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Chapter 12: Motivation 1) What has been suggested by psychologists with respect to the concept of motivation? A) biological mechanisms are unrelated to motivation. B) actions may be internally or externally motivated. C) people are always responsible for their actions. D) motivation may help initiate behaviour, but it cannot prolong it. Answer: B Rationale: The question becomes whether we are motivated by something internal, something external, or by an interaction of internal aspects of the person and external aspects of the environment. 2) Who fully developed the theory that much important behaviour is motivated by internal drives? A) Clark Hull. B) Julian Rotter. C) Fritz Heider. D) Michael Apter. Answer: A Rationale: Clark Hull’s theory of motivation argued that much important behaviour was motivated by internal drives. 3) According to Clark Hull, what factor plays a key role in motivation? A) social approval. B) tension reduction. C) achievement need. D) sex. Answer: B Rationale: When a drive is satisfied or reduced and homeostasis is restored, the organism ceases to act. 4) Which scenario best illustrates reinforcement by tension reduction? A) a boy riding his bike and whistling on a sunny day while enjoying the treasures of nature. B) a lion that has not caught any prey for two days. C) a bear that has quenched its thirst after many hours of searching for water. D) a hawk searching for rodents during the heat of midday. Answer: C Rationale: The bear's actions that led to thirst reduction will be reinforced because they are associated with tension reduction. 5) In the context of motivation, what is the definition of homeostasis? A) a state of equilibrium in internal bodily conditions. B) unpleasant internal feelings that drive behaviour. C) an imbalance associated with tension. D) an organism's innate physiological needs. Answer: A Rationale: Homeostasis is a state of equilibrium with respect to biological conditions; e.g., if we get too cold, we start to shiver to restore homeostasis. 6) A rat has been deprived of food or water. According to a tension reduction explanation of motivated behaviour, when placed in a novel environment with food and water, the rat should eat and drink at its first opportunity. In this experiment, what will the rat likely do? A) eat only. B) drink only. C) immediately eat and drink. D) first explore the environment. Answer: D Rationale: In this experiment, rats began to satisfy their hunger or thirst only once they had first satisfied their curiosity and explored the novel environment. 7) Monkeys will spend much of their time and energy manipulating objects without any external rewards, apparently for the pleasure they derive. What does this finding suggest? A) motivation as a separate concept may not exist. B) most behaviour is motivated by tension reduction. C) behaviour is not only motivated by internal drives. D) humans may be motivated differently than nonhumans. Answer: C Rationale: Behaviour is also motivated by incentives (external stimuli or rewards) that do not directly relate to biological needs. 8) A manager doesn't particularly like his job, but he works hard because he is well-paid. Which term best characterizes the money he receives? A) drive. B) need. C) incentive. D) primary reinforcer. Answer: C Rationale: Incentives are external stimuli or rewards that do not directly relate to biological needs, but motivate behavior due to their reinforcing properties. 9) Which statement is most consistent with William James' view of human behaviour? A) There is no such thing as an instinct. B) Instincts exist only in nonhuman animals. C) Although some instincts exist in humans, they are generally unimportant. D) Humans rely even more on instinctual behaviour than other animals. Answer: D Rationale: James argued that humans have many social instincts for sympathy, modesty, sociability, and love. These instincts, he said, are not carried out through fixed action patterns. 10) While scanning the shelves in a library, Jerry notices a psychology book written in the 1920s. What is the book likely to indicate about motivation? A) Psychologists had not yet discovered the concept of motivation. B) Psychologists believed that most animal behaviour is instinctually motivated, but that human behaviour is not. C) Psychologists had compiled a list of 10,000 human instincts. D) Psychologists were focusing on the role of expectations in motivating behaviour. Answer: C Rationale: By the 1920’s, psychologists had compiled lists of over 10,000 human instincts. 11) Which statement about the work of anthropologists Ruth Benedict and Margaret Mead is true? A) It gained greater acceptance for the view that certain instincts were universal to all humans. B) It contradicted the proposition that certain instincts were universal to all humans. C) It concentrated primarily on animal instincts. D) It was discredited by psychologists because it was anthropological in nature. Answer: B Rationale: Ruth Benedict and Margaret Mead were influential anthropologists whose work challenged the notion of universal human instincts. Their research, particularly Mead's studies in Samoa, suggested that cultural factors played a significant role in shaping human behavior, contrary to the idea of universal instincts proposed by some psychologists. Benedict and Mead's work emphasized the importance of cultural relativism and highlighted the diversity of human societies and behaviors. Therefore, option B is the correct statement about their work. 12) Why did psychologists abandon the view of instinct as a universal explanation of human behaviour? A) Freud's popular theory rejected the importance of instinct. B) there had been little success in generating a list of human instincts. C) the behaviourist influence began to diminish in the 1920s. D) cross-cultural studies found enormous behavioural variation. Answer: D Rationale: Psychologists moved away from the view of instinct as a universal explanation of human behavior primarily due to the findings of cross-cultural studies. These studies revealed significant variations in behavior across different cultures, undermining the idea that certain behaviors could be attributed solely to innate instincts common to all humans. Instead, psychologists began to recognize the importance of cultural influences and environmental factors in shaping behavior. While other factors such as Freud's theories and the decline of behaviorism may have played a role in shaping psychological perspectives, it was the evidence from cross-cultural studies that directly challenged the concept of universal instincts. Therefore, option D is the most accurate explanation for why psychologists abandoned the view of instinct as universal. 13) A student studies more than his roommate for an upcoming test. How would a behaviourist explain the difference in behaviour between the roommates? A) differences in level of motivation. B) differences in willpower. C) differences in motivational strength. D) differences in reinforcement histories. Answer: D Rationale: Behaviourists objected to the circular thinking that was often applied to claims about human instincts (we are sympathetic because we have an instinct to be sympathetic). They provided evidence that important behaviours are learned rather than being inborn. 14) What point does the textbook make when referring to The Wizard of Oz? A) people are most successful when they act instinctively. B) thought processes are important in determining behaviour. C) unconscious feelings motivate important life choices. D) human and nonhuman animals alike are highly responsive to reinforcement. Answer: B Rationale: The Wizard of Oz was an early cognitive psychologist; he recognized the motivation of expectations (ideas about the future likelihood of getting something). Dorothy and her friends were highly motivated to get to Oz because they expected the Wizard to give them what they were missing. 15) Alice is studying for an upcoming test in her psychology class. According to Julian Rotter, how will the amount of effort put forth be determined? A) just by her expectation that she will get a good grade. B) just by her interpretation of how important it is to get a good grade. C) both by her expectation that she will get a good grade and the personal value of getting a good grade. D) by a combination of learned and instinctive behaviours. Answer: C Rationale: The importance of expectations in motivating behaviour was developed by Julian Rotter in his social learning theory. The probability that we will engage in a given behaviour is dependent on the expectation of attaining a goal. 16) In the context of Julian Rotter’s social-learning theory, when Todd experiences a discrepancy between expectations and reality, what is he likely to do? A) lose motivation. B) be motivated to reduce the discrepancy. C) become disturbed and emotionally upset, but not motivated. D) change expectations but not reality. Answer: B Rationale: The individual will perform corrective behaviours to achieve a better fit between expectancies and reality. 17) According to Fritz Heider, behavioural outcomes can be attributed to two types of forces. What are these forces? A) romantic or mercenary. B) behavioural or physiological. C) dispositional or situational. D) attentional or retentional. Answer: C Rationale: Insufficient intelligence or efforts are examples of dispositional factors. An unfair test or biased teachers are situational factors. 18) A student believes that her inability to make the cheerleading team is due to a coach who is biased. According to Fritz Heider, how will the student likely respond? A) try harder the next time she tries out for the team. B) be relatively unaffected by this experience. C) make an attribution to dispositional forces the next time. D) give up trying to make the cheerleading team. Answer: D Rationale: There is more of a chance that we will give up when we attribute failure to injustice or lack of ability, and to try harder if the attribution is that failure resulted from something we did or didn't do. 19) Kathy believes that she didn’t do well on a test because she didn’t study hard enough in preparation. According to Fritz Heider, how will she likely respond? A) study more for her next test. B) be unaffected by her poor test performance because it is in the past. C) make an attribution to situational forces the next time. D) study less for her next test. Answer: A Rationale: There is more of a chance that we will try harder if the attribution is that failure resulted from something we did or didn't do. 20) According to Fritz Heider, what type of attribution is being made when an individual believes that her poor grade was due to a general lack of intelligence? A) attentional B) achievement C) dispositional D) situational Answer: C Rationale: Dispositional attributions are things attributable to ourselves, like lack of effort or lack of sufficient intelligence. 21) According to Maslow, which needs must be met before an individual will be motivated to love and be loved? A) biological and safety B) esteem C) self-actualization D) cognitive and esthetic Answer: A Rationale: Needs must be satisfied from most primitive to the most advanced; the next higher level cannot be satisfied before the earlier one is satisfied. 