CH-15 Psychological Disorders – Psychology and Life : Exam Guide

Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders 1) A man describes himself as someone who exercises poor judgement and inevitably hinders his own goal-seeking behaviour. He also tends to interfere with the goals of family members. Which criterion of abnormality does this type of behaviour meet? A) unpredictability. B) irrationality. C) maladaptiveness. D) observer discomfort. Answer: C Rationale: This man is someone who hinders his own and others' goals, and does not contribute to his own well-being or the well-being of society. Maladaptiveness is one of the criteria that helps us decide if someone is abnormal or has a psychological disorder. 2) A person has hallucinations, "hearing" things that no one else can hear. With respect to this behaviour, which criterion of abnormality has been met? A) personal distress. B) irrationality.C) violation of moral and ideal standards. D) maladaptiveness. Answer: B Rationale: This person acts or talks in ways that are incomprehensible to others or in ways that are irrational. 3) Which statement about the criteria used to label behaviour as "abnormal" is accurate? A) none of the criteria are necessary conditions shared by all cases of abnormality. B) only the criterion of "statistical rarity" is common to all cases of abnormal behaviour. C) only the criterion of "personal distress or disabled functioning" is a necessary condition shared by all cases of abnormality. D) the criterion of "maladaptiveness" is a necessary condition, but not a sufficient condition shared by all cases of abnormality. Answer: A Rationale: No single criterion from the list of seven criteria must be present in all cases of abnormality, and no single criterion is sufficient to differentiate abnormal from normal behaviour. 4) Which statement about mental disorders is generally true? A) The term, ‘mental disorder’ is considered invalid by most of the scientific community. B) Normality and abnormality are separate and distinct categories. C) Mental disorders can be understood in terms of neurotransmitter function. D) Mental disorders are conditions that vary on a continuum from mental health to mental illness. Answer: D Rationale: The difference between normal and abnormal is a matter of degree rather than a matter of describing two different categories of behaviour. 5) Which statement supports Thomas Szasz’ view of mental illness? A) It is a myth and does not exist. B) It is best treated through biological interventions. C) It is caused by overwhelming stress in people's lives. D) It is a major social problem that must be addressed. Answer: A Rationale: Szasz argues that mental illness doesn’t exist and is a myth. The symptoms are merely medical labels that point to the social problem of deviant people violating social norms. 6) Why is it more difficult to make a psychological diagnosis than a medical one? A) Psychological diagnoses rely on interpretations of a person's action, whereas medical diagnoses rely on physical evidence. B) Those who make psychological diagnoses use a vast array of diagnostic tools that may or may not be complementary. C) Psychologists do not undergo the medical training that psychiatrists are required to undergo. D) The range of psychological illnesses is greater than that for medical illnesses. Answer: A Rationale: A psychological diagnosis is the label given to an abnormality by classifying the observed behaviour pattern into the appropriate diagnostic system. Biopsies, x-rays, and blood tests cannot be used to make this decision. Instead, the decision comes from interpretations of behaviours and decisions about whether the behaviours are evidence of a particular disorder. 7) In the latter part of the 18th century, Philippe Pinel became one of the first clinicians to use a classification system for psychological difficulties. Which concept is the foundation of this classification system? A) behaviours are less important than thoughts. B) thoughts are less important than behaviours. C) psychological problems are similar to physical illnesses. D) childhood experiences are the root cause of psychological problems. Answer: C Rationale: Pinel was one of the first clinicians to use the idea that people suffering from a psychological problem are sick, and as such, he developed a classification system for psychological difficulties. 8) What is the DSM-IV-TR? A) the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition, revised. B) the most recent version of the classification system proposed by Kraeplin. C) the most recent version of the ICD. D) the most recent classification of psychoses and psychoneuroses. Answer: A Rationale: The DSM-IV-TR is the current diagnostic and statistical manual of the American Psychological Association that classifies, defines, and describes mental disorders. 9) Talya is a clinician working in the field of psychological disorders in Canada. What would her primary reference tool most likely be? A) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. B) Psychological Diagnosis Reference Profiles. C) Classification and Listings of Psychiatric Maladies. D) International Classification of Diseases. Answer: A Rationale: The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders is the most widely accepted classification scheme of mental disorders used in Canada and the United States. 10) To reduce the diagnostic difficulties caused by variability in approaches to psychological disorders, what does the DSM-IV-TR emphasize? A) the treatment strategies that professionals should employ. B) the description of symptoms and courses of disorders. C) the etiological theories of various disorders. D) the ten most common categories of psychological disorders. Answer: B Rationale: It does not focus on etiology or treatment; the purely descriptive approach allows clinicians and researchers to use a common language to describe disorders. 11) What type of information does Axis III of the DSM-IV-TR incorporate? A) personality disorders. B) clinical disorders. C) general medical conditions. D) psychosocial problems. Answer: C Rationale: The DSM-IV-TR contains five axes, and Axis III incorporates information about general medical conditions, such as diabetes, that may be relevant to understanding and treating a mental disorder. 12) What is the definition of comorbidity? A) a disorder that is characterized by a fascination with death. B) the existence of more than one disorder in a person at the same time. C) a form of multiple personality disorder that is sometimes confused with schizophrenia. D) a disorder that is characterized by excessive, deep-sleep patterns. Answer: B Rationale: It has been found that 45 percent of people who experienced one disorder within a year had actually experienced two or more at the same time. Researchers are studying the patterns of comorbidity of different psychological disorders. 13) What were neurotic disorders, or neuroses, originally conceived to be? A) relatively common psychological problems. B) extremely rare psychological problems. C) characterized by brain abnormalities. D) accompanied by irrational thinking and violation of basic norms. Answer: A Rationale: Neurotic people did not have brain abnormalities or exhibit grossly irrational thinking, and they did not violate basic social norms. The neurotic person was distressed and had inadequate coping skills. 14) A lawyer is presenting an insanity case to the jury and in his argument, he states that the DSM-IV-TR defines insanity as a mental disorder with a genetic basis. What makes this lawyer’s statement questionable? A) Insanity is not defined in the DSM-IV-TR. B) Insanity is defined as behaviour that is agreed upon by professionals to be psychotic. C) Insanity is defined as behaviour that is rare, maladaptive, injurious to the self or others, and culturally unacceptable. D) Insanity has many different definitions, each keyed to a specific psychopathological disorder. Answer: A Rationale: There is no accepted clinical definition of insanity; it is a term used in the legal system and in popular culture. 15) A defendant on trial says that although he knows he pulled the trigger that killed the victim, he did not know that what he was doing was wrong. Under the guidelines of the M'Naghten rule, could the man claim insanity? A) Yes, because he did not know he was doing something wrong. B) Yes, because he experienced a psychotic break. C) No, because he knew that he pulled the trigger. D) No, because he should have been able to suppress his actions. Answer: A Rationale: The M'Naghten rule states that an individual did not "know the nature and quality of the act he was doing; or, if he did know it, that he did not know he was doing what was wrong." 16) A therapist believes that his client's depression is caused by her inability to express anger and her tendency to restrain her feelings. With respect to the goal of classification of psychological disorders, in what area are the therapist's observations most beneficial? A) in understanding the etiology. B) in increasing the validity of the diagnosis. C) in suggesting the treatment plan. D) in developing a common shorthand language. Answer: A Rationale: Etiology refers to factors that cause or contribute to the development of medical or psychological problems. 17) "There is no question that what we call psychopathology is caused by unconscious conflicts that trigger anxiety and malfunctioning." Which approach to psychopathology is consistent with this view? A) biological B) psychodynamic C) behavioural D) sociocultural Answer: B Rationale: According to psychodynamic theory, the causes of psychopathology are internal psychological factors, which are often rooted in unconscious conflicts. 18) According to Freud, what is the primary cause of psychological disorders? A) early childhood experiences. B) social and cultural norms. C) interpersonal relationships. D) negative self-attributions. Answer: A Rationale: In the psychodynamic model, early childhood experiences shape both normal and abnormal behaviours. On this view, many of our behaviours are motivated by drives, wishes, and impulses of which we are unaware. 19) When Christie speaks in front of a group, she becomes anxious and nauseated. When asked why she feels this way, she says that she is afraid to embarrass herself in front of others. Which psychological perspective best explains Christie’s response? A) psychodynamic B) psychopathological C) cognitive D) sociocultural Answer: C Rationale: From a cognitive perspective, what matters in the development of psychological problems is the way individuals perceive themselves and their interactions with others and the environment. Interpretation of an event in terms of personal or situational factors (“I will embarrass myself.”) is a cognitive variable that may affect responses in a particular situation (speaking in front of a group). 20) Which view of psychopathology places the most emphasis on the role of the context or environment in which someone lives as an important factor in both the diagnosis and etiology of abnormal behaviour? A) sociocultural B) cognitive C) biological D) psychodynamic Answer: A Rationale: Behaviours are interpreted in different ways in different cultures. The threshold at which a behaviour will cause problems for an individual depends, in part, on how that behaviour is viewed by the culture within which he or she lives. 21) Genetic predispositions make an individual vulnerable to a psychological disorder, but psychological stress is necessary for the disorder to develop fully. Which term best characterizes this view? A) psychodynamic. B) cognitive. C) interactionist. D) behavioural. Answer: C Rationale: Psychopathology is a complex interaction of genetics that affect neurotransmitter or hormone levels along with psychological and social stressors or learned behaviours. 22) With respect to the prevalence of symptoms of the various anxiety disorders in the adult population, what do the statistics reveal? A) anxiety disorders are extremely rare and characteristic symptoms are experienced by few individuals. B) about 12% of the population has experienced symptoms characteristic of the various anxiety disorders within a single year. C) more than 50% of the all adults will experience symptoms of anxiety disorders in their lifetime. D) most individuals experience severe symptoms characteristic of anxiety disorders at one point in their lifetime. Answer: B Rationale: It is estimated that 12.6% of the Canadian adult population has experienced symptoms characteristic of the various anxiety disorders within a single year. 23) For almost a year, Ted has felt worried, irritable, and uneasy, although he does not feel threatened by anything specific. In addition, his muscles seem tense, he feels fatigued, and he is having problems sleeping. Which diagnosis is most appropriate? A) panic disorder B) generalized anxiety disorder C) phobic disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: B Rationale: The way anxiety is expressed varies with the individual, but he/she must also suffer from three symptoms such as the ones described to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. About 1.1 percent of Canadian adults have experienced the disorder. 24) A woman did not know why, but suddenly she was gripped by a feeling of intense terror. Her heart started to race and she felt as though she could not breathe. She felt like she was going to die. Which term best characterizes this experience? A) phobia. B) obsession. C) compulsion. D) panic attack. Answer: D Rationale: Panic attacks are unexpected because nothing specific or concrete brings them about. Panic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences recurrent attacks in addition to the increasing fear of having more attacks. 25) What is the major goal of research on disorders that are already included in the DSM or are being considered for inclusion in the DSM? A) to find cures for the disorders. B) to provide the most valid diagnoses. C) to prevent the occurrence of the disorders. D) to decrease the number of disorders included in the DSM. Answer: B Rationale: The most valid diagnoses allow for the provision of appropriate treatments and ultimately for minimization of people’s distress. For each disorder included in the DSM, the process starts with close observation by therapists and researchers of people’s symptoms and how the symptoms cluster together. Even with well-established disorders, new data is collected with the goal of increasing the reliability and validity of the classification system. 26) What do the research findings suggest about panic disorder? A) 0.7 percent of Canadian adults have experienced panic disorder in a single year. B) 17.4 percent of Canadian adults have experienced panic disorder in a single year. C) 29.5 percent of Canadian adults have experienced panic disorder in a single year. D) the majority of Canadian adults have experienced a form of panic disorder at some point in their lives. Answer: A Rationale: It is estimated that 0.7% of Canadian adults experienced panic disorder in a single year. 27) A patient reports that her first panic attack was frightening and embarrassing. She was in the mall and people gathered around her. Over the next few months, the attacks started occurring more frequently, almost always in public places. Now she is afraid to leave the safety of her house. Which diagnosis is most appropriate? A) agoraphobia. B) schizophrenia. C) bipolar disorder. D) dissociative fugue. Answer: A Rationale: People with agoraphobia usually fear public places such as crowded malls, buses, or rooms— anywhere from which escape might be difficult and loss of control might be embarrassing. 28) How do phobias differ from fears? A) Phobias cause less distress. B) Phobic objects can be avoided. C) Phobias are less specific. D) Phobias are excessive and unreasonable. Answer: D Rationale: Phobias interfere with everyday activities because they are excessive and unreasonable. Fear is a rational and reasonable reaction to an identified external danger. 29) What are the two categories of phobias defined by the DSM-IV-TR? A) voluntary and involuntary. B) real and imagined. C) social and specific. D) global and natural. Answer: C Rationale: The DSM-IV-TR defines two categories of phobias: social phobias and specific phobias. 30) A student is so anxious about giving his speech in front of the class that he actually becomes nauseous and has to leave the classroom. Which diagnosis is most appropriate? A) agoraphobia. B) social phobia. C) specific phobia. D) situational phobia. Answer: B Rationale: The fear of being judged by others can be so strong that it impairs performance. 31) Before going to sleep, a man checks his alarm clock to make sure it is set. A short while later, he checks it again and turns off his light. Then he turns the light back on and checks his alarm again. This goes on repeatedly each night until he is so tired he falls asleep. Which type of psychological disorder is being characterized? A) personality disorder. B) dissociative disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) anxiety disorder. Answer: D Rationale: Some people with anxiety disorders are locked into specific patterns of thoughts and behaviours that form a condition called obsessive-compulsive disorder. 