences of real-world violence. C) It may bring about a reduction in both emotional arousal and distress at viewing violent behaviour. D) It has a cathartic effect. Answer: C Rationale: Heavy TV viewing of aggression early in life can serve as a basis for antisocial behaviour and/or as a basis for fear of becoming a victim. In addition, viewing violent programs may bring about desensitization to violence. 93) In a study of television viewing that is described in the textbook, researchers measured the extent to which children watched programs with violent content. They then interviewed those same children fifteen years later. What did the data reveal? A) there was no relationship between the number of violent television shows that children watched and their behaviour as adults. B) the men and women who had watched the most violent television as children experienced catharsis and were the least likely to display aggression. C) early viewing of violent television causes later aggression. D) there was a correlation between early watching of violent television programs and levels of adult aggression, but the relationship was not causal. Answer: C Rationale: The people who had watched the most violent TV as children also displayed the highest adult levels of aggression. Only a small relationship existed between childhood aggression and viewing of TV violence as adults; the results did not show that more aggressive adults were already more aggressive as children. 94) Learned behaviour does not include changes that come about simply because of physical maturation. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Learned behavior refers to changes in behavior that result from experience or practice, rather than changes due to physical maturation or innate factors. 95) The book, Psychology from the Standpoint of a Behaviourist, was written by John Watson. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: "Psychology from the Standpoint of a Behaviorist" is indeed a book authored by John B. Watson, a prominent American psychologist known for his contributions to behaviorism. 96) Even after a classically conditioned response has been extinguished, it may reappear. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Spontaneous recovery is a phenomenon in classical conditioning where a previously extinguished response reappears after a period of time without reinforcement. 97) The research of Robert Rescorla strongly confirmed Pavlov's belief that classical conditioning only requires the pairing of the CS and the UCS. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Robert Rescorla's research actually challenged the simplistic view of classical conditioning proposed by Pavlov. Rescorla demonstrated that the predictability and contingency of the conditioned stimulus (CS) and unconditioned stimulus (UCS) pairing were crucial factors in classical conditioning, rather than mere simultaneous presentation. 98) Research has confirmed that drug addicts may die of an overdose even when they have taken less than their normal dosage of a drug. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Drug tolerance can lead to a situation where individuals require increasingly higher doses of a drug to achieve the desired effect. If an individual with tolerance takes a lower dose, such as after a period of reduced use, the risk of overdose increases because their body may no longer be accustomed to the lower dose. 99) B. F. Skinner is best known for his pioneering research on cats trying to escape from puzzle boxes. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: B. F. Skinner is best known for his work on operant conditioning, which involved studying the effects of reinforcement on behavior using experimental setups such as Skinner boxes with rats and pigeons, rather than cats escaping from puzzle boxes. The puzzle box experiments are associated with Edward Thorndike. 100) Operant conditioning is a type of learning in which the probability of a response is changed by a change in its consequences. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Operant conditioning, as defined by B. F. Skinner, is a type of learning in which behavior is modified by its consequences. The probability of a behavior occurring again is increased if it is reinforced and decreased if it is punished. 101) Positive reinforcers increase the probability of a behaviour whereas negative reinforcers decrease the probability of a behaviour. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Positive reinforcers increase the likelihood of a behavior, while negative reinforcers increase the likelihood of a behavior's repetition by removing or avoiding an unpleasant stimulus. 102) Learning to "buckle up" to avoid the annoying car alarm that results if you don't fasten your seatbelt is an example of negative reinforcement at work. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Negative reinforcement involves the removal or avoidance of an aversive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior. In this scenario, the behavior of buckling up is reinforced by the removal of the annoying car alarm, which serves as a negative reinforcer. 103) Punishment has essentially the same effect on behaviour as negative reinforcement. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: While both punishment and negative reinforcement involve aversive stimuli, they have opposite effects on behavior. Punishment decreases the likelihood of a behavior, while negative reinforcement increases it. 104) Primary reinforcers are best described as formerly neutral stimuli that have become reinforcers because they have been associated with conditioned reinforcers. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Primary reinforcers are stimuli that inherently satisfy biological needs or drives, such as food, water, or warmth. They are not dependent on conditioning for their reinforcing properties. 105) Responses acquired under schedules of partial reinforcement are less resistant to extinction than those acquired with continuous reinforcement. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Responses acquired under partial reinforcement schedules are typically more resistant to extinction compared to those acquired under continuous reinforcement. This is because intermittent reinforcement schedules involve occasional reinforcement, making the behavior more persistent. 106) Imagine that you are a salesperson whose salary will be determined solely by the number of items that you sell each week. Since some weeks are better for sales than others, your pay will most likely follow a fixed-ratio schedule. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: In this scenario, where the salesperson's pay is based on the number of items sold, a variableratio schedule is more likely to be in effect. Variable-ratio schedules provide reinforcement after an unpredictable number of responses, which typically leads to high and steady response rates. 107) On a fixed-interval schedule, a reinforcer is delivered for the first response made after a fixed period of time. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: In a fixed-interval schedule, reinforcement is delivered for the first response made after a fixed amount of time has elapsed since the last reinforcement, regardless of how many responses occur during that interval. 108) Imagine that you have decided to use shaping to teach a rat to press a lever. For shaping to be effective, you should be sure to withhold any reinforcement until the rat completely depresses the lever. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: In shaping, reinforcement is provided for successive approximations of the desired behavior. Therefore, reinforcement should be delivered for any behavior that moves closer to the target behavior, not just when the behavior is fully achieved. 109) Taste-aversion learning may occur in one trial. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Taste-aversion learning is a type of classical conditioning where an organism learns to associate the taste of a certain food with symptoms of poisoning or discomfort. This association can develop rapidly, often occurring in just one trial. 110) Behaviours influenced by instinctual drift will override the changes in behaviour brought about by operant conditioning. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Instinctual drift refers to the tendency of animals to revert to instinctual behaviors that interfere with operantly conditioned behaviors. In some cases, these instinctual behaviors may override the changes brought about by operant conditioning. 111) Research by Edward Tolman demonstrated that only humans are capable of forming internal "cognitive maps." A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Edward Tolman's research with rats demonstrated that animals, not just humans, are capable of forming cognitive maps, which are mental representations of physical spaces. Tolman's studies challenged the prevailing behaviorist notion that learning was solely based on stimulus-response associations. 112) A nursing student learns by watching the behavior of an experienced nurse. This is an example of observational learning. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Observational learning, as proposed by Albert Bandura, occurs when an individual learns by observing the actions and outcomes of others. In this scenario, the nursing student learns by observing the behavior of the experienced nurse, which is a classic example of observational learning. 113) Research by Albert Bandura and others has demonstrated that children who watch violent television programs are less likely to engage in aggressive behavior as adults. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Research by Albert Bandura and others actually suggests the opposite. Exposure to violent media, including television programs, has been associated with an increased likelihood of engaging in aggressive behavior, especially among children and adolescents. This phenomenon is often referred to as the "media violence effect." 114) The difference between what has been learned and what is expressed in overt behavior is known as the __________ distinction. Answer: learning-performance Rationale: The learning-performance distinction refers to the differentiation between what has been acquired through learning (internal mental representations or knowledge) and what is actually demonstrated in observable behavior. 115) In classical conditioning, when appropriately paired with an unconditioned stimulus, a previously neutral stimulus will become a(n) __________ and will elicit a(n) __________. Answer: conditioned stimulus (CS); conditioned response (CR) Rationale: In classical conditioning, the neutral stimulus that becomes associated with the unconditioned stimulus to elicit a conditioned response is termed the conditioned stimulus (CS), and the learned response to the conditioned stimulus is called the conditioned response (CR). 116) When you watch late-night TV, you might find yourself salivating when a fast-food commercial appears, but you are unlikely to salivate in response to a dog food commercial. This is the result of __________, a conditioning process in which an organism learns to respond differently to stimuli that differ from the conditioned stimulus. Answer: stimulus discrimination Rationale: Stimulus discrimination occurs when an organism learns to respond differently to various stimuli that are similar but not identical to the conditioned stimulus. In this example, the individual distinguishes between stimuli related to fast food and those related to dog food. 117) The __________ states that the power of a stimulus to evoke a response is strengthened when the response is followed by a reward, and it is weakened when the response is not followed by a reward. Answer: law of effect Rationale: The law of effect, proposed by Thorndike, states that behaviors followed by positive outcomes (rewards) are strengthened and are more likely to be repeated, while behaviors followed by negative outcomes are weakened and less likely to be repeated. 118) The predictors of reinforcement that signal when particular behaviors will result in positive reinforcement are known as __________ stimuli. Answer: discriminative Rationale: Discriminative stimuli are cues or signals in the environment that indicate the availability of reinforcement for a specific behavior. They signal when a particular behavior will be reinforced and under what conditions. 119) Skinner referred to the sequence of discriminative stimulus-behavior-consequence as the __________ and believed that it could explain most human action. Answer: three-term contingency Rationale: Skinner's three-term contingency refers to the relationship between the discriminative stimulus (antecedent), the behavior itself, and the consequence of that behavior. According to Skinner, this sequence explains the majority of human actions. 120) When using intermittent schedules of reinforcement, reinforcers can be delivered after a certain number of responses, through __________, or after a specified period of time, through __________. Answer: ratio schedules; interval schedules Rationale: Intermittent schedules of reinforcement involve providing reinforcement after a certain number of responses (ratio schedules) or after a specified period of time (interval schedules). Ratio schedules are based on the number of responses, while interval schedules are based on time intervals. 121) In a __________ schedule of reinforcement, the reinforcer comes after a set number of responses. Answer: fixed-ratio Rationale: In a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement, the reinforcer is delivered after a predetermined and consistent number of responses. This schedule typically leads to high rates of responding with a brief pause after each reinforcement. 122) In classic studies with animals, Keller and Marion Breland used operant conditioning techniques in their training. Even when animals learned to make operant responses perfectly, however, their behaviors gradually showed evidence of "misbehavior," which was attributed to a tendency called __________. Answer: instinctual drift Rationale: Instinctual drift refers to the tendency of animals to revert to instinctual behaviors that interfere with operantly conditioned behaviors. Despite successful operant conditioning, animals may exhibit behaviors consistent with their natural instincts over time. 123) Researchers who study __________ trace the development of cognitive abilities across species and the continuity of abilities from nonhuman to human animals. Answer: comparative cognition Rationale: Comparative cognition researchers investigate cognitive abilities across different species to understand the evolution and development of cognitive processes. They examine similarities and differences in cognitive abilities between nonhuman and human animals. 124) Describe the main features of the typical classical conditioning experiment, including the four temporal patterns that Pavlov could have used. Distinguish between extinction, spontaneous recovery, and stimulus generalization. Then compare Pavlov's contiguity view with more recent explanations of conditioning. Answer: Identify the UCS, CS, UCR, and CR and explain the associations among them. Explain how the CR gradually increases over trials, and discuss acquisition. Describe delay conditioning, trace conditioning, backward conditioning, and simultaneous conditioning. Identify the paradigm that is most widely used. Discuss extinction, spontaneous recovery, and generalization. Explain in what way classical conditioning is more complex than Pavlov had originally thought. 