22) According to Maslow, which sequence of needs from lowest to highest is accurate? A) biological, safety, attachment, esteem, self-actualization B) biological, attachment, safety, self-actualization, esteem C) attachment, self-actualization, esteem, safety, biological D) self-actualization, biological, attachment, safety, esteem Answer: A Rationale: Biological needs such as hunger and thirst are at the bottom of the hierarchy and must be met before any other needs can begin to operate. When biological needs are reasonably satisfied, safety needs motivate us. When we are no longer concerned about danger, the attachment needs including the need to belong, to love and be loved motivate us. If each of the preceding needs is reasonably satisfied, the esteem needs motivate us. At the top of the hierarchy are those who are nourished, safe, loved and loving, secure, thinking and creating. At this level, we have begun the search for the fullest development of our potentials, or self-actualization. 23) Which statement best captures the view of the textbook with respect to Maslow's theory of motivation? A) Although the theory is a positive one, its strict hierarchy may break down in some circumstances. B) The theory is not very useful in helping individuals to understand different aspects of their motivational experiences. C) Maslow's theory presents a view of human nature that is too pessimistic. D) The only aspect of the theory that has been supported is the idea of a strict hierarchy of needs. Answer: A Rationale: We ignore our basic needs to do something that we really want to do. The hierarchy will dominate us as long as we are unsatisfied. With satisfaction comes the freedom to do something that is out of order according to the hierarchy. 24) Which scenario best illustrates the weaknesses in Maslow's strict hierarchy? A) Lana skips a meal so that she can help out a friend. B) Lana travels to visit her aunt in another town and finds her gone to attend to a family emergency. Lana first satisfies her hunger and then she looks for a safe motel to spend the night. C) After getting a job, Lana starts helping socially disadvantaged persons. D) Lana gets a good job, which also provides her with the time to devote to her other passion in life, painting. Answer: A Rationale: Maslow’s hierarchy suggests that people must meet lower-level needs before they attend to higher-level needs. When someone skips a meal, the strict progression from satisfying biological needs to satisfying needs of safety, attachment, esteem, and self-fulfillment is violated. The biological need to satisfy hunger is put aside in favour of motivation that satisfies the need for attachment and/or the need for esteem. 25) Gary has finally landed a job and found a decent apartment. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, Gary should now be looking to satisfy which need? A) self-actualization B) biological C) safety D) attachment Answer: D Rationale: Gary has his safety needs met with the job and apartment, so his next set of needs according to Maslow would be attachment. 26) As part of the test of whether gastric activity in an empty stomach was the sole basis for hunger, what did Walter Cannon do? A) had a student swallow an inflatable balloon. B) had a student take an appetitie suppressant. C) deprived volunteers of particularly tasty foods. D) asked volunteers to eat bad-tasting cookies. Answer: A Rationale: Cannon tested the hypothesis that gastric activity in an empty stomach was the sole basis for hunger by having a student swallow an inflatable balloon. 27) Based on his pioneering research on hunger, what did Walter Cannon conclude? A) peripheral cues for hunger are secondary to central brain mechanisms. B) pressure stimulates the production of enzymes in the stomach. C) stomach cramps are responsible for hunger. D) stomach cramps are a necessary cue, but not a sufficient cue for hunger. Answer: C Rationale: Cannon’s balloon device that his student swallowed allowed him to record stomach cramps. He found that hunger pangs were correlated with periods when his stomach was contracted but not when his stomach was distended. 28) Which research findings provided evidence that stomach contractions are not responsible for hunger? A) injections of sugar into the bloodstream stopped both stomach contractions and hunger. B) people with their stomachs removed still experienced hunger. C) rats without stomachs did not learn mazes when rewarded with food. D) gastric distension caused by an inflated balloon motivated a person to end a meal. Answer: B Rationale: Research has shown that stomach contractions are not a necessary condition for hunger. Even when the stomach has been removed, rats will learn mazes when rewarded with food and humans who have had their stomachs removed still experience hunger pangs. Sensations originating in the stomach play a role in how hunger is experienced, but do not fully explain how the body detects its need for food and are motivated to eat. 29) As a meal progresses, even favourite foods become less and less tasty. Which term best reflects this phenomenon? A) sensory-specific satiety. B) peripheral-distortion. C) central-control eating. D) habituation-overload. Answer: A Rationale: The reduction in interest for foods as we eat them may be one way in which our bodies regulate intake. “Specific” means that satiety applies to specific flavours, though, and not to the food itself. Therefore, if the flavour is altered, satiety may be counteracted, and we will go on eating. 30) Taran is trying to lose weight. Which scenario would cause Taran to increase his food intake? A) Taran is presented with a series of foods with different tastes. B) Taran is presented with his favourite food only. C) Taran is presented with small portions of foods that he would not typically eat. D) Taran is provided with a spoon rather than a fork. Answer: A Rationale: When flavours of foods are slightly altered by vanilla or salt and pepper people have renewed interest in the foods. Variety in food tastes may counteract indications that they have already had enough to eat. 31) Which part of the brain is most involved in eating behaviour? A) amygdala. B) thalamus. C) hypothalamus. D) hippocampus. Answer: C Rationale: The lateral hypothalamus and the ventromedial hypothalamus have been implicated in the earliest theories to play a role in the initiating and cessation of eating behaviour. 32) A rat has had its ventromedial hypothalamus lesioned. How is the rat most likely to respond? A) seek out sweet food items. B) eat less food than normal rats. C) avoid food if it is overweight and overeat if it is underweight. D) eat more food than normal rats. Answer: D Rationale: Rats with VMH lesions overeat. Destruction of the VMH may have an effect on exaggerating ordinary responses to food. 33) A rat is having its ventromedial hypothalamus stimulated with a small electrical current. What will the rat most likely do? A) consume more food than it normally would without the brain stimulation. B) consume less food than it normally would without the brain stimulation. C) consume more food if it was overweight and consume less food if it was underweight. D) act aggressively toward others who try to share the food. Answer: B Rationale: Rats consume less food than normal if their VMH is stimulated. 34) Which two substances in the blood ultimately trigger the onset of eating behaviour? A) protein and carbohydrates B) sugar and fat C) amino acids and fibre D) glucose and insulin Answer: B Rationale: The two basic signals that initiate eating come from receptors that monitor the levels of sugar and fat in the blood. 35) When the VMH receives signals that the level of glucose or fatty acids in the blood is high, how will the individual respond? A) terminate eating behaviours. B) begin eating behaviours. C) terminate or begin eating behaviours depending on the time of day. D) engage in binge eating. Answer: A Rationale: Sugar and fat are the energy sources for metabolism; they signal the hypothalamus to initiate or terminate eating depending on their availability for metabolism or levels in the bloodstream. 36) Which brain receptors, when blocked, reduce appetite and food intake? A) serotonin B) cannabinoid C) norepinephrine D) thyroxin Answer: B Rationale: Cannabinoids are naturally found in the human body and stimulate appetite. Researchers have shown that blocking cannabinoid receptors reduces appetite and food intake. 37) Given that a BMI of 30 or more is the criterion for obesity, approximately what percentage of the Canadian adult population is obese? A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25 Answer: B Rationale: Among the Canadian adult population, roughly 36% are considered overweight and 15% are obese 38) A single mother of three does not feed her family the most nutritious foods, and often turns to foods that lack nutrients. According to the text, what is the most likely reason for this behaviour? A) Nutritious foods are more expensive. B) The mother requires education on the nutritional value of food. C) Less nutritious foods are more readily available. D) Less nutritious foods are commonplace in her culture. Answer: A Rationale: Past studies show that Canadians have limited access to high-quality food such as milk products, fruits, and vegetables because of the high cost of these more nutritious foods. 39) Which measure is used by researchers to determine who is overweight and who is obese? A) obesity index. B) body fat index. C) body mass index. D) overweight/underweight index. Answer: C Rationale: The body mass index is used to determine who is overweight and who is obese. It is the person’s weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in metres. 40) Which hormone helps regulate appetitie and influences weight control? A) serotonin B) leptin C) norepinephrine D) thyroxin Answer: B Rationale: If leptin is not available to balance the cannabinoids, which stimulate appetite, we would keep eating past satiety. Leptin helps regulate appetite and therefore critically influences weight control. 41) Early research on the psychological aspects of eating suggested that overweight individuals ignore the cues their bodies give them when food is available and prominent. Why was this theory modified? A) it was shown that biological predispositions to being overweight better explained weight problems. B) weight itself does not always predict eating patterns. C) the early theories did not take resting metabolic rate into account. D) identical twins reared apart are rarely both overweight. Answer: B Rationale: Not all people who are overweight have the same psychological makeup with respect to eating behaviours. 42) According to Janet Polivy and Peter Herman, what is the critical dimension underlying the psychology of eating behaviour? A) self-indulgence versus self-denial. B) heredity versus environment. C) restrained versus unrestrained eating. D) powerfulness versus powerlessness. Answer: C Rationale: Polivy and Herman proposed that the critical dimension that underlies the psychology of eating behaviours is restrained versus unrestrained eating. 