32) What do obsessions and compulsions involve, respectively? A) fears; phobias B) phobias; fears C) thoughts; actions D) actions; thoughts Answer: C Rationale: Obsessions are intrusive, unwanted, senseless, or repugnant thoughts; compulsions are repetitive acts performed to reduce anxiety through rituals of cleaning, counting, or checking. 33) Although she knows it does not make sense and she dreads having to do so, a woman must count to a million before she gets out of bed. This takes her most of the day. Which diagnosis best captures this behaviour? A) posttraumatic stress disorder. B) schizophrenia. C) a mood disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder. Answer: D Rationale: She is performing a ritual that she knows is excessive and irrational but is also compelling, one that allows her to avoid debilitating distress. 34) Some theorists have looked to our evolutionary past to understand certain types of psychological disorders. Which psychological disorder has been partially explained through the preparedness hypothesis? A) residual schizophrenia. B) bipolar disorder. C) phobic disorder. D) paranoid personality disorder. Answer: C Rationale: We may be born with a predisposition to fear whatever living things or objects have been related to sources of danger in our evolutionary past. 35) Which brain receptors function differently in individuals who suffer from panic disorder? A) serotonin B) norepinephrine C) GABA D) glutamate Answer: C Rationale: PET scans have revealed a difference in the function of GABA receptors between the brains of individuals who suffer from panic disorder and those of control individuals. MRI techniques have revealed widespread abnormalities in the brains of patients with OCD. They have greater cortical thickness in areas of the brain that normally allow people to inhibit some behaviours. 36) In a study that is described in the textbook, researchers used fMRI scans to compare patterns of brain activity in individuals who developed posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in response to traumatic experiences and in those who did not. What did the researchers discover? A) there were no differences between the brain activity of individuals who did and did not experience PTSD. B) individuals who did experience or did not experience PTSD were different only when recalling memories of traumatic events. C) individuals who did experience PTSD were different when recalling memories of sad, anxious, or traumatic events compared to individuals who did not experience PTSD. D) individuals who did experience or did not experience PTSD were different when recalling happy memories, but not traumatic memories. Answer: C Rationale: Traumatic experiences for individuals who developed PTSD led to broad disruption of the ways in which their brains responded to sad, anxious, or traumatic events. In people who did not develop PTSD, there was more activity in the areas of the brain that play a role in emotional processing of these memories. 37) While watching one of Shakespeare's plays, Rachel notices that Lady Macbeth seems to have an anxiety disorder. In one scene, Lady Macbeth repeatedly washes nonexistent blood off her hands. If Rachel were to adopt a psychodynamic explanation for Lady Macbeth’s behaviour, what might Rachel suggest? A) her parents consistently reinforced cleanliness in her childhood. B) she is suffering from a neurological disorder. C) her behaviour is a consequence of an evolutionary predisposition. D) her hand washing is a symbolic representation of an underlying conflict. Answer: D Rationale: By substituting a compulsion, she obtained some relief from a forbidden impulse. 38) Ian has a terrible fear of flying insects. How would a behavioural therapist explain the origins of Ian’s fear? A) His thought processes surrounding insects are maladaptive. B) He has unconscious conflicts that originated in his childhood. C) He has learned from a bad experience with bees. D) He has an excess of GABA. Answer: C Rationale: Phobias are maintained by the reduction of fear that occurs when the phobic object is avoided. 39) Milo has such a fear of flying insects that he refuses to go outdoors in the summer. When asked to explain Milo’s phobia, what would a behavioural psychologist most likely say? A) Milo is being reinforced for not going outdoors by a reduction in anxiety. B) Milo believes that flying insects are symbolic of freedom from dependency. C) Milo has a neurological disorder that is causing his symptoms. D) Milo has a misperception that flying insects are dangerous. Answer: A Rationale: Reinforcement results from the diminished fear that comes from staying inside and avoiding flying insects. 40) A psychologist with a cognitive orientation is counselling a person who is afraid of speaking in front of others. What is the psychologist most likely to focus upon? A) the experiences the person had in the past when speaking in front of others. B) the related electrical activity in certain parts of the brain. C) the self-defeating attitudes and perceptions that feed the anxiety. D) the type of medication that can be prescribed to reduce the level of anxiety. Answer: C Rationale: People with anxiety disorders often think of their own distress as a sign of disaster, which worsens anxiety and, in turn, confirms their fears. 41) In a study that is described in the textbook, the ability of participants to recognize anxiety-related words versus neutral words was measured. What do the results of this study suggest? A) people without a history of panic attacks can develop panic attacks when shown anxietyrelated words. B) people suffering from anxiety disorders focus their attention on stimuli that sustain their anxiety. C) people with high anxiety deny having seen words that have a high anxiety-related content. D) people’s thought processes are not systematically related to their levels of anxiety. Answer: B Rationale: People with panic disorder show much greater recognition of body-related words (e.g., "dizzy," "breathless"), when compared to healthy controls, in studies of the effects of cognitive biases that highlight threatening stimuli. 42) According to the DSM-IV-TR, what are the two major types of mood disorders? A) mania and sadness. B) depression and elation. C) major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. D) seasonal affective disorder and suicidal ideation. Answer: C Rationale: Two major categories of mood disorders are major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. 43) Which disorder is characterized as "the common cold of psychopathology"? A) generalized anxiety disorder B) phobic disorder C) depression D) panic disorder Answer: C Rationale: Depression has been characterized as the common cold of psychopathology because it occurs so frequently and because almost everyone has experienced elements of the full-scale disorder at some time in their life. 44) What has the research on depression indicated? A) men and women suffer from depression in equal numbers. B) depression accounts for the majority of all mental hospital admissions in Canada. C) depression is unlikely to reappear once the symptoms have resolved. D) most individuals who suffer from major depressive disorder receive professional help. Answer: B Rationale: Depression accounts for the majority of all mental hospital admissions in Canada. 45) Laurel has recently been diagnosed as suffering from periods of deep depression alternating with manic episodes. Which term best reflects this diagnosis? A) bipolar disorder. B) cyclothymia. C) dysthymia. D) major depressive disorder. Answer: A Rationale: Bipolar disorder is a mood disorder characterized by periods of depression alternating with periods of mania. 46) A man feels as though his life is like a rollercoaster. He goes through periods of severe depression that alternate with manic episodes. Which diagnosis is most appropriate? A) dissociative disorder. B) undifferentiated schizophrenia. C) panic disorder. D) bipolar disorder. Answer: D Rationale: Bipolar disorder occurs less frequently than depression. It is marked by cycles of mania alternating with periods of depression that vary in length and intensity from person to person. 47) According to recent research on the biology of mood disorders, which disorder is associated with increased levels of serotonin and norepinephrine? A) mania B) depression C) seasonal affective disorder D) suicidal thoughts Answer: A Rationale: Several types of research provide clues to the contribution of biology to mood disorders. The ability of different drugs to relieve manic and depressive symptoms provides evidence that neurotransmitter function helps explain the two extremes of bipolar disorder. 48) An individual who suffers from bipolar disorder is asked to name the colours in which words are printed while undergoing an fMRI scan. What type of activity would most likely be recorded in the caudal ventral prefrontal cortex (cVPFC)? A) elevated activity. B) depressed activity. C) differences in brain activity dependent on the words being presented. D) differences in brain activity dependent on the moods being experienced. Answer: D Rationale: Increased left cVPFC activity was seen in individuals with depressed mood, while reduced right cVPFC activity was seen in those who were experiencing elevated moods. Both groups were compared with those in balanced moods. 49) Two girls are identical twins and two boys are fraternal twins. If one girl and one boy are afflicted by a mood disorder, what can be expected of the remaining twins? A) there is a better chance that the other boy will have a mood disorder. B) there is a better chance that the other girl will have a mood disorder. C) there is an equal chance that the other boy and girl will have mood disorders. D) neither the other boy nor the other girl is likely to have a mood disorder. Answer: B Rationale: In one study, the likelihood that both twins were diagnosed with bipolar disorder was assessed. The correlation was 0.82 for monozygotic (identical) twins and only 0.07 for dizygotic (fraternal) twins. 50) A therapist believes that the cause of her client's depression is anger directed inwardly against himself. Which psychological perspective is most likely being characterized? A) biological B) psychodynamic C) behavioural D) cognitive Answer: B Rationale: People who are depressed are often self-critical. Freud believed that this was due to anger directed toward the self. He suggested that the anger was originally experienced in childhood when an important relationship did not meet the child's needs. 51) Which explanation for a client's lingering state of depression would most likely be given by a behavioural therapist? A) the individual has not had enough positive reinforcement and has become sad and withdrawn. B) the individual was especially dependent during childhood. C) the individual has a maladaptive explanatory style. D) the individual expresses self-criticism and guilt. Answer: A Rationale: At first, this sadness may be reinforced by attention and sympathy, but it quickly fades as friends grow tired of the negativity, eliminating yet another source of positive reinforcement. 52) Which psychological perspective suggests that holding the belief that one has little personal control over events contributes to depression? A) cognitive B) psychodynamic C) behavioural D) biological Answer: A Rationale: Two theories—the theory of cognitive sets and the explanatory style model—are central to the cognitive explanation of depression. 53) According to Aaron Beck, what is the primary cause of the "paralysis of will" that is prominent in depression? A) insufficient positive reinforcement. B) an accumulation of punishments. C) a negative view of the future. D) a loss or other major life change. Answer: C Rationale: If the future is believed to be bleak, especially by a person who characteristically anticipates negative outcomes, there is little likelihood that he/she will be motivated to pursue a goal. 54) What subject pool did Martin Seligman study when developing his "explanatory style" theory of depression? A) rats that were required to run complex mazes. B) dogs that were subjected to unavoidable shocks. C) pigeons that had to peck a light in order to receive food. D) individuals who had recently lost their spouses. Answer: B Rationale: The dogs developed what Seligman called "learned helplessness." This state causes difficulty with initiating action, showing emotion other than distress, and learning in new situations. In this state of helplessness, also ascribed to humans, there is an expectancy that nothing one can do will matter 55) When the dogs in Seligman and Maier’s study of learned helplessness appeared rigid, listless, and distressed, what type of deficits were being expressed? A) motivational B) emotional C) cognitive D) behavioural Answer: B Rationale: There are three deficits in learned helplessness—emotional, motivational, and cognitive. These states of helplessness lead to the expectancy that nothing one does will matter or make a difference. 56) Which statement about depressed individuals is consistent with the views of Seligman? A) They are more susceptible to stress in their lives. B) They are in a state of learned helplessness. C) They have low levels of the neurotransmitter, serotonin. D) They have low levels of the neurotransmitter, dopamine. Answer: B Rationale: Even when they are in a situation they could potentially change, people who are in the state of learned helplessness do not expect to be able to make a difference. They feel, believe, and act as if nothing they do will matter 57) The types of attributions that individuals make when explaining the causes of failure can make them vulnerable to depression. According to explanatory style theory, what types of attributions do these individuals typically make? A) internal, unstable, and specific B) external, unstable, and global C) external, stable, and specific D) internal, stable, and global Answer: D Rationale: Individuals who attribute failure to internal, stable, and global causes are vulnerable to depression. 58) Based on the relationship between explanatory style and depression, which statement would most likely be associated with depression? A) "I'll always be a failure because I can't do anything right." B) "This is the hardest course I have ever taken in my life." C) "The teacher gave me a bad grade because he doesn't like blondes." D) "Sure he did well, he spent the whole week studying." Answer: A Rationale: This is an internal, global, stable explanation for negative outcomes, which leaves no room for initiating change, expressing feelings other than distress, or learning new behaviours when failure occurs. 59) In a study that is described in the textbook, researchers recruited 15 participants who were currently experiencing depression and 45 control participants with no history of depression. Participants wore a device that allowed researchers to monitor eye movements. What was discovered when photographs representing different emotions were displayed? A) participants who were currently depressed spent more time looking at sad photos and less time looking at positive photos. B) participants who had recovered from depression had particular difficulty looking at sad photos, preferring the positive ones. C) participants who had no history of depression had particular difficulty looking at happy photos. D) participants who were currently depressed had particular difficulty looking at sad photos, preferring the positive ones. Answer: A Rationale: Participants who were depressed spent most of the time looking at sad photos and less time looking at positive photos. 60) According to a proposal by Susan Nolen-Hoeksema, how are women more likely to respond to sadness? A) by seeking the company of others. B) by thinking about their feelings. C) by eating foods high in carbohydrates. D) by engaging in physical activity. Answer: B Rationale: This model suggests that women have a more ruminative style, which increases their vulnerability to depression. 61) What does research on gender differences in depression suggest about the relationship between rumination and depression? A) It is stronger in adolescent girls than adolescent boys. B) It is a very weak one. C) It only exists in adolescent boys. D) It is slightly stronger in adolescent boys than in adolescent girls. Answer: A Rationale: For both boys and girls, the students who ruminated the most were the most likely to report the most symptoms of depression; however, this relationship was stronger for girls. 