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3. Classification and Assessment of Abnormal Behavior Multiple-Choice Questions 1. In “Jerry Has a Panic Attack on the Interstate,” his diagnosis was arrived at by use of which assessment technique? A. mental status exam B. Rorschach Inkblot Test C. MMPI-2 D. clinical interview Answer: D 2. Systems of classification of abnormal behavior date to ______. A. ancient times B. the Middle Ages C. the Renaissance D. the Reformation Answer: A 3. Hippocrates classified abnormal behaviors on the basis of his theory of ______. A. demonology B. humors C. genetics D. stress Answer: B 4. Hippocrates' description of what he called "melancholia" is very similar to what we now call ______. A. manic disorder B. bipolar disorder C. organic disorder D. depression Answer: D 5. In the Middle Ages, abnormal behaviors were classified according to ______ causes. A. genetic and environmental B. environmental and natural C. demonic possession and natural D. demonic possession and genetic Answer: C 6. The first modern theorist to develop a comprehensive model of classification based on the distinctive features, or "symptoms," associated with abnormal behavior patterns was ______. A. Kraepelin B. Hippocrates C. Freud D. Pinel Answer: A 7. The DSM system is largely an extension of the work of ______. A. Pinel B. Breuer C. Freud D. Kraepelin Answer: D 8. According to the text, the core of science is ______. A. observation B. classification C. formation of hypotheses D. communication Answer: B 9. The DSM is published by the ______. A. World Health Organization B. American Psychological Association C. American Psychiatric Association D. Mental Health Professionals Association Answer: C 10. Which of the following statements is a reason why it is important to classify abnormal behavior? A. Important decisions are made on the basis of classification, including those related to therapy. B. It allows mental health professionals to label people who engage in unpopular or different behaviors than the majority of a population. C. The DSM classification helps clinicians use a consistent nomenclature when applying for research grants. D. The DSM classification provides clients with a label that they can use for understanding their problems. Answer: A 11. The DSM was introduced in ______. A. 1892 B. 1922 C. 1952 D. 1982 Answer: C 12. The most widely used diagnostic manual worldwide is the ___________. A. DSM-5 B. International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD) C. World Health Organization classification of Mental Disorders (WHO-MD) D. Physician’s Desk Reference Answer: B 13. Which statement is true? A. DSM-5 is compatible with ICD-10. B. DSM-5 is not compatible with ICD-10. C. ICD-10 is more commonly used than the DSM-5 among American psychiatrists. D. Most psychologists use the ICD-10 to verify diagnoses established with the DSM-5. Answer: A 14. The text defines ______ as having difficulties in meeting responsibilities at work, within the family, and within society. A. reliability B. psychoparalysis C. unusual behavior D. impaired functioning Answer: D 15. The DSM system is often criticized for relying too much on the _______ model of abnormal behavior. A. psychodynamic B. medical C. sociocultural D. social learning Answer: B 16. Which of the following is considered an abnormal behavior pattern as defined by the DSM system? A. experiencing a disappointment B. engaging in behavior that is statistically deviant C. experiencing significantly impaired functioning D. accepting employment in an occupation that places one at possible personal risk of harm Answer: C 17. Kirsten’s father died 36 months ago and Kirsten continues to grieve. She is unable to function most days and decides to see a psychologist for help. Most likely, a psychologist would suggest that __________. A. grieving is normal and Kirsten’s behavior is nothing to be concerned about B. Kirsten’s extended grieving might be indicative of a mental disorder C. Kirsten’s grieving is normal and she need not be concerned because she will continue to grieve until she naturally resolves her loss D. grieving is always a sign of a mental disorder Answer: B 18. In the DSM, mental disorders are classified on the basis of ______. A. abnormal behavior patterns B. their frequency within clinical populations C. underlying theoretical mechanisms D. their response rates to various treatment methods Answer: A 19. The DSM is used to classify ______. A. statistics B. theoretical perspectives C. social norms D. mental disorders Answer: D 20. The DSM system, like the medical model, treats abnormal behaviors as _______________. A. signs or symptoms of underlying disorders or pathologies B. medical conditions that can be diagnosed through physical means C. adaptations to a stressful culture D. rigid personality adaptations Answer: A 21. The DSM-5 is organized into _____ general categories of mental disorders. A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 210 Answer: B 22. The term “mental disorder” continues to be used in the DSM-5 because _____________. A. the American Psychiatric Association, being physicians, prefers to view disorders from a medically oriented standpoint B. its developers have not been able to agree on an appropriate substitute C. revisions with the next edition, to be named DSM-5.1 will replace this terminology by 2016 D. the American Psychiatric Association felt that too many changes in the DSM would result in confusion among clinicians Answer: B 23. The DSM-5 is _______, not __________. A. analytical; conceptual B. categorical; descriptive C. descriptive; explanatory D. explanatory; conceptual Answer: C 24. A major difference between the DSM-5 and the previous version, the DSM-IV, is that the new version __________. A. relies on medical procedure data such as the MRI for diagnosis B. utilizes a multiaxial system whereas the older system does not C. incorporates different diagnostic nomenclature for use with different cultural groups D. dispenses with the multiaxial framework of the previous version. Answer: D 25. Two of the major changes in the DSM-5 include __________. A. adding a dimensional component and a multiaxial component B. removing a dimensional component and removing a multiaxial component C. removing a dimensional component and adding a multiaxial component D. adding a dimensional component and removing a multiaxial component Answer: D 26. The DSM-5 __________. A. abandoned the categorical model B. added a rating scale assessing the global assessment of functioning (GAF) of an individual C. expanded on the multiaxial system of the DSM-IV D. expanded the categorical model to include a dimensional component for many disorders Answer: D 27. The dimensional component of the DSM-5 gives the evaluator the opportunity to ________. A. make yes–no judgments as to whether a person meets the criteria for a specific disorder or not B. identify “shades of Gray” when diagnosing C. indicate when behaviors have a significant biological cause D. indicate when behaviors have a significant psychological cause Answer: B 28. A ______ is a pattern of abnormal behavior that is found within only one or a few cultures. A. cultural assessment of functioning B. culture-bound syndrome C. cultural diversion complex D. sanism Answer: B 29. The psychiatric syndrome TKS is common in ______, but rare elsewhere. A. Japan B. Korea C. India D. South Africa Answer: A 30. ______ is characterized by excessive fear that one may behave in ways that will embarrass or offend other people. A. PTSD B. TKS C. ADD D. MPD Answer: B 31. Jack dreads blushing