43) A friend says that he is a restrained eater, and is constantly dieting. At the same time, he seems to be gaining weight. What is the likely reason for the weight gain? A) Restrained eaters tend to use food as a way to compensate for their feelings of inadequacy. B) Restrained eaters are more prone to suffering from stress and eat in order to relieve anxiety. C) Restrained eaters will binge-eat when they lose their restraints. D) Restrained eaters suffer from abnormally low metabolism. Answer: C Rationale: This is called disinhibition and can be caused by the prospect of going on a strict diet or when restrained eaters are made to feel stress about their capabilities and self-esteem. 44) Carmen is a restrained eater. Under which condition is she most likely to become disinhibited with respect to her eating restraints? A) when she is made aware of high calorie food items. B) when she believes that she can consume food in private. C) when she is in the presence of other restrained eaters. D) when she feels stress about her capabilities and self-esteem. Answer: D Rationale: Many types of life stress can lead to disinhibition, which in turn leads to binge eating and to weight gain. 45) Which social intervention would best help overweight children to eat less? A) Encouraging children to pack smaller lunches. B) Encouraging children to “graze.” C) Promoting family meals. D) Providing frequent verbal reminders about the risks associated with an unhealthy weight. Answer: C Rationale: Researchers have suggested that a “trend away from family meals toward grazing and eating alone” has taken place in family eating patterns over the past decades. Historically, children may have learned to limit food consumption in the presence of parents and siblings. The absence of that social context could help explain the increase in childhood obesity. Returning to the social convention of eating in the presence of others could help overweight children eat less. 46) In a study of restrained and unrestrained eaters described in the textbook, students were told that they were taking part in a study of the effects of food deprivation on taste perception and that some of them would be placed on diets. When asked to perform taste tests on cookies, what was the outcome? A) unrestrained eaters who were anticipating a diet ate more than twice the amount of cookies as restrained eaters who were anticipating a diet. B) restrained eaters who were anticipating a diet ate more than twice the amount of cookies as restrained eaters who were not anticipating a diet. C) unrestrained eaters ate more cookies, whether or not they were anticipating a diet. D) restrained eaters ate the most cookies, whether or not they were anticipating a diet. Answer: B Rationale: Research showed that restrained eaters ate more than twice as many cookies if they anticipated a diet than if they didn’t expect a diet. However, cookie consumption was not influenced by anticipation of diet with unrestrained eaters. 47) A woman engages in out-of-control eating, during which she may consume massive amounts of calories. Afterwards, feeling depressed, she will attempt to purge her body of these calories by vomiting. Although she is of average weight, she nevertheless feels uncomfortable with her appearance. Which disorder is being characterized? A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa. C) pica. D) compulsive eating disorder. Answer: B Rationale: Purging the body of food may involve self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, and fasting. Binging and purging potentially produce serious medical consequences. 48) When researchers looked at the brains of women with anorexia nervosa, what did they discover? A) there were no differences between the fMRI scans for women with and without anorexia. B) fMRI scans showed greater activation for both groups in areas that allow people to have accurate perceptions of the external world. C) women with anorexia showed less activity in brain regions that allow people to obtain accurate information from the outside world. D) women with anorexia nervosa showed greater activation in the hippocampal area. Answer: C Rationale: When fMRI scans were done, the patterns for self-images and other-images were quite distinct in the group with anorexia. In the control group of women without anorexia, scans revealed the same patterns of brain activity for both types of images. 49) In a study comparing women with and without anorexia, when did differences in brain scans occur? A) when the women were looking at images of super-models. B) when the women were looking at self-images. C) when the women were exposed to images of females. D) when the women were exposed to images of males. Answer: B Rationale: Both groups perceived the images of others accurately, but only the group without anorexia perceived self-images accurately. Only the self-images of the group with anorexia yielded unusual patterns of brain activity. 50) Groups of young Black and White women are asked to rate photographs of thin, average, and large models on dimensions such as attractiveness, and to rate themselves on how comfortable they are with their own body sizes. Which group will give the large models lower ratings and which group will be more comfortable with their own body sizes, respectively? A) White; Black B) White; White C) Black; White D) Black; Black Answer: A Rationale: One possible explanation is that there are more images of thin White women in the media, so these images have a greater impact on White women than they do on Black women. 51) There have been a few studies of eating disorders across differing racial and ethnic groups. What have these studies revealed about eating disturbances? A) They are more frequent in Black and Asian Americans than Whites, but equally common among Hispanic females as Whites. B) They are more frequent in Black, Asian Americans and Hispanic females than Whites. C) They are less frequent in Black and Asian Americans and Hispanic females than Whites. D) They are less frequent in Black and Asian Americans than Whites, but equally common among Hispanic females as Whites. Answer: D Rationale: Eating disturbances are more common in White and Hispanic females than Black and Asian Americans. 52) In females, which hormone controls sexual arousal? A) oxytocin. B) thyroxin. C) estrogen. D) androgen. Answer: C Rationale: Sexual arousal is controlled by androgens in males and estrogen in females. 53) As the sailfin molly expert, Claire has been asked to predict a female sailfin molly's mate selection when exposed to two males of different sizes, who have or have not been observed in the presence of other female sailfin mollies. On the basis of a study described in the textbook, which mate will the female sailfin molly most likely select? A) The one that is larger. B) The one that has been left alone. C) The one that has been observed with another female. D) The one that is more active in the water. Answer: C Rationale: A female fish seems to pay attention to males that appear to be desirable to other females even though her original preference was for another male fish. 54) Sonya works in the sexual research laboratory of William Masters and Virginia Johnson. What activity would Sonya most likely perform? A) design written questionnaires to be administered to married couples. B) conduct controlled laboratory observations of human sexual responses. C) study the stereotyped mating behaviours of laboratory rats and monkeys. D) do crisis counselling with victims of sexual abuse. Answer: B Rationale: Masters and Johnson studied human sexual behaviour by directly observing and recording the physiological patterns involved in ongoing human sexual performance under controlled laboratory conditions. 55) In which phase of the human sexual response cycle does the penis become erect and the clitoris swell? A) excitement B) plateau C) orgasm D) resolution Answer: A Rationale: In the excitement phase, there are vascular changes in the pelvic region that causes the penis to become erect and the clitoris to swell. 56) How do the male and female sexual responses differ? A) a man's blood pressure drops during orgasm whereas it rises in women. B) the maximum level of arousal is reached in the excitement phase for men and during the plateau phase in women. C) women are more likely to enter a refractory period following orgasm. D) women are more capable of experiencing multiple orgasms in fairly rapid succession. Answer: D Rationale: Men and woman have similar patterns of sexual response, although the female response is more variable, and women can have multiple orgasms while men rarely do in a comparable period of time. 57) What was one of the most important discoveries that emerged from Masters and Johnson's research on sexual responding? A) erotic stimuli are entirely psychological. B) problems in sexual responding are almost always physiological in nature. C) psychological processes play a role in both sexual arousal and sexual satisfaction. D) therapy is likely to be ineffective in correcting problems in sexual responding. Answer: C Rationale: Problems with sexual response often have psychological origins and can be overcome through therapy. 58) A newly married couple is having difficulty with their sexual relationship. How would Masters and Johnson most likely interpret this situation? A) problems like these may have psychological rather than physiological origins. B) therapy would be largely ineffective in treating the problem. C) The couple should introduce erotic stimuli into their sexual interactions. D) the problem is most likely due to physiological factors. Answer: A Rationale: Masters and Johnson discovered that psychological processes are of central significance in both arousal and satisfaction. 59) From an evolutionary perspective, what is the primary source of the different mating strategies observed in males and females? A) the cultural forces that control the sexual behaviour of males and females. B) differences in the number of times males and females can reproduce. C) the capacity of men to have only one orgasm per sexual episode and the capacity of women to have multiple orgasms per sexual episode. D) the higher level of sexual interest found in males and the lower level of sexual interest found in females. Answer: B Rationale: Human males can reproduce hundreds of times a year, females at most once a year. When reproduction is the objective, males compete for the limited number of eggs available at any one time. 60) A female deer is ready to mate. According to evolutionary psychologists, what is the basic problem facing this animal? A) She needs to maximize the number of offspring produced by mating with the largest number of males possible. B) She needs to find a high-quality male to ensure the healthiest offspring from her limited store of eggs. C) She needs to spend minimal time nurturing her offspring to foster independence and survival of the species. D) She needs to increase the number of eggs that are available for fertilzation. Answer: B Rationale: Eggs are the limited resource and males compete for opportunities to fertilize them. 61) According to David Buss, the strategy of choosing a mate of high status is one that has evolved in women. Which term best characterizes this type of mating strategy? A) long-term. B) short-term. C) proactive. D) retroactive. Answer: B Rationale: The female strategy of attracting a male who will stay with her and help raise the children is a long-term strategy. Acquiring resources or attracting men of high status is considered a shortterm strategy. 