125) Discuss why classical conditioning is a useful model to explain emotional behaviours such as fear and drug addiction. Answer: There are many circumstances in which we are left wondering why we had such a strong emotion, preference, or aversion to something. Explain how this phenomenon relates to classical conditioning. Discuss how someone can become addicted partially as the result of a classical conditioning paradigm. Include an explanation of the compensatory response. 126) What is the law of effect? Discuss what is meant by reinforcement contingencies and explain how reinforcement and punishment affect the probability of behaviour. Answer: The law of effect states that a response followed by satisfying consequences becomes more probable, and a response followed by unsatisfying consequences becomes less probable. 127) Describe the difference between four schedules of reinforcement. Include graphs of what the pattern of response would look like on the cumulative recorder. Provide real life examples for each. Answer: A description of each schedule (fixed interval, fixed ratio, variable interval, variable ratio) is necessary, including the patterns on the cumulative recorder. 128) Suppose you were a trainer at the circus and you had to train a tiger to jump through a hoop of fire. Outline the steps you would take to teach this behaviour. Answer: This would be accomplished with shaping by successive approximations. The tiger would first learn to jump over a rod for a reward, then the rod would get curved into a big circle slowly across trials, then the rod would glow, then a small fire on the rod, then the circumference of the circle would slowly get smaller and the fire would get bigger. 129) Instinctual drift and taste-aversion learning are two interesting findings from research with animals that have led psychologists to question whether the principles of conditioning apply to any stimulus a researcher might select. Define and compare these two phenomena. Describe how each was discovered, and explain why they are important theoretically. Answer: Instinctual drift means that animals' learned behaviour drifts toward instinctual behaviour, which is stronger than operant conditioning. Taste aversion seems to be an adaptive behaviour that discourages animals, including humans, from trying a food again after it has made them sick. Repeated trials are not needed for either to occur. Mention the discovery of each and what relationship this information has to operant conditioning. 130) Discuss the findings of researchers with respect to the cognitive abilities of nonhuman animals, focusing on cognitive maps and conceptual behaviour. Answer: Include a discussion of spatial memory, spatial cognitive maps, and the three functions that spatial cognitive maps serve. Include a discussion of the ability to categorize objects that some nonhuman species possess. 131) Discuss Bandura's Bobo Doll experiments and what they teach us about stopping a child's unwanted behaviour by use of physical punishment. Mention modeling and the processes that most influence modeling. Answer: Hitting a doll provides a child with a physically aggressive model. Relate modeling to learned aggression and discuss possible predictors of aggressive behaviour in children. 1) The process by which experience or practice results in a relatively permanent change in behaviour or potential behaviour is known as __________. A) learning B) intelligence formation C) imprinting D) cognition Answer: A Rationale: Learning refers to the process through which experience or practice leads to enduring changes in behavior or potential behavior. It involves acquiring knowledge, skills, habits, attitudes, or understanding through experience, instruction, or study. This definition aligns perfectly with the concept described in the question. 2) Learning is a process by which experience results in __________. A) acquisition of motivation B) relatively permanent behaviour change C) amplification of sensory stimuli D) delayed genetic behavioural contributions Answer: B Rationale: Learning results in relatively permanent behavior change, as indicated in option B. Through experiences, individuals acquire new behaviors or modify existing ones, leading to lasting changes in their behavioral repertoire. This definition accurately represents the essence of learning. 3) Learning is a process by which experience results in: A) acquisition of motivation. B) relatively permanent behaviour change. C) delayed genetic behavioural contributions. D) amplification of sensory stimuli. Answer: B Rationale: Learning involves the acquisition of new behaviors or the modification of existing ones as a result of experience. This process leads to relatively permanent changes in behavior, as indicated in option B. Options A, C, and D do not accurately capture the essence of learning. 4) Which of the following statements about learning is TRUE? A) Learning can be directly observed and measured. B) Learning cannot be directly observed or measured, so performance is observed and learning is inferred based on what the person is able to do. C) The results of learning must immediately change behaviour. D) none of the above Answer: B Rationale: Learning itself is not directly observable; instead, it is inferred based on changes in behavior or performance. Option B accurately reflects this idea, stating that learning is inferred through observed performance. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because learning is not always immediately reflected in behavior, and it cannot be directly observed or measured. 5) The process by which experience results in a relatively permanent change in what one is capable of doing is called: A) knowledge. B) intelligence. C) learning. D) performance. Answer: C Rationale: Learning refers to the process by which experience leads to relatively permanent changes in behavior or capabilities. Option C correctly describes this process, highlighting that learning involves acquiring new capabilities or modifying existing ones based on experience. Options A, B, and D do not accurately capture the essence of learning. 6) Which of the following is an example of learning? A) The human brain continues to grow and develop after birth. B) A human male develops the capacity to produce sperm cells at puberty. C) Drinking coffee makes a person more aroused. D) A student does not swat at a wasp buzzing around her head. Answer: D Rationale: Learning involves acquiring new behaviors or modifying existing ones as a result of experience. In the given scenario, the student's behavior of not swatting at the wasp after previous experiences likely indicates learning. Options A, B, and C do not directly relate to the concept of learning described in the question. 7) By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the presentation of the meat was the: A) unconditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned stimulus. D) conditioned response. Answer: A Rationale: In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) is the stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a response, while the unconditioned response (UCR) is the naturally occurring response to the unconditioned stimulus. In Pavlov's experiment, the presentation of meat naturally triggers salivation in dogs, making it the unconditioned stimulus (UCS). 8) An experiment finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he hears a certain piece of music. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then plays the piece of music. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the UNCONDITIONED response is the: A) increased heartbeat. B) piece of music. C) sound of the buzzer. D) listening to the music. Answer: A Rationale: The unconditioned response (UCR) is the natural, automatic response to the unconditioned stimulus (UCS). In this scenario, the increased heartbeat is the natural response triggered by the piece of music, making it the unconditioned response (UCR). 9) Many individuals decide that they feel hungry and eat lunch when they see both hands of the clock on the 12, indicating that it is noon. This may occur regardless of how recently they ate breakfast. In this example, the conditioned response is: A) the act of eating breakfast. B) the act of eating lunch. C) the counting of the number of hours since breakfast. D) the watching of the hands of the clock. Answer: B Rationale: In classical conditioning, the conditioned response (CR) is the learned response to a previously neutral stimulus (conditioned stimulus, CS). In this example, the act of eating lunch is the learned response to the sight of the clock indicating noon, which has become the conditioned stimulus (CS) through association with lunchtime. 10) Some of the simplest and most basic learning, which involves the acquisition of fairly specific patterns of behaviours in the presence of well-defined stimuli, is: A) motivation. B) cognitive dissonance. C) integration. D) conditioning. Answer: D Rationale: Classical conditioning and operant conditioning are forms of associative learning in which specific behaviors are acquired in response to specific stimuli. This aligns with the description provided in the question, making option D the correct answer. Options A, B, and C do not specifically address the process described in the question. 11) In the experiment with Little Albert, the conditioned stimulus was __________. A) Albert B) the rat C) the loud noise D) the laboratory room Answer: B Rationale: In the Little Albert experiment, a white rat was initially a neutral stimulus. After being repeatedly paired with a loud noise (unconditioned stimulus), the rat became associated with fear, causing Little Albert to display fear responses (conditioned response). Therefore, the rat became the conditioned stimulus. 12) Ivan Pavlov is most closely associated with __________. A) vicarious learning B) the law of effect C) operant conditioning D) classical conditioning Answer: D Rationale: Ivan Pavlov is most closely associated with classical conditioning, which involves learning associations between stimuli and responses. He conducted experiments with dogs, demonstrating how they could learn to associate neutral stimuli (like the ringing of a bell) with the presentation of food, leading to conditioned responses (like salivation). 13) Who was Little Albert? A) developer of the concept of classical conditioning B) an animal trained by using operant conditioning procedures C) creator of methods for teaching children D) a child who developed a fear as part of a demonstration of classical conditioning Answer: D Rationale: Little Albert was a child who participated in a famous experiment conducted by John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner. In this experiment, Little Albert was conditioned to fear a white rat by associating it with a loud noise, demonstrating classical conditioning. 14) Classical conditioning was discovered by: A) Pavlov. B) Watson. C) Thorndike. D) Skinner. Answer: A Rationale: Ivan Pavlov, a Russian physiologist, is credited with the discovery of classical conditioning. His experiments with dogs led to the understanding of how associations between stimuli and responses could lead to learned behaviors. 15) We associate the name of __________ most closely with classical conditioning. A) B. F. Skinner B) Robert Rescorla C) Albert Bandura D) Ivan Pavlov Answer: D Rationale: Ivan Pavlov is most closely associated with classical conditioning due to his groundbreaking experiments with dogs, which laid the foundation for understanding how associations between stimuli and responses lead to learned behaviors. 16) Classical conditioning was discovered by _______. A) Pavlov B) Watson C) Thorndike D) Skinner Answer: A Rationale: Ivan Pavlov discovered classical conditioning through his experiments with dogs, which demonstrated how neutral stimuli could come to elicit reflexive responses through association with unconditioned stimuli. 17) What must be paired together for classical conditioning to occur? A) unconditioned stimulus and unconditioned response B) conditioned response and unconditioned response C) neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus D) neutral stimulus and conditioned stimulus Answer: C Rationale: Classical conditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus becomes associated with an unconditioned stimulus through repeated pairings. Therefore, the neutral stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus must be paired together for classical conditioning to occur. 18) When Ivan Pavlov presented meat powder, the dog salivated. The meat powder was the ________ and salivation was the ________. A) UCR, UCS B) UCS, UCR C) CS, CR D) CR, CS Answer: B Rationale: In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) naturally triggers an unconditioned response (UCR). In Pavlov's experiment, the meat powder (UCS) naturally elicited salivation (UCR) in the dogs. 19) By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the ringing of the bell was the __________. A) unconditioned stimulus B) unconditioned response C) conditioned stimulus D) conditioned response Answer: C Rationale: In Pavlov's experiment, the ringing of the bell initially had no effect on the dogs' salivation. However, after being repeatedly paired with the presentation of meat (which naturally elicited salivation), the bell became associated with the meat and began to elicit salivation on its own. Thus, the bell became the conditioned stimulus (CS). 20) Rachel has found that when she opens the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning and that the conditioned stimulus is the __________. A) cat food B) cat C) running of the cats D) cupboard door opening Answer: D Rationale: In this scenario, the opening of the cupboard door is initially a neutral stimulus. However, through repeated pairings with the presentation of cat food (which naturally elicits the cats' running to the kitchen), the cupboard door opening becomes associated with the food and elicits the cats' response. Thus, the cupboard door opening becomes the conditioned stimulus (CS). 21) Which of the following illustrates an unconditioned stimulus (UCS)? A) blinking when air is blown into your eye B) blinking when you hear your favourite song C) your favourite song D) a puff of air to your eye Answer: D Rationale: An unconditioned stimulus (UCS) is a stimulus that naturally triggers a response without any prior learning. In this scenario, a puff of air directed toward the eye naturally triggers the response of blinking, indicating that it is an unconditioned stimulus. 22) A research participant hears a tone followed by a puff of air directed toward his eye. Later, he blinks when he hears the tone. Before ending the experiment, what could the researcher do in order to extinguish the blinking to that tone? A) present the tone alone repeatedly B) present the puff of air alone repeatedly C) increase the loudness of the tone D) increase the amount of air that is directed toward the eye Answer: A Rationale: Extinction in classical conditioning involves presenting the conditioned stimulus (tone) alone repeatedly without pairing it with the unconditioned stimulus (puff of air). This process weakens the learned association between the tone and the eyeblink response. 