in front of others for fear that it will cause them embarrassment. Jack's disorder most closely resembles ______. A. social phobia B. generalized anxiety disorder C. TKS D. MPD Answer: C 32. TKS affects primarily ______. A. young Japanese men B. young Japanese women C. older Japanese men D. older Japanese women Answer: A 33. One cultural-bound syndrome common to the US is _________. A. ADHD B. TKS C. hair-picking D. Anorexia Nervosa Answer: D 34. Dissociative identity disorder is a culture-bound syndrome of _________. A. Japan B. the United States C. Mexico D. Nigeria Answer: B 35. __________ is a disorder occurring among American Indian groups and involves a preoccupation with death and with the “spirits” of the deceased. A. Koro B. Ghost spirit C. Ghost sickness D. Exorcism Answer: C 36. ______ is a term used in a number of countries in North Africa and the Middle East to describe the experience of spirit possession. A. Dhat syndrome B. Koro C. Zhat D. Zar Answer: D 37. _______ is a disorder affecting males, found principally in India, that involves an intense fear or anxiety over the loss of semen through nocturnal emissions, ejaculations, or excretion with urine. A. Koro B. Dhat Syndrome C. Amok D. Falling out Answer: B 38. "Amok" is a disorder found primarily among ______ cultures. A. Western industrialized B. Sub-Saharan African C. Middle East Islamic D. Pacific Island Answer: D 39. A culture-bound disorder characterized by a violent or aggressive outburst following a return to normal functioning is called ______. A. ataque de nervios B. amok C. koro D. boufee dilerante Answer: B 40. “Ataque de nervios” is found among the ______ groups. A. American Indian B. Pacific Island C. North African D. Latin American Answer: D 41. Dhat syndrome is found principally in ______. A. Asia B. India C. Africa D. Indonesia Answer: B 42. A disorder affecting males that involves intense fear or anxiety over the loss of semen through nocturnal emissions, ejaculations, or through excretion with urine is called ______. A. dhat B. boufee delirante C. zar D. koro Answer: A 43. "Ghost sickness" occurs mainly among ______. A. Africans B. Asians C. Haitians D. American Indians Answer: D 44. "Koro" syndrome is found mainly in ______. A. India B. China C. Brazil D. the Caribbean Answer: B 45. A disorder comprised of episodes of acute anxiety involving the fear that one's genitals are shrinking and retracting into the body is called ______. A. dhat B. boufee delirante C. koro D. zar Answer: C 46. "Zar" is found primarily in ______. A. the Middle East B. the Far East C. the Caribbean D. the Indian subcontinent Answer: A 47. A disorder characterized by periods of shouting, banging of the head against the wall, laughing, and crying as a result of spirit possession is known as ______. A. zar B. koro C. dhat D. amok Answer: A 48. A term used in a number of countries to describe the experience of spirit possession is ______. A. dhat B. boufee delirante C. koro D. zar Answer: D 49. In psychological assessment, the consistency of a measure or diagnostic instrument or system is its ______. A. validity B. variance C. reliability D. coherence Answer: C 50. If various experts using a diagnostic system arrive at the same diagnosis when they evaluate the same cases, the diagnostic system may be considered ______. A. practical B. valid C. legitimate D. reliable Answer: D 51. Today, the most sound test of the validity of a diagnostic system is usually its correspondence with ______. A. behavioral observations B. maturational factors C. elementary school records D. treatment prognosis Answer: A 52. Persons who have specific phobias (such as fear of heights) are generally highly responsive to ______ techniques for reducing fears. A. psychodynamic B. Gestalt C. humanistic D. behavioral Answer: D 53. Recent editions of the DSM have placed __________ emphasis on weighing cultural factors when assessing abnormal behavior compared to older editions. A. greater B. less C. no D. the same Answer: A 54. Validity issues exist for ________ of the DSM diagnostic categories. A. all B. most C. some D. none Answer: C 55. New changes to the DSM-5 include reclassifying Asperger’s disorder and autistic disorder under the general category of __________. A. childhood disintegrative disorders B. autism spectrum disorder C. attention-deficit disorders D. pervasive developmental disorders Answer: B 56. The DSM-5 classifies trichotillomania under the general category of __________. A. obsessive compulsive and related disorders B. impulse control disorders C. anxiety disorders D. personality disorders Answer: A 57. Substance Use and Addictive Behaviors is a new category in the DSM-5 and includes _______. A. sexual addiction B. binge eating disorder C. impulse control disorders D. pathological gambling Answer: D 58. In the DSM-5, posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) was moved to the _________. A. existing category of Obsessive Compulsive and Related Disorders B. existing category of Anxiety Disorders C. new category of Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders D. new category of Dissociative Disorders Answer: C 59. Which of the following is a source of controversy over the DSM-5? A. the lack of expansion of diagnosable disorders B. the lack of changes in classification of mental disorders C. changes in diagnostic criteria for particular disorders D. the inclusion of additional addictive disorders Answer: C 60. The term “diagnostic inflation” refers to __________. A. the proliferation of new mental disorders in the DSM-5 B. the need to include additional mental disorders beyond what has already been added to the DSM-5 C. when therapists fabricate (“inflate”) a client’s symptoms to meet DSM-5 diagnostic criteria D. when clients fabricate (“inflate”) symptoms to meet DSM-5 diagnostic criteria Answer: A 61. Which of the following is a new mental disorder included in the DSM-5? A. postmenstrual dysphoric disorder B. binge eating disorder C. conversion disorder D. mild neurocognitive disorder Answer: D 62. Criticism of the DSM-5 includes concerns that changes made in the set of symptoms or features for diagnosing autism spectrum disorder _________. A. will lead to overdiagnosis B. will make it more difficult to conduct research on this population C. may profoundly affect the number of children identified as suffering from autism and related disorders D. may hinder communication between mental health professionals Answer: C 63. Criticism that important decisions about the DSM-5 were shrouded in secrecy, failed to incorporate input from many leading researchers and scholars, and lacked supported by an adequate body of empirical research are criticisms that focus on the DSM-5’s ___________. A. process of validation B. process of development C. process of revision D. process of approval Answer: B 64. One significant change in the DSM-5 that has been generally well received involves ____________. A. the emphasis on dimensional assessment across most categories of disorders B. the changes in classification of mental disorders C. the changes in diagnostic criteria for particular disorders D. the process of the DSM-5’s development Answer: A 65. Dimensional assessment _____________. A. allows clinicians to rate diagnostic categories as “present or absent” B. allows clinicians to make judgments about the relative severity and frequency of disorders C. allows clinicians to make judgments about the relative severity but not the frequency of disorders D. allows clinicians to make judgments about the frequency but not the relative severity of disorders Answer: B 