62) A study was conducted to predict men's and women's experiences of jealousy from an evolutionary perspective. What did the results reveal? A) women are much more likely to devise questions based on emotional involvement and men are much more likely to devise questions based on sexual infidelity. B) men are much more likely to devise questions based on emotional involvement and women are much more likely to devise questions based on sexual infidelity. C) both men and women are equally likely to devise questions based on sexual infidelity. D) both men and women are equally likely to devise questions based on emotional involvement. Answer: A Rationale: Evolutionary theory predicts that women's jealousy is focused on commitment to her and their children (emotional involvement) and that men's jealousy is focused on being burdened by someone else's children (the result of sexual infidelity). 63) Which view is supported by the "sexual revolution" of the 1960s? A) cultural attitudes play an important role in sexual expression. B) women's evolutionary history changed in the middle part of the last century. C) there is an important difference between sexual preferences and sexual behaviour. D) there is an important difference between being a "good provider" and having "good genes." 64) What contribution to the study of sexual behaviour did Alfred Kinsey make? A) recordings of human sexual intercourse under laboratory conditions. B) large-scale interviews of Americans about their sexual behaviour. C) development of an evolutionary theory of human sexuality. D) controversial theories of erotic attraction. Answer: B Rationale: Kinsey interviewed over 17,000 Americans about their sexual behaviour, beginning in the 1940’s. 65) What did recent surveys of sexual attitudes and practices reveal? A) the norms for sexual behaviour have changed over the last several decades. B) older adults are less likely to remain with one partner than younger adults. C) younger adults are more conservative about their sexual behaviour. D) the more conservative the attitude about sexual behaviour, the greater the likelihood of sexual deviance. Answer: A Rationale: The norms for sexual behaviour have changed over the years, in part due to the availability of birth control pills and Viagra. 66) In the culture in which a woman is raised, if a couple has sexual relations the man is expected to marry the woman. Which term best characterizes this prescription for sexual behaviour? A) equity theory. B) expectancy theory. C) a sexual script. D) a hierarchy of needs. Answer: C Rationale: Sexual scripts are socially learned "rules" for appropriate expression of sexual impulses. They include unspoken guidelines about when, where, and how to be sexually active, and why sexual activity should take place. 67) Amanda and Adam are participating in an experiment in which they are asked to read a script about a woman on a date that resisted having sex. According to research, how are Amanda and Adam most likely to respond? A) Amanda will be less likely to label the incident as date rape. B) Adam will be more likely to place responsibility on the victim. C) Amanda will be more likely to blame the victim. D) Adam will be more likely to view the script as an example of date rape. Answer: B Rationale: Male participants are less likely to label the incident as rape, and are more likely to place responsibility on the victim, than female participants. 68) What have recent surveys that have explored the issue of homosexuality revealed? A) it may be impossible to get an accurate estimate of the incidence of homosexuality. B) a large majority of individuals have had at least some homosexual experience. C) the actual incidence of homosexuality has likely been overestimated. D) women are much more likely to have sex with a same-sex partner than are men. Answer: A Rationale: People are reluctant to confide in researchers because of social hostility. 69) According to a study of 750 pairs of twins, what was the approximate percentage of monozygotic twins that were concordant for non-heterosexual orientations? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 Answer: C Rationale: In one sample of 750 pairs of twins, 32 percent of the monozygotic twins were concordant for non-heterosexual orientations versus 8 percent of dizygotic twins, suggesting that sexuality may in part be genetically determined. 70) A young girl does not wish to engage in girl-typical activities. According to Daryl Bem's theory of sexual preference, what else can be predicted about her behaviour? A) She will feel dissimilar from her same-sex peers. B) She will feel a lack of emotional arousal in her adult life. C) She will develop sexual preferences that are typical for girls. D) She will find boys to be "exotic and erotic." Answer: A Rationale: Bem suggests that feelings of dissimilarity lead to emotional arousal, which is transformed into erotic attraction over time. 71) A survey of 1335 heterosexual men and women was conducted to determine how they would feel about being around "a man who is homosexual" or "a woman who is a lesbian". What did the study reveal? A) both men and women anticipated more discomfort being around homosexual persons who matched their own sex. B) women as compared to men felt more uncomfortable being around homosexual men. C) men anticipated arousal around lesbian women. D) both men and women felt quite comfortable being around homosexuals who matched their own sex. Answer: A Rationale: When discomfort is severe and results in highly negative attitudes toward gay people, it is called homophobia. When surveyed, a higher percentage of heterosexual men anticipated more discomfort being around gay men than around lesbians. A higher percentage of heterosexual women anticipated more discomfort being around lesbians than around gay men. 72) What does the research on societal hostility toward homosexuality indicate? A) societal hostility will decrease if homosexuals keep their sexual preferences concealed. B) society would prefer lesbians to "come out" and gay men to remain hidden. C) the more gay men and lesbians a person knows, the more favourable his or her attitude. D) hostility could be decreased markedly if homosexual individuals remain segregated from society. Answer: C Rationale: Experience with individuals in minority groups can lead to more favourable attitudes. 73) The Thematic Apperception Test has been given to Landon as a participant in one of David McClelland's studies on the need for achievement. What would Landon be expected to do? A) rate himself on a series of achievement-related questions. B) check off those goals that most apply to him. C) compile a list of his most important lifetime achievements. D) generate stories in response to a series of ambiguous drawings. Answer: D Rationale: The assumption is that the stories are projections of the individual's values, interests, and motives into the scenes in the drawings. 74) What was the rationale for David McClelland's use of the Thematic Apperception Test to study achievement motivation? A) Individuals would respond most quickly to motives that they agreed with. B) Individuals would choose career paths that were consistent with their underlying motivations. C) Individuals would project their motives into their responses. D) Individuals wouldanswer direct questions honestly and accurately. Answer: C Rationale: McClelland felt that if you study peoples' fantasies and dreams you will discover themes that recur and can be used to explain their actions. 75) Anita has just returned from her interview with a counsellor and has received a high score on n Ach. What does this score indicate? A) She has had no history of achievement in her life. B) She has a high need for achievement. C) She has highly negative views toward achievement. D) She is a neurotic achiever. Answer: B Rationale: This reflects the importance she places on planning and working toward reaching her goals. 76) The textbook describes a longitudinal study that compared parenting practices related to the feeding and toilet training of their children with later adult measures of their children's n Ach and employment earnings. What did the results indicate? A) there was a negative correlation between achievement pressure in childhood and n Ach. B) higher-achieving adults had parents who applied strict rules to them as children. C) children who had experienced a high degree of parental pressure earned less as adults. D) there was no relationship between parenting practices and later adult achievement. Answer: B Rationale: Overall, there was a positive correlation between early parental achievement pressure and subsequent adult n Ach. These studies suggest that the need to achieve may develop in the first few years of life. 77) Brandon is not certain whether his actions have an impact on what happens to him or whether fate is responsible for his fortunes in life. To what internal-external dimension do Brandon’s questions relate? A) world view. B) personal perspective. C) attributions D) individualized sensitivity rating. Answer: C Rationale: Attributions refer to judgments about causes of outcomes. They have strong impacts on motivations. The internal-external dimension is one of three dimensions along which attributions can vary. 78) Katie has just received a promotion. Which term characterizes her judgment about the cause of this happy outcome? A) attribution. B) attentional element. C) emotion. D) control orientation. Answer: A Rationale: Attributions are judgments about the causes of outcomes and can have important impact on motivations. 79) Dawne feels that the reason the pie she was making burned is because everything she does is wrong and that she will never succeed at any task she attempts. What type of attribution is Dawne expressing? A) global B) specific C) unstable D) well-defined Answer: A Rationale: "Everything I do is wrong" is a statement that applies widely across many situations and is thus a global attribution. 80) A child entered the spelling bee hoping to win, but was eliminated in the first round. According to attributional theorists, which factor will influence his future motivation the most? A) what he believes is the cause of his failure. B) the true reason underlying his failure. C) his level of social support. D) his level of intelligence. Answer: A Rationale: The way people account for their successes and failures can become lifelong, habitual attributional styles. 81) If attributional style leads one friend to have an A at the end of the semester, and the other to have an F, what is the most likely source of these results? A) their ability to do the work. B) their ability to relate well to the instructor. C) their degree of extraversion. D) their explanatory style. Answer: D Rationale: The pessimistic attributional style focuses on internally generated causes of failure and the bad situation as well as the individual’s role in it as being stable and global. Because they believe themselves to be doomed to fail, pessimists are likely to perform worse than would be expected given objective measures of their talent. The friend with this style believes the bad situation and his role in it will never change and will affect everything. The friend with the optimistic attributional style sees failure as the result of external causes and of events that are modifiable and specific. This friend is likely to think of specific ways in which he can change the outcome the next time, believing that he can do better if he does something to affect the outcome. He will not believe that a specific setback will impede his progress on other tasks. 