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Chapter 6: Mind, Consciousness, and Alternate States 1) According to the textbook, what can be said about consciousness? A) It is cogent. B) It is precise. C) It is ambiguous. D) It is tangible. Answer: C Rationale: We can use the term to refer to a general state of mind or to the specific contents of the mind. Sometimes we say we are conscious as opposed to unconscious. Sometimes we use the term to refer to awareness of internal and external events. 2) With respect to the term "consciousness," what point does the textbook make? A) It is typically defined in terms of specific physiological processes that are occurring in the brain. B) It refers to the contents of consciousness, not a general state of mind. C) It refers to a general state of mind, not the contents of consciousness. D) It can refer to a general state of mind or to its specific contents. Answer: D Rationale: We are conscious when we are aware (a general state of mind). We are also conscious when we speak of the information of which we are aware (contents of consciousness). 3) In his classic text written in 1892, how did William James define psychology? A) as the description and explanation of behaviour. B) as the description and explanation of states of consciousness. C) as the description and explanation of animal and human intelligence. D) as the description and explanation of emotion and motivation. Answer: B Rationale: James in 1892 defined psychology as the description and explanation of states of consciousness. 4) Although Jason was not thinking about what he had for dinner the night before, when his friend asked him about the meal, it sparked the recollection of his visit to a local restaurant and a very tasty spaghetti dish. Which term best reflects Jason’s recollection of the dinner? A) nonconscious processes. B) preconscious memories. C) unattended information. D) the unconscious. Answer: B Rationale: These memories are accessible to consciousness only after something calls your attention to them. They function silently in the background of your mind until a situation arises in which they are consciously necessary. 5) After eating a meal, Vikki is completely unaware of the digestive processes going on in her body. Which term best describes this phenomenon? A) a nonconscious process. B) a preconscious memory. C) unattended information. D) the unconscious. Answer: A Rationale: These processes comprise bodily activities that take place without awareness. 6) A tourist had never been to Paris before, and when she got off the train she was totally confused. People were everywhere and she was being swept along by the crowd. Suddenly, she was aware that someone was calling her name. What does this example illustrate? A) the unconscious. B) preconscious memories. C) unattended information. D) nonconscious processes. Answer: C Rationale: At any given time, we are surrounded by a vast amount of stimulation. We can only attend to a small part of it. What we focus on, in combination with the memories it evokes, will determine to a large extent what is in consciousness. Laboratory research has confirmed that people are likely to notice their own names among unattended information. However, other researchers have suggested that some attention is actually given to unattended information. 7) Sigmund Freud believed that certain experiences are so painful and threatening that they are barred from consciousness. Which term best describes this phenomenon? A) nonconscious processes. B) preconscious memories. C) unattended information. D) repressed memories. Answer: D Rationale: Freud thought that in order to avoid anxiety, some unacceptable thoughts, ideas and motives must be hidden from our conscious awareness. This process is called repression. Our behaviours are influenced still even though we are not aware of the source of the influence. 8) Libby adopted Steven, a five-year old boy from a severely abusive home. As Steven grew up, Libby gradually spoke less and less about Steven’s real parents. Libby believed that therapy wouldn't undo the damage done by Steven’s real parents. Much to her surprise, by the time Steven was 20 he didn't have any recollection of his real parents or anything prior to the age of five. He was, however, very mistrustful and had problems forming relationships with others. What would Freud would most likely say about Steven’s behaviour? A) He is repressing the painful memories while still experiencing the strong feelings associated with the memories. B) He is unconsciously attending to early, happy memories. C) He is maintaining in preconsciousness any memories from early childhood. D) He is denying the early abuse in order to protect his ego. Answer: A Rationale: Freud thought that traumatic memories were repressed, or put out of consciousness. At the same time, the feelings associated with those memories still remain and influence behaviour. 9) In the years prior to the development of Freud's theory, what was generally believed about consciousness? A) the best way to study the mind was through the use of the experimental method. B) human consciousness was identical to nonhuman animal consciousness. C) humans had access to all the activities of their own minds. D) unconscious processes affected conscious behaviour. Answer: C Rationale: Prior to Freud's theory, there was a long tradition in Western thought, led by John Locke's An Essay Concerning Human Understanding (1690) that suggested that all activities of the human mind were accessible by each individual since human beings are rational beings. 10) According to Sigmund Freud, what can be said about unconscious, repressed experiences? A) They didn’t actually occur. B) They can easily be brought into conscious awareness. C) They are no longer threatening. D) They can still influence behaviour. Answer: D Rationale: The strong feelings associated with repressed materials continue to influence behaviour even when we are unaware of the influence. 11) Which idea is supported by the fact that individuals automatically use context to help decide between different meanings of ambiguous words in sentences? A) Freud's concept of repression is valid. B) language processes are not capable of being consciously influenced. C) processes that operate below the level of consciousness can affect behaviour. D) rational beings have considerable access to the activities of their own minds. Answer: C Rationale: Unconscious language processes use context to make choices between the meanings of words that have been learned. The ease with which we understand ambiguous words depends on these unconscious processes and the contexts within which the words appear. 12) A woman has volunteered for an investigation of mental strategies. The experimenter asks her to express verbally what she is thinking as she works through some problems. What approach is the researcher likely taking? A) introspecting. B) using the experience-sampling method. C) collecting think-aloud protocols. D) measuring nonconscious processes. Answer: C Rationale: Think-aloud protocols are used to document mental strategies and knowledge that participants use to do tasks, in this case the problems presented to the woman. She reports in as much detail as possible the sequence of thoughts experienced as she completes the task. 13) Participants in a research study are asked to report what they are thinking about when a pager signals at different times during the day. What procedure is the researcher using? A) experience-sampling B) think-aloud protocol C) within subjects D) identification and recognition Answer: A Rationale: Participants provide information about their thoughts and feelings in the normal course of their daily lives. They often carry a device such as the pager to signal when they should write down the contents of their consciousness. A response to questions provided gives researchers a running record of participants' thoughts, awareness, and focus of attention. 14) When would a psychologist most likely use the experience-sampling method? A) to determine how much daydreaming people do. B) to determine what strategies people use to solve problems. C) to determine how long it takes people to respond to changes in temperature. D) to determine how hunger affects the ability to store new information. Answer: A Rationale: The experience-sampling method allows researchers to provide an account of how people think throughout the day and what state of consciousness they are in (alert/daydreaming/concentrating). 15) What is one role of the restrictive function of consciousness? A) To hide feelings of fear or anger. B) To decide if one can lift a heavy object without hurting oneself. C) To tell the difference between the odours of fish and coffee. D) To carry on a conversation at a noisy party. Answer: D Rationale: The restrictive function of consciousness reduces the flow of stimulus input (noise at the party) by restricting what you notice and focus on (a single conversation). Much of the conversation around you (noise) is tuned out because it is irrelevant to your immediate goals. 