66. Jamal’s client is presenting with symptoms consistent with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Jamal assesses for the severity and frequency of his client’s anxiety and diagnoses him as having a mild symptoms of GAD as opposed to indicating that he definitely has GAD or definitely does not. Jamal’s conceptualization of his client’s disorder as a matter of degree rather than simply as being “present or absent” is consistent with ________. A. dynamic assessment B. functional assessment C. categorical assessment D. dimensional assessment Answer: D 67. Which of the following is one of the reasons why Allen Frances called the approval of the DSM-5 a “sad day for psychiatry”? A. Expectable life challenges, such as mild cognitive changes or everyday forgetting in older adults, are now considered disorders. B. Behavioral problems like repeated temper tantrums in children are now less likely to be considered disorders. C. Potentially helpful medications are less likely to be used to treat newly labelled disorders in young children. D. Changes in diagnostic practices lead to poorer patient care. Answer: A 68. The major advantage of the DSM is ______. A. its designation of specific diagnostic criteria B. that it is based on a medical model of classification C. its focus on categorizing mental disorders rather than describing behavioral strengths and weaknesses D. the validity of the system Answer: A 69. Which of the following is a common criticism against the current DSM system? A. Listing specific diagnostic criteria makes the DSM less reliable than using more general criteria. B. It fails to address milder impairments with a diagnostic label. C. It categorizes mental illness to the exclusion of positive mental health. D. The number of possible diagnostic categories has significantly decreased from that of the previous editions. Answer: C 70. The negative stereotyping of people who are identified as mentally ill is known as ______. A. sanism B. judgmental analysis C. punitive nomination D. reductionism Answer: A 71. A measure of the consistency between different parts of a test is called ______. A. construct reliability B. internal consistency C. interrater reliability D. test–retest reliability Answer: B 72. ______ is crucial for tests that are intended to measure single traits or construct dimensions. A. Construct reliability B. Internal consistency C. Interrater reliability D. Test–retest reliability Answer: B 73. Methods of assessment that yield similar results on separate occasions are said to have ______. A. internal consistency B. external consistency C. test–retest reliability D. interrater reliability Answer: C 74. Vinnie gets on the bathroom scale every morning, and according to the scale he weighs about the same each time. If the scale is accurate, it can be said to have ______. A. internal consistency B. external consistency C. construct validity D. test–retest reliability Answer: D 75. Test-retest, interrater, and internal consistency are all types of ______. A. validity B. reliability C. correlation D. legitimacy Answer: B 76. Thomas Widiger feels clinical psychologists should have many reasons to dislike the DSM-5. Which of the following statements reflects one of his reasons to dislike the DSM-5? A. The DSM-5 is under the control of a profession (psychiatry) with which clinical psychologists are in professional and economic competition. B. The DSM-5 diagnoses are difficult to process through health insurance claims agents. C. The utility of the DSM is diluted because it is available to the general public through bookstores and Internet sites. D. The DSM-5 is too complex for most clinicians to use effectively. Answer: A 77. Two teachers are asked to use a behavioral rating scale to evaluate a child’s aggressiveness, hyperactivity, and sociability. If both teachers rate the child in similar ways, one could assume that the behavioral rating scale has __________. A. good internal consistency B. good interrater reliability C. good construct validity D. external consistency Answer: B 78. Dr. Duan has diagnosed her client with bipolar disorder. Dr. Duan refers her client to new a therapist after the client moves to a distant town. The client’s new therapist diagnoses the client with major depressive disorder. This lack of agreement between the two therapists who were evaluating the same behaviors would be considered ___________. A. low construct reliability B. low internal consistency C. low interrater reliability D. low test–retest reliability Answer: C 79. Which of the following is one of the three main approaches for demonstrating the validity of assessment techniques? A. construct validity B. internal consistency validity C. multicultural validity D. external validity Answer: A 80. The degree to which test instruments measure what they are intended to measure is known as ______. A. reliability B. stability C. rigor D. validity Answer: D 81. In testing, the degree to which a test corresponds to the theoretical model of the underlying construct or trait it purports to measure is referred as the test’s _________. A. temporal validity B. content validity C. construct validity D. criterion validity Answer: C 82. Content, criterion, and construct are all types of ______. A. validity B. reliability C. correlation D. legitimacy Answer: A 83. Depression includes features such as sadness and lack of participation in previously enjoyed activities. If the items of a new test claiming to measure depression addresses neither of these qualities, it appears that the test lacks ______ validity. A. temporal B. content C. construct D. criterion Answer: B 84. In an assessment technique, the degree to which responses correlate with an independent external standard of what the assessment technique is intended to assess is called ______. A. temporal validity B. content validity C. construct validity D. criterion validity Answer: D 85. Predictive validity is a type of ______ validity. A. temporal B. content C. construct D. criterion Answer: D 86. The degree to which a test correctly identifies people who have the disorder the test is intended to detect is called ______. A. reliability B. specificity C. sensitivity D. face validity Answer: C 87. Tests which lack ______ produce high numbers of false negatives. A. reliability B. specificity C. sensitivity D. face validity Answer: C 88. The degree to which a test classifying people as not having a particular disorder when, in fact, they do not have the disorder is known as ______. A. reliability B. specificity C. sensitivity D. face validity Answer: B 89. Tests which lack ______ produce high numbers of false positives. A. reliability B. specificity C. sensitivity D. face validity Answer: B 90. A general intelligence test is found to be a reliable indicator of how successful students will be in various adult career tracks. The test can be said to have ______ validity. A. concurrent B. predictive C. construct D. content Answer: B 91. The degree to which a test corresponds to the theoretical model it purports to measure is called ______ validity. A. concurrent B. predictive C. construct D. content Answer: C 92. A test purporting to measure depression is found to correlate highly with behaviors theoretically associated with depression. This test can be said to have ______ validity. A. concurrent B. predictive C. construct D. content Answer: C 93. Phrenologists believed they could assess people's personalities by measuring the ______. A. bumps on their heads B. size and shape of their bodies C. size and shapes of their noses D. lines on their palms Answer: A 94. An eating disorder