82) Lil is consistently optimistic in her approach to all of life's problems. To which causes is Lil most likely to attribute her successes? A) internal, unstable, and global B) internal, stable, and global C) external, unstable, and specific D) external, stable, and specific Answer: B Rationale: Optimists take full credit for their successes. 83) John is a gloomy, pessimistic kind of individual. He's no fun to be around. To which causes is John most likely to attribute his problems? A) external, unstable, and global B) internal, stable, and global C) external, stable, and specific D) internal, unstable, and specific Answer: B Rationale: The pessimistic attributional style focuses on the causes of failure as internally generated. The bad situation and the individual’s role in causing it are seen as stable and global. 84) Which causal explanation is most consistent with the optimistic explanatory style? A) I'm not surprised that I did well. I'm very intelligent. B) I'm not surprised that I did well. My luck had to change eventually. C) I'm surprised that I did well. There are so many people who are a lot smarter than I am. D) It's surprising that I did well. The test was tough. Answer: A Rationale: Optimists take full, personal internal-stable-global credit for their successes. 85) Which of the following sayings is most strongly supported by the body of research on pessimistic and optimistic explanatory styles? A) Nothing succeeds like success. B) To thine own self be true. C) There is power in positive thinking. D) Charity begins at home. Answer: C Rationale: Research shows that interpretation of events affects levels of motivation for future performance. 86) The textbook gives an example of research that explored the impact of causal attributions in an academic setting. Researchers found that participants in the experimental group obtained grades that were better than expected while those in the control group did worse than expected. What intervention did the experimental group receive? A) access to counsellors who were available to assist them with their feelings. B) access to a hotline that they could call for moral support. C) positive information about their general intellectual ability. D) reading materials that provided a new way to make attributions about social belonging. Answer: D Rationale: The readings showed that most upperclassmen had also worried when they were first at school about acceptance by other students. However, the readings also asserted that the upperclassmen were now sure that others accepted them. After participants read these new attributions, their grades improved due to renewed motivation. A small amount of information about social belonging has long-lasting effects. 87) Steven is a worker in a factory. According to equity theory, what is Steven motivated to do? A) outperform others whenever there is competition. B) maintain fair relationships with other workers. C) do the same amount of work as others in less time. D) refrain from making racist or sexist comments in the workplace. Answer: B Rationale: Workers take note of their own input and outcomes and compare these to input and outcomes of other workers. When the ratios are fairly equal, workers feel satisfied. 88) A man believes that he has been a hard worker and faithful employee, but that he has been treated unfairly by his company. Other workers do much less than he does, but they get paid more. According to the predictions of equity theory, what will this worker most likely do? A) quit his job. B) complain to his coworkers. C) reinterpret the effectiveness of his efforts on behalf of the company. D) ask his boss for a raise. Answer: D Rationale: Behavioural changes might include reducing input by working less or increasing outcome by asking for a raise. Psychological changes might occur by reinterpreting the value of inputs and outcomes (e.g., “I'm lucky to have a paycheck"). 89) Vanessa works in the post office and has the perception that her performance will lead to her regular paycheque. In the expectancy theory of motivation, Vanessa’s perception is most closely matched with which component? A) valence B) expectancy C) instrumentality D) fairness Answer: C Rationale: Instrumentality refers to the perception that performance will lead to certain outcomes, such as rewards. 90) According to the predictions of the expectancy theory of work, when do the lowest levels of motivation result? A) when any single component is zero. B) when instrumentality and valence have low probabilities, and expectancy has a high probability. C) when instrumentality, valence, and expectancy all have low probabilities. D) when instrumentality, valence, and expectancy all have high probabilities. Answer: A Rationale: Workers combine the values of the three components by assessing their individual probabilities and multiplying them together. A zero value results in zero motivation. 91) Damian works at a job in which good performance is not rewarded. In addition, he feels that his job has low status and that no matter how hard he tries, in the long run he will not be successful. According to expectancy theory, how is Damian likely to behave? A) raise his work effort to a higher level. B) demonstrate low levels of work motivation. C) change the relevant inputs and outcomes in order to restore feelings of equity. D) start to ask questions about how his salary compares with that of other workers. Answer: B Rationale: There is a value of zero regarding reward for good performance. Because this instrumentality value is zero, the worker is likely to show the lowest levels of job motivation. 92) A student has performance-approach goals. Which statement by the student would be expected? A) "I want to get the top grade in the class." B) "I will be just as happy if I get a B." C) "I hope that the test isn’t too difficult." D) "What’s important is that I try my best." Answer: A Rationale: This student focuses on appearing more competent than others. Analyses of students’ performance have identified three general types of achivement goals among students: performance approach, illustrated here; performance-avoidance goals, which describe students who focus on avoiding being judged less competent than others; and mastery goals, which describe students who focus on mastering new skills. 93) Dean is a professor who finds that some students have failed his exam. Dean discovers that one of the failed students had transferred late to his class. How is Dean most likely to feel? A) more sympathetic to this particular student only. B) more sympathetic to all the failed students. C) less sympathetic to this particular student only. D) no differently about any of the failed students. Answer: A Rationale: Teachers use dimensions like controllability to make attributions in their responses to students. In this case, the teacher may attribute the student's failure to not having as much control over the material and over studying for it because the student just transferred into the class. 94) In the approach of Clark Hull, organisms seek to increase tension or avoid homeostasis, with respect to biological conditions. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Clark Hull's drive reduction theory posits that organisms seek to reduce tension (or drives) arising from biological needs, rather than increasing tension or avoiding homeostasis. 95) Incentives are external stimuli or rewards that motivate behaviour, although they do not relate directly to biological needs. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Incentives are indeed external stimuli or rewards that can motivate behavior, and they may not necessarily be tied directly to biological needs as suggested by drive reduction theory. 96) William James emphasized the importance of instincts as motivational constructs for human behaviour. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: William James did indeed emphasize the significance of instincts as motivational factors in human behavior, highlighting their role in driving various actions and responses. 97) Social-learning theory stresses the role of observation and the imitation of behaviours observed in others. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Social-learning theory, developed by Albert Bandura, emphasizes the importance of observational learning and the imitation of behaviors observed in others as significant factors in shaping human behavior. 98) Fritz Heider postulated that all behavioral outcomes can be attributed to dispositional forces, such as lack of effort or insufficient intelligence. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Fritz Heider is known for his attribution theory, which suggests that people attribute behavior to either internal dispositional factors or external situational factors, not solely dispositional forces as stated in the question. 99) According to Maslow's theory of motivation, a person will not be motivated to love and be loved until they have satisfied self-actualization needs. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Maslow's hierarchy of needs suggests that love and belongingness needs come before selfactualization needs in the hierarchy. Thus, according to Maslow, individuals can be motivated to seek love and belongingness before achieving self-actualization. 100) The work of pioneering physiologist Walter Cannon conclusively demonstrated that gastric activity in an empty stomach is the sole basis for hunger. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Walter Cannon's research contributed to understanding hunger, but it did not conclusively demonstrate that gastric activity in an empty stomach is the sole basis for hunger. Other factors such as psychological and environmental cues also play a role in hunger and eating behavior. 101) When studying the brain in relation to eating, the pituitary gland is most often the focus of research. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The pituitary gland is not typically the primary focus of research when studying the brain in relation to eating. Instead, areas such as the hypothalamus, which plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and satiety, are more commonly investigated. 102) Research on the causes of eating disorders has confirmed the importance of genetic factors. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Numerous studies have shown that genetic factors play a significant role in the development of eating disorders, such as anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating disorder. While environmental factors also contribute, research supports the importance of genetic predispositions in the etiology of eating disorders. 103) Individuals with BMIs of 30 and above are considered obese. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: According to the World Health Organization (WHO) and other health organizations, individuals with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 or above are classified as obese. BMI is a measure calculated using an individual's weight and height, and a BMI of 30 or higher indicates a level of obesity. 104) Researchers have isolated a gene, called leptin, that appears to control signals to the brain that enough fat has been stored in the body in the course of a meal, so the individual should stop eating. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose (fat) cells that plays a crucial role in regulating energy balance and appetite. Research has indeed identified leptin as a key hormone involved in signaling satiety to the brain, indicating when enough fat has been stored and inhibiting further eating. 105) In their research on the psychology of eating, Janet Polivy and Peter Herman have found that unrestrained eaters who become disinhibited by life circumstances are likely to indulge in high-calorie binges. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Janet Policy and Peter Herman's research has actually suggested the opposite. They introduced the concept of "restrained eating," suggesting that individuals who restrain their eating are more prone to disinhibition, particularly when faced with life stressors, leading to binge eating episodes. Unrestrained eaters, in their framework, would be less likely to experience disinhibition and subsequent binging. 106) Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by measures to purge the body of the excess calories. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is indeed characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, where individuals consume large amounts of food in a short period, followed by compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. Purging behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications, are common in individuals with bulimia nervosa. 107) Sex researchers William Masters and Virginia Johnson found that, although the sequence of phases of the sexual response cycle is similar for men and women, men are more variable, tending to respond more slowly but often remaining aroused longer than women. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: William Masters and Virginia Johnson's research did not support the idea that men are more variable in their sexual response compared to women. Instead, they proposed a model of sexual response that applies similarly to both men and women, consisting of four phases: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. While there may be individual variations in the timing and intensity of these phases, there is no evidence to suggest that men are consistently slower to respond or remain aroused longer than women. 108) Evolutionary psychologists use the term "erotic plasticity" to describe the time and energy parents must spend raising their offspring. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: "Erotic plasticity" is not a term used by evolutionary psychologists to describe parenting behaviors. Instead, erotic plasticity refers to the degree to which an individual's sexuality can be shaped or influenced by sociocultural factors, such as social norms, cultural practices, and interpersonal relationships. 109) The term "date rape" applies to circumstances in which someone is coerced into sexual activity by a social acquaintance in the context of a dating situation. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Date rape, also known as acquaintance rape, refers to sexual assault or coerced sexual activity that occurs between people who know each other, often in the context of a dating or social relationship. It involves non-consensual sexual activity where the victim does not or cannot give consent due to factors such as intoxication, coercion, or incapacitation. 110) On the basis of research with twins, it seems clear that homosexuality and heterosexuality are determined by personal and social environments, and are uninfluenced by biological forces. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Research with twins and other studies indicate that both biological and environmental factors contribute to sexual orientation, including homosexuality and heterosexuality. While social and environmental influences play a role, there is substantial evidence suggesting a genetic and biological component to sexual orientation. Twin studies have shown that identical twins, who share 100% of their genes, are more likely to have concordant sexual orientations compared to fraternal twins, supporting a genetic influence. Additionally, research on the neurobiology of sexual orientation has identified differences in brain structure and function between individuals of different sexual orientations. Therefore, it is inaccurate to assert that sexual orientation is solely determined by personal and social environments. 111) What seems to typify high n Ach individuals is a need for efficiency; that is, a need to get the same result for less effort. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: High need for Achievement (n Ach) individuals are characterized by a desire for accomplishment and success. They often seek to attain goals and excel in their endeavors. One aspect of this need for achievement is a preference for efficiency, where individuals strive to achieve desired outcomes with minimal effort, indicating a desire to optimize performance. 112) Attributions are judgments about the causes of outcomes. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Attributions refer to the explanations or judgments individuals make about the causes of events or outcomes. These judgments can involve attributing outcomes to internal or external factors, stable or unstable causes, and specific or global causes. Understanding attributions helps individuals make sense of their experiences and guide their behavior. 113) When something bad happens, an individual with a pessimistic attributional style will attribute it to a cause that is unstable and specific. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: An individual with a pessimistic attributional style tends to attribute negative events or outcomes to internal (personal), stable, and global causes. This attributional style, known as a pessimistic explanatory style, often leads to feelings of helplessness and hopelessness. They may attribute negative events to factors such as personal inadequacy or inherent flaws, which they perceive as enduring (stable) and applicable across various situations (global). 114) Expectancy, instrumentality, and valence are the three components of the expectancy theory of work motivation. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: The expectancy theory of work motivation proposes that an individual's motivation to engage in a particular behavior is determined by three factors: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Expectancy refers to the belief that effort will lead to performance, instrumentality is the belief that performance will result in desired outcomes, and valence is the value or attractiveness of the outcomes. These three components interact to influence an individual's motivation and behavior in the workplace. 115) In the view of Clark Hull, internal states that arise in response to an animal's physiological needs are called __________. Answer: drives Rationale: Clark Hull, a prominent psychologist known for his work on behaviorism and learning theory, conceptualized drives as internal states that arise from physiological needs, such as hunger or thirst. According to his drive-reduction theory, these drives motivate organisms to engage in behaviors aimed at reducing the tension caused by these needs. 116) The __________ is the brain structure that is most involved in the control of eating. Answer: hypothalamus Rationale: The hypothalamus, a small region located deep within the brain, plays a critical role in regulating eating behavior. It integrates signals from various parts of the body related to hunger, satiety, and nutrient levels, and it initiates or suppresses eating behavior accordingly. 117) An individual would be diagnosed as having __________ when he or she weighs less than 85 percent of expected weight, but still expresses an intense fear of becoming fat. Answer: anorexia nervosa Rationale: Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by significantly low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, and a distorted body image. Diagnosis typically involves a person weighing less than 85% of what is considered normal for their age, height, and sex. 118) For men, the hormone __________ is necessary for sexual arousal and performance. Answer: testosterone Rationale: Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone responsible for the development of male reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics. It plays a crucial role in sexual arousal, libido, and the maintenance of erectile function in men. 119) __________ are socially learned programs of sexual responsiveness that include prescriptions of what to do; when, where, and how to do it; with whom or with what to do it; and why it should be done. Answer: Sexual scripts Rationale: Sexual scripts are cognitive representations of learned behaviors and expectations regarding sexual activities. These scripts encompass cultural and social norms dictating how individuals should behave sexually, including roles, behaviors, and norms regarding initiation, consent, and performance. 120) The __________ is a projective test in which pictures of ambiguous scenes are presented to an individual, who is encouraged to generate stories about them. Answer: Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) Rationale: The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a projective psychological assessment tool in which individuals are presented with ambiguous images and asked to construct stories about them. Psychologists analyze these stories to gain insights into the individual's personality characteristics, emotional concerns, and interpersonal relationships. 121) Internal-external, stability-instability, global-specific are dimensions of __________ theory. Answer: attribution Rationale: Attribution theory explores how individuals interpret and explain the causes of behaviors and events. The dimensions mentioned—internal-external, stability-instability, global-specific— refer to the factors people consider when attributing causes to outcomes or behaviors, whether they are due to internal or external factors, stable or unstable, and global or specific in nature. 122) A worker takes note of the investment he makes in his job and what he receives, and then compares these with the inputs and outcomes of other workers. This describes the __________ theory of work motivation. Answer: equity Rationale: Equity theory posits that individuals compare their inputs (efforts, contributions) and outcomes (rewards) to those of others in similar situations. When perceived inequity arises, individuals may be motivated to restore fairness by adjusting their efforts, seeking changes in outcomes, or altering their perceptions of the situation. 