23) When Casey opens the closet door to get some dog food, her dog salivates. What is the conditioned stimulus in this example? A) dog food B) the cat running C) the sound of the closet door opening D) the dog Answer: C Rationale: The conditioned stimulus (CS) is a previously neutral stimulus that, through repeated association with the unconditioned stimulus (US), comes to elicit a conditioned response. In this scenario, the sound of the closet door opening becomes associated with the presentation of dog food, leading to the dog's salivation. 24) By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the presentation of the meat was the __________. A) unconditioned stimulus B) unconditioned response C) conditioned stimulus D) conditioned response Answer: A Rationale: In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) naturally triggers an unconditioned response (UCR) without prior learning. In Pavlov's experiment, the presentation of meat powder naturally elicited salivation in dogs, making it the unconditioned stimulus (UCS). 25) Rachel has found that when she opens the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning and that the unconditioned stimulus is the __________. A) cat food B) cat C) running of the cats D) cupboard door opening Answer: A Rationale: The unconditioned stimulus (UCS) is the stimulus that naturally triggers a response without any prior learning. In this scenario, the presentation of cat food naturally elicits the cats' response of running to the kitchen, making it the unconditioned stimulus. 26) Which of the following statements about classical conditioning is true? A) Most classical conditioning requires repeated trials. B) One trial is usually enough for conditioning to occur. C) Learning will continue to increase indefinitely. D) Learning is more effective if trials follow each other very quickly. Answer: A Rationale: Most classical conditioning requires repeated pairings of the conditioned stimulus (CS) with the unconditioned stimulus (US) for learning to occur. Repeated trials strengthen the association between the CS and the US, leading to more robust conditioning. 27) New learning that works in the opposite direction from the original learning results in ________ . A) shaping B) generalization C) spontaneous recovery D) extinction Answer: D Rationale: Extinction occurs in classical conditioning when the conditioned response (CR) gradually decreases or disappears when the conditioned stimulus (CS) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus (US). It is essentially the opposite of the original learning process. 28) Instinctive or involuntary behaviour would probably be BEST modified by ___________. A) operant conditioning B) trial and error C) classical conditioning D) shaping Answer: C Rationale: Classical conditioning is best suited for modifying instinctive or involuntary behaviors because it involves learning associations between stimuli and involuntary responses. It is particularly effective in situations where reflexive or automatic responses need to be modified or altered. 29) We associate the name of ___________ most closely with classical conditioning. A) B. F. Skinner B) Robert Rescorla C) Albert Bandura D) Ivan Pavlov Answer: D Rationale: Ivan Pavlov is most closely associated with classical conditioning due to his pioneering research with dogs, which led to the discovery of this form of learning. 30) Rachel has found that when she opens up the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning, that the unconditioned stimulus is the __________ and that the conditioned stimulus is the ___________. A) cat food; cupboard door opening B) kitchen; cat food C) cupboard door opening; cat food D) cat food; kitchen Answer: A Rationale: In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) naturally triggers a response, while the conditioned stimulus (CS) becomes associated with the UCS through repeated pairings. In this scenario, the presentation of cat food naturally elicits the cats' response (UCS), and the opening of the cupboard door becomes associated with the cat food, serving as the conditioned stimulus (CS). 31) In classical conditioning, the inter-stimulus interval refers to the amount of time between ________. A) learning trials B) extinction trials C) presentation of the conditioned stimulus and presentation of the unconditioned stimulus D) experimental sessions Answer: C Rationale: The inter-stimulus interval (ISI) in classical conditioning refers to the time interval between the presentation of the conditioned stimulus (CS) and the unconditioned stimulus (US). It is an important factor in determining the strength and effectiveness of conditioning. 32) Presenting the unconditioned stimulus before the conditioned stimulus is known as _________ conditioning. A) classical B) operant C) backward D) aversive Answer: C Rationale: Backward conditioning involves presenting the unconditioned stimulus (US) before the conditioned stimulus (CS) in classical conditioning. This type of conditioning typically results in weaker or ineffective learning compared to forward conditioning. 33) Little Albert (Watson, 1920) learned through classical conditioning to fear ______. A) brown cats B) black dogs C) white rats D) his mother Answer: C Rationale: In the famous Little Albert experiment conducted by John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner, Little Albert was conditioned to fear white rats by pairing their presentation with a loud, startling noise. This demonstrates how classical conditioning can lead to the acquisition of specific fears or phobias. 34) An automatic, innate, and involuntary response to an environmental event is a(n) ________. A) UR B) reflexive response C) unconditioned response D) all of the above Answer: D Rationale: In classical conditioning, an unconditioned response (UR) is an automatic, innate, and involuntary reaction to an unconditioned stimulus (US). A reflexive response refers to any automatic response to a stimulus, which can include both conditioned and unconditioned responses. 35) In classical conditioning, when a neutral stimulus is paired with a stimulus that naturally elicits a response, the neutral stimulus eventually elicits a similar response or becomes a(n) _______ stimulus. A) conditioned B) discriminative C) higher-order D) unconditioned Answer: A Rationale: When a neutral stimulus is consistently paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US) in classical conditioning, it eventually comes to elicit a conditioned response (CR) on its own. At this point, it becomes a conditioned stimulus (CS) capable of eliciting the response. 36) How does one know he/she has classically conditioned a person or an animal? A) The unconditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the unconditioned response. B) The unconditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the conditioned response. C) The conditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the conditioned response. D) The unconditioned response all by itself elicits the conditioned response. Answer: C Rationale: One knows that classical conditioning has occurred when the conditioned stimulus (CS) alone elicits the conditioned response (CR) without the presence of the unconditioned stimulus (US). This indicates that an association has been formed between the CS and the CR through conditioning. 37) Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning? A) A child learns to blink her eyes to a bell because the ringing of the bell has been followed by a puff of air to the eye. B) A pigeon learns to peck at a disk in a Skinner box to get food. C) Rich saw that when Donna banged her fist against a particular vending machine she got a free soft drink, so now he bangs his fist against that machine when he wants a free soft drink. D) A monkey learns to escape from a cage. Answer: A Rationale: Classical conditioning involves learning associations between stimuli and responses. In this example, the child learns to blink her eyes in response to the bell (conditioned stimulus) because it has been paired with the puff of air to the eye (unconditioned stimulus), leading to a conditioned response. 38) Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Canada Day festival, but at first pay just scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the unconditioned stimulus? A) the person lighting the firecrackers B) the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers C) the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers D) the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode Answer: B Rationale: The unconditioned stimulus (UCS) in this scenario is the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers. It naturally elicits the response of putting hands over ears, indicating an innate and automatic reaction without prior conditioning. 39) Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Canada Day festival, but at first pay scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the conditioned stimulus? A) the person lighting the firecrackers B) the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers C) the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers D) the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode Answer: A Rationale: The conditioned stimulus (CS) is the person lighting the firecrackers. Through repeated pairings with the loud booming sound (unconditioned stimulus), the sight of the person becomes associated with the loud sound, eliciting the conditioned response. 40) Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Canada Day festival, but at first pay scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the unconditioned response? A) the person lighting the firecrackers B) the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers C) the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers D) the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode Answer: D Rationale: The unconditioned response (UCR) is the automatic, innate, and involuntary reaction to the unconditioned stimulus (UCS). In this scenario, the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode is the natural and automatic response elicited by the loud booming sound. 41) Classical conditioning: A) is primarily concerned with reflexes. B) is primarily concerned with involuntary responses. C) is passive. D) all of the above Answer: D Rationale: Classical conditioning involves learning associations between stimuli and responses, particularly reflexive or involuntary responses. It is a passive form of learning where individuals acquire these associations through repeated pairings of stimuli and responses. 42) Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover’s Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel No. 5 when she went out with Bobby. Whenever Bobby smelled Chanel No. 5, he began to breathe faster. Sue’s kiss was the: A) UCS. B) UCR. C) CS. D) CR. Answer: A Rationale: In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) naturally elicits an unconditioned response (UCR). In this scenario, Bobby's breathing accelerating in response to Sue's kiss is an unconditioned response because it occurs naturally without prior conditioning. 43) Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover’s Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel No. 5 when she went out with Bobby. Bobby’s accelerated breathing when he and Sue kissed is the: A) UCS. B) UCR. C) CS. D) CR. Answer: B Rationale: The unconditioned response (UCR) is the automatic, innate, and involuntary reaction to an unconditioned stimulus (UCS). In this scenario, Bobby's accelerated breathing in response to the kiss is the unconditioned response. 44) Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover’s Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel No. 5 when she went out with Bobby. Chanel No. 5 is the: A) UCS. B) UCR. C) CS. D) CR. Answer: C Rationale: The conditioned stimulus (CS) is a previously neutral stimulus that, through repeated association with the unconditioned stimulus (UCS), comes to elicit a conditioned response (CR). In this scenario, Chanel No. 5 becomes associated with the kiss, leading to Bobby's accelerated breathing, making it the conditioned stimulus. 45) Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover’s Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel No. 5 when she went out with Bobby. Bobby’s faster breathing rate when he smells Chanel No. 5 is the: A) UCS. B) UCR. C) CS. D) CR. Answer: D Rationale: The conditioned response (CR) is the learned response to the conditioned stimulus (CS) that occurs after conditioning. In this scenario, Bobby's faster breathing rate in response to smelling Chanel No. 5 is a learned response, making it the conditioned response. 46) In classical conditioning, one must pair the _______ before conditioning can occur. A) UCS and CR B) UCS and CS C) CR and CS D) UCR and CR Answer: B Rationale: In classical conditioning, the conditioned stimulus (CS) must be paired with the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) for conditioning to occur. This pairing allows the organism to learn the association between the two stimuli. 47) Of the four basic elements of classical conditioning, the one the organism learns to respond to is the: A) UCS. B) UCR. C) CS. D) CR. Answer: C Rationale: In classical conditioning, the organism learns to respond to the conditioned stimulus (CS) through its repeated pairing with the unconditioned stimulus (UCS), which naturally elicits a response. 48) As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it but, as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. In the example, the dog’s bark and bite is the: A) UCS. B) CS. C) UCR. D) CR. Answer: A Rationale: In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) is the stimulus that naturally triggers an unconditioned response (UCR) without any prior learning. In this scenario, the dog's bark and bite naturally elicit the response of crying in Jodie, making them the unconditioned stimulus. 49) As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it but, as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. Jodie’s crying when she sees dogs is the: A) UCS. B) CS. C) UCR. D) CR. Answer: D Rationale: The conditioned response (CR) is the learned response to the conditioned stimulus (CS) that occurs after conditioning. In this scenario, Jodie's crying when she sees dogs is a learned response, indicating conditioning has occurred, making it the conditioned response. 50) As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it but, as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. The sight of dogs is the: A) UCS. B) CS. C) UCR. D) CR. Answer: B Rationale: The conditioned stimulus (CS) is a previously neutral stimulus that, through repeated association with the unconditioned stimulus (UCS), comes to elicit a conditioned response (CR). In this scenario, the sight of dogs becomes associated with the painful experience, leading to Jodie's crying, making it the conditioned stimulus. 51) Paul is coming down with the flu, but he eats spaghetti anyway and subsequently becomes violently ill. A month later he sees that spaghetti is being served in the dining hall and is overcome by nausea. What type of learning is illustrated by this episode? A) operant conditioning B) cognitive learning C) latent learning D) classical conditioning Answer: D Rationale: This scenario demonstrates classical conditioning, where an initially neutral stimulus (spaghetti) becomes associated with an unconditioned stimulus (flu/violent illness) leading to a conditioned response (nausea) upon encountering the previously neutral stimulus. 