inventory concludes that Carrie does not have an eating disorder; Carrie is severely anorexic. This error is a ______. A. false positive B. false negative C. true positive D. true negative Answer: B 95. Interviews, psychological testing, self-report questionnaires, behavioral measures, and physiological measures are all used by clinicians as methods of ______. A. assessment B. inquiry C. classification D. treatment Answer: A 96. The broad label that describes the use of different methods to arrive at diagnoses and conclusions about personality and cognitive function is ______. A. classification B. mental status evaluation C. psychodiagnostic testing D. assessment Answer: D 97. The most widely used means of assessment is the ______. A. projective test B. intelligence test C. clinical interview D. objective personality test Answer: C 98. Mary is feeling emotionally distressed and goes to the emergency room at a local hospital. When the clinician asks Mary about her troubling thoughts and feelings, the clinician is attempting to ______. A. obtain a psychological history B. describe the presenting complaint C. obtain identifying data D. obtain a medical/psychiatric history Answer: B 99. Most clinical interviews include a psychosocial history which is information describing the client’s _______. A. developmental history B. medical problems C. psychiatric history D. presenting problem Answer: A 100. In a(n) ______ interview, the clinician adopts his or her own style of questioning rather than follow any standard format. A. unstructured B. standardized C. semi-structured D. structured Answer: A 101. In a(n) ______ interview, the clinician follows a general outline of questions designed to gather essential information, but is free to ask additional follow up questions. A. unstructured B. super structured C. semi structured D. structured Answer: C 102. In a(n) ______ interview, the interview follows a preset series of questions in a particular order. A. unstructured B. quasi-structured C. semi structured D. structured Answer: D 103. Spontaneity and conversational style are the major advantages of the ______ interview. A. unstructured interview B. super structured interview C. semi structured interview D. structured interview Answer: A 104. Which type of clinical interview provides the highest level of reliability in reaching diagnostic judgments? A. unstructured B. semi-structured C. structured D. computerized Answer: C 105. Standardized interviews are also known as ______ interviews. A. unstructured B. super structured C. semi structured D. structured Answer: D 106. ______ interview techniques increase the reliability of diagnostic clinical judgments. A. Standardized B. Informal C. Unstructured D. Unstandardized Answer: A 107. One example of a structured interview is the ______. A. MMPI-2 B. TAT C. SCID D. WAIS Answer: C 108. The SCID is comprised of ______. A. pictures of common social scenes B. only open-ended questions C. only closed-ended questions D. both open- and close-ended questions Answer: D 109. Compared to a face-to-face interview, people may reveal _____ information about themselves in a computerized interview. A. less B. more C. more unreliable D. the same amount and quality of Answer: B 110. Which of the following is true of computerized interview programs? A. They are as capable as skilled clinicians at obtaining information and reaching accurate diagnoses. B. Computers are better able to assess nuances from the client’s responses than a live, face-to-face interview can assess. C. The majority of these programs have been designed to substitute for a live therapist. D. Clients appear to be less willing to share problems with a computer that they are embarrassed or unwilling to report to a human. Answer: A 111. Research evidence suggests that the best computer programs are ______. A. not as good as humans at either obtaining information from a client or reaching an accurate diagnosis B. as good as humans at obtaining information from a client but not as good at reaching an accurate diagnosis C. as good as humans at reaching an accurate diagnosis, but not as good at obtaining information from a client D. as good as humans at obtaining information from a client and at reaching an accurate diagnosis Answer: D 112. Your authors note that computer interviews are ______ expensive and _____ time efficient than human interviews. A. less; less B. more; less C. less; more D. more; more Answer: C 113. Clients sometimes prefer computerized interviews because ______. A. they are more likely to be covered by managed care insurance B. the clients feel less embarrassed than with a human interviewer C. they can more easily trick the computer than they can trick human interviewers D. they can discuss the responses with friends or relatives since they complete them at home Answer: B 114. The capacity to understand the world and the resourcefulness to cope with its challenges is one definition of ______. A. psychological affect B. emotional maturity C. intelligence D. creativity Answer: C 115. ______ defined intelligence as “capacity to understand the world and the resourcefulness to cope with its challenges.” A. Alfred Binet B. David Wechsler C. Lewis Terman D. Ralph Reitan Answer: B 116. The first formal intelligence test was developed by ______. A. David Wechsler B. Lewis Terman C. Sigmund Freud D. Alfred Binet Answer: D 117. The most widely used intelligence tests today are the ______. A. Binet-Simon tests B. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales C. Wechsler Intelligence Scales D. Terman Intelligence Blanks Answer: C 118. A Wechsler IQ score is based on the relative deviation of a person’s score from the norms of the person’s _______. A. state of residence B. ethnic group C. age group D. age and gender group Answer: C 119. About ______ percent of the IQ scores of any population on the Wechsler scales lie within the range of 90-110. A. 30 B. 50 C. 70 D. 90 Answer: B 120. About ______ percent of the IQ scores of any population on the Wechsler scales are above 130 or below 70. A. 1 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 Answer: B 121. Approximately, what percent of IQ scores fall between 55 and 145? A. 90% B. 95% C. 98% D. 99% Answer: D 122. Wechsler labelled those with IQ scores below ______ as "intellectually deficient." A. 80 B. 60 C. 50 D. 70 Answer: D 123. Wechsler labelled those with IQ scores above _______ as "very superior." A. 130 B. 160 C. 190 D. 220 Answer: A 124. IQ scores below ______ are one of the criteria used in diagnosing intellectual disability. A. 130 B. 100 C. 70 D. 40 Answer: C 125. Self-report personality tests use ______ items. A. open-ended B. unstructured C. objective D. subjective Answer: C 126. Self-report personality inventories are also called ______. A. projective tests B. subjective tests C. introjective tests D. objective tests Answer: D 127. Linda takes a self-report test which asks her to look over a list of adjectives and check the ones which apply to her. The test is a(n) ______ test. A. projective B. subjective C. introjective D. objective Answer: D 128. A psychologist administers a self-report test to a female college student. The test contains a list of questions, each asking her to decide which of two statements better describes her. This test is a(n) ______ test. A. projective B. subjective C. introjective D. objective Answer: D 129. The MMPI is an example of a(n) ______. A. projective test B. structured interview technique C. IQ test D. objective test Answer: D 130. Scales that measure the degree to which someone attempts to "fake good" or "fake