123) Students who focus on __________ goals evaluate success according to selfimprovement, interest, and challenge. Answer: mastery Rationale: Mastery goals involve striving for competence, skill development, and personal growth rather than focusing solely on outperforming others. Individuals with mastery goals seek to improve themselves, enhance their skills, and master new tasks for intrinsic satisfaction and selfimprovement. 124) Sean focuses on avoiding being judged as less competent than others in his class. He is motivated to avoid doing poorly. This type of achievement motivation results in __________ goals. Answer: performance-avoidance Rationale: Performance-avoidance goals involve striving to avoid failure or negative judgments of competence relative to others. Individuals with performance-avoidance goals are motivated by fear of performing poorly compared to their peers or being negatively evaluated by others. 125) Why do we do what we do? In answering this question, psychologists have suggested five basic purposes or functions of motivational concepts. Summarize these purposes. Answer: The five basic concepts are: to relate biology to behaviour; to account for behavioural variability; to infer private states from public acts; to assign responsibility for actions; and to explain perseverance despite adversity. 126) How have motivational psychologists attempted to explain our behaviour in terms of drives, incentives, instincts, cognitive factors, and the need for achievement? Answer: Overview of Hull's theory of drives, instincts, incentives we find in our own lives, examples of expectations, social learning, and needs. 127) Pushing himself away from the dinner table and loosening his belt a notch, a friend vows never to eat again. Unfortunately for your friend, there are physiological mechanisms that will make it difficult for him to keep his promise. Describe these mechanisms. Answer: Discuss the peripheral responses and the work of Cannon regarding how the stomach may cue us to hunger. Discuss central responses in the brain, as well as other body cues to hunger. 128) Consider the fact that eating is not just a physiological process, it is also a psychological experience. What have researchers learned about the psychological factors that contribute to weight-related problems? Answer: The psychology of eating include cultural factors such as recommendations for healthy eating, social norms, timing of meals, restrained and unrestrained eating, dieting, and the influences of others on how we eat. All of these factors interact with the physiology of eating and genetic influences. 129) Discuss the difference between anorexia nervosa, bulemia nervosa, and binge eating disorder. What are some likely causes of eating disorders? Answer: Define anorexia, bulimia, and BED. Discuss genetic and environmental factors. 130) The primary motivation for sexual behaviours in nonhuman animals is reproduction. In humans, sexual motivation seems more complex. Describe the pioneering research of William Masters and Virginia Johnson on the physiology of the sexual response, then summarize the view of evolutionary psychologists with respect to mating behaviours. Finally, what has research told us about the nature and nurture of homosexuality? Answer: Sexual arousal is determined by physiological factors in nonhuman animals. (Example: stereotypical sexual behaviour.) Give examples and mention exceptions. Summarize Master's and Johnson's conclusions (there are four major ones). Give examples of why mating behaviours might have developed into short and long-term strategies. What is a sexual script? How does homophobia affect homosexual individuals/couples? 131) Along what dimensions do people make attributions? How is attribution related to academic achievement? Cite recent research on the analysis of students' performance as related to the types of general achievement goals. Answer: An attribution is a judgment of causes of outcomes. Discuss the dimensions of attributions, pessimistic and optimistic attributional styles, the effect of attributions on motivation, and performance avoidance/performance approach achievement goals, as well as the goal of mastery. 132) Equity theory and expectancy theory are two theories organizational psychologists have developed to understand motivation in the work place. Describe these theories giving suitable examples. Answer: Equity theory proposes that workers maintain fair and equitable relationships with other workers. Describe how this is done. What are the consequences of inequity/equity? Expectancy theory states that workers will be motivated when they expect their efforts in the workplace to result in desired outcomes. Define the three components of the theory. Give examples of the application of these components. 1) Motivation refers to that which: A) explains the physical makeup of an organism. B) energizes the behaviour of an organism. C) directs the behaviour of an organism. D) both b and c Answer: D Rationale: Motivation refers to factors that energize and direct behavior. It both energizes behavior by providing the drive to act and directs behavior toward specific goals or outcomes. 2) The concept that a person acts in a certain manner because of an innate predisposition to do so is based on the _______ theory. A) aggression B) drive C) instinct D) incentive Answer: C Rationale: The instinct theory of motivation suggests that behavior is driven by innate, fixed patterns called instincts. According to this theory, individuals are predisposed to behave in certain ways due to evolutionary factors. 3) Which of the following best describes the instinct theory of motivation? A) Tension is created within an organism when it has been deprived of something it needs, thus compelling it to satisfy its needs. B) External cues elicit behavior from an organism. C) Organisms have inborn patterns of behavior and innate desires to perform in a certain manner. D) Organisms have desires to act in specific ways, but these behaviors can be modified by learning. Answer: C Rationale: The instinct theory of motivation posits that organisms have inborn patterns of behavior and innate desires to perform certain actions. These behaviors are believed to be genetically programmed and do not require learning. 4) Instincts are thought to: A) exist within the individual. B) explain why people act differently in the same situation. C) explain what an individual does but not why. D) be caused by conditions outside the organism that push it into action. Answer: A Rationale: Instincts are believed to be inherent within the individual, representing innate patterns of behavior that guide actions. They are not dependent on external conditions but are instead internally driven. 5) Daniel, age 5, saw a clock on the shelf and took it apart to see what made it tick. Which theory best explains this behavior? A) cognitive B) drive-reduction C) instinct D) behavioral Answer: A Rationale: Daniel's behavior of dismantling the clock to understand how it works is best explained by cognitive theory. This theory emphasizes the role of mental processes, such as perception, memory, and problem-solving, in guiding behavior. 6) Social learning theorists would suggest which of the following to parents? A) Monitor and control the television programs you allow your children to watch. B) Let children watch violent television shows to release their hostility. C) Allow children to behave violently in controlled settings to decrease their violence elsewhere. D) Don’t let children watch television. Answer: A Rationale: Social learning theorists would recommend monitoring and controlling the television programs children watch to limit exposure to violent content and promote prosocial behaviors through observational learning. 7) Betty is a first-born child and she has a younger brother and sister. Which child is most likely to show a high need for affiliation when confronted with a fear situation? A) the younger sister B) the younger brother C) Betty D) Affiliation is not related to birth order. Answer: C Rationale: According to birth order theory, first-born children tend to exhibit higher levels of affiliation and social responsibility. Therefore, Betty, as the first-born child, is most likely to show a high need for affiliation when confronted with a fear situation. 8) According to social-learning theory, the two major mechanisms for the learning of aggression are ___________. A) anxiety and fear B) instinct and anxiety C) reinforcement and imitation D) reinforcement and fear Answer: C Rationale: Social learning theory suggests that aggression is learned through reinforcement and imitation. Individuals observe aggressive behavior in others and may imitate it if they perceive that the behavior is rewarded or reinforced. 9) An example of intrinsic motivation is reading a textbook because: A) you want to earn an A on a test. B) you want to avoid a D or an F. C) you enjoy reading it. D) you are being paid to read it. Answer: C Rationale: Intrinsic motivation refers to engaging in behavior because it is inherently rewarding or enjoyable. Therefore, reading a textbook because you enjoy it represents intrinsic motivation. 10) A need that energizes and directs behavior toward some goal is known as a _______. A) cue B) behavior C) motive D) stimulus Answer: C Rationale: A motive is a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior toward a specific goal or outcome. Motives serve to guide behavior by providing the impetus for action in pursuit of satisfying needs or achieving goals. 11) The concept that an organism is motivated to act because its body is in a state of need is based on the _________ theory. A) incentive B) affiliation C) drive D) instinct Answer: C Rationale: The drive theory of motivation suggests that behavior is motivated by the desire to satisfy physiological needs or reduce internal tension caused by unmet needs. When an organism's body is in a state of need, it experiences a drive that motivates it to take action to fulfill those needs. 12) In some mammals, odorous chemical substances that attract mature males are called ___________. A) pheromones B) phonemes C) estrogens D) releasing stimuli Answer: A Rationale: Pheromones are chemical substances secreted by animals, including mammals, to communicate with others of the same species. In some mammals, pheromones serve as signals to attract mates, particularly mature males. 13) Drives that are unlearned are called __________. A) primary B) secondary C) reflexive D) learned Answer: A Rationale: Drives that are unlearned and innate to the organism are referred to as primary drives. These drives are typically related to biological needs such as hunger, thirst, and sex. 14) An innate or inborn predisposition to act in a specific way is called a(n) _______. A) instinct B) drive C) incentive D) need Answer: A Rationale: An instinct refers to an innate or inborn predisposition to behave in a specific way in response to certain stimuli. Instincts are often genetically programmed and do not require learning. 15) When you get too warm, you begin to perspire. This is an example of: A) a drive. B) homeostasis. C) a need. D) adjustment. Answer: B Rationale: Homeostasis refers to the body's ability to maintain internal stability or balance. Perspiring when too warm is an example of the body's response to maintain a stable internal temperature, which is a form of homeostasis. 