62) What did studies on suicide reveal? A) most depressed people commit suicide. B) suicide is the leading cause of death for individuals aged 15 to 24. C) gay and lesbian youths are at even higher risk for suicide than other adolescents. D) adolescent girls are more likely to succeed when attempting suicide than adolescent boys. Answer: C Rationale: Gay and lesbian youths are at a higher risk for suicide than heterosexual adolescents. 63) Marcus has a personality disorder. Based on this information alone, what can be assumed? A) the onset of the disorder occurred in middle age. B) he has one of two forms of the disorder, according to the DSM-IV-TR. C) the problem developed suddenly and could be classified as acute. D) his behaviour is inflexible and maladaptive. Answer: D Rationale: These chronic and rigid patterns of perceiving, thinking, or behaving can seriously impair social, personal, and occupational functioning. 64) Which psychological disorder is associated with the terms, "borderline," "antisocial," "histrionic," and "narcissistic"? A) anxiety B) personality C) mood D) dissociative Answer: B Rationale: There are ten types of personality disorders, organized in three categories, or clusters. Those listed here are in Cluster B, which describes erratic or dramatic patterns of behaviour, perceiving, or thinking. 65) A man has an exaggerated sense of self-importance and is preoccupied with the fantasy that he is going to run a major company some day. He does not have any friends, would never think to ask about anyone else, and seems to need constant admiration. Which personality disorder is being characterized? A) paranoid B) histrionic C) narcissistic D) antisocial Answer: C Rationale: A person with this personality disorder has a grandiose sense of self and a need for constant admiration, without empathy for others. Narcissistic personality disorder is part of Cluster B, characterized by erratic or dramatic behaviours. 66) Joe is well known at the police station. Although only in his twenties, Joe has been arrested many times for a variety of unlawful behaviours. He usually denies any involvement, but eventually says that his victims are losers and that their loss is his gain. Which diagnosis best captures Joe’s behaviour? A) conduct disorder B) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder C) antisocial personality disorder D) histrionic personality disorder Answer: C Rationale: This person does not respect the rights of others; his behaviour violates social norms in illegal and/or irresponsible ways. This disorder is a part of Cluster B, characterized by erratic or dramatic behaviours. 67) Researchers who have investigated depression have focused on long and short genes as well as the impact of negative life events. On the basis of research findings, which individual has the greatest probability of experiencing an episode of major depression? A) One who has experienced three or more stressful life events. B) One who possesses one copy of the short version gene. C) One who has experienced three or more stressful life events and has two copies of the long version of the gene. D) One who has experienced three or more stressful life events and has two copies of the short version of the gene. Answer: D Rationale: In general, people who possessed two copies of the short version of the gene had an amplified impact of negative life events. 68) A study described in the textbook established an important relationship between genetic variations and life experiences in the etiology of depression. What did the results indicate? A) Genetic differences in combination with negative life events greatly increase the likelihood that individuals will experience depression. B) Life events alone increase the likelihood that individuals will experience depression. C) Genetic variations alone increase the likelihood that individuals will experience depression. D) There is a negative correlation between the number of negative life events experienced and the incidence of depression. Answer: A Rationale: Genotypes predispose people to respond differently to similar life events. In this study, more negative life events generally correlated with a greater likelihood of depression, but this likelihood was amplified for those who had one or two copies of a short version of a particular gene. 69) In a study that is described in the textbook, researchers attempted to determine if there was a relationship between parenting practices and antisocial personality traits. What did the results of the study indicate? A) improper parenting behaviours were directly responsible for antisocial personality traits. B) there was no relationship between parenting practices and antisocial personality traits. C) low levels of parental care were associated with high levels of antisocial personality traits. D) antisocial personality traits were associated with fathers who were overly protective. Answer: C Rationale: In this correlational study, researchers posed a range of questions to which the participants responded, including questions about parental caring. Responses indicated that participants who reported low levels of parental care had high levels of antisocial personality traits. Researchers pointed out that it is possible that parenting behaviours brought about antisocial personality traits, but it is also possible that the children whose behaviour was influenced by antisocial traits negatively affected the way their parents behaved toward them. 70) Which disorder is characterized by paralysis or blindness without a medical cause? A) conversion disorder. B) hypochondriasis. C) Munchuasen Syndrome. D) dissociative amnesia. Answer: A Rationale: People with conversion disorder experience an unexplainable loss of sensory or motor function after having experienced psychological stressors. 71) Gloria has been diagnosed with a dissociative disorder. Which description would best characterize Gloria? A) She has a grandiose sense of self-importance. B) She has a disturbance in her identity and memory. C) She experiences bouts of severe depression. D) She feels anxious or worried most of the time. Answer: B Rationale: In dissociated states, people do not experience the consistency of self and the continuity of identity that are essential to their feelings of self-control. 72) An adult patient who was repeatedly molested during childhood has no recollection of the incidents. Which diagnosis best characterizes this scenario? A) a mood disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) dissociative amnesia. D) schizophrenia. Answer: C Rationale: This is the inability to remember important personal experiences, a process that results from psychological factors without organic causes. 73) Which disorder is popularly known as "split personality" and was referred to as "multiple personality disorder" in early editions of the DSM? A) dissociative amnesia B) dissociative fugue C) schizophrenia D) dissociative identity disorder Answer: D Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder is when two or more distinct personalities exist within the same individual. 74) According to research, what is a common cause of dissociative disorders? A) substance abuse at an early age. B) psychosexual conflict. C) physical abuse during childhood. D) social isolation and introversion. Answer: C Rationale: Increasing levels of emotional, physical, and sexual abuse are accompanied by higher levels of dissociative symptoms. 75) What is a controversial cause of dissociative symptoms? A) Symptoms appear as a result of therapist influence. B) Symptoms appear because they are reinforced. C) Symptoms appear as a result of parental neglect. D) Symptoms appear as a result of severe substance abuse during childhood. Answer: A Rationale: Increasing levels of emotional, physical, and sexual abuse are accompanied by higher levels of dissociative symptoms. No solid data exist about the prevalence of DID. However, it is likely that though some cases are genuine, some are the result of therapist influence. 76) Which form of psychopathology is characterized by illogical thinking, distorted perrceptions, and blunted emotions? A) schizophrenia B) dissociative identity disorder C) conversion disorder D) borderline personality disorder Answer: A Rationale: Approximately 1% of Canadian adults have experienced the symptoms of schizophrenia. When someone experiences schizophrenia, thinking becomes illogical, hallucinations often occur, delusions are common, language may become incoherent, emotions may be flat, and psychomotor behaviour may be disorganized. Deteriorated functioning is likely in work and interpersonal relationships as the person with schizophrenia becomes emotionally detached and socially withdrawn. 77) At times, a patient with schizophrenia imagines herself to be the devil. Which term best characterizes this phenomenon? A) illusion B) misperception C) hallucination D) delusion Answer: D Rationale: Delusions are false beliefs maintained despite evidence to the contrary. 78) During acute or active phases of schizophrenia, which positive symptom is prominent? A) lack of speech B) social withdrawal C) disorganized behaviour D) flattened emotions Answer: C Rationale: During the acute or active phases of schizophrenia, the positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions, incoherence, and disorganized behaviour) are prominent. 79) A friend who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia has recently isolated himself from others and avoids most social contact. In addition, his face seems to be rigid, rarely showing any emotion. Which term best characterizes this category of symptoms? A) acute B) active C) positive D) negative Answer: D Rationale: Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include decreased feelings of pleasure, loss of physical motivation, increased social withdrawal, and flattened emotions. Some people with schizophrenia have repeated acute phases with shorter periods of negative symptoms, while others have occasional acute phases with longer periods of negative symptoms. 80) Jack spends most of his time frozen in a bizarre posture. Occasionally he refuses to do what is requested of him and sometimes he waves his arms in a windmill fashion. Which type of schizophrenia is being described? A) paranoid B) catatonic C) undifferentiated D) disorganized Answer: B Rationale: The major symptom of this category is disruption of motor function. Often little to no movement or reaction to the environment is seen, while at other times purposeless excessive activity is exhibited 81) Which type of schizophrenia is characterized by delusions of persecution, grandeur, or jealousy? A) paranoid B) catatonic C) residual D) undifferentiated Answer: A Rationale: Behaviour is likely to be intense and somewhat formal. Delusions are complex and are systematically organized around particular themes such as being greatly important, being plotted against, or being convinced that one’s spouse is unfaithful. 82) Although a woman has suffered from schizophrenia in the past, she currently seems to be free of most of the severe symptoms, although she still suffers from occasional minor symptoms. Which type of schizophrenia is being characterized? A) paranoid B) undifferentiated C) disorganized D) residual Answer: D Rationale: A diagnosis of residual schizophrenia may indicate that the disorder is entering remission or becoming dormant, although this is not always the case. There may remain minor positive or negative symptoms. 83) When researcher Irving Gottesman pooled data from many studies on schizophrenia, what did he discover? A) genetics had very little promise as a possible causal factor in schizophrenia. B) if both parents suffered from schizophrenia, the probability that their offspring will have the illness was almost 100 percent. C) the probability that identical twins will both have schizophrenia is about three times greater than the probability for fraternal twins. D) although there is a genetic basis to schizophrenia, the degree of genetic relatedness is not correlated with the degree of risk of suffering from the illness. Answer: C Rationale: The probability that both monozygotic twins will have schizophrenia is about three times greater than the probability that both dizygotic twins will have schizophrenia. 84) Based on the research into genetic factors, what can be concluded about the risk of having schizophrenia? A) The risk is unrelated to the presence of schizophrenia in family members. B) The risk is greatest among individuals when a fraternal twin has suffered from the disorder. C) The risk is greatest among individuals when both parents have suffered from the disorder. D) The risk is greatest when the individual has been exposed to toxic substances in utero. Answer: C Rationale: When both parents have suffered from schizophrenia, there is a 46% chance that their children will also develop schizophrenia. 85) A study conducted in European populations between 1920 and 1987 shows the highest lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia in what group of people? A) monozygotic twins when one twin has schizophrenia B) children of parents with schizophrenia C) dizygotic twins when one twin has schizophrenia D) siblings who are not twins when one sibling has schizophrenia Answer: A Rationale: The risk for monozygotic twins is nearly 50%. In other words, if one twin is diagnosed with schizophrenia, there is an almost 50% chance that the other will also be diagnosed. Irving Gottesman pooled data from 40 studies and arranged the data according to degree of genetic relatedness, which correlates highly with degree of risk. 86) Although a person may be at risk genetically for schizophrenia because it runs in his or her family, the person may not develop the illness unless environmental stress is high enough. Which term best captures this phenomenon? A) comorbidity. B) heritability. C) evoultionary perspective. D) the diathesis-stress hypothesis. Answer: D Rationale: Genetic factors put an individual at risk for developing schizophrenia, but for the disorder to manifest, environmental factors play a role. One study demonstrated that the more trauma individuals with genetic vulnerability had experienced, the more likely they were to develop a schizophrenic disorder. 87) Which statement most accurately represents our understanding of the relationship between family factors and schizophrenia? A) Deviant family patterns are a cause of schizophrenia. B) Deviant family patterns are a reaction to an individual's developing symptoms of schizophrenia. C) Deviant family patterns are both a cause of and a reaction to symptoms of schizophrenia. D) Family factors play an important role in the functioning of an individual after the symptoms of schizophrenia first appear. Answer: D Rationale: Family factors affect whether an individual with schizophrenia will relapse. If parents are able to reduce criticism, hostility, and intrusiveness on the part of the family unit toward the person with schizophrenia, recurrence of acute symptoms and rehospitalization are less likely. 88) Tray is a 12 year old who has begun to exhibit the first symptoms of schizophrenia. Based on prospective studies of schizophrenia, how should the parents first respond? A) Arrange for day programming geared toward children with schizophrenia. B) Reduce Tray’s household responsibilities. C) Organize a "family meeting" in which emotions can be freely expressed. D) Reduce the criticism and hostility within the household. Answer: D Rationale: The family members will benefit from learning to change these aspects of interaction with the child, and the child will have a better chance to function well within the family 89) The consequences of being labeled as suffering from a mental illness are real. As outlined in the textbook, what were the results of the study conducted on 84 men who had been hospitalized for mental illness? A) 85 percent of the men had lost their job because of their hospitalization. B) 10 percent of the men reported having been denied a room or apartment. C) all of the men reported incidents of rejection. D) only after a year-long course of treatment that resulted in improved functioning did the perception of stigma disappear. Answer: B Rationale: Six percent of men reported having lost a job because of their hospitalization, 10 percent reported having been denied an apartment or room, 37 percent reported being avoided by others, and 45 percent reported that others had used their history of mental illness to hurt their feelings. 90) Julian had been diagnosed with a mental illness. He feels embarrassed and ashamed to let others know. When he does confide in some of his friends, some ridicule him and others stop being his friend. Which phenomenon is being described? A) negative explanatory style. B) stigma. C) learned helplessness. D) the diathesis-stress hypothesis. Answer: B Rationale: Stigma is a set of negative attitudes about a person that sets him/her apart as unacceptable. It can be as devastating to the patient as the mental illness itself. 