16) Ron is driving his son to a hockey game when he runs into a delay caused by construction. He thinks to himself that he should remember to avoid this road for the next few weeks. Which function of consciousness is being described? A) planning B) restrictive C) selective storage D) attentional Answer: C Rationale: Selective storage allows us to choose what information should be processed further from all that is available in the environment. Information that is relevant to us gets processed further, while irrelevant information doesn't. 17) Mandy needs to buy David a present. Mandy’s ability to consider what things David has, how he might react to the gift, and how Mandy is going to pay for the gift are all made possible by which function of consciousness? A) selective storage B) preconscious C) planning D) restrictive Answer: C Rationale: One function of consciousness is to make us stop, think, and consider alternatives based on past knowledge, and imagine the consequences of each alternative. We suppress strong desires if they conflict with moral, ethical, or practical concerns, and use knowledge of the past and expectations of the future to influence current decisions. 18) After watching a television show on the use of physical punishment by parents, a husband and wife come to different conclusions about the efficacy of punishment. What is the most likely explanation for their disagreement? A) Differences in consensual validation. B) Differences in the cultural construction of reality. C) Differences in personal construction of reality. D) Differences in the restrictive function of consciousness. Answer: C Rationale: No two people interpret reality in the same way. We all interpret current situations based on general knowledge, memories of past experience, needs, values, beliefs, future goals, and the cultures and environments within cultures with which we are familiar. 19) Winifred was raised in a community of Mennonites who for religious reasons live apart from the modern world. As a member of this community, Winifred will be required to withdraw from school on her 14th birthday. What does the termination of Winifred’s education signify? A) planning construction of consciousness. B) cultural construction of reality. C) personal construction of reality. D) restrictive construction of consciousness. Answer: B Rationale: When a group of people hold similar constructions of reality, or a similar way of thinking about the world, this is a cultural construction of reality. The Mennonite community is such an example because they're a subset of people within a larger community that hold some different beliefs about important issues, such as classroom education. 20) When one's personal construction of reality remains relatively stable, what state is one also likely to experience? A) consensual validation. B) extreme sociability. C) heightened activity in the left hemisphere. D) a stable sense of self. Answer: D Rationale: We attend to certain stimuli in the environment more than to others because our personal constructions of reality are formed from a selection of unique inputs. This continues over time in a relatively stable way, giving us our sense of a personal and continuous sense of self. 21) What is one way to study the functions of consciousness? A) To demonstrate how people’s responses change when conscious processes are not allowed to function normally. B) To demonstrate how people repress ideas. C) To demonstrate that no matter how much a person has to attend to, conscious processes are consistently easy to use. D) To demonstrate that behaviour is more strongly influenced by conscious than by unconscious processes. Answer: A Rationale: Researchers asked participants to consider moral dilemmas and to respond to them as quickly as possible. In a second condition, participants read and responded to the dilemmas but were simultaneously asked to monitor a stream of numbers on the computer screen and to press a button every time they saw the number 5. When participants had the extra load, it took them much longer to respond to the moral dilemmas that required conscious reasoning. 22) Conscious processes are often affected by A) reflexes. B) subliminal messages. C) unconscious processes. D) repressed memories. Answer: C Rationale: People’s behaviour is most often affected by both conscious and unconscious processes. Many functions of consciousness include implicit comparisons with what is unconscious. Just as unconscious processes affect conscious ones, conscious processes affect unconscious ones. Researchers study both conscious and unconscious processes to understand the functions of consciousness. 23) What statement about circadian rhythms is accurate? A) They are bodily cycles that affect such things as arousal levels and metabolism. B) They are patterns of rhyme and meter used in studies of language behaviour. C) They are generally 90 minutes in duration. D) They are likely to be found on tests of musical intelligence. Answer: A Rationale: Circadian rhythms are patterns of cyclical body activities, usually lasting 24 to 25 hours and determined by an internal biological clock. 24) Sheena has been asked to live in a special room in which there are no windows, clocks or watches, and no access to time cues of any sort. How will these conditions affect Sheena’s biological clock? A) Her biological clock will be disrupted, showing little consistency from day to day. B) Her biological clock will be unaffected and she will establish a 24-hour cycle. C) Her biological clock will be just a few minutes longer than 24 hours. D) She will show little change in her biological clock, whereas a male will show about a 23hour rhythm. Answer: C Rationale: Without external time cues that help us adjust to a 24-hour cycle, it is likely that our internal clock will establish a 24.18-hour cycle. Our exposure to sunlight helps us make the slight adjustment each day. 25) After a great deal of long-distance travel, Kae experience fatigue, uncontrollable sleepiness, and a disruption of her sleep-wake schedule that continues for days. Which phenomenon is being described? A) narcolepsy. B) jet lag. C) insomnia. D) sleep apnea. Answer: B Rationale: Jet lag is an indication that the internal circadian rhythm is not in phase with the environment. Two variables that affect development of jet lag are the direction of travel and the number of time zones through which you travel. 26) A pilot flies regularly between Halifax and Amsterdam. The pilot also flies the Thunder Bay to Toronto route. When will the pilot experience the greatest symptoms of jet lag? A) After flying either portion of the Halifax-Amsterdam route. B) After flying northbound from Toronto to Thunder Bay. C) After flying eastward from Halifax to Amsterdam. D) After flying westward from Amsterdam to Halifax. Answer: C Rationale: Traveling eastward creates greater jet lag than traveling westbound because your biological clock is more easily extended than shortened (it is easier to stay awake longer than to fall asleep sooner). The longer trip also requires passing through more time zones, another variable that strongly affects jet lag. 27) Joyce was just offered a flight attendant's position that requires flying across multiple time zones. She's worried about suffering from jet lag. What will her physician most likely prescribe? A) melatonin B) oxytocin C) sedatives D) anti-anxiety pills Answer: A Rationale: Melatonin is a hormone that functions in the brain to regulate periods of wake and sleep. Melatonin has a relaxing effect, and so is at low levels during the day and high levels at night. 28) What methodological breakthrough for the study of sleep came in 1937? A) electroencephalography. B) experience-sampling. C) hypnosis. D) think-aloud protocols. Answer: A Rationale: EEG measures allow us to record brain wave activity of the sleeper. This provided an objective, ongoing measure of the way brain activity varies as people change states of consciousness. 29) What synchronizes the human internal "pacemaker" with the 24-hour day/night cycle? A) the rods and cones of the eye. B) exposure to sunlight. C) the consumption of food. D) the changes in temperature that are associated with night and day. Answer: B Rationale: Information about sunlight is gathered through the eyes. When animals do not have rods and cones, they still sense light in a way that allows maintenance of circadian rhythms. 30) A lab assistant is monitoring the EEG recordings of a patient in a sleep laboratory. The patient's brain waves change from about 14 cycles per second (cps) to 8-12 cps and then to 37 cps. What changes, if any, have likely occurred in the patient? A) First the patient was deeply asleep, then lightly asleep, then awake. B) The patient moved progressively from Stage 1 to Stage 3 sleep. C) First the patient was awake, then relaxed, then in Stage 1 sleep. D) The patient moved from REM sleep through stage 2 to stage 1. Answer: C Rationale: These are recordings of brain waves in the awake state of consciousness, the relaxed state, and the first stage of sleep. 31) What is the frequency of a sleep spindle? A) 1 to 2 cps B) 3 to 7 cps C) 8 to 12cps D) 12 to 16 cps Answer: D Rationale: Sleep spindles are characteristic of Stage 2 sleep, and consist of minute bursts of electrical activity of 12-16 cps. 32) What type of electrical activity indicates a transition from Stage 1 to Stage 2 sleep? A) delta waves. B) beta waves. C) sleep spindles. D) alpha waves. Answer: C Rationale: The presence of sleep spindles, or bursts of activity of 12 to 16 cps that last for only a few seconds, is the defining characteristic of Stage 2 sleep. 