52) In classical conditioning, the stimulus that normally evokes an automatic response even without new learning is called the: A) conditioned stimulus. B) reflexive stimulus. C) unconditioned stimulus. D) orienting stimulus. Answer: C Rationale: The unconditioned stimulus (UCS) is the stimulus that naturally triggers a response without any prior learning. In classical conditioning, it's paired with the conditioned stimulus (CS) to evoke a conditioned response (CR). 53) When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice after shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart raced. Luke’s kiss was the: A) unconditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned stimulus. D) conditioned response. Answer: A Rationale: Luke's kiss is the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) because it naturally triggers Laura's heart rate increase without any conditioning. 54) When Luke kisses Laura, her heart rate increases. Luke always wears Old Spice aftershave. Whenever Laura smells Old Spice, her heart races. Laura’s increased heart rate when Luke kissed her was the: A) unconditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned stimulus. D) conditioned response. Answer: B Rationale: Laura's increased heart rate in response to Luke's kiss is the unconditioned response (UCR) because it's a natural, reflexive reaction without any prior conditioning. 55) When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice aftershave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice thereafter, her heart raced. Old Spice aftershave was the: A) unconditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned stimulus. D) conditioned response. Answer: C Rationale: Old Spice aftershave becomes the conditioned stimulus (CS) because it elicits a conditioned response (CR) of increased heart rate in Laura after being paired with Luke's kiss. 56) When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice aftershave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart would race. Laura’s increased heart rate when she smelled Old Spice was the: A) unconditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned stimulus. D) conditioned response. Answer: D Rationale: Laura's increased heart rate in response to smelling Old Spice is the conditioned response (CR) because it's a learned reaction resulting from the pairing of Old Spice (CS) with Luke's kiss (UCS). 57) In classical conditioning, one must be sure to pair the: A) US and CS. B) US and UR. C) CS and CR. D) CS and UR. Answer: A Rationale: Classical conditioning requires pairing the unconditioned stimulus (US) with the conditioned stimulus (CS) to establish the association between the two stimuli. 58) Pairing the US and CS is essential for _______ to occur. A) extinction B) classical conditioning C) operant conditioning D) shaping Answer: B Rationale: Classical conditioning involves the pairing of the unconditioned stimulus (US) with the conditioned stimulus (CS) to produce a conditioned response (CR), which is the essence of classical conditioning. 59) By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the presentation of the meat was the _______. A) unconditioned stimulus B) unconditioned response C) conditioned stimulus D) conditioned response Answer: A Rationale: The presentation of the meat is the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) because it naturally triggers the unconditioned response (UCR) of salivation in the dogs. 60) By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the ringing of the bell was the _______. A) unconditioned stimulus B) unconditioned response C) conditioned stimulus D) conditioned response Answer: C Rationale: The ringing of the bell becomes the conditioned stimulus (CS) because it elicits a conditioned response (CR) of salivation in the dogs after being paired with the presentation of meat (UCS). 61) By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, salivation to the meat was the _______. A) unconditioned stimulus B) unconditioned response C) conditioned stimulus D) conditioned response Answer: B Rationale: Salivation to the meat is the unconditioned response (UCR) because it is a natural, reflexive reaction to the presentation of meat without any prior conditioning. 62) By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, salivation to the meat was the _______. A) unconditioned stimulus B) unconditioned response C) conditioned stimulus D) conditioned response Answer: D Rationale: Salivation to the meat becomes the conditioned response (CR) because it's a learned reaction to the conditioned stimulus (bell) after being paired with the unconditioned stimulus (meat). 63) Rachel has found that when she opens up the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning and that the unconditioned stimulus is the _______. A) cat food B) cats C) running of the cats D) cupboard door opening Answer: A Rationale: In this scenario, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) is the cat food because it naturally triggers the unconditioned response (UCR) of the cats coming to the kitchen without any prior conditioning. 64) An experimenter finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he sees a picture of a nude female. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then presents such a picture. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the UNCONDITIONED response is the _______. A) increased heartbeat B) female’s picture C) sound of the buzzer D) viewing of the picture Answer: A Rationale: The increased heartbeat is the unconditioned response (UCR) because it naturally occurs in response to seeing the picture of a nude female without any prior conditioning. 65) An experimenter finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he sees a picture of a nude female. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then presents such a picture. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the CONDITIONED response is the ________. A) increased heartbeat B) nude female’s picture C) sound of the buzzer D) viewing of the picture Answer: A Rationale: The increased heartbeat becomes the conditioned response (CR) because it is a learned reaction to the conditioned stimulus (sound of the buzzer) after being paired with the unconditioned stimulus (viewing the picture of a nude female). 66) In the experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned stimulus was _______. A) the experimenter B) the laboratory C) the loud noise D) the rat Answer: C Rationale: In the classic experiment conducted by John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner, known as the Little Albert experiment, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) was a loud noise, such as striking a steel bar with a hammer behind Albert's head. This loud noise served as the UCS because it naturally elicited an unlearned, innate fear response from Little Albert, which was crying and attempting to crawl away. Through the experiment, this fear response was then associated with a neutral stimulus, a white rat, which became the conditioned stimulus (CS). Therefore, in this context, the loud noise is correctly identified as the unconditioned stimulus. 67) In the experiment with Little Albert, the conditioned stimulus was _______. A) the experimenter B) the laboratory C) the loud noise D) the rat Answer: D Rationale: The rat became the conditioned stimulus (CS) in the Little Albert experiment because it elicited fear in Albert after being paired with the unconditioned stimulus (loud noise). 68) In the experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned response was _______. A) fear of the loud noise B) fear of the rat C) fear of the experimenter D) fear of the laboratory Answer: A Rationale: Fear of the loud noise was the unconditioned response (UCR) in the Little Albert experiment because it was a natural, reflexive reaction to the presentation of the loud noise without any prior conditioning. 69) One of the best-known examples of classical conditioning in humans was the Little Albert study, conducted by _______. A) Pavlov B) Freud C) Watson D) Skinner Answer: C Rationale: The Little Albert study was conducted by John B. Watson, who applied principles of classical conditioning to demonstrate how fear could be conditioned in humans. 70) In the classic study of fear conditioning in a human infant (the “Albert” experiment), what was the CS? A) the rat B) the rabbit C) the loud noise D) the crying response Answer: A Rationale: In the Little Albert experiment, the rat served as the conditioned stimulus (CS) because it elicited fear in Albert after being paired with the unconditioned stimulus (loud noise). 71) In the classic study of fear conditioning in a human infant (the “Albert” experiment), what was the UCS? A) the rat B) the rabbit C) the loud noise D) the crying response Answer: C Rationale: In the "Albert" experiment, which was a classic study of fear conditioning conducted by John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) was the loud noise. This loud noise, produced by striking a steel bar with a hammer behind the infant's head, naturally elicited a fear response in the infant. The loud noise served as the UCS because it triggered an unlearned, innate fear reaction. Through the experiment, this fear response became associated with a neutral stimulus, such as a white rat, which then became the conditioned stimulus (CS). Therefore, in this context, the loud noise is correctly identified as the UCS. 72) When a stimulus similar to the CS also elicits the CR, the phenomenon is called _______. A) stimulus discrimination B) stimulus generalization C) spontaneous recovery D) second-order conditioning Answer: B Rationale: Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus (CS) also elicit the conditioned response (CR), demonstrating the generalization of the learned response to similar stimuli. 73) If a researcher presents the US first, then presents the CS, the pairing method used is _______. A) trace B) delay C) simultaneous D) backward Answer: D Rationale: When the unconditioned stimulus (US) is presented before the conditioned stimulus (CS), it's termed backward conditioning, which is typically less effective in establishing conditioned responses. 74) Repeatedly presenting a CS by itself will result in ________. A) extinction B) spontaneous recovery C) stimulus discrimination D) stimulus generalization Answer: A Rationale: Extinction occurs when a conditioned stimulus (CS) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus (US), resulting in a gradual decrease in the conditioned response (CR). 75) As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it but, as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. Jodie’s crying when she sees dogs is the ________. A) US B) CS C) UR D) CR Answer: D Rationale: Jodie's crying when she sees dogs of any color or size is the conditioned response (CR) because it's a learned reaction to the conditioned stimulus (sight of dogs) after being paired with the unconditioned stimulus (painful bite). 76) Spontaneous recovery: A) occurs before the pairing of the CS and US. B) occurs after a fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement. C) is an unlearned response. D) can occur once a response has been extinguished. Answer: D Rationale: Spontaneous recovery refers to the reappearance of an extinguished conditioned response (CR) after a delay, suggesting that extinction does not erase the learned association permanently. 77) Thorndike was known for his work with __________. A) a puzzle box B) modelling C) monkeys D) a Skinner box Answer: A Rationale: Thorndike is known for his work with the puzzle box, which he used to study instrumental or operant conditioning in cats. 78) The person MOST closely associated with the law of effect is __________. A) Thorndike B) Pavlov C) Watson D) Skinner Answer: A Rationale: Edward Thorndike is most closely associated with the law of effect, which states that behaviors followed by favorable consequences are more likely to be repeated. 79) The person most closely associated with the law of effect is ________ . A) Watson B) Pavlov C) Skinner D) Thorndike Answer: D Rationale: Thorndike is most closely associated with the law of effect, which forms the foundation of operant conditioning theory. 80) The person most directly associated with operant conditioning is ______. A) Pavlov B) Watson C) Thorndike D) Skinner Answer: D Rationale: B.F. Skinner is most directly associated with operant conditioning, which focuses on how behavior is shaped by its consequences through reinforcement and punishment. 81) Who formulated the law of effect? A) Pavlov B) Skinner C) Thorndike D) Watson Answer: C Rationale: The law of effect was formulated by Edward Thorndike, stating that behaviors followed by favorable consequences are more likely to be repeated. 82) Classical is to _______ as operant is to _______. A) Pavlov; Skinner B) Skinner; Pavlov C) Pavlov; Watson D) Watson; Pavlov Answer: A Rationale: Classical conditioning is associated with the work of Ivan Pavlov, who conducted experiments with dogs, while operant conditioning is associated with B.F. Skinner, who introduced the concept of reinforcement and punishment through his experiments with animals, particularly pigeons and rats. Therefore, in this analogy, "classical" corresponds to Pavlov's work, and "operant" corresponds to Skinner's work, making option A the correct choice. 83) Thorndike is to _______ as Skinner is to _______. A) reinforcement; law of effect B) law of effect; reinforcement C) reinforcement; punishment D) positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement Answer: B Rationale: Thorndike is known for the law of effect, while Skinner is known for his work on reinforcement, which is closely related to the law of effect. 84) The law of effect was proposed by: A) Titchener. B) Watson. C) Skinner. D) Thorndike. Answer: D Rationale: The law of effect was proposed by Edward Thorndike as a fundamental principle of behaviorism. 85) Thorndike conducted research on: A) operant conditioning. B) classical conditioning. C) shaping. D) higher-order conditioning. Answer: A Rationale: Thorndike conducted research primarily on operant conditioning, particularly using his puzzle box experiments with cats. 86) Thorndike’s main apparatus in his operant conditioning research was: A) a wire monkey. B) a cognitive map. C) a puzzle box. D) a buzzer. Answer: C Rationale: Thorndike's main apparatus for his operant conditioning research was the puzzle box, used to study instrumental learning in cats. 87) The “law of effect” was first proposed in the modern scientific community by: A) James. B) Skinner. C) Thorndike. D) Pavlov. Answer: C Rationale: Edward Thorndike is credited with first proposing the law of effect in the modern scientific community. 88) The person associated with the law of effect is _______. A) Watson B) Pavlov C) Skinner D) Thorndike Answer: D Rationale: Edward Thorndike is the person associated with the law of effect, which he formulated based on his research with animals. 89) B. F. Skinner is known for his theory of: A) cognitive learning. B) intelligence. C) classical conditioning. D) operant conditioning. Answer: D Rationale: B. F. Skinner is known for his theory of operant conditioning, which focuses on how behavior is shaped by its consequences. 90) The learning process studied in the Skinner box is known as: A) social learning. B) higher-order conditioning. C) cognitive learning. D) operant conditioning. Answer: D Rationale: The learning process studied in the Skinner box is operant conditioning, where behaviors are strengthened or weakened based on the consequences that follow them. 91) The apparatus that has come to symbolize the theory of operant conditioning is the: A) Rubik’s cube. B) operant chamber. C) Pavlov bell. D) Thorndike puzzle. Answer: B Rationale: The operant chamber, also known as the Skinner box, is the apparatus commonly associated with the study of operant conditioning and B.F. Skinner's research. 