91) In a study that is described in the textbook, individual male participants within interacting pairs were led to believe the other thought he was either a mental patient or a hospital medical patient. What did the resulting self-fulfilling prophecies illustrate? A) the effect of poor education on stigmatization. B) the effect of psychopathological functioning. C) the effect of the etiology of psychological disorders. D) the effect of expectations of rejection. Answer: D Rationale: People who think that others have attached the label "mentally ill" to them may interact less cooperatively, more anxiously, or in ways that create rejection as a result of self-fulfilling prophecy. 92) Thomas Szasz was responsible for creating the first truly comprehensive classification system of psychological disorders. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Thomas Szasz was a critic of the concept of mental illness and the psychiatric classification system. He argued that mental illnesses were actually "problems in living" and criticized the medical model of mental illness. While he made significant contributions to the field of psychiatry, he did not create a comprehensive classification system of psychological disorders. 93) In 1973, the American Psychiatric Association voted to maintain the distinction between "neurotic" and "psychotic" disorders in the DSM-III. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: In 1973, the American Psychiatric Association actually voted to eliminate the terms "neurotic" and "psychotic" from the DSM-III due to their lack of precision and scientific validity. This marked a significant change in psychiatric classification, moving towards a more descriptive and atheoretical approach. 94) There is no accepted clinical definition of insanity. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: The term "insanity" is a legal rather than clinical concept and lacks a universally accepted clinical definition. In clinical psychology and psychiatry, diagnoses are made based on specific criteria outlined in diagnostic manuals such as the DSM, rather than using the term "insanity." 95) Etiology refers to the factors that cause or contribute to the development of psychological and medical problems. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases or disorders. In psychology and medicine, it involves identifying the various factors, such as biological, psychological, social, and environmental, that contribute to the development of psychological and medical problems. 96) Agoraphobia is an extreme fear of water, to the degree that it interferes with normal adaptive functioning. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Agoraphobia is actually characterized by an extreme fear or avoidance of situations where escape might be difficult or help might not be available in the event of panic symptoms. It is not specifically related to water. 97) People may develop posttraumatic stress disorder when they have witnessed others being victimized, even when they have not been direct victims themselves. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Witnessing traumatic events happening to others, known as secondary traumatization, can lead to the development of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in some individuals. This is recognized in the diagnostic criteria for PTSD, which includes exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence, either directly or indirectly. 98) Depression, or depression alternating with mania, is classified as a somatoform disorder. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Depression, particularly when alternating with periods of mania, is not classified as a somatoform disorder. It is categorized as a mood disorder, specifically bipolar disorder if it involves alternating periods of depression and mania, or major depressive disorder if it only involves depressive episodes. 99) In Canada, depression accounts for the majority of all mental hospital admissions. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Depression is one of the leading causes of disability worldwide and is associated with significant impairment in functioning. In many countries, including Canada, depression is a common reason for seeking mental health treatment, and therefore, it can account for a significant portion of mental hospital admissions. 100) Bipolar disorder is characterized by alternating periods of depression and mania. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Bipolar disorder is a mood disorder characterized by episodes of depression alternating with periods of mania or hypomania. These mood episodes are distinct from the person's usual mood and energy levels and can significantly impact their functioning. 101) Increased levels of serotonin and norepinephrine have been linked to depression; reduced levels of these neurotransmitters have been associated with mania. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: This statement is false. In depression, there is often a decrease in the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine, while in mania, there may be an increase in these neurotransmitters or alterations in their functioning. Specifically, increased levels of norepinephrine and dopamine are associated with mania, not depression. 102) Aaron Beck has argued that depressed people have three types of negative cognitions, which he calls the cognitive triad of depression: negative views of themselves, of ongoing experiences, and of the future. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Aaron Beck, a prominent cognitive psychologist, proposed the cognitive triad of depression, which includes negative views of oneself, the world, and the future. This theory suggests that individuals with depression tend to have negative automatic thoughts related to these three domains, contributing to their depressive symptoms. 103) Explanatory style theory suggests that individuals who attribute failure to external, unstable, and specific causes are most vulnerable to depression. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Explanatory style theory, proposed by Martin Seligman, actually suggests that individuals who attribute negative events to internal, stable, and global causes are more vulnerable to depression. This pessimistic explanatory style predisposes individuals to feelings of helplessness and hopelessness, which are characteristic of depression. 104) Research demonstrates that people with major depressive disorder are drawn to sad information in the world. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Research has shown that individuals with major depressive disorder (MDD) tend to selectively attend to and recall negative or sad information, a phenomenon known as cognitive bias. This bias towards sad information may contribute to the maintenance and exacerbation of depressive symptoms. 105) According to Susan Nolen-Hoeksema, when women experience sadness, they attempt to distract themselves from depressed feelings, whereas when men experience sadness, they tend to think about the possible causes and implications of their feelings. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Susan Nolen-Hoeksema proposed the "ruminative response style" theory, which suggests that both men and women tend to ruminate when experiencing sadness. Ruminative response style involves repetitively focusing on the causes and consequences of one's negative emotions. This theory suggests that rumination may contribute to the development and maintenance of depression in both genders. 106) A person has shown a longstanding pattern of irresponsible or unlawful behavior that violates social norms. If this individual is diagnosed with a personality disorder, it is most likely to be paranoid personality disorder. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The description provided aligns more closely with antisocial personality disorder rather than paranoid personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pattern of irresponsible or unlawful behavior, disregard for the rights of others, and a lack of empathy. Paranoid personality disorder involves a pervasive distrust and suspicion of others, without necessarily involving irresponsible or unlawful behavior. 107) Despite what many people believe, dissociative identity disorder is NOT a form of schizophrenia. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder (DID) and schizophrenia are distinct psychiatric disorders. DID involves the presence of two or more distinct personality states, accompanied by memory gaps between these states. Schizophrenia, on the other hand, involves symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, and negative symptoms, but does not typically involve the presence of multiple distinct personalities. 108) Schizophrenic disorder is a severe form of psychopathology characterized by the breakdown of integrated personality functioning, withdrawal from reality, emotional distortions, and disturbed thought processes. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: This statement accurately describes schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is indeed a severe mental disorder characterized by disturbances in thinking, perception, emotions, behavior, and the sense of self. Symptoms may include hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms such as emotional blunting and social withdrawal. 109) Hallucinations are false or irrational beliefs that are maintained despite clear evidence to the contrary. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Hallucinations involve perceiving sensory experiences that are not present in reality, such as hearing voices or seeing things that aren't there. They are not beliefs, but rather perceptual experiences. Delusions, on the other hand, are false beliefs that are maintained despite evidence to the contrary. 110) The major feature of the catatonic type of schizophrenia is a set of systematized delusions concerning either persecution or grandeur. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Catatonic schizophrenia is characterized by a range of motor disturbances, such as stupor, catalepsy, rigidity, excitement, and posturing. It does not necessarily involve delusions concerning persecution or grandeur. Delusions may be present in schizophrenia, but they are not the defining feature of the catatonic subtype. 111) Children with autistic disorder present severe disruption in their ability to form social bonds. They are likely to have greatly delayed and very limited development of spoken language as well as very narrow interests in the world. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: This statement accurately describes some of the key features of autistic disorder, which is characterized by impaired social interaction and communication, restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities, and often, delayed or limited development of spoken language. These individuals may also exhibit very narrow interests and difficulty forming social bonds. 112) The most widely accepted classification scheme of psychological disorders is one developed by the American Psychiatric Association. It is best known by the abbreviation __________. Answer: DSM-IV-TR (or DSM) Rationale: The DSM, or Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, is a comprehensive classification system published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA). The DSMIV-TR (Fourth Edition, Text Revision) was the version in use at the time of this question, but simply referring to DSM is acceptable as subsequent versions have been released. 113) Some individuals have experienced more than one disorder simultaneously at some point in their lives, a phenomenon known as __________. Answer: comorbidity Rationale: Comorbidity refers to the occurrence of two or more disorders in the same individual at the same time. This phenomenon is quite common in psychology and psychiatry. 114) A friend has a persistent, irrational fear that arises in anticipation of a public situation in which she can be observed by others. She knows that her fear is excessive and unreasonable, yet she continues to avoid situations in which public scrutiny is possible. It sounds as though she may have a(n) __________ phobia. Answer: social Rationale: The description matches the symptoms of social phobia, also known as social anxiety disorder, which involves an intense fear of being scrutinized or judged by others in social situations. 115) Characterized by thoughts, images, or impulses that recur or persist despite efforts to suppress them, and repetitive, purposeful acts performed according to certain rules or in a ritualized manner, __________ is a mental disorder that affects an estimated 1.8 percent of adults in Canada each year. Answer: obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) Rationale: The symptoms described are typical of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), which involves intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) performed to alleviate anxiety or prevent a feared outcome. 116) Because it occurs so frequently and because almost everyone has experienced elements of the disorder in everyday life, __________ has been characterized as "the common cold of psychopathology." Answer: depression Rationale: Depression is often referred to as the "common cold of psychopathology" due to its high prevalence and the likelihood that most people will experience depressive symptoms at some point in their lives. 117) The __________ personality disorder is characterized by patterns of excessive emotionality and attention seeking. People with this disorder always wish to be at the center of attention. Answer: histrionic Rationale: The described traits align with histrionic personality disorder, which involves a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior. 118) According to the __________ hypothesis, genetic factors predispose an individual to a certain disorder, but environmental stress factors must impinge in order for the potential risk to manifest itself. Answer: diathesis-stress Rationale: The diathesis-stress hypothesis suggests that individuals inherit a predisposition (diathesis) for a disorder, but its development requires the presence of environmental stressors. 119) For the last two years, a 7-year-old child has shown a degree of inattention that is not consistent with his level of development, and his teachers complain of a history of behaviors such as squirming, fidgeting, excessive talking, blurting out answers, and interrupting. These symptoms are most consistent with the diagnosis of __________. Answer: attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) Rationale: The symptoms described align with the criteria for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), which includes symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. 120) Repetitive and ritualistic behavior is often a part of __________, which, along with related disorders, is estimated to afflict 1 out of every 150 children. Answer: autistic disorder Rationale: The description matches symptoms commonly associated with autistic disorder, which is characterized by impaired social interaction, communication difficulties, and repetitive behaviors. 121) Friends are joking about "being crazy"; the newspaper labels a mentally ill person as potentially dangerous; the couple next door denies that their son has autism. Each is an instance of a(n) __________, a set of negative attitudes that place people apart as unacceptable. Answer: stigma Rationale: Stigma refers to negative attitudes, stereotypes, and beliefs that lead to discrimination and marginalization of individuals with mental health conditions or other characteristics perceived as different or undesirable. 122) One day your mother says that an aunt of yours is "abnormal," but your father insists that she is not. Your parents ask your opinion, because they know that you are taking a psychology course. Describe for them the seven criteria that might be used to label behaviour as abnormal, mentioning some of the problems associated with making a decision concerning abnormality. Answer: Criteria include: distress or disability; maladaptiveness; irrationality; unpredictability; unconventionality and statistical rarity; observer discomfort; and violation of moral and ideal standards. Problems include the difficulty of being objective; not being able to define abnormal with just one of the indicators; the judgment involved in calling someone abnormal; disagreement on the definition; and the tendency for professionals to see everything a person does as abnormal when he/she has been labeled that way. 123) Discuss the stigma of mental illness, mentioning self-fulfilling prophecy, the problems with labeling or diagnosis, and lessons learned from research such as the Rosenhan study. Answer: A stigma is a set of negative attitudes about a person that set the person apart as unacceptable. Negative attitudes come from many sources and have multiple negative consequences. People may internalize rejection, setting up self-fulfilling prophecy. Use the Rosenhan study as an example of expectation from the clinician's point of view. 124) Discuss the historical perspective on the classification of psychological disorders. How have we arrived at the classification system of the DSM-IV-TR? Answer: Outline the view of psychological disorders before the 18th century, and how Pinel began a movement that changed the way we think about these disorders, and how Kraepelin created the first comprehensive classification system of disorders. Describe the evolution of the DSM-IV-TR from the early 1950’s to today. Give an overview of the five axes that are used to make a full diagnosis. 