33) Which stage of sleep is characterized by sleep spindles? A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4. Answer: B Rationale: The EEG shows minute bursts of electrical activity (sleep spindles) in stage 2 sleep at a rate of 12-16 cycles per second (cps). 34) The EEG tracing of the patient in the sleep laboratory shows that brain waves have slowed to about 1 to 2 cycles per second. In addition, breathing and heart rate have decreased. What stage of sleep is the patient most likely enjoying? A) Stage 1. B) Stage 2. C) Stage 3 or 4. D) REM. Answer: C Rationale: These are the deepest stages of sleep. You are relaxed, your breathing and heart rate are slower and brain waves have slowed. 35) Why is REM sleep referred to as paradoxical sleep? A) The function of REM sleep is a mystery to scientists. B) The EEG tracings during REM sleep vary greatly from person to person. C) REM sleep is the period when most dreaming occurs. D) The EEG tracings during REM sleep resemble those of a person who is awake. Answer: D Rationale: During this final stage of sleep when we begin to dream, the EEG pattern resembles an awake pattern, and because we are truly asleep not awake, it was considered a paradox. 36) How many periods of REM sleep do most individuals achieve per night? A) 0-2 B) 2-4 C) 4-6 D) 6-8 Answer: C Rationale: The 100-minute sleep cycle is passed through 4-6 times per night. 37) In which state is most of a person's sleep time spent? A) dreaming. B) in REM sleep. C) in paradoxical sleep. D) in NREM sleep. Answer: D Rationale: NREM sleep accounts for 75-80% of total sleep time, and REM sleep makes up 20-25% of sleep time. 38) A friend has just read an account of the need to have adequate amounts of REM and NREM sleep. What advice is most important to provide to help him accomplish this task? A) Go to bed and wake up at the same time every day of the week. B) Take short naps. C) Adjust sleep time to match the hours of darkness. D) Eat a sleep-inducing snack approximately 1 hour before bedtime. Answer: A Rationale: It is in this way that you can be most confident that the time in bed corresponds closely to the sleepy phase of your circadian rhythm. 39) Which statement about sleep and aging is supported by research? A) the amount of REM sleep increases considerably over the years. B) NREM diminishes more sharply than REM sleep over the years. C) the amount of REM sleep decreases considerably over the years. D) REM sleep remains fairly constant over the years, but NREM increases slightly. Answer: C Rationale: We start out as infants sleeping about sixteen hours a day with nearly half of that time spent in REM sleep. By age 50, we may only sleep six hours with 20% of that time spent in REM sleep. 40) Doug is arguing that the need for NREM sleep evolved to allow the brain to repair itself. Which term best captures this function of sleep? A) conservation. B) restoration. C) incubation. D) consolidation. Answer: B Rationale: During the day, oxygen metabolism in the brain produces by-products that damage neurons. NREM sleep provides the opportunity to not only stop the damage, but repair any existing damage. 41) What did researchers discover about the relationship between sleep efficiency and longevity? A) there was no relationship between sleep efficiency and longevity. B) the most important factor was the time at which people went to bed. C) people who spent the highest percentage of bedtime asleep lived the longest. D) those individuals who spent the highest percentage of bedtime asleep experienced higher rates of obesity. Answer: C Rationale: Dew et al. (2003) found that people who had higher sleep efficiency, a measure based on the amount of time they were asleep divided by the amount of time they spent in bed, were likely to live longer. 42) Marc showed the greatest increase in REM sleep when he was a participant in the experiment conducted at Trent University (Smith et al., 2004). What else can likely be said about Marc’s experience? A) He showed the least improvement on the Tower of Hanoi. B) He showed the most improvement on the Tower of Hanoi. C) He performed at baseline levels on the final Tower of Hanoi test. D) He was exempt from the Tower of Hanoi test. Answer: B Rationale: The findings of Smith et al. (2004) suggest that REM sleep provides a context in which the brain solidifies its attainment of new tasks. Furthermore, those who improved the most on the Tower of Hanoi showed the greatest intensity of REM sleep. 43) A man has difficulty sleeping. He rarely falls asleep quickly, is frequently aroused during sleep, and wakens too early in the morning. Which sleep disorder is most likely being described? A) insomnia. B) narcolepsy. C) sleep apnea. D) nightmares. Answer: A Rationale: When people are dissatisfied with the amount or the quality of the sleep they get, this is called insomnia. Insomnia has been shown to have a consistent negative impact on well-being of the affected individual. 44) A student reports that he hardly sleeps at all. His roommate says that he appears to sleep deeply and is not even bothered by dorm noises when he is asleep. Which condition is most likely being described? A) hypersomnia. B) subjective insomnia. C) narcolepsy. D) sleep apnea. Answer: B Rationale: This is a condition in which there are completely normal patterns of sleep in people who complain of significant lack of sleep. They may be less able to banish intrusive thoughts and feelings from consciousness even when they are trying to sleep. 45) Which statement about sleep disturbances is supported by research? A) sleep disturbances are found in 43% of sleep participants who have no complaints of insomnia. B) most individuals have a sleep disturbance. C) most individuals are aware of their sleep disturbance. D) 38% of sleep participants complain of insomnia when they actually sleep normally. Answer: A Rationale: The discrepancy between actual sleep quality and perception of sleep quality may be due to our ability to stop thoughts and feelings from entering consciousness while trying to fall asleep. 46) Which sleep disorder can be characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and a complete loss of muscle control during wakefulness? A) insomnia B) sleep apnea C) restless legs syndrome D) narcolepsy Answer: D Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by an irresistible compulsion to sleep during the daytime. Cataplexy is muscle weakness or loss of muscle control that often accompanies narcolepsy. 47) Which sleep disorder would probably be of the most concern if one was being driven somewhere by a person who has this sleep disorder? A) insomnia. B) narcolepsy. C) sleep apnea. D) subjective insomnia. Answer: B Rationale: This disorder causes sudden irresistible sleepiness and is often accompanied by cataplexy, the sudden loss of muscle control. 48) What do most scientists believe about narcolepsy? A) It is often diagnosed in puberty. B) It is related to oxygen deprivation. C) It has a genetic basis. D) It is a disorder of NREM sleep. Answer: C Rationale: Narcolepsy tends to run in families. 49) Nick stops breathing hundreds of times during the course of the night. From which condition does Nick likely suffer? A) oxygen deprivation disorder. B) cataplexy. C) narcolepsy. D) sleep apnea. Answer: D Rationale: This is a respiratory sleep disorder in which the person stops breathing while asleep. 50) An individual suffers from somnambulism. What type of behaviour will most likely be exhibited? A) Sleep talking. B) Sleep walking. C) Bed wetting. D) Cessation of breathing. Answer: B Rationale: Sleepwalkers leave their beds and wander while still asleep. This condition is more common among children than among adults. It is associated with NREM sleep. 51) A girl has a dream in which she is terribly frightened when she is abducted by space aliens. Then she is taken to a fantastically beautiful solar system and is overjoyed when she is made queen of her new world. What does the presence of strong emotional and sensory content in this dream suggest? A) It occurred during NREM sleep. B) It occurred during REM sleep. C) It occurred during either REM or NREM sleep. D) It did not occur in either REM or NREM sleep. Answer: B Rationale: Dreaming during NREM sleep is less likely to have story content that evokes strong emotions. It is more like daytime thought than is REM dreaming and it contains less sensory imagery. 52) A six-year-old child suddenly awakens in a state of extreme arousal accompanied by panicky screams. What sleep disorder is this child most likely experiencing? A) somnambulism. B) sleep apnea. C) narcolepsy. D) a sleep terror. Answer: D Rationale: Sleep terrors, or night terrors, typically occur during NREM sleep in the first third of a night’s sleep. Most episodes are not recalled in the morning. They are most common during childhood, with the greatest number occurring between the ages of 5 and 7. 