bad" on the MMPI are called ______. A. diagnostic scales B. content scales C. validity scales D. clinical scales Answer: C 131. A standard score of ______ or higher on a particular scale of the MMPI is considered to be clinically significant. A. 50 B. 65 C. 85 D. 100 Answer: B 132. Scales on the MMPI that measure an individual’s specific complaints or concerns are called ______. A. diagnostic scales B. content scales C. validity scales D. clinical scales Answer: B 133. The MMPI has recently been revised and contains additional scales that assess specific concerns such as anger, anxiety, and family problems. These scales are called ______ scales. A. diagnostic B. content C. clinical D. validity Answer: B 134. When interpreting MMPI profiles, clinicians often refer to _______ or descriptions of people who usually attain various profiles. A. encyclopedias B. concordances C. atlases D. MMPI administration manuals Answer: C 135. The MMPI-2 ______ the DSM criteria, thus scores __________ be used to establish a diagnosis. A. parallels; can B. is similar to; can C. is not tied specifically to; cannot D. correlates well with; can Answer: C 136. The MMPI-2 includes ______ scales. A. consistency B. reliability C. validity D. intelligence Answer: C 137. Scale 2 of the MMPI is ______. A. hypochondriasis B. mania C. hysteria D. depression Answer: D 138. Scale 7 of the MMPI is _______. A. psychopathic Deviate B. psychasthenia C. paranoia D. depression Answer: B 139. Egbert has many physical complaints. He is cynical, has a defeatist attitude and is seen by his family as whiny and demanding. He is most likely to score high on the ______ scale of the MMPI. A. social introversion B. psychasthenia C. paranoia D. hypochondriasis Answer: D 140. Bert displays low affect, sad mood, and acts lethargic and despondent. He is pessimistic, apathetic, and worries constantly. He is most likely to score high on the ______ scale of the MMPI. A. hypochondriasis B. hypomania C. hysteria D. depression Answer: D 141. Steve is naive, immature, and egocentric. He has little insight into his problems and develops physical complaints in response to stress. He is most likely to score high on the ______ scale of the MMPI. A. social introversion B. psychasthenia C. hysteria D. hypochondriasis Answer: C 142. Lloyd is rebellious, impulsive, and often angry. He has antisocial tendencies and a poor relationship with his family. He has a poor work and school history and has trouble incorporating societal values. He is most likely to score high on the ______ scale of the MMPI. A. paranoia B. psychopathic-deviate C. schizophrenia D. psychasthenia Answer: B 143. Juan is suspicious, guarded, and aloof. He is resentful of others and blames them for his problems. He is most likely to score high on the ______ scale of the MMPI. A. paranoia B. social introversion C. hysteria D. psychasthenia Answer: A 144. Ralph is anxious, tense, and worried constantly. He is extremely insecure and has difficulty concentrating. He has tremendous self-doubts and is obsessive in his thinking and behavior. He is most likely to score high on the ______ scale of the MMPI. A. depression B. psychasthenia C. hysteria D. hypomania Answer: B 145. Brock’s thinking is illogical and confused. He experiences hallucinations and delusions, and feels misunderstood and alienated. He is most likely to score high on the ______ scale of the MMPI. A. paranoia B. psychopathic-deviate C. schizophrenia D. psychasthenia Answer: C 146. Devin is energetic, socially active, and optimistic. He is flighty and at times easily irritated. He also has an over-inflated self-image and unrealistic dreams. He is most likely to score high on the ______ scale of the MMPI. A. hypomania B. hysteria C. psychopathic-deviate D. psychasthenia Answer: A 147. Don is shy, inhibited, and withdrawn. He is quiet, reserved, and lacks self-confidence. He does not like crowds or parties and tends to be anxious in social situations. He is most likely to score high on the ______ scale of the MMPI. A. depression B. masculinity-femininity C. social introversion D. psychasthenia Answer: C 148. The MMPI consists of ______ major clinical scales. A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 Answer: D 149. The personality test designed to help clinicians make diagnostic judgments within the DSM system, especially for personality disorders, is the ______. A. MMPI B. HSCL C. BDI D. MCMI Answer: D 150. The MCMI focuses on ______ disorders. A. developmental B. personality C. affective D. anxiety Answer: B 151. A disadvantage of self-report inventories is that they ______. A. lack reliability B. rely on clients as the source of data C. rely on the clinician’s ability to interpret data D. are insufficiently structured Answer: B 152. A client at a mental health clinic is given a test in which she is asked to describe a series of ambiguous-looking ink blots. The test she is taking is a(n) ______ test. A. structured B. objective C. projective D. neuropsychological Answer: C 153. Projective tests are based upon ______ theories. A. psychodynamic B. humanistic C. cognitive D. social learning Answer: A 154. The TAT is an example of a(n) ______ test. A. forced-choice B. objective C. projective D. intelligence Answer: C 155. The Rorschach test is an example of a(n) ______ test. A. forced-choice B. objective C. projective D. intelligence Answer: C 156. Psychodynamic theorists believe that individuals project ______ needs, drives, and motives on to an ambiguous stimulus when taking a projective test. A. sexual B. aggressive C. unconscious D. suppressed Answer: C 157. Behavioral theorists criticize projective testing techniques and feel that projective tests __________. A. take too long for clinicians to administer B. rely too much on the subjective interpretations of the clinician administering the tests C. are not scored using valid, normative data D. do not take cultural biases into account when interpreted Answer: B 158. Figure drawing and sentence completion tasks are examples of ______. A. objective personality tests B. achievement tests C. neuropsychological tests D. projective tests Answer: D 159. Which of the following is a projective test? A. the MMPI B. the WAIS C. the MCMI D. the TAT Answer: D 160. Herman Rorschach believed that the “percepts” individuals saw in the inkblots reflected their _________ as well as the stimulus cues provided by the blot. A. ability to see clearly B. ability to see all colors of the visual spectrum C. personalities D. health status Answer: C 161. The Rorschach test consists of _____ stimulus cards that consist of _____________. A. 10; images of human interacting in everyday situations B. 10; ambiguous, symmetrical forms C. 12; triangle shapes positioned at different angles D. 12; images of human interacting in everyday situations Answer: B 162. Amy takes a Rorschach test. Her responses tend to be based solely on minor details of the inkblots. According to Rorschach’s interpretation of her response, she is likely to be diagnosed as having ______ tendencies. A. depressed B. passive-aggressive C. hysteric D. obsessive-compulsive Answer: D 163. Alex takes a Rorschach test. She uses the entire blot in most of her responses. The examiner most likely to interpret her responses as suggesting that ______. A. she has obsessive-compulsive tendencies B. she has passive aggressive tendencies C. she has an ability to integrate events in meaningful ways D. she has an underlying negative and stubborn streak Answer: C 164. Brenda recently was administered a Rorschach test by a psychologist. Most of her responses focus on the white spaces