125) Imagine you have a clinical neuropsychologist, a psychoanalyst, a behavioural psychologist, a cognitive psychologist, and a sociocultural psychologist all discussing the causes of depression. How would each of these individuals explain the etiology of depression? Answer: The clinical neuropsychologist would turn to brain abnormalities in either structure or function (neurotransmitters); the psychoanalyst would argue that unconscious conflicts that stem from childhood trauma would cause depression; a behavioural psychologist would discuss lack of reinforcement and learning self-defeating or ineffective ways of behaving; the cognitive psychologist would say that faulty thought patterns are the culprit; and a sociocultural psychologist would look at how a given culture may cause adjustment problems in the individual. 126) As you know, there are many different forms that psychopathology can take. Create a list of five different disorders, along with a description and etiology of each. You may use an outline or chart, if this would be helpful. Answer: Choose any combination of disorders. Example: Generalized anxiety disorder. Description: feelings of anxiety or worry most of the time for at least six months, when not threatened by any specific danger; at least three other symptoms such as fatigue, irritability, or sleep problems. Etiology: Give an example of possible biological, psychodynamic, behavioural, or cognitive causes. 127) Discuss cognitive set and explanatory style as they relate to the etiology of mood disorders. Answer: A cognitive set is a pattern of perceiving the world. Negative cognitive sets cause people to take a negative view of self, world, and future. Explanatory style is the belief that one has little control over the events of one's life. Discuss the work of Aaron Beck and Martin Seligman regarding these two theories of the etiology of mood disorders. 128) A relative responds to someone she observes on TV by saying he must have schizophrenia. She does not seem to have a clear idea of what it means to have this disorder. Sensing an opportunity to educate her, describe the general symptoms of schizophrenia, the ways in which these symptoms manifest themselves in each of the five most commonly recognized subtypes of schizophrenia, and the causal factors that have been linked to this disorder. Answer: Schizophrenia is a severe form of psychopathology in which the personality seems to disintegrate, thought processes are distorted, and emotions are blunted. Subtypes include disorganized, catatonic, paranoid, undifferentiated, and residual types. Discuss causes in light of genetics, brain functions, and environmental stressors 129) Discuss some of the symptoms of borderline personality disorder. What are some likely causes for borderline personality disorder? Answer: Symptoms include focusing on the negative even amidst positives, difficulty acknowledging anger, difficulty acknowledging mixed emotions, fear of relationships, and abandonment. Causes include genetic factors (a higher concordance rate in monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins) as well as environmental factors (early childhood sexual abuse or trauma). 1) Modern attempts to classify psychological disorders date back to ____________. A) Sigmund Freud B) Aristotle C) Emil Kraepelin D) the humanistic movement Answer: C Rationale: Emil Kraepelin, a German psychiatrist, is often credited with laying the foundation for modern psychiatric classification systems with his work in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. He developed the concept of differentiating between various mental disorders based on patterns of symptoms and course of illness, which significantly influenced contemporary classification systems like the DSM (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders). 2) Which perspective was first used to explain abnormal behaviour? A) mystical B) mythical C) medical D) psychoanalytic Answer: A Rationale: The mystical perspective, prevalent in ancient civilizations, attributed abnormal behavior to supernatural forces, spirits, or divine intervention. It viewed mental illness as a manifestation of spiritual imbalance or possession, and treatments often involved rituals, exorcisms, or other supernatural interventions. 3) With which perspective on mental disorder is John Watson associated? A) behavioural B) biomedical C) psychodynamic D) sociological Answer: A Rationale: John Watson is associated with the behavioural perspective, which emphasizes observable behaviors and the environmental factors that influence them. Watson's work laid the foundation for behaviorism, focusing on how behaviors are learned through conditioning processes such as classical and operant conditioning. 4) The cognitive model of explaining the causes of abnormal behaviour is similar to the ________ approach. A) humanistic B) mystical C) systems D) learning/behavioural Answer: D Rationale: The cognitive model of abnormal behavior emphasizes the role of maladaptive thought patterns and cognitive processes in the development and maintenance of psychological disorders. This is similar to the learning/behavioral approach, which also highlights how behaviors are learned and maintained, albeit through conditioning processes rather than cognitive distortions. 5) The learning approach to psychological disorders suggests that: A) abnormal behaviour is learned just like normal behaviours. B) what is learned cannot be unlearned. C) abnormal behaviour is a product of hereditary predisposition. D) successful treatment of abnormal behaviour is based on identifying its original cause. Answer: A Rationale: The learning approach to psychological disorders, often associated with behaviorism and cognitive-behavioral therapy, posits that abnormal behaviors are acquired through the same processes as normal behaviors, primarily through learning and conditioning. This perspective emphasizes environmental influences, such as reinforcement, punishment, and observational learning, in the development and maintenance of psychological disorders. According to this view, abnormal behaviors can be understood and modified by identifying the specific learning experiences that contributed to their development. Option A accurately reflects the key principle of the learning approach to psychological disorders. 6) The _______ approach to explaining psychological disorders stresses that events during childhood can lead to unresolved conflicts that manifest themselves as abnormal behaviour. A) mythical B) medical C) learning D) psychoanalytic Answer: D Rationale: The psychoanalytic approach, pioneered by Sigmund Freud, focuses on unconscious conflicts and desires, particularly those stemming from childhood experiences. Freud believed that unresolved conflicts could lead to psychological disturbances later in life, and psychoanalytic therapy aims to bring these conflicts to conscious awareness to alleviate symptoms. 7) Thinking in a self-defeating, illogical, and unrealistic manner causes abnormal behaviour, according to the _______ model. A) humanistic B) systems C) learning D) psychoanalytic Answer: C Rationale: The learning model, particularly the cognitive-behavioral perspective, emphasizes the role of maladaptive thought patterns in the development and maintenance of abnormal behavior. This includes irrational beliefs, cognitive distortions, and dysfunctional thinking styles, which contribute to psychological distress and impairment. 8) According to the cognitive model of psychological disorders, maladaptive behaviour is produced by: A) learning. B) a malfunction in sensory input. C) physical problems. D) irrational beliefs or attitudes. Answer: D Rationale: The cognitive model posits that maladaptive behavior arises from dysfunctional thought processes, such as irrational beliefs or distorted perceptions of oneself and the world. These cognitive distortions can lead to negative emotions and behaviors, contributing to the development and persistence of psychological disorders. 9) The _______ approach to psychological disorders explains mental illness in much the same way that we today explain physical illnesses. A) mystical B) medical C) learning D) systems Answer: B Rationale: The medical approach to psychological disorders views them as akin to physical illnesses, attributing them to biological abnormalities or dysfunctions. This perspective emphasizes the importance of diagnosis, treatment, and intervention based on medical principles, such as pharmacotherapy or other biological interventions. 10) Although most psychologists take into account all of the definitions of abnormal behaviour, many give SPECIAL attention to which of the following considerations? A) maladjustment and personal distress dimensions B) the issue of control C) statistical definition D) cultural definition Answer: A Rationale: While psychologists consider various aspects in defining abnormal behavior, including statistical, cultural, and issues of control, many give special attention to dimensions of maladjustment and personal distress. These dimensions focus on the individual's subjective experience of distress or impairment, which are central to understanding and assessing psychological disorders from a clinical perspective. 11) The _____ model asserts that cases of phobia are very likely to occur when fear of being punished is shifted from some threatening object to some logically unrelated object. A) humanistic-existential B) biological C) cognitive D) psychoanalytic Answer: D Rationale: The psychoanalytic model, developed by Sigmund Freud, posits that phobias and other abnormal behaviors can arise from unresolved conflicts and unconscious processes. In the case of phobias, Freud suggested that fear may be displaced from its original source onto another object or situation due to unconscious processes, such as defense mechanisms. 12) The _______ approach to psychological disorders stresses that events occurring in childhood can lead to unresolved conflicts. A) learning B) developmental C) psychoanalytic D) medical Answer: C Rationale: The psychoanalytic approach emphasizes the role of early childhood experiences and conflicts in the development of psychological disorders. According to Freud, unresolved conflicts from childhood, particularly those related to the psychosexual stages of development, can manifest as abnormal behaviors later in life. 13) The psychoanalytic approach to psychological disorders stresses the importance of: A) stimulus-response patterns. B) present settings. C) unresolved conflicts resulting from early childhood. D) psychopathological systems. Answer: C Rationale: The psychoanalytic approach highlights the significance of unresolved conflicts, particularly those rooted in early childhood experiences, as contributors to psychological disorders. Freud proposed that these unresolved conflicts could lead to the development of defense mechanisms and symptoms characteristic of various mental illnesses. 14) The psychoanalytic approach to psychological disorders was developed by: A) Szasz. B) Maslow. C) Skinner. D) Freud. Answer: D Rationale: Sigmund Freud is the pioneering figure associated with the development of the psychoanalytic approach to understanding psychological disorders. His theories, including concepts like the unconscious mind, defense mechanisms, and psychosexual stages of development, laid the foundation for psychoanalytic theory and therapy. 15) The _______ approach to psychological disorders was developed by Sigmund Freud. A) psychoanalytic B) learning C) cognitive D) systems Answer: A Rationale: Sigmund Freud is credited with developing the psychoanalytic approach to understanding psychological disorders. This approach emphasizes the role of unconscious processes, unresolved conflicts, and early childhood experiences in shaping behavior and mental health. 16) The learning approach to psychological disorders suggests that: A) we learn abnormal behaviours just as we learn other behaviours. B) what is learned cannot be unlearned. C) we must find the cause of a disorder before it can be treated. D) none of the above Answer: A Rationale: The learning approach posits that abnormal behaviors are learned responses to environmental stimuli, similar to how normal behaviors are acquired. This perspective emphasizes the role of conditioning, reinforcement, and observational learning in shaping behavior, suggesting that maladaptive behaviors can be unlearned through therapeutic interventions. 17) The _______ approach to psychological disorders suggests that we learn abnormal behaviours just as we learn other behaviours. A) cognitive B) rational C) motivation D) learning Answer: D Rationale: The learning approach to psychological disorders emphasizes the role of learning principles, such as classical and operant conditioning, in the acquisition and maintenance of abnormal behaviors. It suggests that abnormal behaviors are learned responses to environmental stimuli, similar to how other behaviors are acquired. 18) The behavioural model suggests that abnormal behaviour is the result of _______. A) learning B) biology C) unconscious conflicts D) biochemical imbalances Answer: A Rationale: The behavioral model posits that abnormal behavior is primarily the result of learning, including classical and operant conditioning processes. It emphasizes the role of environmental factors in shaping behavior and suggests that maladaptive behaviors can be modified through behavioral interventions aimed at altering learned associations and responses. 19) The cognitive model suggests that abnormal behaviour results from _______. A) unconscious conflicts B) biochemical imbalances C) faulty reinforcement D) conscious mental processes Answer: D Rationale: The cognitive model of abnormal behavior emphasizes the role of conscious mental processes, such as thoughts, beliefs, and perceptions, in the development and maintenance of psychological disorders. It suggests that maladaptive behaviors stem from dysfunctional cognitive processes, such as irrational beliefs or cognitive distortions. 20) The biological model holds that abnormal behaviour is related to ___________. A) hereditary factors B) learning C) unconscious conflicts D) cognitive processes Answer: A Rationale: The biological model attributes abnormal behavior to biological factors, including genetics, neurochemistry, and brain structure. It suggests that genetic predispositions and physiological abnormalities contribute to the development of psychological disorders, independent of environmental influences such as learning or unconscious conflicts. 21) Edith’s strange behaviour has led her daughter, Anne, to consider institutionalizing her. Edith’s mother and grandmother were both institutionalized in their lifetimes and Anne has already sought psychiatric help. Edith’s strange behaviour BEST fits the _______ model of abnormality. A) psychoanalytic B) biological C) intrapersonal D) behavioural Answer: B Rationale: Edith's family history of institutionalization suggests a possible genetic or biological predisposition to mental illness. The biological model of abnormality emphasizes the role of biological factors, such as genetics, neurochemistry, and brain structure, in the development of psychological disorders. 22) It seems to Joanna that every time her son Daniel eats foods containing chemical dyes or additives, he gets into trouble or acts irrationally. When Joanna mentions this to her pediatrician, the doctor tells Joanna that Daniel’s behaviour fits the _______ model of abnormality. A) psychoanalytic B) biological C) intrapersonal D) behavioural Answer: B Rationale: Daniel's behavior being influenced by the consumption of specific substances suggests a biological basis for his abnormal behavior. The biological model of abnormality focuses on physiological factors, such as neurochemical imbalances or sensitivities, which can influence behavior. 23) Dave’s wife suggests that he talk to a doctor because of his inability to cope with criticism. The doctor suggests that Dave’s problem represents an unresolved internal conflict that has its roots in Dave’s childhood. This view is typical of the _______ model of abnormality. A) biological B) cognitive C) behavioural D) psychoanalytic Answer: D Rationale: The psychoanalytic model emphasizes unconscious conflicts and early childhood experiences as determinants of abnormal behavior. Dave's difficulty coping with criticism is seen through the lens of unresolved internal conflicts, characteristic of the psychoanalytic approach. 