92) Classical is to _______ as operant is to _______. A) Pavlov; Skinner B) Skinner; Pavlov C) Pavlov; Watson D) Watson; Pavlov Answer: A Rationale: Classical conditioning is associated with Pavlov, while operant conditioning is associated with Skinner. 93) A grandmother gives her grandchild a cookie because the child cleaned up her room. What is the cookie in this example? A) conditioned response B) punisher C) positive reinforcer D) negative reinforcer Answer: C Rationale: In this example, the cookie serves as a positive reinforcer because it's given to increase the likelihood that the child will clean her room again in the future. 94) A negative reinforcer is a stimulus that is ________ and thus ________ the probability of a response. A) removed; increases B) presented; decreases C) removed; decreases D) presented; increases Answer: A Rationale: A negative reinforcer is a stimulus that, when removed, increases the probability of a response occurring again in the future. 95) Which of the following is an example of punishment? A) taking away a child’s favourite toy for hitting another child B) removing a penalty you imposed on a child after he began acting better C) giving a child a star for telling a lie D) giving a child a cookie for cleaning her room Answer: A Rationale: Punishment involves presenting an aversive stimulus or removing a pleasant one to decrease the likelihood of a behavior occurring again. Taking away the child's favorite toy is an example of punishment. 96) When you were first learning to make your bed, your parents told you that you did a good job when you got the bedspread pulled up, even though the bed was still a little messy. In the next week they showed you how to be a little neater each time you made the bed. What operant conditioning procedure did your parents use? A) generalization B) extinction C) shaping D) punishment Answer: C Rationale: Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of the desired behavior. In this scenario, your parents reinforced small improvements in making the bed until the desired behavior was achieved. 97) A child is praised for using his fork instead of his fingers to eat some spaghetti. This is an example of __________ reinforcement. A) positive B) extrinsic C) higher-order D) secondary Answer: A Rationale: Positive reinforcement involves presenting a desirable stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior occurring again. In this case, praise serves as a positive reinforcement for using the fork. 98) A reinforcer that removes something unpleasant from a situation is a __________. A) primary reinforcer B) positive reinforcer C) negative reinforcer D) secondary reinforcer Answer: C Rationale: A negative reinforcer is a stimulus that, when removed, increases the likelihood of a behavior occurring again by removing an unpleasant condition or stimulus. 99) On a variable-interval schedule, reinforcement is given for the __________. A) first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed B) first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed C) next correct response after a fixed number of responses have occurred D) next correct response after a varying number of responses have occurred Answer: B Rationale: On a variable-interval schedule, reinforcement is given for the first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed since the last reinforcement. 100) Elizabeth was given a $1000 raise after her last performance evaluation. Her raise is a: A) primary reinforcer. B) punisher. C) negative reinforcer. D) conditioned reinforcer. Answer: D Rationale: Elizabeth's raise functions as a conditioned reinforcer because its value is learned through its association with primary reinforcers (such as money) and positive experiences. 101) What has occurred when there is a decrease in the likelihood or rate of a target response? A) positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement B) negative reinforcement C) punishment D) positive reinforcement Answer: C Rationale: When there is a decrease in the likelihood or rate of a target response, it indicates punishment, as the consequence serves to decrease the occurrence of the behavior. 102) A positive reinforcer is a stimulus that is ________ and thus ________ the probability of a response. A) removed; decreases B) presented; increases C) presented; decreases D) removed; increases Answer: B Rationale: A positive reinforcer is a stimulus that is presented following a behavior, thereby increasing the likelihood or probability of that behavior occurring again in the future. 103) Any event whose presence decreases the likelihood that ongoing behaviour will recur is __________. A) a secondary reinforcer B) an aversive stimulus C) punishment D) negative reinforcement Answer: C Rationale: Punishment refers to any event or stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior recurring when it is presented following the behavior. 104) Which of the following is a conditioned reinforcer? A) a bar of candy B) warm, physical contact C) money D) a drink of water Answer: C Rationale: Money is a conditioned reinforcer because its value is learned through its association with primary reinforcers (such as obtaining goods and services) and positive experiences. 105) Nagging someone to do something until they do it is an example of __________. A) negative reinforcement B) aversive conditioning C) punishment D) positive reinforcement Answer: A Rationale: Nagging someone until they do something is an example of negative reinforcement because the removal of nagging (an aversive stimulus) reinforces compliance with the request. 106) A reinforcer that adds something rewarding to a situation is called a(n) __________ reinforcer. A) positive B) additive C) primary D) secondary Answer: A Rationale: A positive reinforcer adds something rewarding or desirable to a situation, thereby increasing the likelihood of the behavior it follows. 107) On a fixed-ratio schedule, reinforcement is given ________ . A) for the first correct response after randomly varying amounts of time have passed B) for the next correct response after a fixed number of responses have been made C) for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed D) for the next correct response after a varying number of responses have been made Answer: B Rationale: On a fixed-ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a fixed number of responses have been completed. 108) On a fixed-interval schedule, reinforcement is given _______. A) for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed B) for the first correct response after randomly varying amounts of time have passed C) for the next correct response after a fixed number of responses have been made D) for the next correct response after a varying number of responses have been made Answer: A Rationale: On a fixed-interval schedule, reinforcement is provided for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has elapsed since the last reinforcement. 109) On a variable-interval schedule, reinforcement is given _________ . A) for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed B) for the first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed C) for the next correct response after a fixed number of responses have been made D) for the next correct response after a varying number of responses have been made Answer: B Rationale: On a variable-interval schedule, reinforcement is provided for the first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed since the last reinforcement. 110) When someone uses negative reinforcement to change a behaviour, the behaviour is likely to __________. A) occur less frequently B) occur more frequently C) occur at the same rate D) completely stop Answer: B Rationale: Negative reinforcement involves removing an aversive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior occurring again. Therefore, the behavior is likely to occur more frequently as a result of negative reinforcement. 111) A camp leader repeatedly hugs a camper after she helps her friend. Each time, the camper is embarrassed and shies away from future acts of assistance. In the example, “hugging the camper” is _______. A) a positive reinforcer B) a primary reinforcer C) a punishment D) none of the above Answer: C Rationale: In this scenario, the act of hugging the camper serves as a punishment because it decreases the likelihood of the camper engaging in helpful behavior in the future due to the embarrassment associated with the hug. 112) Mary arrives home to find her son washing the dirty dishes left from his party the night before. When she discovers his first-semester grade report on the table and sees that he got straight A’s, Mary rewards him by relieving him of the unpleasant task of finishing the dishes. Which operant process does the example illustrate? A) positive reinforcement B) negative reinforcement C) extinction D) punishment Answer: B Rationale: This example illustrates negative reinforcement because Mary removes an aversive stimulus (washing dishes) to increase the likelihood of her son achieving straight A's in the future. 113) Which of the following is an example of a primary reinforcer? A) water B) a thank-you letter C) a smile from a loved one D) money Answer: A Rationale: A primary reinforcer is a stimulus that is inherently rewarding, such as water, food, or other biological needs. 114) Wearing sunglasses ALL THE TIME because people tell you they make you look “irresistible” is an example of which of the types of punishment and reinforcement? A) aversive punishment B) negative reinforcement C) positive reinforcement D) response cost Answer: C Rationale: Wearing sunglasses because people find you irresistible is an example of positive reinforcement, where the behavior (wearing sunglasses) is strengthened by the addition of a rewarding stimulus (compliments). 115) Negative reinforcement is best thought of as: A) reinforcement for an undesirable activity. B) punishment. C) something that was predicted to serve as reinforcement but did not do so. D) stimuli whose termination or removal increases behavior. Answer: D Rationale: Negative reinforcement involves the removal or termination of an aversive stimulus, which increases the likelihood of the behavior being repeated. 116) Putting on sunglasses to relieve glare is an example of which of the types of punishment and reinforcement? A) aversive punishment B) negative reinforcement C) positive reinforcement D) response cost Answer: B Rationale: Putting on sunglasses to relieve glare represents negative reinforcement because the behavior (putting on sunglasses) removes an aversive stimulus (glare), increasing the likelihood of repeating the behavior in similar situations. 117) To avoid getting a headache, Lory always lets her dog outside when it sits by the door and howls. This is an example of which type of punishment or reinforcement? A) aversive punishment B) negative reinforcement C) positive reinforcement D) response cost Answer: B Rationale: Lory letting her dog outside when it howls serves as negative reinforcement because it removes the aversive stimulus of the dog's howling, thereby increasing the likelihood of Lory repeating the behavior of letting the dog outside. 118) Training a rat to push a lever to escape from an electric shock is an example of: A) aversive punishment. B) negative reinforcement. C) positive reinforcement. D) response cost. Answer: B Rationale: Training a rat to push a lever to escape from an electric shock exemplifies negative reinforcement because the behavior of pushing the lever removes the aversive stimulus of the electric shock, thereby increasing the likelihood of the rat pushing the lever again in similar situations. 119) Positive reinforcers: A) weaken behaviors they follow. B) are always learned. C) strengthen behaviors they follow. D) are always unlearned. Answer: C Rationale: Positive reinforcers strengthen behaviors they follow by presenting or adding a rewarding stimulus following the behavior. 120) Which of the following statements about positive reinforcers is accurate? A) They are used in negative reinforcement. B) They weaken behaviors that they follow. C) They strengthen behaviors that they follow. D) They strengthen behaviors that lead to their removal. Answer: C Rationale: Positive reinforcers strengthen behaviors that they follow by presenting or adding a rewarding stimulus following the behavior. They do not weaken behaviors; instead, they increase the likelihood of those behaviors recurring. 121) If a POSITIVE REINFORCER is added after a behavior and the behavior is strengthened/increased, the process used is called: A) negative reinforcement. B) positive reinforcement. C) extinction. D) punishment. Answer: B Rationale: Positive reinforcement involves adding a rewarding stimulus after a behavior, which increases the likelihood of that behavior occurring again in the future. 122) Mom and Dad think it is really funny and laugh when their 2-year-old, Bruce, says dirty words. When Bruce is sent home from kindergarten because of swearing, they don’t understand why he cusses. Now, when he cusses at home, they ignore the cussing (they don’t think it’s cute anymore). Laughing in this example is: A) a positive reinforcer. B) a negative reinforcer. C) a primary reinforcer. D) a neutral stimulus. Answer: A Rationale: In this scenario, laughing at Bruce's swearing serves as a positive reinforcer because it strengthens the behavior of swearing by adding the rewarding stimulus of parental attention and amusement. 123) Which of the following is NOT a negative reinforcer? A) turning off an electric shock B) giving a spanking C) removing a noxious odor D) silencing a banging door Answer: B Rationale: Giving a spanking is not a negative reinforcer; it is a form of punishment. Negative reinforcement involves the removal or avoidance of an aversive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior recurring. 124) Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? A) grades B) water C) money D) recognition Answer: B Rationale: A primary reinforcer is a stimulus that is inherently rewarding and does not require learning, such as water, food, or other biological needs. 125) Which of the following is a conditioned reinforcer? A) water B) food C) grades D) physical support Answer: C Rationale: A conditioned reinforcer is a stimulus that gains its reinforcing power through its association with primary reinforcers or other reinforcing stimuli. Grades, in this case, have become reinforcing through their association with praise, rewards, or other positive consequences. 126) At the National Zoological Park in Washington, D.C., a polar bear suffered a broken tooth, and keepers needed a safe way to treat the problem. The bear was rewarded first for sticking its nose through a slot in the cage door, then for allowing a keeper to lift its lip and touch its teeth. Finally, a veterinarian was able to treat the damaged tooth while the bear waited placidly for its familiar reward. This is an example of _______. A) modeling B) shaping C) negative reinforcement D) secondary learning Answer: B Rationale: This scenario illustrates shaping, a process of reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior until the target behavior is achieved. In this case, the behavior of allowing the veterinarian to treat the bear's tooth was shaped by reinforcing smaller, incremental steps leading up to the desired behavior. 