among the ink smears. The psychologist is likely to interpret her responses as meaning she has ______. A. obsessive-compulsive tendencies B. passive aggressive tendencies C. an ability to integrate events in meaningful ways D. an underlying negative and stubborn streak Answer: D 165. The ability to perceive the world accurately and distinguish reality from fantasy is known as ______. A. coherence B. personality integration C. perceptual ability D. reality testing Answer: D 166. John has recently been administered a Rorschach test by a psychologist. His responses are consistent with the form or contours of the blot. These test results suggest that John has _______. A. high levels of creativity B. adequate reality testing C. obsessive-compulsive tendencies D. elaborate defense mechanisms Answer: B 167. According to the text, Rorschach responses that report movement in the blots are suggestive of ______. A. intelligence and creativity B. adequate reality testing C. obsessive-compulsive tendencies D. elaborate defense mechanisms Answer: A 168. Patrick recently was administered a Rorschach test. A number of his responses indicate confusion about whether the percept’s he saw as people were male or female. This response pattern suggests ______. A. problems relating to people B. visual perception impairment C. conflict over her own gender identity D. resentment about taking the test Answer: C 169. Clinicians who use the Rorschach make interpretations on the basis of ___________. A. content and form B. ability to respond to the inkblots quickly and succinctly C. attitude about the test and story created about how the blots were created D. resistance to or acceptance of mother figures in the cards. Answer: A 170. The Thematic Apperception Test was developed by ______. A. Murray B. Termin C. Wechsler D. Bandura Answer: A 171. Psychodynamic theorist believe that test-takers will _____________ in their TAT stories and _____________ underlying psychological needs and conflicts into their responses. A. reject the protagonist ; reveal B. identify with the protagonist; project C. defend themselves against the protagonist; reveal predominant defense mechanisms D. identify with the protagonist; resolve Answer: B 172. The TAT is composed of a series of cards ______. A. containing nonsense syllables B. containing ambiguous inkblots C. with open-ended statements like "My favourite food is… D. depicting ambiguous scenes Answer: D 173. The word apperception, as used in the name of the Thematic Apperception Test, comes from a French word which roughly means ___________. A. out of chaos comes order B. much made from little C. interpreting new ideas on the basis of existing ideas D. uncovering the past Answer: C 174. Proponents of the TAT feel that the test reflects _______________. A. the client’s overall intellectual functioning B. the client’s attitudes toward others, particularly family members and partners C. possible organic brain damage in clients D. a client’s ability to tell right from wrong Answer: B 175. During his psychological evaluation, Aaron was given a test in which he was shown a series of cards, each depicting an ambiguous scene. For each card, he was asked to describe what led up to the scene, what was happening, what the characters are thinking and feeling, and what would happen next. Aaron most likely was administered the ______. A. Wechsler intelligence test B. TAT C. Rorschach Inkblot test D. MMPI Answer: B 176. Critics of the Rorschach believe that the test __________. A. does not take culture into account with its interpretation B. is too threatening to most individuals because it is ambiguous C. fails to meet standards of scientific utility or validity D. has limited utility for use with individuals who are hearing impaired Answer: C 177. Critics of the TAT feel that a person’s responses to the test may ___________. A. reveal little about the individual other than verbal skills B. is more of a test of imagination than one of a psychological profile C. reveal more about an individual’s willingness to take risks than their psychopathology D. say more about the features of the drawings than the person’s underlying personality Answer: C 178. Evidence on the use of projective tests ______. A. is completely lacking for their use in diagnosing mental disorders B. is supportive of the use of the TAT but not the Rorschach C. is mixed, with supporters and critics both marshalling considerable evidence for their point of view D. is overwhelmingly supportive of their use in diagnosing mental disorders Answer: C 179. A __________ is a medical doctor who specializes in disorders of the nervous system. A. psychiatrist B. neurologist C. neuropsychologist D. endocrinologist Answer: C 180. Various methods of ______ assessment help researchers and clinicians evaluate whether or not behavioral problems reflect underlying organic conditions or brain damage. A. neuropsychological B. neurophysiological C. actuarial D. clinical Answer: A 181. Along with neuropsychological assessment, ______ may be used to shed light on relationships between brain function and underlying abnormalities. A. projective techniques B. biofeedback C. brain imaging techniques D. phrenological assessment Answer: C 182. Hillary is asked by her therapist to reproduce geometric designs, printed on separate cards, on to a sheet of paper. She is then asked to reproduce the designs again from memory. She is taking the ______. A. Luria Nebraska Test Battery B. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery C. Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test D. Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test Answer: D 183. Why are clients asked to produce the figures of the Bender Gestalt Visual Motor Test from memory? A. Neurological damage can impair memory functioning which would be evaluated in the client’s ability to engage in the task. B. By adding complexity to the instructions, the examiner is able to assess the client’s ability to follow directions. C. Drawing from memory is a more subjective experience; the client’s unconscious conflicts may be revealed. D. Physical problems such as a tremor in the hand would be more evident in a memory task. Answer: A 184. The Halstead Reitan Test Battery reveals ______. A. patterns of responses suggesting unconscious conflicts or repressed memories B. patterns of skills deficits that are suggestive of certain kinds of organic defects C. a profile of someone's personal and professional areas of interests D. if a personality disorder exists Answer: B 185. Which of the following is a test in the Halstead-Reitan Test Battery ? A. block design test B. category test C. picture arrangement test D. tactual performance test Answer: A 186. In which Halstead-Reitan subtest is the subject blindfolded and asked to fit wooden blocks into shaped depressions? A. category test B. grooved design test C. picture puzzle test D. tactual performance test Answer: D 187. Impairment on the Category Test is believed to be associated with ______ brain damage. A. right temporal lobe B. left temporal lobe C. frontal lobe D. occipital lobe Answer: C 188. Impairment on the Rhythm Test is believed to be associated with ______ brain damage. A. right temporal lobe B. left temporal lobe C. frontal lobe D. occipital lobe Answer: A 189. The ______ model treats test results as samples of behavior that occur in specific situations rather than signs of underlying personality types or traits. A. Gestalt B. psychometric C. behavioral D. actuarial Answer: C 190. An examiner attempts to assess a client's behavior pattern through the use of