16) Clark Hull’s drive-reduction perspective was based on which of the following principles? A) homeostasis B) instinct C) psychic energy D) genetics Answer: A Rationale: Clark Hull's drive-reduction theory of motivation was based on the principle of homeostasis, which posits that organisms are motivated to maintain a state of physiological equilibrium or balance by reducing drives. 17) The observation that people often seek stimulation and that not all motives are aroused by internal states contradicts the _______ theory of motivation. A) incentive B) drive-reduction C) Gestalt D) cognitive Answer: B Rationale: The observation that people seek stimulation and that not all motives are solely driven by internal states contradicts the drive-reduction theory of motivation, which emphasizes the reduction of physiological drives as the primary motivator of behavior. 18) Homeostasis refers to: A) realizing one’s full potential. B) a balanced state in the body’s internal environment. C) a state of optimum stimulation either above or below equilibrium. D) the mechanism by which unconscious needs are satisfied. Answer: B Rationale: Homeostasis refers to a balanced state in the body's internal environment, where physiological processes are regulated to maintain stability and optimal functioning. 19) The concept of _______ replaced the concept of instinct in motivation theory. A) purpose B) optimal level of stimulation C) drive reduction D) homeostasis Answer: C Rationale: In motivation theory, the concept of drive reduction replaced the concept of instinct. Drive reduction theory suggests that behavior is motivated by the desire to reduce physiological drives or tensions arising from unmet needs. 20) The process by which the body maintains a balance or equilibrium in its internal environment is called ______. A) neoteny B) autoregulation C) homeostasis D) hypothalamus Answer: C Rationale: Homeostasis is the process by which the body maintains a balance or equilibrium in its internal environment, regulating various physiological variables such as temperature, hydration, and metabolism to ensure optimal functioning. 21) A(n) _______ is an external stimulus that can motivate behavior even if no drive is initially present. A) homeostatic mechanism B) motor program C) arousal mechanism D) incentive Answer: D Rationale: An incentive is an external stimulus or environmental factor that can motivate behavior, even in the absence of physiological drives. Incentives can influence behavior by offering rewards or punishments, attracting individuals toward certain actions or goals. 22) The basis of drive theory is the principle of ________. A) reinforcement B) achievement C) homeostasis D) homeopathy Answer: C Rationale: The basis of drive theory is the principle of homeostasis, which suggests that organisms are motivated to maintain internal stability or equilibrium by reducing physiological drives or tensions through specific behaviors. 23) A famed psychologist claims that motivated behaviors result from an effort to reduce tension caused by bodily needs such as hunger or thirst. This psychologist’s philosophy most closely matches _______ theory. A) threshold B) trait C) homeostatic D) drive-reduction Answer: D Rationale: The philosophy described aligns closely with drive-reduction theory, which proposes that motivated behaviors stem from efforts to reduce physiological drives or tensions, such as hunger or thirst, through appropriate actions or behaviors. 24) Abraham Maslow theorized that human needs are: A) basically identical to those of animals. B) arranged in a hierarchy of importance. C) destined to conflict with one another at all times. D) less important than emotions. Answer: B Rationale: Abraham Maslow proposed a hierarchy of human needs, suggesting that individuals prioritize fulfilling lower-level needs before higher-level ones. These needs are arranged in a hierarchical order of importance, with basic physiological needs at the bottom and selfactualization needs at the top. 25) Which motivational theorist is associated with the following assumption? “Before higherlevel needs can be addressed or acted on, one’s lower level needs must be met.” A) Freud B) Maslow C) McClelland D) Harlow Answer: B Rationale: Abraham Maslow is associated with this assumption, as it reflects the central idea of his hierarchy of needs theory. According to Maslow, individuals must satisfy lower-level physiological and safety needs before they can pursue higher-level needs such as love, esteem, and self-actualization. 26) What is the lowest need in Maslow’s hierarchy? A) physiological B) safety C) achievement D) self-actualization Answer: A Rationale: The lowest need in Maslow's hierarchy is physiological needs, which include basic requirements for survival such as food, water, shelter, and sleep. These needs must be satisfied before an individual can progress to fulfilling higher-level needs. 27) Maslow is associated with which of the following notions? A) that when the body temperature falls, we are motivated to eat B) that the motive to explore and manipulate is important for individual survival C) that our motives are organized into a hierarchy D) that some people are driven by the achievement motive Answer: C Rationale: Maslow is associated with the notion that our motives are organized into a hierarchy, known as Maslow's hierarchy of needs. According to this theory, individuals prioritize fulfilling lower-level physiological and safety needs before addressing higher-level needs. 28) According to Maslow’s hierarchy of motives theory, which one of the following needs must first be satisfied? A) self-actualization B) esteem needs C) physiological needs D) safety needs Answer: C Rationale: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, physiological needs must be satisfied first before an individual can progress to fulfilling higher-level needs such as safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization. 29) For Maslow, the most highly evolved motive is _______. A) esteem B) physiological need C) intellectual need D) self-actualization Answer: D Rationale: For Maslow, self-actualization is considered the most highly evolved motive. Selfactualization refers to the desire for personal growth, fulfillment, and realizing one's full potential as an individual. 30) The correct order of Maslow’s hierarchy of motives from the most primitive to the most complex and human is _______. A) safety, physiological, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization B) physiological, esteem, self-actualization, safety, belongingness C) physiological, esteem, safety, belongingness, self-actualization D) physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization Answer: D Rationale: The correct order of Maslow's hierarchy of needs from the most primitive to the most complex and human is physiological needs, safety needs, belongingness and love needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. 31) Which theory maintains that emotion is caused by the interaction of physiological processes and interpretation? A) James-Lange theory B) cognitive theory C) activation theory D) Cannon-Bard theory Answer: B Rationale: The cognitive theory of emotion posits that emotions are the result of physiological arousal combined with cognitive interpretation or appraisal of the situation. Unlike the James-Lange theory, which suggests that physiological arousal precedes the emotional experience, the cognitive theory emphasizes the role of cognitive processes in determining emotions. 32) Dorothy is both hungry and thirsty. Which of the following is involved in both of these drives? A) the hippocampus B) spinal reflexes C) the hypothalamus D) the amygdala Answer: C Rationale: The hypothalamus plays a central role in regulating both hunger and thirst. It monitors the body's internal state and initiates appropriate responses to maintain homeostasis, including the regulation of eating and drinking behaviors. 33) Bulimia is most common among which of the following? A) females in their late teens and early twenties B) middle-aged females C) adolescent males D) both males and females in their late teens and early twenties Answer: A Rationale: Bulimia nervosa, an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging, is most commonly observed in females in their late teens and early twenties. 34) It is believed that the hypothalamus controls ________. A) aggression B) social learning abilities C) long-term mechanisms of body weight D) biological motives Answer: D Rationale: The hypothalamus plays a key role in regulating various biological motives, including hunger, thirst, sexual behavior, and sleep. It integrates signals from the body and external environment to maintain physiological balance. 35) Which of the following is the most recent conclusion concerning the role of stomach contractions in signaling hunger? They: A) have no influence. B) play a minor role. C) play a major role. D) cannot be studied because of a lack of technology. Answer: B Rationale: Recent research suggests that stomach contractions play a minor role in signaling hunger compared to other physiological and environmental cues. While stomach contractions may contribute to hunger sensations, they are not the sole determinant of hunger. 36) A decline in the level of testosterone in either men or women leads to __________. A) an increase in sexual desire B) abnormal sexual desires C) pain and discomfort during sexual activity D) a decrease in sexual desire Answer: D Rationale: A decrease in testosterone levels in both men and women typically leads to a decrease in sexual desire or libido. Testosterone plays a key role in regulating sexual arousal and motivation. 37) Hugh has such powerful sexual needs that he engages in dangerously promiscuous behavior. In this case, Hugh’s sexual needs are a(n) _______. A) emotion B) motive C) stimulus D) cue Answer: B Rationale: In this context, Hugh's powerful sexual needs represent a motive—a driving force that energizes and directs behavior. Motives such as sexual needs can influence behavior and lead individuals to engage in various actions to satisfy those needs. 38) Sexual behavior seems to fit the instinct model ___________. A) in humans B) only in human males C) in some lower animals D) only if pheromones are not present Answer: C Rationale: Sexual behavior in some lower animals appears to follow instinctual patterns, suggesting that it may fit the instinct model in those species. In humans and other higher mammals, sexual behavior is influenced by both instinctual factors and learned behaviors. 39) A group of people is watching a movie in which an attractive man and woman are shown getting undressed. Which of the following is most likely to become MOST aroused? A) a healthy young man B) a healthy young woman C) an adolescent of either sex D) a healthy adult of either sex Answer: A Rationale: Generally, healthy young men are more likely to become highly aroused by visual sexual stimuli compared to other groups. This response pattern is influenced by factors such as biological predispositions and cultural norms. Test Bank for Psychology and Life Richard J. Gerrig, Philip G. Zimbardo, Serge Desmarais, Tammy Ivanco 9780205037117, 9780205859139

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