24) Dave’s wife suggests that he talk to a doctor because of his crippling fear of heights. The doctor suggests that Dave’s phobia is a learned disorder that can be unlearned with proper treatment. This view is typical of the _______ model of abnormality. A) biological B) cognitive C) behavioural D) psychoanalytic Answer: C Rationale: The behavioral model views phobias and other abnormal behaviors as learned responses to environmental stimuli. Dave's fear of heights is seen as a learned response that can be modified through behavioral techniques such as exposure therapy, consistent with the behavioral model. 25) Dave’s mother suggests that he talk to a doctor because of his crippling feelings of inferiority. The doctor suggests that Dave’s problem stems from internal processes such as unrealistic expectancies and negative thinking. This view is typical of the _______ model of abnormality. A) biological B) cognitive C) behavioural D) psychoanalytic Answer: B Rationale: The cognitive model focuses on how internal thought processes, such as beliefs and perceptions, contribute to abnormal behavior. Dave's feelings of inferiority are interpreted through the lens of cognitive distortions and negative thinking patterns, characteristic of the cognitive model. 26) The DSM-IV-TR identifies dissociative identity disorder as: A) panic disorder. B) dissociative disorder. C) dissociative fugue. D) schizophrenia. Answer: B Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder (formerly known as multiple personality disorder) is classified as a dissociative disorder in the DSM-IV-TR. This disorder involves the presence of two or more distinct personality states, accompanied by memory gaps and a disruption in identity. 27) The DSM-I was first introduced in _________. A) 1942 B) 1952 C) 1962 D) 1972 Answer: B Rationale: The DSM-I (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, First Edition) was first introduced in 1952 by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) as a classification system for mental disorders. It represented a significant milestone in the field of psychiatry. 28) The DSM-IV-TR contains __________ axes. A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: C Rationale: The DSM-IV-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition, Text Revision) contains five axes for diagnosing mental disorders. These axes encompass various domains, including clinical disorders, personality disorders, medical conditions, psychosocial stressors, and global assessment of functioning. 29) Axis 4 of the DSM-IV-TR attempts to rate the individual’s level of __________. A) global assessment of functioning B) stress C) “normality” D) life functioning (social) Answer: B Rationale: Axis 4 of the DSM-IV-TR assesses psychosocial stressors and environmental factors that may contribute to the individual's mental health status. It aims to evaluate the level of stressors present in the individual's life and their impact on mental functioning. 30) DSM-IV-TR classifies people along five axes and _____ disorders. A) interprets B) speculates on causes of C) describes symptoms of D) prescribes treatment for Answer: C Rationale: The DSM-IV-TR classifies mental disorders based on descriptive criteria, outlining the symptoms and clinical features associated with each disorder. It provides a systematic framework for diagnosing mental illness based on observable symptoms and behavioral patterns, rather than speculating on underlying causes or prescribing treatment. 31) Which of the following statements about DSM-IV-TR is NOT true? A) It was developed by the American Psychiatric Association. B) It does not require extensive training to use it. C) The system is difficult to grasp. D) It says little about causes of disorders. Answer: B Rationale: The statement "It does not require extensive training to use it" is not true. The DSM-IV-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition, Text Revision) is a complex classification system that requires extensive training and expertise to effectively use for diagnosing mental disorders. It is commonly utilized by mental health professionals who have received specialized training in psychiatric diagnosis and assessment. 32) The latest version of the classification system used by psychologists is: A) DSM-II. B) DSM-III. C) DSM-IV-TR. D) DSM-IV. Answer: C Rationale: The latest version of the classification system used by psychologists is DSM-IV-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition, Text Revision). It is an updated version of DSM-IV, incorporating revisions and text revisions for greater accuracy and clinical utility. 33) DSM-IV-TR is most helpful because: A) it includes treatments for each disorder. B) it allows the practitioner to determine the cause of the disorder. C) it allows disorders to be classified on five separate dimensions. D) a disorder can be determined with questionnaire data. Answer: C Rationale: DSM-IV-TR is most helpful because it allows disorders to be classified on five separate dimensions (axes), providing a comprehensive approach to understanding an individual's mental health status. These dimensions encompass clinical disorders, personality disorders, medical conditions, psychosocial stressors, and global assessment of functioning. 34) DSM-IV-TR was designed to provide a complete list of _______. A) treatment models B) health providers C) mental disorders D) innate predispositions Answer: C Rationale: DSM-IV-TR was designed to provide a complete list of mental disorders, outlining diagnostic criteria and clinical features associated with each disorder. It serves as a comprehensive reference for mental health professionals in diagnosing and classifying mental illnesses. 35) DSM-IV-TR defines mental disorders according to ______. A) significant behavior patterns B) family histories C) various theoretical approaches D) causes of disruptive behavior patterns Answer: A Rationale: DSM-IV-TR defines mental disorders according to significant behavior patterns, focusing on observable symptoms and clinical features associated with each disorder. It provides a descriptive framework for diagnosing mental illnesses based on behavioral criteria rather than theoretical approaches or etiological factors. 36) Your aunt prefers to stay in her home and avoid public places and social situations. She would be diagnosed with: A) agoraphobia. B) ailurophobia. C) cynophobia. D) specific phobia. Answer: A Rationale: Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear or avoidance of situations where escape might be difficult or help unavailable if panic-like symptoms or other incapacitating or embarrassing symptoms occur. Avoidance typically involves situations such as being outside the home alone, standing in line, or being in a crowd or enclosed places. 37) A person who is constantly “on edge” and always apprehensive most likely suffers from: A) phobic disorder. B) panic disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder. Answer: D Rationale: Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is characterized by persistent and excessive worry or anxiety about various aspects of life, often without a specific cause. Individuals with GAD may experience symptoms such as restlessness, irritability, muscle tension, and difficulty concentrating. 38) June often experiences episodes during which her heart rate accelerates by more than 50 beats per minute despite encountering no emergency. June suffers from: A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) acrophobia. D) panic disorder. Answer: D Rationale: June's symptoms, including sudden episodes of accelerated heart rate and intense fear or discomfort, are indicative of panic disorder. Panic disorder involves recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are abrupt surges of intense fear or discomfort that peak within minutes. 39) Someone with “stage fright” might have a(n): A) particular phobia. B) environmental phobia. C) specific phobia. D) social phobia. Answer: D Rationale: "Stage fright," or performance anxiety, is a common manifestation of social phobia. Social phobia involves an intense fear of social situations or performance situations where one might be scrutinized or evaluated by others, leading to avoidance behavior and significant distress. 40) Phobias, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder are all types of __________ disorders. A) psychosomatic B) somatoform C) anxiety D) dissociative Answer: C Rationale: Phobias, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) are all classified as anxiety disorders. These disorders involve excessive fear, anxiety, or avoidance behavior in response to specific situations, objects, or thoughts. 41) Harry has an intense, irrational fear of being in public places. He is probably suffering from __________. A) conversion reaction B) learned helplessness C) paranoia D) agoraphobia Answer: D Rationale: Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of situations where escape may be difficult or help unavailable, such as public places or situations where crowds gather. Harry's fear of being in public places aligns with the symptoms of agoraphobia. 42) Which of the following statements about post-traumatic stress disorder is NOT true? A) There are recurrent dreams and nightmares. B) It is confined to Vietnam War veterans. C) Common feelings are pain, guilt, and fear. D) Concentration is impaired. Answer: B Rationale: The statement "It is confined to Vietnam War veterans" is NOT true. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can affect individuals who have experienced traumatic events beyond combat situations, such as survivors of natural disasters, accidents, or violent assaults. 43) Allen is in a constant state of dread. He has trouble sleeping, feels tense, and cannot concentrate. Allen will likely be diagnosed as having which anxiety disorder? A) phobia B) generalized anxiety C) panic D) obsessive-compulsive Answer: B Rationale: Allen's symptoms of constant worry, difficulty sleeping, tension, and impaired concentration are indicative of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). GAD involves persistent and excessive anxiety or worry about various aspects of life, often without a specific cause. 44) A recurring irrational thought that cannot be controlled or banished from one’s mind is called a(n) _______. A) phobia B) obsession C) hypnagogic image D) compulsion Answer: B Rationale: An obsession refers to a recurrent, intrusive, and irrational thought, image, or urge that causes significant distress and cannot be easily controlled or dismissed. Obsessions are a hallmark feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). 45) Sudden, paralyzing episodes of fear describe which type of anxiety disorder? A) phobia B) generalized anxiety C) panic D) obsessive-compulsive Answer: C Rationale: Sudden, paralyzing episodes of fear describe panic disorder. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, which are sudden episodes of intense fear or discomfort that peak within minutes and may involve physical symptoms such as palpitations, sweating, trembling, and feelings of impending doom. 46) Anxiety disorders run in families and are twice as common in _______ as in _______. A) males; females B) females; males C) adolescents; young adults D) male adolescents; female adolescents Answer: B Rationale: Anxiety disorders tend to run in families, and they are more common in females than in males. This gender difference is observed across various anxiety disorders, including phobias, generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. 47) Destruction of one’s home or community is MOST likely to result in which of the following? A) PTSD B) a phobia C) a panic disorder D) an obsession Answer: A Rationale: Destruction of one's home or community is most likely to result in post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). PTSD can develop following exposure to traumatic events such as natural disasters, accidents, or acts of violence, leading to symptoms such as re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal, and negative alterations in mood and cognition. 48) Re-experiencing a traumatic event long after the event occurred is associated with _______ disorder. A) generalized anxiety B) panic C) phobic D) post-traumatic stress Answer: D Rationale: Re-experiencing a traumatic event long after it occurred is a characteristic symptom of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Individuals with PTSD may experience intrusive memories, nightmares, flashbacks, or distressing thoughts related to the traumatic event. 49) Which of the following is TRUE of phobics? A) They are below average in intelligence. B) Men are more likely to suffer from phobias than women. C) Phobics usually do not recognize the irrationality of their fear. D) Women are more likely to suffer from phobias than men. Answer: D Rationale: Women are more likely to suffer from phobias than men. Phobias are characterized by intense, irrational fears of specific objects, situations, or activities, and individuals with phobias may often recognize the irrationality of their fears but still experience significant distress or avoidance behavior. 50) An irrational fear of an object or event is called a(n): A) phobia. B) compulsion. C) panic. D) obsession. Answer: A Rationale: An irrational fear of an object or event is called a phobia. Phobias are characterized by excessive or unreasonable fear triggered by specific objects or situations, leading to avoidance behavior and significant distress or impairment in functioning. 51) An overwhelming desire to set fires is called a(n): A) obsession. B) phobia. C) compulsion. D) somatoform. Answer: A Rationale: An obsession refers to a recurring, intrusive, and unwanted thought, feeling, or urge that causes significant distress or anxiety. In this case, the overwhelming desire to set fires represents an intrusive thought or urge, characteristic of an obsession. 52) In an obsessive-compulsive reaction, the _______ is the thought and the _______ is the action carrying out the thought. A) compulsion; obsession B) obsession; compulsion C) compulsion; panic D) obsession; anxiety Answer: B Rationale: In obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), obsessions are the intrusive and recurrent thoughts or impulses, while compulsions are the repetitive behaviors or mental acts that an individual feels driven to perform in response to the obsession. 53) Ritualistic behavior is associated with which of the following disorders? A) anxiety B) obsessive-compulsive C) somatoform D) conversion Answer: B Rationale: Ritualistic behaviors, such as repetitive hand washing or checking, are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), making option B the correct choice. 54) Thoughts that repeatedly intrude into consciousness against one’s will are called: A) compulsions. B) loose associations. C) neologisms. D) obsessions. Answer: D Rationale: Intrusive and recurrent thoughts that individuals cannot control are termed obsessions, a hallmark feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). 55) Acts that “must be done” are called: A) compulsions. B) obsessions. C) motor impulses. D) preservative impulses. Answer: A Rationale: Acts that individuals feel driven to perform in response to an obsession are termed compulsions, which are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). 56) Obsessions and compulsions: A) appear to be based on very different psychodynamics. B) always occur together. C) often occur together. D) rarely occur together. Answer: C Rationale: While obsessions and compulsions can occur independently in some cases, they often cooccur within the same individual, suggesting a strong association between them. 57) An obsession is: A) a recurring irrational thought that you cannot put out of your mind. B) a behavior that you cannot control. C) an inability to control your emotions. D) both a and b Answer: A Rationale: An obsession is indeed a recurring, intrusive, and irrational thought or urge that an individual cannot control or put out of their mind, leading to distress or anxiety. 58) A(n) _________ is an irrational behavior that you cannot control. A) compulsion B) obsession C) regression D) depression Answer: A Rationale: A compulsion is a repetitive and irrational behavior or mental act that an individual feels compelled to perform, often in response to an obsession, and is typically beyond their control. 59) A compulsion is: A) a recurring irrational thought that you cannot put out of your mind. B) a behavior that you cannot control. C) an inability to express your emotions. D) all of the above Answer: B Rationale: Compulsions are behaviors or mental acts that individuals feel driven to perform in response to an obsession, and they are characterized by being beyond the individual's control. 60) Involuntary ideas that keep recurring despite the person’s efforts to stop them are called __________. A) compulsions B) obsessions C) impulses D) panic attacks Answer: B Rationale: Obsessions are intrusive and unwanted thoughts, ideas, or impulses that repeatedly occur despite efforts to suppress or ignore them, distinguishing them from compulsions. 