53) What does research on nightmares suggest? A) They are more likely to be experienced by children than by adults. B) They are not related to real-life experiences. C) They occur on average about once per year in undergraduate students. D) They increase in likelihood as one ages. Answer: A Rationale: The frequency of nightmares decreases as we age. As a result, children are more likely to experience nightmares than adults. 54) A young child frequently wakes up in the night upset about a dream. The child recalls the dream in vivid detail and is afraid to go back to sleep. What is this child most likely experiencing? A) insomnia. B) sleep terrors. C) nightmares. D) somnambulism. Answer: C Rationale: Nightmares typically occur during REM sleep and the dreams are recalled in the morning. 55) David is a 7-year old boy who is sleepwalking at a friend's house. His friend, warned of this behaviour, knows that David is sleeping but doesn't know how to get him back to bed. Should he be afraid of waking David up? A) Yes. Waking a sleepwalker can result in combative behaviour. B) Yes. It is dangerous to the sleepwalker to wake them. C) No. David is awake on some level and is aware of his environment. D) No. David will be confused by the sudden awakening, but it is inadvisable to allow him to navigate through an unfamiliar environment while asleep. Answer: D Rationale: Contrary to popular belief, it is not dangerous to wake a sleepwalker. They are likely to be confused by the awakening. 56) Who wrote, The Interpretation of Dreams? A) William Domhoff. B) J. Allan Hobson and Robert McCarley. C) Barbara Tedlock. D) Sigmund Freud. Answer: D Rationale: Sigmund Freud wrote The Interpretation of Dreams, in which he made dream analysis the cornerstone of psychoanalysis. 57) In a classroom exercise, a student is recounting a dream in which she finds herself exploring a steamy tropical jungle, when suddenly she comes upon a group of monkeys dressed in tuxedos talking to one another. In terms of Freudian dream analysis, what is the student describing? A) hostile yearnings. B) the latent content of the dream. C) the manifest content of the dream. D) her hidden desires. Answer: C Rationale: The censor transforms the hidden meaning, or latent content of the dream, into manifest content. 58) In a seminar on dream analysis, a woman recounts a dream in which she went on a boat ride down the Nile river. It was so hot that she wanted to take off her shirt. After a while she became very hungry, but all the guides could offer her to eat were bananas. What would most dream researchers likely agree upon? A) the dream definitely has a hidden meaning. B) her dream appears to be a lucid dream. C) all she remembers is the latent content of the dream. D) all she remembers is the manifest content of the dream. Answer: D Rationale: The latent, unacceptable part of the dream is translated into the acceptable (manifest) content. In this way, she can express powerful unexpressed wishes in disguised symbolic form. 59) Which term reflects the distortion process by which the hidden meaning of a dream is transformed into what is remembered by the dreamer? A) manifest content. B) latent content. C) dream wish. D) dream work. Answer: D Rationale: In dream work, the internal censor transforms the latent content of a dream into manifest content. 60) A therapist espouses a Freudian perspective of dream interpretation. When she interprets dreams what is she most likely to do? A) refrain from being concerned about the effects of dream work. B) work backwards from the latent content to the manifest content. C) believe that the dreams reveal the patient's unconscious wishes. D) believe that dreams include universal symbols, but not idiosyncratic symbols. Answer: C Rationale: Freud suggested that all dreams are instances of wish-fulfillment, through which we can safely express powerful unconscious wishes in safe symbolic form. 61) What can be said about dream interpretation among the Anchuar Indians of Ecuador? A) It is punished severely. B) It follows the Freudian emphasis on individual importance. C) It is part of the customs of the culture. D) It is practiced only by those on the margins of the society. Answer: C Rationale: The Anchuar Indians of Ecuador gather in the morning and share their dreams from the previous night. Others offer interpretations to try and arrive at a consensus meaning of the dream. 62) How does dream interpretation made by non-Western groups, such as the people of the Ingessana Hills and the Kalapolo Indians of central Brazil differ from Freudian interpretation? A) They view dreams as a vision of the future. B) They focus more on childhood experiences and repressed wishes. C) They don’t rely on symbolism in their interpretations. D) They encourage religious leaders to keep the content of their dreams secret. Answer: A Rationale: The Kalapolo Indians of central Brazil view dreams with a future orientation. 63) Which statement most closely represents J. Allan Hobson and Robert McCarley's activation-synthesis model of dreaming? A) Dreams originate with an unconscious wish or motive. B) Dreams result from neural signals in the brain stem that stimulate areas of the brain's cortex. C) A dream occurs when a person has an unresolved conflict or problem. D) Latent content is often more important than manifest content in the interpretation of dreams. Answer: B Rationale: Signals emerge from the brain stem to stimulate the forebrain and association areas of the cortex to produce random memories and connections with the dreamer's past experiences. There is no intrinsic meaning, and there are no logical connections or coherent patterns to random bursts of electrical signals in the brain. 64) Which statement about dream content is accurate? A) There is a great deal of continuity with the dreamer's fantasies. B) There is frequent discontinuity with the dreamer's waking concerns. C) There is a great deal of continuity with dreamer's waking concerns. D) There is frequent discontinuity with the dreamer's desires. Answer: C Rationale: There is continuity between waking activity and dreams; people who spend a lot of waking time in specific activities dream more about those activities. There are differences in dream content among girls and boys of different age groups, depending upon what they are most interested in. 65) Which individual is most likely to dream about swimming with sharks at a tropical island? A) An aquarium owner who just took a trip to a tropical island and swam with sharks. B) A young child with a pet fish. C) A woman with a fear of over-powering men. D) A salmon fisherman. Answer: A Rationale: People are more likely to dream about things that are present in their waking life. 66) What did researcher Stephen LaBerge and his colleagues ask experienced lucid dreamers to do to signal their awareness of dreaming? A) Grind their teeth. B) Move their index fingers in a circular pattern. C) Move their eyes in a distinctive pattern. D) Verbalize that they were dreaming. Answer: C Rationale: LaBerge and his colleagues asked experienced lucid dreamers to execute distinctive patterns of voluntary eye movements when they realized that they were dreaming. 67) Robyn wants to take control of her dreams and direct them in a way that would satisfy her own needs. According to some dream researchers, what should Robyn do? A) drink warm milk before going to sleep. B) sleep with eye shades to keep out light and movement. C) learn techniques for lucid dreaming. D) learn how to prevent her eyes from moving during dream states. Answer: C Rationale: Lucid dreaming is a learnable skill that makes it possible to be aware and have control of a dream while dreaming 68) What does dream researcher Stephen LaBerge believe about lucid dreaming? A) It is more common in Western cultures. B) It enhances self-confidence for the individual. C) It distorts the natural process of dreaming. D) It is a trance state much like hypnosis. Answer: B Rationale: LaBerge argues that gaining control of the ‘uncontrollable’ events of dreams with lucid dreaming can enhance self-confidence and generate positive experiences for the individual. 69) What is the relationship between sleep and hypnosis? A) Sleep and hypnosis are controlled by the same brain structures. B) Sleep and hypnosis are similar to the hibernation state. C) People respond to hypnotic commands when in Stage 1 sleep. D) Sleep plays no part in hypnosis. Answer: D Rationale: People may give the appearance of being in a deeply relaxed sleeplike state, but if they were truly asleep they could not respond to hypnosis. 70) Marvelous Marvin is hypnotizing some audience members for a comedy show. What is the purpose of his hypnotic induction? A) It encourages participants to fall asleep. B) It is primarily for entertainment value. C) It distracts participants so that they do not realize that they are being hypnotized. D) It minimizes external distractions and encourages concentration. Answer: D Rationale: It is a set of activities in the process of hypnosis that encourages people to believe they are entering a special state of consciousness. The induction procedure functions as a learned signal so that when it is practiced repeatedly, the participant can eventually enter the hypnotic state quickly. 