127) Anything that increases the likelihood that a behavior will increase is called a(n) _______. A) aversive control B) punishment C) antecedent D) reinforcer Answer: D Rationale: A reinforcer is any stimulus or event that increases the likelihood or frequency of a behavior occurring again in the future. 128) When someone uses negative reinforcement to change a behavior, the behavior is likely to ______. A) decrease B) increase C) remain the same D) completely stop Answer: B Rationale: Negative reinforcement involves removing or avoiding an aversive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior recurring. Therefore, the behavior is likely to increase. 129) When someone uses punishment to change a behavior, the behavior is likely to ______. A) decrease B) increase C) remain the same D) generalize Answer: A Rationale: Punishment involves applying an aversive stimulus or removing a rewarding stimulus to decrease the likelihood of a behavior recurring. Therefore, the behavior is likely to decrease. 130) Which of the following statements is true? A) Punishment does not always work. B) The effectiveness of punishment depends solely on its force. C) Punishment should be applied intermittently. D) Punishment usually enhances the learning process. Answer: A Rationale: Punishment does not always work effectively in changing behavior and can have unintended consequences, such as increased aggression or avoidance behaviors. Its effectiveness depends on various factors beyond solely its force, including consistency, timing, and appropriateness. Additionally, punishment should be used judiciously and paired with positive reinforcement whenever possible to facilitate the learning process. 131) Which of the following statements about punishment is NOT true? A) Punishment does not always work. B) Rewards should always immediately follow punishments. C) Effective punishment is consistent punishment. D) In itself, punishment serves to inhibit responses. Answer: B Rationale: Option B is not true. Rewards should not always immediately follow punishments. Punishment should be administered consistently and appropriately to effectively deter undesired behavior. Mixing rewards immediately after punishment can undermine the effectiveness of punishment. 132) A reinforcer that adds something rewarding to a situation is called a ________ reinforcer. A) positive B) negative C) primary D) secondary Answer: A Rationale: A positive reinforcer adds or presents a rewarding stimulus, increasing the likelihood of the desired behavior occurring again in the future. 133) A reinforcer that removes something unpleasant from a situation is called a ________ reinforcer. A) positive B) negative C) primary D) secondary Answer: B Rationale: A negative reinforcer removes or avoids an aversive stimulus, also increasing the likelihood of the desired behavior occurring again in the future. 134) The 5-year-old of two very busy parents has been throwing tantrums. Whenever the child goes off the deep end, one or both of his parents immediately come to his side and fuss over and cajole him. Nevertheless, his tantrums do not diminish; they even seem to increase. We may assume that his parents’ fussing over him serves as a _______. A) negative reinforcer B) punisher C) positive reinforcer D) model Answer: C Rationale: The parents' fussing over the child serves as a positive reinforcer by adding attention and affection, which inadvertently reinforces the tantrum behavior, leading to its increase rather than decrease. 135) A child is scolded for using his fingers instead of his fork to eat some spaghetti. The scolding stops when he picks up his fork. This is an example of _______ reinforcement. A) positive B) negative C) tertiary D) secondary Answer: B Rationale: In this scenario, the removal of scolding (an aversive stimulus) serves as negative reinforcement, increasing the likelihood of the desired behavior (using the fork) occurring again in the future. 136) Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? A) money B) a bar of candy C) a buzzer D) poker chips Answer: B Rationale: A primary reinforcer is an inherently rewarding stimulus, such as food, water, or other biological needs. A bar of candy fits this definition. 137) Which of the following is a conditioned reinforcer? A) money B) a bar of candy C) attention D) a drink of water Answer: A Rationale: A conditioned reinforcer gains its reinforcing properties through association with primary reinforcers or other reinforcing stimuli. Money is often associated with acquiring primary reinforcers, making it a conditioned reinforcer. 138) Which of the following would be classified as a conditioned reinforcer? A) a sandwich B) the word “good” C) reduction of pain D) a drink of soda Answer: B Rationale: The word "good" gains its reinforcing properties through association with positive experiences or rewards, making it a conditioned reinforcer. 139) Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? A) a sandwich B) praise C) money D) grades Answer: A Rationale: A primary reinforcer is an inherently rewarding stimulus that fulfills biological needs. A sandwich provides sustenance, making it a primary reinforcer. 140) Electric shock, scoldings, and bad grades are: A) secondary reinforcers. B) primary reinforcers. C) aversive stimuli. D) conditioned stimuli. Answer: C Rationale: Electric shock, scoldings, and bad grades are aversive stimuli, which are unpleasant and typically used as punishments or negative reinforcers to decrease the likelihood of a behavior recurring. They are not reinforcers themselves but rather stimuli that decrease behavior. 141) The fact that a reward will increase the future likelihood of a response that produced it is known as: A) the discrimination principle. B) the law of practice. C) the law of effect. D) the Premack principle. Answer: C Rationale: The law of effect, proposed by Edward Thorndike, states that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, while behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely. 142) A woodchuck tries to crack a walnut shell in two different ways—with his paws and with his teeth. The last method worked and the first did not, hence the woodchuck will be more likely to rely on his teeth for splitting the next nut. This observation illustrates the: A) discrimination principle. B) law of practice. C) law of effect. D) Premack principle. Answer: C Rationale: This scenario illustrates the law of effect, which states that behaviors leading to favorable outcomes become more likely to be repeated in the future. 143) When the removal of an event increases the likelihood of a prior response, _______ has occurred. A) positive reinforcement B) negative reinforcement C) positive punishment D) negative punishment Answer: B Rationale: Negative reinforcement involves the removal or avoidance of an aversive stimulus, which increases the likelihood of a behavior recurring in the future. 144) The Canada Revenue Agency threatens Sue with a penalty if she fails to pay her back taxes. She pays, and the threat is withdrawn. In the future, she is more prompt in meeting her obligation. This is an example of the use of _______ to control behavior. A) positive reinforcement B) negative reinforcement C) positive punishment D) negative punishment Answer: B Rationale: In this scenario, the threat of a penalty (an aversive stimulus) is withdrawn when Sue pays her taxes, which increases the likelihood of her meeting her obligation promptly in the future. 145) What is the typical dependent variable used in studies of the operant conditioning of lever pressing in rats? A) the number of responses per minute B) the cumulative record of lever presses C) the average intensity of lever presses D) none of the above Answer: B Rationale: The typical dependent variable in studies of operant conditioning of lever pressing in rats is the cumulative record of lever presses, which reflects the total number of lever presses over a given period. 146) If a rat has learned to press a lever to obtain pellets of food and, all of a sudden, the response permanently ceases to produce any food, then _______ will occur. A) shaping B) discrimination C) generalization D) extinction Answer: D Rationale: Extinction occurs when a previously reinforced behavior no longer results in the delivery of reinforcement, leading to a decrease or cessation of that behavior. 147) Which of the following is a conditioned positive reinforcer? A) money B) sex C) food D) warmth Answer: A Rationale: A conditioned positive reinforcer is a stimulus that gains its reinforcing properties through association with primary reinforcers or other reinforcing stimuli. Money is often associated with acquiring primary reinforcers, making it a conditioned positive reinforcer. 148) The presentation of an aversive stimulus following a particular operant response is called: A) negative reinforcement. B) discrimination training. C) aversion conditioning. D) punishment. Answer: D Rationale: Punishment involves the presentation of an aversive stimulus following a particular behavior, which decreases the likelihood of that behavior occurring again in the future. 149) Negative reinforcement is to punishment as _______ is to _______. A) presenting; withdrawing B) withdrawing; presenting C) aversive; pleasant D) give; take Answer: B Rationale: Negative reinforcement involves the removal or withdrawal of an aversive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior, while punishment involves the presentation of an aversive stimulus to decrease the likelihood of a behavior. 150) Which of the following is NOT a negative reinforcer? A) turning off an electric shock B) giving a spanking C) removing a noxious odor D) silencing a banging door Answer: B Rationale: Giving a spanking involves the presentation of an aversive stimulus (physical punishment), which does not qualify as negative reinforcement. Negative reinforcement involves the removal or avoidance of an aversive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior. 151) Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? A) grades B) water C) money D) recognition Answer: B Rationale: A primary reinforcer is a stimulus that inherently satisfies a biological need, such as thirst or hunger. Water is a basic necessity for survival and directly addresses the physiological need for hydration, making it a primary reinforcer. 152) Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? A) grades B) water C) money D) recognition Answer: B Rationale: Similar to the previous question, water is a primary reinforcer because it fulfills a fundamental biological need. Grades, money, and recognition are secondary reinforcers because their value is learned through association with primary reinforcers or other reinforcing stimuli. 153) Billy throws rocks. Each time he throws a rock, he is immediately spanked. Spanking is a ________. A) positive reinforcer B) negative reinforcer C) secondary reinforcer D) punishment Answer: D Rationale: In operant conditioning, punishment refers to the presentation of an aversive stimulus (such as spanking) following a behavior, leading to a decrease in the likelihood of that behavior occurring again. In this scenario, the spanking serves as punishment for Billy's behavior of throwing rocks. 154) Negative reinforcement is negative in the sense that: A) a consequence stimulus is delivered in a negative manner. B) it results in the removal of the behavior. C) the behavior results in the removal of a negative reinforcer. D) the behavior is decreased/weakened. Answer: C Rationale: Negative reinforcement involves the removal of an aversive stimulus (negative reinforcer) after a desired behavior, which increases the likelihood of that behavior occurring again. It is termed "negative" because it involves the removal or avoidance of something unpleasant. 155) Aunt Bea gave Opie fried chicken livers every time he made his bed. Opie began making his bed more often than he used to. In this example, chicken livers are a _______ reinforcer. A) neutral B) negative C) secondary D) primary Answer: D Rationale: Primary reinforcers are inherently rewarding and fulfill basic biological needs. Fried chicken livers, in this scenario, directly satisfy Opie's hunger or appetite, making them a primary reinforcer. 156) Which two learning processes seem to be opposites? A) acquisition and generalization B) discrimination and extinction C) discrimination and generalization D) acquisition and discrimination Answer: C Rationale: Discrimination and generalization are considered opposites in the context of learning. Discrimination involves learning to respond differently to similar stimuli, whereas generalization involves responding similarly to different stimuli. 157) A pigeon learns to peck only at a red disk. It will not peck at an identical disk of any other color. This illustrates the concept of ___________. A) extinction B) discrimination C) avoidance training D) desensitization Answer: B Rationale: Discrimination occurs when an organism learns to respond differently to various stimuli. In this case, the pigeon has learned to discriminate between the red disk (to which it responds) and other colored disks (to which it does not respond). 158) The process of presenting the conditioned stimulus alone so often that the learner no longer associates it with the unconditioned stimulus and stops making the conditioned response is called ________. A) extinction B) generalization C) spontaneous recovery D) shaping Answer: A Rationale: Extinction in classical conditioning refers to the gradual weakening and eventual disappearance of the conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus. 159) The process of learning to respond only to a single specific object or event is called _________ . A) extinction B) inhibition C) stimulus generalization D) discrimination Answer: D Rationale: Discrimination, in the context of learning, refers to the ability to respond differently to various stimuli. In this scenario, it specifically involves learning to respond to a single specific object or event while ignoring other similar stimuli. This process contrasts with stimulus generalization, which involves responding to similar stimuli in the same way. Therefore, in the context of the question, the correct term for learning to respond only to a single specific object or event is discrimination. 160) If a dog salivates when it sees a green light or a yellow light, it is exhibiting ________. A) generalization B) discrimination C) higher-order conditioning D) extinction Answer: A Rationale: Generalization occurs when a conditioned response is elicited by stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus. In this scenario, the dog salivating in response to both the green and yellow lights demonstrates stimulus generalization. 161) The spread of conditioning to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus is called: A) associative linkage. B) generalization. C) higher-order conditioning. D) spontaneous recovery. Answer: B Rationale: Generalization occurs when responses learned to a specific stimulus also occur in the presence of other similar stimuli. In this case, the conditioned response spreads to stimuli similar to the original conditioned stimulus. 