61) A repetitive, ritualistic behaviour that a person feels driven to perform is called a(n) ________. A) compulsion B) obsession C) impulse D) delusion Answer: A Rationale: A compulsion refers to a repetitive behavior or mental act that a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly. Compulsions are characteristic features of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). 62) An intense, paralyzing fear of a specific object, person, situation, or thing in the absence of any real danger is a _______. A) panic disorder B) phobic disorder C) conversion reaction D) compulsive disorder Answer: B Rationale: A phobic disorder involves an intense, irrational fear of a specific object, situation, or activity, leading to avoidance behavior and significant distress or impairment in functioning. Phobias are characterized by excessive or unreasonable fear triggered by specific stimuli. 63) Arlene has an intense, irrational fear of flying in airplanes. She is probably suffering from a _______. A) somatoform disorder B) neurotic depression C) phobic disorder D) conversion reaction Answer: C Rationale: Arlene's intense, irrational fear of flying in airplanes indicates a specific phobia, which is a type of anxiety disorder characterized by excessive fear or anxiety related to a specific object or situation, such as flying. 64) Harry has an intense, irrational fear of being in public places. He is probably suffering from ________. A) agoraphobia B) paranoia C) learned helplessness D) conversion reaction Answer: A Rationale: Harry's intense, irrational fear of being in public places suggests agoraphobia, which is characterized by a fear of situations where escape might be difficult or help unavailable if panic-like symptoms or other incapacitating or embarrassing symptoms occur. 65) Most psychoanalytic theorists believe that anxiety disorders are the result of ____________. A) unconscious conflict B) learned helplessness C) lack of reinforcement D) primary drives Answer: A Rationale: Most psychoanalytic theorists believe that anxiety disorders result from unconscious conflicts, unresolved issues from childhood, or repressed impulses and desires that manifest as symptoms of anxiety. 66) A young boy is attacked by a large dog. He is now terribly afraid of all large dogs. His phobia of dogs is BEST explained by ________ theory. A) behaviour B) psychoanalytic C) psychobiological D) humanistic Answer: A Rationale: The boy's phobia of dogs is best explained by behaviorist theory, which suggests that phobias are learned through classical conditioning (association between a neutral stimulus and a fearful event) or maintained through operant conditioning (avoidance behaviors reinforced by reduction of anxiety). 67) Feeling fearful but not knowing why is characteristic of _________. A) phobias B) anxiety disorders C) dissociative neurosis D) amnesia Answer: B Rationale: Feeling fearful but not knowing why is characteristic of anxiety disorders, which involve excessive or disproportionate fear or anxiety in response to perceived threats or situations that are not actually dangerous. 68) The clearest examples of anxiety disorders are _______. A) compulsions B) phobias C) panic attacks D) obsessions Answer: C Rationale: Panic attacks represent the clearest examples of anxiety disorders. Panic attacks involve sudden and intense periods of fear or discomfort, often accompanied by physical symptoms such as rapid heart rate, sweating, trembling, shortness of breath, and feelings of impending doom. 69) Darcy is sitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, she is overcome by feelings of intense fear, losing control of herself. Her terror is so great that all she can do is sit at her desk shaking and crying. Nothing she was doing at the time would seem to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms most resemble _______. A) phobic disorder B) post-traumatic stress C) panic attack D) affective disorder Answer: C Rationale: Darcy's sudden onset of intense fear, accompanied by physical symptoms such as shaking and crying, without any apparent trigger, suggests a panic attack. Panic attacks are characterized by sudden and overwhelming feelings of fear or terror, often accompanied by physical symptoms, and can occur unexpectedly. 70) While Sid is sitting at his desk at work, an image of harming his young son pops into his mind. Each time this occurs, he touches all four corners of his desk in a particular order. Sid probably suffers from: A) generalized anxiety disorder. B) agoraphobia. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) panic disorder. Answer: C Rationale: Sid's intrusive thought of harming his son followed by the ritualistic behavior of touching all four corners of his desk in a particular order suggests obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). OCD involves intrusive, distressing thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) performed in response to those thoughts. 71) Last month Pam was giddy, impulsive, and talkative; this month she is sad, silent, and almost motionless. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? A) severe depression B) anxiety disorder C) somatoform disorder D) bipolar disorder Answer: D Rationale: Pam's alternating episodes of giddiness, impulsivity, and talkativeness followed by sadness, silence, and decreased activity suggest mood swings characteristic of bipolar disorder, which involves cycles of mania (elevated mood) and depression (low mood). 72) A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between: A) depression and mania. B) depression and schizophrenia. C) mania and schizophrenia. D) anxiety and mania. Answer: A Rationale: Bipolar disorder involves alternating episodes of depression and mania. Mania is characterized by elevated mood, increased energy, impulsivity, and other symptoms, while depression involves feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and low energy. 73) Which of the following people is most likely to commit suicide? A) an elderly white male B) an adolescent white male C) an elderly African-American male D) an adolescent African-American male Answer: A Rationale: Elderly white males have the highest suicide rate among various demographic groups. Suicide risk tends to increase with age, and males, in general, are more likely to die by suicide than females. 74) Disorders characterized by disturbances in a person’s prolonged emotional state are known as __________ disorders. A) mood B) dissociative C) somatoform D) conversion Answer: A Rationale: Disorders characterized by disturbances in a person's prolonged emotional state, such as depression and mania, are known as mood disorders. These disorders primarily affect a person's mood or emotional state. 75) An episode of intense sadness that may last for several months is called __________. A) bipolar disorder B) hypomania C) major depressive disorder D) dysthymia Answer: C Rationale: An episode of intense sadness that may last for several months is called major depressive disorder. It is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest or pleasure in activities, among other symptoms. 76) An affective disorder that includes both depression and mania is known as __________ disorder. A) bipolar B) dual process C) histrionic D) obsessive-compulsive Answer: A Rationale: An affective disorder that includes both depression and mania is known as bipolar disorder. Bipolar disorder involves alternating episodes of depression and mania, which significantly impact mood and behavior. 77) If a person’s comments and behaviours suggest that he or she might be thinking about suicide, asking direct questions about suicide: A) will only put ideas in the person’s head. B) should be done only by professionals. C) should be followed by a call to a suicide prevention centre if the answers raise more concern about suicide. D) will usually prevent suicide. Answer: C Rationale: If a person's comments and behaviors suggest suicidal ideation, asking direct questions about suicide is important for assessing risk and initiating appropriate interventions. It is not true that asking about suicide will put ideas in the person's head, and direct questioning can help in identifying and addressing suicidal thoughts or plans. 78) Abnormally high energy level, distractibility, increased sex drive, and positive self-image are MOST associated with which of the following disorders? A) schizophrenia B) mania C) depression D) bipolar Answer: B Rationale: Abnormally high energy level, distractibility, increased sex drive, and positive self-image are characteristic features of mania, which is a mood state associated with bipolar disorder. Manic episodes involve heightened mood, increased activity, impulsivity, and other symptoms. 79) Learned helplessness is a possible explanation for which disorder? A) dissociative B) dissociative identity disorder C) depression D) anxiety Answer: C Rationale: Learned helplessness is a possible explanation for depression. According to this theory, individuals may develop depression when they perceive a lack of control over life events, leading to feelings of helplessness and hopelessness. 80) John’s behaviour appears normal, then he becomes depressed and hyperactivity follows. He would likely be diagnosed as having which disorder? A) mania B) schizophrenia C) bipolar D) depressive Answer: C Rationale: John's alternating periods of normal behavior, depression, and hyperactivity suggest symptoms consistent with bipolar disorder. Bipolar disorder is characterized by cycling between episodes of depression and mania, with periods of normal mood in between. 81) High energy level, distractibility, increased sex drive, and positive self-image are MOST associated with which of the following disorders? A) schizophrenia B) mania C) depression D) bipolar Answer: B Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of a manic episode, which is a defining feature of bipolar disorder. Mania is characterized by elevated mood, increased energy, impulsivity, and other symptoms. 82) Which of the following is a mood disorder? A) obsessive-compulsive disorder B) dissociative identity disorder C) narcissistic personality disorder D) bipolar disorder Answer: D Rationale: Bipolar disorder is a mood disorder characterized by cycling between episodes of depression and mania. It involves significant disturbances in mood, energy levels, and behavior. 83) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of depression? A) hallucinations B) loss of appetite C) inability to sleep properly D) self-blame Answer: A Rationale: Hallucinations are not typically associated with depression. Common symptoms of depression include persistent sadness, loss of interest or pleasure in activities, changes in appetite or weight, sleep disturbances, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, difficulty concentrating, and thoughts of death or suicide. 84) The term ___________ refers to the tendency of some persons to reliably become depressed during the winter months. A) seasonal affective disorder B) cold weather blues C) Christmas depression syndrome D) short-day affective disorder Answer: A Rationale: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) refers to a type of depression that occurs at a specific time of year, typically during the winter months when there is less natural sunlight. Symptoms of SAD often include fatigue, oversleeping, weight gain, and feelings of sadness or hopelessness. 85) The most common psychological disorder is: A) phobia. B) schizophrenia. C) depression. D) mania. Answer: C Rationale: Depression is considered one of the most common psychological disorders worldwide. It affects millions of people of all ages and backgrounds and can have a significant impact on functioning and quality of life. 86) Depression is: A) always accompanied by a manic state. B) equally common among men and women. C) a type of psychosis. D) the most common psychological disorder. Answer: D Rationale: Depression is not always accompanied by a manic state; it can occur independently or as part of bipolar disorder. It is more common among women than men. Depression is not typically considered a form of psychosis, although severe depression can involve psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations or delusions. 87) An affective disorder that includes both depression and mania is known as ________ disorder. A) histrionic B) bipolar C) dual process D) obsessive-compulsive Answer: B Rationale: Bipolar disorder is an affective disorder characterized by alternating episodes of depression and mania. It involves significant fluctuations in mood and energy levels. 88) Biological theorists note that there is strong evidence that __________ play an important role in depression. A) secondary motives B) environmental cues C) primary drives D) genetic factors Answer: D Rationale: Genetic factors play an important role in the development of depression, as evidenced by family and twin studies. Biological theorists suggest that genetic predispositions, along with environmental factors, contribute to the risk of developing depression. 89) People who act impulsively, don’t tolerate frustration, want their desires satisfied immediately, fail to develop emotional attachments, and show no remorse would be diagnosed with what personality disorder? A) narcissistic B) antisocial C) histrionic D) schizotypal Answer: B Rationale: The described traits are characteristic of antisocial personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder often exhibit impulsivity, a lack of empathy or remorse, disregard for social norms and rules, and a pattern of deceitful or manipulative behavior. 90) A personality disorder characterized by marked instability in self-image, mood, and interpersonal relationships is __________ personality disorder. A) histrionic B) antisocial C) narcissistic D) borderline Answer: D Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by marked instability in self-image, mood, and interpersonal relationships. Individuals with this disorder often experience intense and unstable emotions, have difficulty maintaining stable relationships, and may engage in impulsive or self-destructive behaviors. 91) Which of the following best describes the antisocial personality? A) low intelligence B) lack of remorse or guilt C) depression D) paranoid schizophrenic tendencies Answer: B Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. One of the key features is a lack of remorse or guilt for harmful actions or behaviors towards others. 92) Which of the following statements about antisocial personality is TRUE? A) It is a relatively rare disorder. B) People with antisocial personalities seek professional help because their distress level is high. C) It is more common in women than in men. D) It is a relatively common disorder. Answer: D Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder is relatively common, although it may not always be recognized or diagnosed. Individuals with this disorder often do not seek professional help unless mandated by legal or other external pressures. 93) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the antisocial personality disorder? A) incapable of forming close relationships B) no guilt or remorse C) manipulative and insincere D) low intelligence Answer: D Rationale: While intelligence level can vary among individuals with antisocial personality disorder, it is not a defining characteristic. The inability to form close relationships, lack of guilt or remorse, and manipulative and insincere behavior are more typical features of this disorder. 94) What individual is most likely to come into conflict with the law because of his/her disregard for social rules and unwillingness to restrain his/her impulses? A) paranoid schizophrenic B) dissociative identity disorder C) antisocial personality D) bipolar disorder Answer: C Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a disregard for social rules, impulsive behavior, and a lack of concern for the rights of others. Individuals with this disorder are more likely to engage in criminal behavior and come into conflict with the law. 95) Which characteristic best describes an antisocial personality? A) low intelligence B) lack of remorse or guilt C) depression D) both a and b Answer: C Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a lack of remorse or guilt for harmful actions, not by depression. While intelligence level can vary among individuals with this disorder, it is not a defining characteristic. 96) The police found a man wandering through the downtown area. The man was dishevelled and seemed to be in a daze. When the police asked the man for his name, he seemed bewildered. A search of missing persons reports revealed that he had been reported missing three months ago in a town more than 1100 kilometres away. The man is most likely suffering from: A) dissociative identity disorder. B) schizophrenia. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) dissociative fugue. Answer: D Rationale: The symptoms described, including dissociation from one's identity and travel away from one's usual environment, are characteristic of dissociative fugue, a subtype of dissociative disorders. 97) Disorders in which part of a person’s personality is separated from the rest and the person cannot reassemble the pieces are known as __________ disorders. A) schizophrenic B) dissociative C) affective D) somatoform Answer: B Rationale: Dissociative disorders involve disruptions or breakdowns of memory, awareness, identity, or perception. They are characterized by a separation of part of a person's personality, leading to a lack of integration of thoughts, feelings, or experiences. 98) Which of the following is NOT an anxiety disorder? A) conversion disorder B) obsessive-compulsive disorder C) post-traumatic stress disorder D) a phobia Answer: A Rationale: Conversion disorder is a somatic symptom disorder, not an anxiety disorder. Anxiety disorders involve excessive fear or anxiety and related behavioral disturbances, while conversion disorder involves neurological symptoms that cannot be explained by medical conditions. 99) Found in a dazed condition at the local shopping centre, “John Doe” could not remember who he was or where he came from. After an investigation, authorities found that he lived more than 3000 kilometres away. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) organic amnesia B) psychogenic fugue C) dissociative identity disorder D) disorganized schizophrenia Answer: B Rationale: The scenario described fits the criteria for dissociative fugue, where an individual experiences sudden, unexpected travel away from home or usual surroundings, along with an inability to recall one's past and confusion about one's identity. 100) Which of the following is a dissociative disorder? A) phobia B) fugue C) hypochondriasis D) conversion Answer: B Rationale: Dissociative fugue is a type of dissociative disorder characterized by sudden, unexpected travel away from home or usual surroundings, along with an inability to recall one's past and confusion about one's identity. 101) The famous story of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde is an example of which disorder? A) depression B) dissociative C) phobic D) sexual dysfunction Answer: B Rationale: The story of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde illustrates dissociative identity disorder, where an individual exhibits multiple distinct identities or personality states, each with its own pattern of perceiving and interacting with the world. 102) Dissociative identity disorder is an example of which disorder? A) schizophrenia B) dissociative C) personality D) depression Answer: B Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder (formerly known as multiple personality disorder) is classified as a dissociative disorder. It involves the presence of two or more distinct personality states or identities within an individual, along with gaps in memory and personal history. 103) A person who loses her memory and wanders away from home may be experiencing: A) fugue. B) generalized anxiety. C) depression. D) dissociative identity disorder. Answer: A Rationale: The scenario described matches the symptoms of dissociative fugue, where an individual experiences sudden, unexpected travel away from home or usual surroundings, along with an inability to recall one's past and confusion about one's identity. 104) The condition in which someone forgets his/her identity and takes on a new identity in a new location is classified as: A) psychogenic amnesia. B) a fugue state. C) catatonic schizophrenia. D) paranoid schizophrenia. Answer: B Rationale: This scenario describes dissociative fugue, a subtype of dissociative disorders, where individuals experience amnesia and adopt a new identity, often relocating to a new place. 105) Which of the following is classified as a dissociative disorder? A) obsessive-compulsive disorder B) dissociative identity disorder C) narcissistic personality disorder D) bipolar disorder Answer: B Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder (formerly known as multiple personality disorder) is a dissociative disorder characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states within an individual. 106) The __________ disorder involves physically fleeing from one’s usual home or niche. A) amnesia B) conversion C) obsessive-compulsive D) fugue Answer: D Rationale: Dissociative fugue is a dissociative disorder characterized by sudden, unexpected travel away from home or one's usual environment, often accompanied by memory loss and confusion about identity. 107) The multiple personality disorder is: A) a form of psychosis. B) quite rare. C) a phenomenon unique to England. D) not a formal diagnostic label. Answer: B Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder (formerly known as multiple personality disorder) is relatively rare, characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states within an individual, along with gaps in memory and personal history. 108) Sue was picked up by a police officer while walking along a highway. She had no idea who she was or where she came from. She may be having a: A) manic disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) psychogenic fugue. D) schizophrenia. Answer: C Rationale: The symptoms described match those of dissociative fugue, where individuals experience sudden, unexpected travel away from home or usual surroundings, accompanied by amnesia and confusion about identity. 109) Disorders in which part of a person’s personality is separated from the rest and the person can’t reassemble the pieces are known as _______ disorders. A) affective B) somatoform C) dissociative D) schizophrenic Answer: C Rationale: Dissociative disorders involve disruptions or breakdowns of memory, awareness, identity, or perception, leading to a separation of part of a person's personality. 110) After being passed up for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got there. He is suffering from a(n) _______. A) affective disorder B) somatoform disorder C) dissociative disorder D) schizophrenic disorder Answer: C Rationale: The symptoms described match those of dissociative fugue, a subtype of dissociative disorders, where individuals experience sudden, unexpected travel away from home or usual surroundings, often accompanied by memory loss and confusion about identity. 111) After going to a doctor and complaining about memory loss, Jeff is told that, while under hypnosis, several distinct personalities emerged from his mind. Each personality is unique, with a name and separate memories. Jeff has a(n) ________ disorder. A) affective B) somatoform C) dissociative D) schizophrenic Answer: C Rationale: Jeff's condition, where distinct personalities emerge with separate memories, is characteristic of dissociative identity disorder (formerly known as multiple personality disorder), which falls under dissociative disorders. 112) A patient in a mental hospital exhibits disordered thinking, perceptual abnormalities, unusual emotions, and suspiciousness. This person is probably suffering from: A) schizophrenia. B) bipolar disorder. C) passive-aggressive personality. D) a dissociative disorder. Answer: A Rationale: The symptoms described align with schizophrenia, a severe mental disorder characterized by disordered thinking, altered perceptions, emotional dysregulation, and often social withdrawal or suspiciousness. 113) The belief that you are a special agent for the Intergalactic Supernova is an example of a: A) loose association. B) neologism. C) delusion. D) negative symptom. Answer: C Rationale: A delusion is a false belief that persists despite evidence to the contrary. In this case, the belief of being a special agent for the Intergalactic Supernova is an example of a delusion. 114) During an interview, a patient says he has frequently seen a hand come out of the bathroom sink to grab a bar of soap. The psychologist who is conducting the interview most likely writes that the patient presents evidence of: A) delusions. B) loose associations. C) negative symptoms. D) hallucinations. Answer: D Rationale: Seeing a hand come out of the bathroom sink to grab a bar of soap represents a false sensory perception, which is a hallucination, commonly associated with schizophrenia. 115) What are the two major categories of the symptoms of schizophrenia? A) acute and chronic B) negative and positive C) affect and ambivalence D) primary and secondary Answer: B Rationale: The symptoms of schizophrenia are commonly categorized into two groups: positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or experiences (such as hallucinations and delusions), and negative symptoms, which involve the absence of normal behaviors or features (such as social withdrawal and flattened affect). 116) __________ schizophrenia is characterized by giggling, grimacing, and frantic gesturing. A) Paranoid B) Catatonic C) Undifferentiated D) Disorganized Answer: D Rationale: Disorganized schizophrenia is characterized by disorganized behavior, including inappropriate laughter, grimacing, and purposeless movements. 117) False sensory perceptions that often take the form of hearing voices are called __________. A) hallucinations B) obsessions C) delusions D) compulsions Answer: A Rationale: Hallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur without any external stimulus, often involving hearing voices or seeing things that are not present. 118) Jane maintains a rigid posture, rarely communicates, and is unresponsive to stimulation. Jane would likely be diagnosed as which type of schizophrenia? A) disorganized B) catatonic C) paranoid D) undifferentiated Answer: B Rationale: Jane's symptoms of rigidity, reduced communication, and lack of responsiveness are characteristic of catatonic schizophrenia, a subtype of schizophrenia characterized by disturbances in movement and behavior. 119) The most common psychotic disorder is: A) manic-depressive. B) bipolar. C) schizophrenia. D) dissociative identity disorder. Answer: C Rationale: Schizophrenia is the most common psychotic disorder, characterized by disruptions in thought processes, perceptions, emotions, and behavior. 120) Nancy smells smoke when there is no fire. This is an example of: A) a delusion. B) a hallucination. C) paranoia. D) olfactory inhibition. Answer: B Rationale: Nancy's perception of smelling smoke when there is no fire represents a false sensory perception, specifically an olfactory hallucination. 121) Which of the following is considered the most severe psychological disorder? A) antisocial personality B) schizophrenia C) depression D) bipolar Answer: B Rationale: Schizophrenia is widely regarded as one of the most severe psychological disorders due to its profound disruptions in thought processes, perceptions, emotions, and behavior, often leading to significant impairment in daily functioning. 122) Tom’s speech makes no sense. He acts childlike and giggles for no apparent reason. Tom would likely be diagnosed as which type of schizophrenia? A) disorganized B) catatonic C) paranoid D) undifferentiated Answer: A Rationale: Tom's symptoms of nonsensical speech, childlike behavior, and inappropriate laughter suggest disorganized schizophrenia, which is characterized by disorganized thinking, speech, and behavior. 123) Excessive amounts of dopamine in the brain have been proposed as a cause of: A) schizophrenia. B) manic-depression. C) antisocial personality. D) paraphilia. Answer: A Rationale: Excessive dopamine activity in the brain has been implicated in the development of schizophrenia, contributing to the positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. 124) Of the following, which would provide the strongest evidence for a genetic component to schizophrenia? A) a higher concordance rate for fraternal twins than for other siblings B) a higher concordance rate for fraternal twins than for identical twins C) a high concordance rate among identical twins raised apart D) a high concordance rate among the general population Answer: C Rationale: A high concordance rate among identical twins raised apart provides strong evidence for a genetic component to schizophrenia, suggesting that genetic factors play a significant role in its development. 125) All of the following are subtypes of schizophrenia except: A) catatonic. B) disorganized. C) dissociative identity disorder. D) paranoid. Answer: C Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder is not a subtype of schizophrenia; it is a distinct disorder characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states. 126) Annette talks to her pet elephant, which no one else can see. Annette is having a: A) hallucination. B) delusion. C) clang association. D) neologism. Answer: A Rationale: Annette's experience of talking to her pet elephant, which is not actually present, represents a hallucination, a false sensory perception. 127) A schizophrenic characterized by alternating periods of mute immobility and excited motor activity is referred to as a(n): A) disorganized schizophrenic. B) undifferentiated schizophrenic. C) paranoid schizophrenic. D) catatonic schizophrenic. Answer: D Rationale: A schizophrenic characterized by alternating periods of mute immobility and excited motor activity is referred to as a catatonic schizophrenic, reflecting the prominent catatonic features in their presentation. 128) A severely disturbed patient seems to speak in tongues, has a well-developed system of delusions of persecution, and is often aggressive and argumentative toward hospital staff. What's the likely diagnosis? A) paranoid schizophrenia B) catatonic schizophrenia C) disorganized schizophrenia D) undifferentiated schizophrenia Answer: A Rationale: The patient's symptoms of well-developed delusions of persecution, aggressive behavior, and speaking in tongues are characteristic of paranoid schizophrenia, which is marked by delusions and auditory hallucinations with themes of persecution or grandiosity. 129) The substance known as __________ has been implicated in the development of schizophrenic symptoms. A) melatonin B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) dopamine Answer: D Rationale: Excessive dopamine activity in the brain has been implicated in the development of schizophrenic symptoms, such as hallucinations and delusions. 130) Delusions and hallucinations are associated with: A) somatoform disorders. B) mania. C) conversion hysteria. D) schizophrenia. Answer: D Rationale: Delusions and hallucinations are characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia, a severe mental disorder characterized by disruptions in thought processes, perceptions, emotions, and behavior. 131) Which of the following theories can be used to explain the cause of schizophrenia? A) biological B) learning C) cognitive D) all of the above Answer: D Rationale: Schizophrenia can be understood through multiple theoretical perspectives, including biological (e.g., genetic factors, neurotransmitter imbalances), learning (e.g., maladaptive learning experiences), and cognitive (e.g., dysfunctional thought processes) theories. 132) False sensory perceptions that most often take the form of hearing voices are called _______. A) delusions B) obsessions C) hallucinations D) compulsions Answer: C Rationale: Hallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of any external stimulus. In schizophrenia, auditory hallucinations, such as hearing voices, are particularly common. 133) False beliefs about reality with no factual basis are known as __________. A) delusions B) obsessions C) hallucinations D) compulsions Answer: A Rationale: Delusions are false beliefs that are firmly held despite evidence to the contrary. They are characteristic symptoms of psychotic disorders like schizophrenia. 134) Nick was admitted to a mental institution because he heard voices talking to him that no one else could hear, and he saw demons attacking him, though no one else could see anything near him. Nick’s symptoms are known as ________. A) delusions B) obsessions C) hallucinations D) compulsions Answer: C Rationale: Nick's symptoms of hearing voices and seeing things that others cannot perceive are characteristic of hallucinations, which are false sensory perceptions. 135) Nick was admitted to a mental institution because he claimed he was the king of an alien race that would soon return to Earth to dominate mankind. He claimed to be in constant communication with these aliens and helping to plan for their return. His symptoms are known as ________. A) delusions B) obsessions C) hallucinations D) compulsions Answer: A Rationale: Nick's beliefs about being the king of an alien race and his involvement in planning for their return represent delusions, as they are false beliefs that are not based on reality. Test Bank for Psychology and Life Richard J. Gerrig, Philip G. Zimbardo, Serge Desmarais, Tammy Ivanco 9780205037117, 9780205859139