analogues and a functional analysis of the problem behavior. This examiner is using the ______ model of assessment. A. naturalistic B. psychometric C. neuropsychological D. behavioral Answer: D 191. Behavioral assessment treats test results as ________ rather than as signs of underlying personality traits. A. overt evidence of psychopathology occurring in random settings B. samples of behavior that occur in specific situations C. specific behaviors triggered by environmental contagions D. random behavioral events Answer: B 192. A _______ is an analysis of the problem behavior in relation to antecedents, or stimulus cues that trigger it, and consequences, or reinforcements that maintain it. A. functional analysis B. behavioral sampling C. interpretive assessment D. unconscious analysis Answer: A 193. The behavioral interview, more so than the general clinical interview, focuses on the ______ that relate to the problem. A. genetic predispositions B. person variables C. situational factors D. childhood factors Answer: C 194. For Kerry, the “Royal Terror,” which technique was used to assess the behavior of this uncontrolled 7-year-old boy? A. Rorschach Inkblot Test B. Halstead-Reitan C. direct observation D. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test Answer: C 195. Direct observation is a hallmark of ______________. A. personality tests B. behavioral assessment C. clinical interviews D. intelligence tests Answer: B 196. _________ refers to the tendency for the behavior being observed by a clinician to be influenced by the way in which the behavior is measured. A. Observer drift B. Reductionism C. Reactivity D. A situation confound Answer: C 197. The hallmark technique of behavioral assessment is ______. A. direct observation B. analogue measurement C. self-monitoring D. the structured interview Answer: A 198. In assessment, the tendency of raters to deviate, over time, from the coding system in which they were trained is called ______. A. observer variance B. the Hawthorne effect C. observer drift D. perceptual shift Answer: C 199. Behaviors that can be _________ are well suited for behavioral diaries. A. legally preformed B. directly observed by others C. counted D. engaged in by the client without undue stress Answer: C 200. Holly consults a clinician specializing in behavioral assessment about her compulsive hair pulling problem. A likely assessment procedure for this clinician to implement with Holly is ______. A. the TAT B. the Fear Survey C. biofeedback D. self-monitoring Answer: D 201. Personal digital assistants (e.g., smart phones) are now often used in ______ assessment. A. self-monitoring B. neuropsychological C. intellectual D. objective personality Answer: A 202. Having clients record undesirable behaviors such as smoking may make them _________. A. less motivated to change the behavior B. more likely to falsify records of the behavior C. more aware of the need to change the behavior D. more likely switch to another undesirable behavior Answer: C 203. The Behavioral Approach Task is a popular ______ measure. A. experimental B. in vivo C. analogue D. psychometric Answer: C 204. The Behavioral Approach Task is used to help clients deal with ______. A. generalized anxiety B. phobias C. conversion disorders D. cognitive dissonance Answer: B 205. Peggy attends an assertiveness training class. As part of the class she is expected to role-play assertive behavior. This technique is also known as a(n) ______. A. in vivo method B. analogue measure C. holistic approach D. experimental approach Answer: B 206. In discussing his child's problem behaviors with a therapist, Fred is asked to review a checklist of more than 100 specific problem behaviors and place a check mark next to each behavior that applies to his child. This checklist is known as a ______. A. behavioral rating scale B. behavioral approach task C. social desirability scale D. social reactivity scale Answer: A 207. Tara visits a therapist to deal with her anxiety and depression. The therapist explores her thoughts, beliefs, and attitudes and attempts to replace her self-defeating thoughts with rational, self-enhancing thought patterns. Her therapist is using a ______ assessment approach. A. psychometric B. behavioral C. cognitive D. Gestalt Answer: C 208. The thought record (or diary) is a technique used in the ______ assessment approach. A. psychometric B. behavioral C. humanistic D. cognitive Answer: D 209. Who designed the Daily Record of Dysfunctional Thoughts? A. Carl Rogers B. T.M. Achenbach C. Aaron Beck D. Mary Ainsworth Answer: C 210. Nancy visits a therapist to help deal with her anxiety and depression. The therapist administers a rating scale in which she rates the weekly frequency and degree of conviction of 30 negative thoughts. The scale she was given was probably the ______. A. Dysfunctional Attitudes Scale B. Daily Record of Dysfunctional Thoughts C. Automatic Thoughts Questionnaire D. Cognitive Checklist Answer: C 211. Mia visits a therapist to help deal with her anxiety and depression. The therapist administers a rating scale in which she rates the conviction with which she holds different beliefs or attitudes associated with depression. The scale she was given was probably the ______. A. Dysfunctional Attitudes Scale B. Daily Record of Dysfunctional Thoughts C. Automatic Thoughts Questionnaire D. Cognitive Checklist Answer: A 212. The measurement of physical responses that may be associated with abnormal behavior is known as ______ assessment. A. psychometric B. physiological C. psychoneural D. psychoanalytical Answer: B 213. Anxious people sweat, and that sweating can be measured by ______. A. electroencephalograph B. electromyograph C. electrocardiograph D. electrodermal response Answer: D 214. Electrical activity of the brain is measured by the ______. A. electroencephalograph B. electromyograph C. electrocardiograph D. electrodermal response Answer: A 215. Changes in muscle tension associated with anxiety can be measured by means of a ______. A. electroencephalograph B. electromyograph C. electrocardiograph D. electrodermal response Answer: B 216. Karl wants to examine brain wave patterns associated with psychological disorders such as schizophrenia, and with physiological problems related to tumors and brain damage. He should probably use a(n) ______. A. CT scan B. PET scan C. EEG D. MRI Answer: C 217. An imaging technique that uses an X-ray beam and radiation to reveal abnormality in the shape or structure of various parts of the brain is a ______. A. CT scan B. PET scan C. BEAM D. NMR Answer: A 218. An imaging technique that uses a radioactive tracer to measure the functioning of various parts of the brain is ______. A. a CT scan B. a PET scan C. BEAM D. MRI Answer: B 219. Which disorder has the PET scan been useful in assessing? A. depression B. bipolar disorder C. phobia D. schizophrenia Answer: D 220. An imaging technique that uses radio waves and a strong magnetic field to create an image of the brain is _______. A. a CT scan B. a PET scan C. MRI D. BEAM Answer: C 221. _______________ is used to identify parts of the brain that become active when people engage in particular tasks, such as vision, memory, or use of speech. A. MRI B. fMRI C. CAT D. PET Answer: B 222. Which of the following statements is true about brain abnormalities found in patients with schizophrenia? A. They are subtle or fall within a normal range of variation in the general population. B. They are subtle but fall outside the normal range of variation in the general population. C. They are obvious but fall within the normal range of variation in