71) What conclusion about hypnosis has been generally supported by research? A) being hypnotized involves turning personal control over to another. B) all individuals are equally hypnotizable by a skilled hypnotist. C) hypnosis is not just a kind of "placebo response." D) hypnosis is generally ineffective in the control of pain. Answer: C Rationale: There are effects of hypnosis that are demonstrated through research. For instance, people who are higher in hypnotizability are able to gain greater pain relief through hypnosis. The power of hypnosis resides in the person being hypnotized, not in any special abilities of the hypnotist. 72) According to recent studies, what substance may account for individual differences in hypnotizability? A) norepinephrine. B) serotonin. C) GABA. D) COMT. Answer: D Rationale: COMT influences the brain's use of dopamine. Some evidence suggests genetic determinants of hypnotizability, including this one. 73) What does the term, hypnotic analgesia mean? A) the use of hypnosis to reduce anxiety. B) hypnotic techniques designed to reduce fear. C) the use of hypnosis to reduce pain. D) the tendency for hypnotized individuals to have amnesia for the event. Answer: C Rationale: Pain control is accomplished through a variety of hypnotic suggestions, and this is called hypnotic analgesia. 74) Paul practices meditation to achieve a deep state of tranquility. In achieving this state, Paul also achieves the primary goal of meditation. What is this goal? A) focus consciousness on altruistic and pro-social behaviours. B) achieve a state of heightened bodily arousal but lowered awareness. C) help individuals feel physically relaxed and provide a time-out from tension. D) change consciousness to enhance self-knowledge and well-being. Answer: D Rationale: The goal of meditation is to achieve a deep state of tranquility, which enhances well-being and self-knowledge Practitioners suggest that some forms of meditation heighten consciousness and allow them to see familiar things in new ways. Recent research suggests that meditation might help slow the natural loss of cortical thickness as we age. 75) Jocelyn is high in hypnotizability. Therefore, what can likely be said about her pain tolerance? A) She is unable to tolerate painful stimuli as much as someone who is low in hypnotizability. B) She is better able to tolerate painful stimuli when she is not hypnotized. C) She is better able to tolerate painful stimuli whether she is hypnotized or not. D) She is able to tolerate more painful stimuli than someone who is low in hypnotizability. Answer: D Rationale: People high in hypnotizability can block the psychological effects associated with painful stimuli by controlling thoughts and images from awareness. 76) Ray is learning mindfulness meditation as opposed to concentrative meditation. What instructions is he likely to be given? A) focus on and regulate breathing. B) minimize external stimulation. C) generate specific mental images. D) let thoughts and memories pass freely through the mind. Answer: D Rationale: During concentrative meditation, a person may focus on breathing, free the mind from all thought, assume certain yogic positions of the body, minimize external stimulation, or generate certain mental images. 77) Blake is a neuropsychologist who knows too well how growing older is associated with a thinning of the cerebral cortex. If he wanted to minimize this natural consequence of aging, what should he do? A) eat a low sodium diet. B) meditate. C) take anti-inflammatory medications. D) sleep 8 hours per night. Answer: B Rationale: As people grow older they typically lose cortical thickness. Research has shown that meditation could slow this natural loss of neurons. 78) When she first started taking drugs, an addict found that they markedly affected her perceptions. Now, however, she finds that greater dosages are required to achieve the same effects. Which term best reflects this experience? A) withdrawal. B) psychological dependence. C) tolerance. D) intolerance. Answer: C Rationale: Repeated episodes of drug use condition the brain to produce responses that push back against the drug's effects. Because the body pushes back, greater doses are required for the drug to have the same effect. 79) George, who typically drinks a substantial amount of alcohol arrives at the local drug treatment centre complaining of nausea, sweating, tremors, and other physical symptoms. He comments that he has not had a drink of alcohol for quite some time. What can likely be said about George’s experience? A) He has developed a tolerance for alcohol. B) He suffers from psychological dependence on alcohol. C) He has a craving for alcohol. D) He has become addicted to alcohol. Answer: D Rationale: A person who is addicted has painful withdrawal symptoms if the drug is not in his body. 80) A worker states to his friend that he craves alcohol and can't wait to get home to drink a few cans of beer. From this description, what has this individual most likely developed? A) A tolerance for alcohol. B) A physiological dependence on alcohol. C) An addiction to alcohol. D) A psychological dependence on alcohol. Answer: D Rationale: In this case, a person's lifestyle revolves around the substance and his capacity to function is limited or impaired. 81) Jason used to enjoy the odd hit of heroin, but lately he has found that he needs to inject more and more heroin in order to feel the same effects. Which term best captures Jason’s experience? A) tolerance. B) psychological dependence. C) physiological dependence. D) addiction. Answer: A Rationale: Tolerance occurs when more and more of the drug need to be consumed in order to feel the same effect. 82) Susan is under the influence of a drug that alters her perceptions of the external environment, as well as her inner awareness. Most likely, Susan has taken which type of drug? A) barbiturates B) depressants C) hallucinogens D) opiates Answer: C Rationale: These drugs alter both inner awareness and perceptions of the external environment. 83) A researcher is testing how rats respond to different types of drugs. Thirty minutes after each group of rats receives their designated drug, the researcher notices that three groups of rats are more active than the fourth group. What is the most likely drug consumed by the inactive fourth group? A) LSD B) cannabis C) PCP D) morphine Answer: D Rationale: All of these drugs can be put in the hallucinogen category except morphine. Morphine is an opiate and works through the action of suppressing reaction to stimuli and suppressing physical sensation. 84) Which neurotransmitter is typically affected by hallucinogenic drugs? A) GABA. B) THC. C) serotonin. D) acetylcholine. Answer: C Rationale: For instance, LSD binds tightly to serotonin receptors so that the neurons produce prolonged activation. In affecting the activation of serotonin, hallucinogens produce dramatic changes in consciousness that alter both inner awareness and perceptions of the external environment. 85) Which plant has THC as its active ingredient, produces euphoria, and depending on the context, fear, anxiety and confusion? A) cannabis. B) cocoa. C) peyote. D) coffee. Answer: A Rationale: Cannabis is found in both hashish (the solidified resin of the plant) and marijuana (the dried leaves and flowers of the plant). Whatever the dose, the effects may be negative, including fear, anxiety, and confusion, and/or range from mild and pleasant to hallucinogenic. 86) In addition to their role in regulating appetite, what do endocannabinoids do? A) play a role in reward systems in the brain. B) cause cravings for sour tastes. C) decrease pleasure when sweet foods are eaten. D) play a role in inhibition of depressed mood. Answer: A Rationale: Because they play a role in reward systems in the brain, endocannabinoids have the effect of making people seek foods that are tasty or sweet. The knowledge that endocannabinoids increase appetite has stimulated research regarding drugs that prevent endocannobinoids from having their usual effect, possibly leading to appetite suppression and weight loss. 87) In addition to the possible development of drugs that can assist in weight control, what does the research regarding the ‘munchies’ demonstrate? A) Researchers should not depend too heavily on real-world observations. B) Researchers can use the information they have now about opiates for expanding research regarding weight control. C) Research progresses from real-world observations to a productive research agenda. D) Real-world observations typically lead to hypotheses that cannot be tested. Answer: C Rationale: With the goal of understanding why marijuana has an effect on appetite, researchers have generated insights that have led to promising treatments for people who eat too little and people who eat too much. With the knowledge that endocannabinoids have important impact on the brain’s reward circuits, researchers believe that drugs targeting the endocannabinoid system may also lead to successful treatments for pain and addiction. 88) Adam is addicted to a type of opiate that produces a rush of pleasure when injected. Most likely, what is this drug called? A) ecstasy. B) crystal methamphetamine. C) cocaine. D) heroin. Answer: D Rationale: Feelings of euphoria take the place of worries and awareness of physical needs. Withdrawal from heroine results in harsh cravings and symptoms including serious vomiting, pain, and insomnia. The brain loses its ability to maintain balance when the neural receptors in the endogenous opiate system are artificially stimulated. 