162) Of the following phenomena, which one best explains the spreading of phobias to objects similar to the one to which the phobia was originally acquired? A) discrimination B) extinction C) generalization D) spontaneous recovery Answer: C Rationale: Generalization is the phenomenon where conditioned responses extend to similar stimuli that were not originally part of the conditioning process. This explains why phobias can spread to objects or situations similar to the one that initially triggered the fear response. 163) A small boy has just recently delighted his parents because he learned to call his father “daddy.” However, it has now become an embarrassment to his mother when she takes him out with her because he keeps calling other men “daddy.” This is an example of: A) associative linkage. B) generalization. C) higher-order conditioning. D) spontaneous recovery. Answer: B Rationale: This scenario illustrates generalization, where the boy extends the learned behavior (calling his father "daddy") to similar stimuli (other men) that were not part of the original conditioning. 164) Once conditioning has been acquired, presenting just the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus produces: A) extinction. B) generalization. C) a new conditioned response. D) spontaneous recovery. Answer: A Rationale: Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus, leading to a gradual weakening and eventual disappearance of the conditioned response. 165) Repeatedly presenting a CS by itself will result in: A) extinction. B) spontaneous recovery. C) stimulus discrimination. D) stimulus generalization. Answer: A Rationale: When the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, extinction occurs, resulting in the diminishing of the conditioned response. 166) As she walked through her neighborhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it but, as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Jodie now cries when she sees any dog, big or small, brown or black, etc. This illustrates which of the following? A) generalization B) discrimination C) extinction D) spontaneous recovery Answer: A Rationale: Jodie's response to all dogs, regardless of their specific characteristics, demonstrates generalization. She has generalized her fear response from the specific stimulus (the large brown dog) to other similar stimuli (all dogs). 167) When a CS is repeatedly presented by itself, ______ will occur. A) generalization B) discrimination C) extinction D) stimulus substitution Answer: C Rationale: Repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus leads to extinction, where the conditioned response diminishes over time. 168) John’s heart has been conditioned to beat rapidly whenever he smells Windsong perfume on a woman. However, John’s heart also races when he smells Chanel No. 5 and other perfumes. This illustrates: A) stimulus generalization. B) discrimination. C) extinction. D) spontaneous recovery. Answer: A Rationale: John's response to various perfumes demonstrates stimulus generalization, where the conditioned response extends to similar stimuli beyond the original conditioned stimulus. 169) The process of presenting the conditioned stimulus alone so often that the learner no longer associates it with the unconditioned stimulus and stops making the conditioned response is called _______. A) extinction B) generalization C) spontaneous recovery D) shaping Answer: A Rationale: Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, leading to the weakening or disappearance of the conditioned response. 170) Laura’s heart rate had been conditioned to increase whenever she smelled Old Spice aftershave. However, her heart would also race to the aroma of Brut and English Leather. This reaction is known as: A) shaping. B) stimulus generalization. C) operant conditioning. D) discrimination. Answer: B Rationale: Laura's response to different aftershaves demonstrates stimulus generalization, where the conditioned response extends to similar stimuli beyond the original conditioned stimulus. 171) This is the first exam you have ever taken in Professor Smith’s class. You know nothing about her tests, and she has never done anything harmful to you or anyone else. Nonetheless, you are anxious about the test. Your anxiety in this situation is an example of: A) generalization. B) discrimination. C) backward conditioning. D) none of the above Answer: A Rationale: In this scenario, the anxiety experienced about the test, despite no prior negative experiences with Professor Smith or her tests, is generalized from other similar situations where anxiety might have been present. 172) Corky’s mouth waters when he sees Ball Park Franks, but not when he sees other brands of franks. This response is known as: A) extinction. B) discrimination. C) generalization. D) intelligence. Answer: B Rationale: Corky's ability to differentiate between Ball Park Franks and other brands of franks by only salivating in response to Ball Park Franks demonstrates discrimination, where the conditioned response is specific to the conditioned stimulus. 173) The process of learning to respond only to a single specific object or event is called _______. A) extinction B) inhibition C) stimulus generalization D) discrimination Answer: D Rationale: Discrimination involves learning to respond selectively to a specific stimulus while inhibiting responses to other similar stimuli. 174) A person is conditioned to fear white rats. Soon after, she also begins to fear white cats, white dogs, and white rabbits. Her new, unconditioned fears result from _______. A) modeling B) discrimination C) response generalization D) stimulus generalization Answer: D Rationale: The person's fear extending from white rats to other white animals demonstrates stimulus generalization, where responses learned to one stimulus are also elicited by similar stimuli. 175) A person originally feared great heights, such as standing on top of tall buildings. Now the person has also developed fears of flying in airplanes, standing on ladders, and even watching high-wire artists perform. These new fears are probably the result of _______. A) modeling B) discrimination C) stimulus generalization D) response generalization Answer: C Rationale: The person's fear extending from one specific situation (standing on tall buildings) to similar situations (flying in airplanes, standing on ladders, watching high-wire artists) demonstrates stimulus generalization. 176) A pigeon learns to peck only at a red disk. It will not peck at an identical disk of any other color. This illustrates the concept of _______. A) extinction B) discrimination C) avoidance training D) desensitization Answer: B Rationale: The pigeon's ability to differentiate between the red disk and other colored disks, pecking only at the red one, demonstrates discrimination. 177) A child who calls all four-legged animals “dogs” is exhibiting _________. A) simplification B) response generalization C) stimulus generalization D) equipotentiality Answer: C Rationale: The child's tendency to generalize the label "dog" to all four-legged animals demonstrates stimulus generalization. 178) You have a class in which you have a quiz every Friday. Your studying for quizzes is reinforced on what type of schedule? A) fixed ratio B) fixed interval C) variable ratio D) variable interval Answer: B Rationale: Studying for quizzes on a fixed interval schedule means reinforcement is provided after a fixed amount of time has elapsed (in this case, before each Friday). 179) Which schedule of reinforcement is programmed into slot machines? A) fixed ratio B) variable interval C) variable ratio D) fixed interval Answer: C Rationale: Slot machines operate on a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement, where the reinforcement (winning) occurs after an unpredictable number of responses (pulling the lever). 180) On a fixed-interval schedule, reinforcement is given for the __________. A) first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed B) first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed C) next correct response after a fixed number of responses have occurred D) next correct response after a varying number of responses have occurred Answer: A Rationale: On a fixed-interval schedule, reinforcement is provided for the first correct response made after a fixed amount of time has passed since the last reinforcement. 181) According to the law of effect, a behavior is MOST likely to be stamped in, or repeated, when it is __________. A) ignored B) preceded by reinforcement C) followed by reinforcement D) accompanied by a neutral stimulus Answer: C Rationale: The law of effect states that behaviors followed by reinforcement are more likely to be repeated. Therefore, a behavior that is followed by reinforcement is most likely to be reinforced or repeated. 182) A reinforcer that removes something unpleasant from a situation is called a __________ reinforcer. A) positive B) negative C) primary D) secondary Answer: B Rationale: A negative reinforcer is a stimulus that, when removed after a behavior, strengthens the likelihood of that behavior occurring again by removing or avoiding something unpleasant. 183) A reinforcer that is reinforcing in and of itself is called a ________ reinforcer. A) direct B) delayed C) primary D) secondary Answer: C Rationale: A primary reinforcer is inherently rewarding and satisfies basic biological needs, making it reinforcing in and of itself. Examples include food, water, and shelter. 184) Research suggests that delayed reinforcement ____________. A) is much more effective than immediate reinforcement B) is slightly more effective than immediate reinforcement C) is equally effective as immediate reinforcement D) is less effective than immediate reinforcement Answer: D Rationale: Delayed reinforcement tends to be less effective than immediate reinforcement. This is because the longer the delay between the behavior and the reinforcement, the weaker the association between them becomes, reducing the effectiveness of reinforcement. 185) Lila doesn’t like her psychology class because the instructor uses unannounced pop exams to test the class. As a result, she never knows when she will be tested. Her instructor is testing her on a __________ schedule. A) fixed-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-ratio D) variable-interval Answer: D Rationale: Lila's instructor is testing her on a variable-interval schedule, where reinforcements (exams) occur unpredictably after varying amounts of time have passed. 186) Sandy’s favorite activity is to go to Las Vegas and play the slot machines. Her gambling behavior is being reinforced on a __________ schedule. A) fixed-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-ratio D) variable-interval Answer: C Rationale: Sandy's gambling behavior is reinforced on a variable-ratio schedule, where reinforcements (winning) occur unpredictably after an unpredictable number of responses (pulling the lever). 187) An animal is placed in a box with a bar and also a wire floor that can deliver a mild shock. The experimenter first sounds a buzzer, then a few seconds later turns on the shock. Pressing the bar after the buzzer sounds but before the shock is delivered will prevent the shock from occurring. This is an example of __________ . A) avoidance training B) modeling C) classical conditioning D) punishment learning Answer: A Rationale: This scenario describes avoidance training, where an organism learns to engage in a behavior (pressing the bar) to prevent an aversive stimulus (shock) from occurring after a warning cue (buzzer). 188) On a fixed-ratio schedule, reinforcement is given _________ . A) for the first correct response after randomly varying amounts of time have passed B) for the next correct response after a fixed number of responses have been made C) for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed D) for the next correct response after a varying number of responses have been made Answer: B Rationale: On a fixed-ratio schedule, reinforcement is provided after a fixed number of responses have been made. This schedule typically leads to high rates of responding with a pause after reinforcement. 189) On a variable-ratio schedule, reinforcement is given ________. A) for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed B) for the first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed C) for the next correct response after a fixed number of responses have been made D) for the next correct response after a varying number of responses have been made Answer: D Rationale: On a variable-ratio schedule, reinforcement is provided after an unpredictable number of responses have been made. This schedule typically leads to high and steady rates of responding with no pause after reinforcement. 190) Anything that increases the likelihood that a behavior will occur more frequently is called a(n) __________ . A) aversive control B) punishment C) antecedent D) reinforcer Answer: D Rationale: A reinforcer is any stimulus or event that increases the likelihood or frequency of a behavior occurring again in the future. It can be positive (adding something desirable) or negative (removing something undesirable). 191) The schedule of reinforcement that yields the slowest increase in a behavior and the fastest extinction of the behavior when the schedule is stopped is ________. A) variable ratio B) continuous reinforcement C) partial reinforcement D) fixed interval Answer: B Rationale: Continuous reinforcement, where every instance of the desired behavior is reinforced, typically leads to a rapid increase in behavior but also results in faster extinction when reinforcement is stopped, as the behavior is no longer being consistently reinforced. 192) Five-year-old Tommy is helping get ready for a family reunion at Thanksgiving by polishing the good silverware. If his mother gives him a dime for each piece he polishes, what kind of reinforcement schedule is she using? A) fixed interval B) fixed ratio C) variable interval D) variable ratio Answer: B Rationale: In this scenario, Tommy's mother is using a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement is provided after a specific number of responses (in this case, after polishing each piece of silverware). 193) Linda sees a sign on a farmer’s fence that reads: HELP ME PICK STRAWBERRIES, FOR EVERY 5 QUARTS YOU PICK, KEEP ONE FOR YOURSELF. If Linda decides to pick strawberries for this farmer, she would be under a _______ schedule of reinforcement. A) fixed-interval B) fixed-ratio C) variable-interval D) variable-ratio Answer: B Rationale: Linda would be under a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement is provided after a specific number of responses (picking every five quarts of strawberries). 194) A very high rate of responding is produced by a _______ schedule of reinforcement. A) fixed-interval B) fixed-ratio C) variable-interval D) variable-ratio Answer: D Rationale: A variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement typically produces a very high rate of responding because the reinforcement is provided after an unpredictable number of responses, leading to persistent behavior. 195) The only vending machine in your dorm is notorious for delivering its merchandise only occasionally when people put money in it. This is most similar to a _______ schedule of reinforcement. A) fixed-interval B) fixed-ratio C) variable-interval D) variable-ratio Answer: D Rationale: This scenario is most similar to a variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement (getting a snack from the vending machine) occurs unpredictably after an unpredictable number of responses (putting money in the machine). 