89) Why are barbiturates and alcohol classified as depressants? A) They inhibit the transmission of nerve impulses in the central nervous system. B) They lead to tolerance. C) They bring about depression when withdrawn. D) They are likely to cause a variety of mood disorders, especially depression. Answer: A Rationale: By doing so, these drugs depress (slow down) the mental and physical activity of the body. 90) Which neurotransmitter is facilitated when one takes a depressant? A) serotonin. B) dopamine. C) norepinephrine. D) GABA. Answer: D Rationale: Depressants achieve their effects by facilitating neural communication at synapses that use GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter. 91) Sean was out with his friends the night before, and he doesn't remember anything after his first drink. His roommate tells him that he didn't even finish his drink before he fell asleep on the couch. He didn’t even awaken when they put make-up on his face and pierced his ear. Which substance did Sean most likely consume? A) one with the highest alcohol content B) one that produced an allergic reaction. C) roofies. D) cocaine. Answer: C Rationale: This depressant is odourless, tasteless and colourless, and can be added to alcohol. The victim ends up highly sedated, and may not remember events from when they were under the effects of the drug. 92) Which neurotransmitter is primarily affected by alcohol consumption? A) serotonin B) endorphin C) norepinephrine D) GABA Answer: D Rationale: GABA is an inhibitor, decreasing the rate of neural transmission in the central nervous system, thereby slowing down the activity of the body and mind. This activity occurs in addition to alcohol stimulating the release of dopamine, which enhances pleasure. 93) According to research, what can be said about addiction that often accompanies stimulant use? A) It is an urban myth. B) Cultural background is a causative factor. C) It is often related to personality type. D) It may be related to long-term changes in the brain’s neurotransmitter systems. Answer: D Rationale: Stimulants achieve their effects by increasing brain levels of neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine. For example, stimulants act to prevent the action of molecules that ordinarily remove dopamine from synapses. Addiction may arise because changes may become long-term with use of stimulants over time. 94) Although they may seek increased self-confidence, greater energy and euphoria, heavy users of this stimulant drug may experience hallucinations and paranoid delusions. What is it? A) alcohol B) cocaine C) Valium D) Xanax Answer: B Rationale: A special danger with cocaine use is the contrast between euphoric highs and very depressive lows, leading users to increase the frequency and dosage of drug use until it is out of control. When a swift high wears off quickly, as with crack cocaine, the cravings for more of the drug are intense. 95) How does nicotine affect the brain? A) It affects regions which are also targeted by alcohol. B) It does not typically mimic the natural chemicals released by the brain. C) It stimulates receptors that make one feel good when one has done something right. D) It fools receptor sites into responding as if it were bad for one to be smoking, although the smoker continues to smoke due to nicotine addiction. Answer: C Rationale: Nicotine mimics natural chemicals in the brain that make us feel good when we do something right, a mechanism that aids survival. When nicotine causes these receptors to respond, it feels to the smoker as if smoking is the right thing to do. 96) Psychologists have only recently become interested in the topic of consciousness. In fact, early researchers such as Wundt, Titchener and William James argued against the inclusion of consciousness as appropriate subject matter for modern psychology. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Early psychologists, including Wundt, Titchener, and William James, were indeed interested in consciousness and explored it in their work. They may have had different approaches and theories regarding consciousness, but it was not a subject entirely ignored by them. 97) The textbook suggests that consciousness aids in our survival and provides a sense of where we fit in the world, but does not contribute to our sense of who we are (our sense of self). A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Consciousness plays a crucial role in shaping our sense of self. It encompasses our awareness of our thoughts, feelings, sensations, and experiences, all of which contribute to our understanding of who we are. 98) There is a range of nonconscious processes that rarely, if ever, impinge upon consciousness. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Nonconscious processes refer to mental activities that occur outside of conscious awareness. While some nonconscious processes may occasionally enter consciousness, many operate independently of our conscious awareness, influencing behavior and perception without our conscious knowledge. 99) When someone asks Tony who won the World Series last year, he has to think a moment before giving the correct answer. Psychologists who study consciousness would say that the information was one of his preconscious memories. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Preconscious memories are memories that are not currently in conscious awareness but can be readily brought into consciousness with minimal effort. Tony's momentary pause before recalling the information about the World Series suggests that it was stored as a preconscious memory, readily accessible but not actively in his conscious awareness until prompted. 100) A think-aloud protocol could be used to document the mental strategies and representations of knowledge that participants employ while engaged in a task. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Think-aloud protocols involve asking participants to verbalize their thoughts as they engage in a task. This method allows researchers to gain insight into participants' cognitive processes, including their mental strategies and how they represent knowledge, providing valuable information for studying consciousness and cognition. 101) It is likely that everyone within a culture shares the same personal construction of reality. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: While individuals within a culture may share many aspects of their reality construction due to cultural norms, beliefs, and values, personal experiences, perceptions, and interpretations also play significant roles. Therefore, not everyone within a culture will have identical constructions of reality. 102) The change in seasons over course of a year is a good example of a circadian rhythm. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Circadian rhythms are biological rhythms that follow a roughly 24-hour cycle, regulating various physiological processes such as sleep-wake cycles. The change in seasons is not governed by circadian rhythms but rather by annual variations in Earth's orbit around the sun. 103) Traveling eastbound creates greater jet lag than does westbound flight. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Traveling eastbound typically results in greater jet lag because it requires individuals to advance their internal body clocks, which is more difficult for the body to adjust to compared to delaying the internal body clock when traveling westbound. 104) The EEG pattern during REM sleep resembles that of a person who is awake. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: During REM (rapid eye movement) sleep, the EEG (electroencephalogram) pattern shows high-frequency, low-amplitude waves, similar to those seen in wakefulness. This is why REM sleep is often referred to as "paradoxical sleep." 105) Recent research has shown that nearly all individuals who report that they are suffering from insomnia actually have normal sleep. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: While some individuals who perceive themselves as suffering from insomnia may indeed have normal sleep patterns, others may genuinely experience disrupted or insufficient sleep, which can negatively impact their well-being and functioning. 106) Individuals are most likely to be dreaming when in NREM sleep. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Dreams primarily occur during REM (rapid eye movement) sleep rather than during NREM (non-rapid eye movement) sleep stages. NREM sleep is characterized by slower brain wave activity and is less likely to involve vivid dreaming experiences. 107) The technical term for sleep disorders involving nightmares is somnambulism. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Somnambulism refers to sleepwalking, not nightmares. Nightmares are disturbing dreams that occur during REM sleep and are often associated with sleep disorders such as nightmare disorder or PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder). 108) The activation-synthesis model proposed by J. Allan Hobson and Robert McCarley is most useful as an explanation of the processes underlying hypnosis. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The activation-synthesis model proposed by Hobson and McCarley is a theory of dreaming, not hypnosis. It suggests that dreams are the result of the brain's attempts to make sense of random neural activity during REM sleep, rather than being driven by conscious desires or motivations. 109) Nearly everyone can be hypnotized. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: While many individuals are responsive to hypnosis, not everyone can be hypnotized to the same extent. Hypnotizability varies among individuals, and some may be more resistant or less responsive to hypnotic suggestions than others. 110) Research suggests that hypnosis may be a valuable aid to pain reduction. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: There is evidence to suggest that hypnosis can be effective in reducing pain perception and intensity in certain individuals. Hypnosis may work by altering perception, attention, and suggestibility, leading to decreased pain sensations. 111) During mindfulness meditation, a person learns to let thoughts and memories pass freely through the mind without reacting to them. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Mindfulness meditation involves cultivating awareness of one's thoughts and experiences without judgment or attachment. Practitioners are encouraged to observe thoughts and sensations as they arise, allowing them to pass without reacting emotionally or becoming absorbed by them. 112) Technically, a person can experience psychological dependence and craving for a drug without developing addiction. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Addiction involves a complex interplay of physical dependence, psychological dependence, and compulsive drug-seeking behavior. Psychological dependence can occur without the presence of physical dependence, where a person experiences strong cravings and emotional reliance on a drug without necessarily having the physical symptoms of withdrawal characteristic of addiction. 113) LSD and PCP are two common hallucinogens. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide) and PCP (phencyclidine) are both hallucinogenic drugs known for their profound effects on perception, thought, and mood. While their use may not be as prevalent as other drugs, they are indeed recognized as hallucinogens. 114) Caffeine and alcohol are two widely-used drugs that are classified as stimulants. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Caffeine is a stimulant, but alcohol is a depressant. Stimulants increase alertness, attention, and energy, while depressants slow down central nervous system activity, often resulting in relaxation and sedation. 115) Chemicals in nicotine stimulate receptors that make you feel good whenever you have done something right. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Nicotine, a primary psychoactive component in tobacco, stimulates the release of dopamine in the brain, which is associated with pleasure and reward. This mechanism reinforces behaviors associated with smoking, contributing to the addictive nature of nicotine. 116) _________ are memories that are accessible to consciousness only after something draws your attention to them. Answer: Preconscious memories Rationale: Preconscious memories refer to memories that are not currently in consciousness but can be brought into consciousness with relative ease. They are readily accessible once attention is directed towards them. 117) In a research study, participants are wearing devices that signal them when they should provide reports about what they are feeling and thinking. The researcher is using the _________ method. Answer: Experience-sampling Rationale: Experience-sampling involves gathering data by repeatedly sampling participants' experiences in real-time or near real-time. Participants are prompted to report their thoughts, feelings, or behaviors at specific intervals or when signaled by a device, providing researchers with a more accurate picture of their experiences as they occur in everyday life. 118) Daily changes in arousal levels, metabolism, body temperature, and hormonal activity are influenced by the day and night time cycle known as a(n) _________ rhythm. Answer: Circadian Rationale: Circadian rhythms are biological processes that follow a roughly 24-hour cycle and are influenced by environmental cues such as light and darkness. These rhythms regulate various physiological functions, including sleep-wake cycles, hormone secretion, and metabolism, ensuring that these processes occur at optimal times throughout the day. 119) A child who wakes suddenly in a state of extreme arousal often marked by a panicky scream is experiencing a _________. Answer: Night terror (sleep terror). Rationale: Night terrors, also known as sleep terrors, are episodes of intense fear and arousal that occur during non-REM (rapid eye movement) sleep, usually during the first few hours of sleep. Unlike nightmares, which occur during REM sleep and are often remembered, night terrors typically result in sudden awakening with no recollection of the frightening dream that caused them. 120) Often combined with cataplexy, _________ is a sleep disorder characterized by periodic sleep during the daytime. It should not be confused with _________, a sleep disorder in which the person stops breathing while asleep. Answer: Narcolepsy: sleep apnea Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep during the day, known as sleep attacks. It is often accompanied by cataplexy, which is sudden muscle weakness triggered by emotions. Sleep apnea, on the other hand, is a sleep disorder characterized by interruptions in breathing during sleep, leading to frequent awakenings and poor-quality sleep. These two disorders are distinct in their symptoms and underlying causes. 121) In Freudian dream analysis, the _________ content is the hidden meaning of a dream, whereas the _________ content is the surface description. Answer: latent : manifest Rationale: According to Freudian theory, dreams have two levels of content. The latent content represents the hidden, unconscious desires, thoughts, and motivations underlying the dream, while the manifest content refers to the literal, surface-level events, characters, and actions experienced in the dream. 122) Have you ever been aware that you are dreaming while you are dreaming? This conscious awareness is called _________ and some people believe that it is a learnable skill. Answer: Lucid dreaming Rationale: Lucid dreaming is a phenomenon in which an individual is aware that they are dreaming while the dream is still occurring. This awareness allows the dreamer to exert some degree of control over the dream narrative and their actions within the dream. Some practitioners believe that lucid dreaming can be developed and improved through various techniques. 123) A drug addict needs more and more of a drug in order to achieve his desired state. This situation is referred to as _________ and is related to physiological dependence. Answer: Tolerance Rationale: Tolerance is the phenomenon where an individual requires increasing amounts of a substance to achieve the same effect or level of response that was initially experienced with a lower dose. It is a common characteristic of drug addiction and is associated with physiological adaptations in the body's response to the substance. 124) A person hears voices when none are present. Such false perceptions, in the absence of objective stimulation, are known as _________. Answer: Hallucinations Rationale: Hallucinations are perceptual experiences that occur in the absence of external stimuli. They can involve any of the senses, such as hearing voices, seeing objects or people, or feeling sensations on the skin, and they are not based on real sensory input. Hallucinations can occur in various contexts, including psychiatric disorders, neurological conditions, drug-induced states, and even during normal states of consciousness in some individuals. 125) Once again, your teacher has startled you with a question when your mind is elsewhere. You try to bluff your way out of the dilemma you find yourself in, but to no avail. In order to help you understand the question she has asked you, your teacher asks you to write an essay on the topic of consciousness, in which you first must compare consciousness with nonconscious processes, preconscious memories and the unconscious, and show why we need consciousness. Answer: Consciousness is an ambiguous term. Define the following: consciousness, nonconscious processes, preconscious memories, and unconscious. Explain some of the uses of consciousness such as its role in survival and in personal and cultural constructions of reality. 126) One night you dream that you are a world-famous sleep researcher. Discuss circadian rhythms, the physiological changes that accompany sleep, and examples of the various sleep disorders. Answer: We have internal clocks to which our bodies are attuned. Discuss circadian rhythms. Are they synchronized to external cues? Include some events that can disrupt circadian rhythms. Include information about sleep cycles; mention each stage of sleep and how it fits in the cycle. Give examples of sleep disorders such as insomnia, narcolepsy, or nightmares. 127) Discuss the sleep cycle. Be sure to include types of EEG recordings with each cycle and any biological or physiological experiences that might occur with each stage. Answer: Include changes in cps for each sleep stage and characteristics of each sleep stage. Discuss how we progress through stages as the night progresses, as well as how this may change as we age. 128) Discuss dreams. What are the theories proposed to explain why people dream? Include a discussion of the importance of REM sleep. What is a lucid dream and how does it relate to the theories of why people dream? Answer: When do dreams most often occur? Discuss two theories of why we dream. Include a discussion of REM sleep. For what does REM stand, and how does this paradoxical sleep state differ from NREM sleep in terms of dreaming? Define lucid dreams. Discuss the thought that they allow people to gain "control over uncontrollable" events. 129) In every culture, there are people who push the limits of consciousness and seek altered states of experience. What choices are available with respect to expanding the normal boundaries of consciousness? Describe the possibilities, including in your description information about lucid dreaming, hypnosis, meditation, and psychoactive drugs. Answer: Altered states of consciousness transcend the normal boundaries of conscious experience. Define and describe lucid dreaming. Discuss hypnosis and suggestibility. Meditation is designed to increase self-awareness. Explain how it might do that. How do drugs affect consciousness? Mention tolerance and dependence. 130) Discuss the applications of practicing skills such as hypnosis and meditation. How can these skills help us in our daily lives? With our health? Answer: Mention hypnosis and pain tolerance, as well as the benefits of meditation with respect to anxiety, heart disease, and brain health. 131) Discuss how an individual becomes dependent on a drug. Include changes over time in the effect of the drug from the first time of use to the repeated use. What is the difference between physical and psychological dependence? Answer: Describe psychological dependence, physiological dependence, addiction and tolerance, as well as withdrawal. 132) Though there are many positive uses of psychoactive drugs such as the treatment of psychological disorders, many people use drugs that are not prescribed to enhance physical and psychological health. Discuss the physiological and psychological consequences of drug use, giving examples of both illicit and non-illicit psychoactive drugs. Be sure to include information about the four categories of psychoactive drugs. Answer: Include a definition of psychoactive drugs. Include the four categories of them. Give examples of legitimate uses of drugs in each category, as well as illegal and unhealthy uses. 1) Our awareness of various mental processes such as making decisions, daydreaming, reflecting, and concentrating is called __________. A) intelligence B) consciousness C) self-awareness D) creativity Answer: B Rationale: Consciousness refers to the state of being aware of one's surroundings and mental processes, including perception, thoughts, and sensations. It encompasses various mental activities such as decision-making, daydreaming, reflecting, and concentrating. 2) Which of the following most accurately defines consciousness? A) an ordered experience B) cortical activity C) a state of awareness D) transcendence Answer: C Rationale: Consciousness is commonly defined as a state of awareness of oneself and the environment, involving perception, cognition, and subjective experiences. 3) Researchers investigating sleep __________. A) have observed a decrease in protein synthesis while we sleep B) have identified a substance destroyed during sleep C) have found a substance created only during sleep D) have not been able to fully explain why we sleep Answer: D Rationale: Despite extensive research, scientists have not yet fully elucidated the exact reasons why sleep is necessary, although various theories exist. 4) Our sleeping-waking cycle follows a(n) __________ rhythm. A) infradian B) circadian C) diurnal D) ultradian Answer: B Rationale: The sleep-wake cycle is primarily regulated by the circadian rhythm, which is approximately a 24-hour cycle that influences the timing of sleep and wakefulness. 5) The low-voltage brain waves produced during relaxed wakefulness or the twilight stage between waking and sleeping are called __________ waves. A) alpha B) beta C) delta D) theta Answer: A Rationale: Alpha waves are characteristic of a relaxed wakefulness state or the transition between wakefulness and sleep. 6) __________ rhythm is a regular biological rhythm with a period of approximately 24 hours. A) Circadian B) Suprachiasmatic C) Infradian D) Ultradian Answer: A Rationale: The circadian rhythm is a biological rhythm that follows a roughly 24-hour cycle, influencing various physiological and behavioral processes. 7) The deepest stage of sleep is __________ sleep. A) stage 1 B) stage 2 C) REM D) stage 4 Answer: D Rationale: Stage 4 sleep, also known as slow-wave sleep or deep sleep, is characterized by the presence of slow delta brain waves and is considered the deepest stage of non-REM sleep. 8) The trancelike state in which a subject responds readily to suggestions is __________. A) stage 4 sleep B) hypnosis C) coma D) meditation Answer: B Rationale: Hypnosis is a state of altered consciousness characterized by heightened suggestibility, relaxation, and focused attention. 9) Chemical substances that change moods and perceptions are called __________ drugs. A) psychosomatic B) analgesic C) psychoactive D) prescription Answer: C Rationale: Psychoactive drugs are substances that alter mood, perception, behavior, or consciousness by affecting the brain's neurotransmitter systems. 10) A “fake treatment” is one way to define a ______. A) decoy B) demand characteristic C) control group D) placebo Answer: D Rationale: A placebo is a fake treatment or inactive substance given to participants in a research study to assess the effects of psychological factors on their condition, serving as a comparison against the treatment group. 11) Dr. Welsh is doing experiments using drugs. He is concerned that his subjects will respond to demand characteristics. He may want to control for this by using which of the following? A) stratification B) two independent variables C) a placebo D) randomization Answer: C Rationale: Using a placebo can help control for demand characteristics by providing subjects with an inactive substance that resembles the actual drug being tested. This helps ensure that any observed effects are not solely due to the participants' expectations or beliefs. 12) The most frequently used drug in Western societies is __________. A) alcohol B) nicotine C) cocaine D) marijuana Answer: A Rationale: Alcohol is the most commonly used drug in Western societies, with widespread availability and cultural acceptance contributing to its high prevalence of use. 13) __________ are used today for treating insomnia, epilepsy, and other disorders. A) Barbiturates B) Opiates C) Hallucinogens D) Stimulants Answer: A Rationale: Barbiturates are central nervous system depressants that have been historically used to treat insomnia, epilepsy, and certain other disorders, although their use has declined due to the risk of dependence and overdose. 14) Amphetamines are __________. A) barbiturates B) stimulants C) hallucinogens D) opiates Answer: B Rationale: Amphetamines are stimulant drugs that increase alertness, attention, and energy levels by stimulating the central nervous system. 15) Cocaine is a(n) __________. A) opiate B) stimulant C) barbiturate D) hallucinogen Answer: B Rationale: Cocaine is a powerful stimulant drug that affects the central nervous system by increasing levels of dopamine, a neurotransmitter associated with pleasure and reward. 16) Despite its dangers, a young man continues to take cocaine because of the feeling of euphoria it produces for him. This powerful arousal of his nervous system is probably due to cocaine’s ability to: A) inhibit enzymes that break down neurotransmitters. B) increase the release of neurotransmitters. C) block the receptor sites for neurotransmitters. D) prevent neurotransmitters from being reabsorbed into the synaptic vesicles. Answer: D Rationale: Cocaine inhibits the reuptake of neurotransmitters such as dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine, leading to an accumulation of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft and prolonging their effects, including feelings of euphoria. 17) The active ingredient in marijuana is __________. A) PCB B) THC C) LSD D) PCP Answer: B Rationale: THC (tetrahydrocannabinol) is the primary psychoactive compound in marijuana responsible for its mind-altering effects. 18) The trancelike state in which a subject responds readily to suggestions is __________. A) stage 4 sleep B) hypnosis C) coma D) meditation Answer: B Rationale: Hypnosis is a state of altered consciousness characterized by increased suggestibility, relaxation, and focused attention, during which individuals are more responsive to suggestions or instructions. Test Bank for Psychology and Life Richard J. Gerrig, Philip G. Zimbardo, Serge Desmarais, Tammy Ivanco 9780205037117, 9780205859139