196) Your professor has informed you at the beginning of the term that you will have eight tests—but they will all be unannounced. This is most similar to a _______ reinforcement schedule. A) fixed-interval B) fixed-ratio C) variable-interval D) variable-ratio Answer: C Rationale: The unannounced tests resemble a variable-interval schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement (taking a test) occurs unpredictably after varying amounts of time (the interval between tests). 197) Gretta spends a lot of time at the race track betting on ponies, and occasionally she wins. The frequency of her betting is controlled by which of the following? A) fixed-ratio schedules B) a continuous reinforcement schedule C) a partial schedule of reinforcement D) luck Answer: C Rationale: Gretta's betting behavior being occasionally reinforced by winning resembles a partial schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement is provided intermittently rather than after every response. 198) An infant who is fed every four hours is on a schedule that is SIMILAR to which of the following? A) fixed ratio B) variable ratio C) fixed interval D) variable interval Answer: C Rationale: The infant being fed every four hours is on a schedule similar to a fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement (feeding) occurs after a fixed amount of time has passed. 199) A person who receives a monthly salary is on a: A) continuous reinforcement schedule. B) fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement. C) fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement. D) variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement. Answer: C Rationale: A person who receives a monthly salary is on a fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement because the salary is provided at fixed intervals (monthly). 200) On a fixed-ratio schedule, reinforcement is given ________. A) for correct responses after randomly varying amounts of time have passed B) after a specific number of responses are given C) for the first correct response after a specific amount of time has passed D) after a randomly varying number of responses are given Answer: B Rationale: On a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement, reinforcement is provided after a specific number of responses have been made. 201) On a variable-ratio schedule, reinforcement is given _______. A) for the first correct response after a specific amount of time has passed B) for correct responses after randomly varying amounts of time have passed C) after a specific number of responses are given D) after a randomly varying number of responses are given Answer: D Rationale: On a variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement, reinforcement is provided after an unpredictable number of responses have been made. This schedule typically leads to high and steady rates of responding with no pause after reinforcement. 202) On a variable-interval schedule, reinforcement is given _______. A) for the first correct response after a specific amount of time has passed B) for correct responses after randomly varying amounts of time have passed C) after a specific number of responses are given D) after a randomly varying number of responses are given Answer: B Rationale: On a variable-interval schedule of reinforcement, reinforcement is provided after an unpredictable amount of time has passed since the last reinforcement, but the average time remains constant. This schedule typically leads to a moderate and steady rate of responding. 203) Scott works at a job where he is paid a salary every two weeks. Scott is being reinforced on a _______ schedule. A) fixed-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-ratio D) variable-interval Answer: B Rationale: Scott's salary every two weeks follows a fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement is provided at fixed time intervals. 204) Sandy’s favorite activity is to go to Las Vegas and play the slot machines. Her gambling behavior is being reinforced on a _______ schedule. A) fixed-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-ratio D) variable-interval Answer: C Rationale: Sandy's gambling behavior, with reinforcement (winning) occurring unpredictably after an unpredictable number of responses (pulling the lever), is being reinforced on a variable-ratio schedule. 205) Perry works at a job where he is paid by commission. For every car Perry sells, he gets 10 percent of the profits. Perry is being reinforced on a _______ schedule. A) fixed-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-ratio D) variable-interval Answer: A Rationale: Perry's commission for every car sold follows a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement is provided after a specific number of responses (selling each car). 206) Abigail is trying to figure out how she can BEST use employee pay to shape her employees’ behavior. She is worried about consistent behavior, not speed. Therefore, she is interested in getting a slow but steady rate of response from her workers. According to reinforcement principles, she should probably use a ________ schedule. A) fixed-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-ratio D) variable-interval Answer: D Rationale: For consistent behavior with a slow but steady rate of response, Abigail should use a variable-interval schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement is provided after unpredictable time intervals, leading to a moderate and steady rate of responding. 207) Abigail is trying to figure out how she can BEST use employee pay to shape her employees’ behavior. She is interested in short-term productivity (speed), not consistency, long-term productivity, or employee turnover. According to reinforcement theory, she should probably use a _______ schedule. A) fixed-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-ratio D) variable-interval Answer: A Rationale: For short-term productivity (speed), Abigail should use a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement is provided after a specific number of responses, leading to a high rate of responding. 208) If Billy was praised every fourth time he collected rocks without throwing them, his behavior would be on which schedule of reinforcement? A) variable ratio B) fixed interval C) fixed ratio D) variable interval Answer: C Rationale: Billy being praised every fourth time he collects rocks without throwing them follows a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement, where reinforcement is provided after a specific number of responses (every fourth time). 209) Which schedule of reinforcement reinforces the first correct response after a constant interval of time has elapsed? A) fixed ratio B) variable ratio C) fixed interval D) variable interval Answer: C Rationale: A fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement reinforces the first correct response after a constant interval of time has passed since the last reinforcement. 210) An example of a behavior that is learned through operant conditioning is _____________. A) blinking in response to a flash of light B) studying in order to get a teacher’s approval C) sneezing in response to dust D) pulling one’s hand away from a flame Answer: B Rationale: Studying in order to get a teacher's approval is an example of operant conditioning, where the behavior (studying) is strengthened by its consequences (getting the teacher's approval). 211) Emitted, voluntary behaviour is BEST modified by _____________. A) operant conditioning B) trial and error C) extinction D) operant conditioning Answer: A Rationale: Operant conditioning is the process of learning through consequences of voluntary behaviors. It involves modifying behavior by manipulating its consequences, such as reinforcement or punishment, to increase or decrease the likelihood of the behavior occurring again. 212) Shaping is achieved through: A) discrimination training. B) generalization. C) higher-order conditioning. D) successive approximations. Answer: D Rationale: Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of the desired behavior until the target behavior is achieved. It is accomplished by reinforcing behaviors that are closer and closer to the desired behavior. 213) To teach a tiger to jump through a flaming hoop, the tiger is first reinforced for jumping up on a certain pedestal, then for leaping from that pedestal to another. Next, the tiger has to jump through a hoop between the pedestals to get the reward. Finally, the hoop is set afire and the tiger must jump through it to get the reward. This is an example of __________ . A) modelling B) shaping C) negative reinforcement D) secondary learning Answer: B Rationale: This scenario describes shaping, as the desired behavior (jumping through a flaming hoop) is achieved through successive approximations, where the tiger is reinforced for behaviors that gradually approximate the target behavior. 214) A young girl is just learning to dress herself. At first, the parents call her a “big girl” just for putting on her clothes “frontwards,” even if they are not buttoned. Then, they call her a “big girl” if she tries to button them, even if the buttons are not in the right holes. Then, they call her a “big girl” only if she buttons them correctly. They have been using: A) discrimination. B) generalization. C) higher-order conditioning. D) successive approximation. Answer: D Rationale: The parents are using successive approximation, also known as shaping, by reinforcing behaviors that are increasingly closer to the desired behavior (dressing herself correctly) until the target behavior is achieved. 215) Operant conditioning assumes that: A) events that follow behavior affect whether the behavior is repeated in the future. B) one’s mental processes (e.g., memory and perception) mediate what behaviors one does in a situation. C) voluntary behaviors are reflexive. D) one learns by watching others’ behavior. Answer: A Rationale: Operant conditioning assumes that the consequences of behavior affect whether the behavior is repeated in the future. It focuses on how voluntary behaviors are influenced by their consequences. 216) Peggy wanted to teach her dog how to roll over. She tried giving him instructions, but it didn’t work. She tried waiting for him to roll over so she could reinforce the behavior, but she had to go to bed before the dog rolled. Finally, she began reinforcing the dog when it made behaviors that more closely resembled rolling over. At last, using _______, she was able to teach the dog to do the trick. A) shaping B) positive reinforcement C) positive reinforcers D) secondary reinforcers Answer: A Rationale: Peggy was able to teach her dog to roll over by using shaping, which involves reinforcing successive approximations of the desired behavior until the target behavior is achieved. 217) Reinforcing behaviors that more closely resemble a final, terminal behavior is called: A) positive reinforcement. B) shaping. C) positive reinforcers. D) secondary reinforcers. Answer: B Rationale: Shaping is the process of reinforcing behaviors that successively approximate the desired behavior until the terminal behavior is achieved. It involves reinforcing closer and closer approximations of the target behavior. 218) A procedure used to teach a whole behavior by first training its parts is called: A) higher-order conditioning. B) shaping. C) modeling. D) response generalization. Answer: B Rationale: Shaping is a procedure used to teach a whole behavior by reinforcing successive approximations or steps toward the desired behavior, gradually shaping the behavior until the target behavior is achieved. 219) Changing behavior through the reinforcement of partial responses is called _______. A) modeling B) shaping C) negative reinforcement D) classical conditioning Answer: B Rationale: Shaping is the process of changing behavior through the reinforcement of successive approximations or partial responses toward the desired behavior until the target behavior is achieved. 220) Taste aversions seem to be specific examples of what type of learning? A) classical conditioning B) insight learning C) vicarious learning D) operant conditioning Answer: A Rationale: Taste aversions are specific examples of classical conditioning, where an association is formed between a specific taste (such as food) and an aversive consequence (such as nausea or sickness). 221) Which type of learning occurs when we observe other people act? A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning C) insight learning D) observational learning Answer: D Rationale: Observational learning, also known as social learning or modeling, occurs when individuals learn by observing the behaviors of others. This type of learning involves paying attention to the actions and outcomes of those actions performed by others, which can then influence one's own behavior. It's not directly reliant on reinforcement or punishment, as in operant conditioning, or on the association of stimuli, as in classical conditioning. 222) In Bandura’s classic (1965) study of children exposed to a film of an adult hitting a Bobo doll, __________ . A) children who saw the model punished learned to be more aggressive than children who saw the model rewarded B) children who saw the model rewarded learned to be more aggressive than children who saw the model punished C) children who saw the model punished performed more aggressively in a free play situation than children who saw the model rewarded D) children who saw the model rewarded performed more aggressively in a free play situation than children who saw the model punished Answer: D Rationale: In Bandura's study, children who witnessed the model being rewarded for aggressive behavior were more likely to imitate that behavior when given the opportunity to interact with the Bobo doll. This demonstrated that observation of rewarded behavior can lead to increased likelihood of performing similar actions, as opposed to observing punished behavior. 223) Learning that depends on mental processes that are not able to be observed directly is called _________ learning. A) autonomic B) primary C) secondary D) cognitive Answer: D Rationale: Cognitive learning involves mental processes such as perception, memory, problem-solving, and reasoning. Unlike observable behaviors in operant or classical conditioning, cognitive processes are not directly observable, making cognitive learning reliant on internal mental mechanisms. 224) The mental image of an area, such as a maze or the floor plan of a building, is called _____________. A) a Gestalt B) insight C) a Skinner response D) a cognitive map Answer: D Rationale: A cognitive map refers to the mental representation or image of spatial relationships within an environment, allowing individuals to navigate and interact with that environment. It's not associated with specific responses (Skinner response) or sudden realizations (insight), but rather with the internalized understanding of spatial layouts. 225) Cognitive maps are: A) observable mental events. B) consistent with conditioning theories. C) learned without reinforcement. D) inconsistent with insightful problem solving. Answer: C Rationale: Cognitive maps are learned without direct reinforcement, unlike behaviors in operant conditioning. They represent an internalized understanding of spatial relationships and do not necessarily require overt rewards or punishments to be formed. They are more aligned with cognitive processes and are not directly tied to conditioning theories. Test Bank for Psychology and Life Richard J. Gerrig, Philip G. Zimbardo, Serge Desmarais, Tammy Ivanco 9780205037117, 9780205859139