the general population. D. They are obvious and fall outside the normal range of variation in the general population. Answer: A 223. The text stresses that in testing people from other cultures ________ are essential to ________ of the original items in a test. A. kindness and respect; encourage clients to engage with the challenges B. careful translations; capture the meanings C. time and patience; capture the meanings D. being flexible and comfortable with multicultural issues; interpreting the objective Answer: B 224. Spanish-speakers are often judged to be more disturbed when interviewed _____________. A. in English rather than in Spanish B. with an interpreter as a go-between for the client and the interviewer C. in Spanish rather than English D. by a non-Hispanic interviewer Answer: A 225. The Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) demonstrates good validity when used _________ to distinguish between depressed and non-depressed people. A. exclusively with European Americans in the US B. with ethnic minority groups in the US C. European American and African American but not with other minorities in the US D. with fully bicultural ethnic minorities in the US Answer: B True-False Questions 226. Freud was the first modern theorist to develop a comprehensive system of classification. Answer: False 227. The most widely used diagnostic manual worldwide is the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD), Answer: True 228. In the DSM system, abnormal behavior patterns are not classified as mental disorders. Answer: False 229. A person whose behavior is significantly impaired immediately following the death of a loved one has a mental disorder. Answer: False 230. The DSM system, like the medical model, treats abnormal behaviors as signs or symptoms of underlying disorders or pathologies. Answer: True 231. The DSM system does not subscribe to a particular theory of abnormal behavior. Answer: True 232. The DSM system is explanatory, not descriptive. Answer: False 233.. The DSM system is based on the behavioral approach to classification. Answer: False 234. Two of the major changes in the DSM-5 include removing a dimensional component and including a multiaxial component. Answer: False 235. Psychological distress may be experienced differently in different cultures. Answer: True 236. Dhat is a culture-bound syndrome found among some Indian men that is characterized by anxiety over losing semen. Answer: True 237. The validity of a measure of assessment is its consistency. Answer: False 238. The most appropriate test of the validity of a diagnostic system is its correspondence with behavioral observations. Answer: True 239. More recent DSM editions place greater emphasis on weighing cultural factors when assessing abnormal behavior than did earlier editions. Answer: True 240. The DSM-5 reclassifies Asperger’s disorder and autistic disorder under the general category of autism spectrum disorders. Answer: True 241. The expansion of diagnosable disorders is not a source of controversy over the DSM-5. Answer: False 242. One criticism of the DSM-5’s process of development was that the organizers solicited insufficient input from many leading researchers and scholars. Answer: True 243. Interrater reliability is usually of greatest importance in making diagnostic decisions and rating behaviors. Answer: True 244. Construct validity is also called predictive validity. Answer: False 245. Content validity and predictive validity are both types of construct validity. Answer: False 246. A psychological test must be valid in order to be reliable. Answer: False 247. Although it is not an exact science, the measurement of the bumps on a person’s head can be used to determine the person’s personality traits. Answer: False 248. Psychological assessment is synonymous with psychological testing. Answer: False 249. The most widely used means of assessment is the clinical interview. Answer: True 250. The major advantage of the unstructured interview is its spontaneity and conversational style. Answer: True 251. Researchers find that people report more personal problems when interviewed by human interviewers than impersonal computers. Answer: False 252. Most of the resistance to using computer interviews of clients for obtaining information and reaching an accurate diagnosis comes from clinicians rather than clients. Answer: True 253. Psychological tests are unstructured methods of assessment. Answer: False 254. An objective test of personality is one that does not require any subjective judgments on the part of the person taking the test. Answer: False 255. The MMPI contains several hundred open-ended questions that assess intellectual ability. Answer: False 256. The MMPI was originally intended to establish the parameters and explore the varieties of normal behavior. Answer: False 257. A weakness of the MMPI is that it has no validity scales. Answer: False 258. The Rorschach test is classified as an objective test. Answer: False 259. One of the most widely used tests of personality asks people to interpret what they see in a series of inkblots. Answer: True 260. Murray developed several individually administered intelligence tests for children and adults. Answer: False 261. The reliability and validity of projective tests has proven to be quite high. Answer: False 262. Neuropsychological tests attempt to reveal brain dysfunctions without surgical procedures. Answer: True 263. Behavioral observation is limited to measuring overt behaviors. Answer: True 264. In self-monitoring, the client assumes primary responsibility for assessing the problem behavior. Answer: True 265. Behavioral diaries can help clients increase desirable, but low-frequency behaviors. Answer: True 266. One of the most popular example of an analogue measure is the Behavioral Rating Scale. Answer: False 267. Cognitive assessment techniques are used most frequently by Gestalt therapists. Answer: False 268. Modern imaging techniques allow us to see inside the brain without surgery. Answer: True 269. The CT scan reveals abnormalities in brain shape and structure that may be suggestive of lesions, blood clots, or tumors. Answer: True 270. In an fMRI study, when cocaine-addicted subjects experienced cocaine cravings, their brains showed greater activity in areas that become engaged when healthy subjects watched depressing videotapes. Answer: True 271. Assessment techniques that are valid and reliable in one culture may not be so in another. Answer: True 272. Research evidence indicates that the MMPI-2 is biased against African Americans in ways that cause them to be overdiagnosed with certain mental disorders. Answer: False Essay Questions 273. Discuss the historical origins of modern diagnostic systems and the development of the DSM system. Answer: Historical origins of modern diagnostic systems and the development of the DSM system: • The modern diagnostic systems trace their origins to early attempts to classify and understand mental disorders, such as the work of Emil Kraepelin in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. • The DSM (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders) was first published by the American Psychiatric Association in 1952, building on earlier classification systems. • The DSM evolved over subsequent editions to reflect advances in psychiatric research, changes in diagnostic criteria, and the need for a standardized framework for diagnosing mental disorders. 274. Define the concept of "mental disorders" in the DSM system and explain how the diagnostic system adheres to the medical model. Answer: Concept of "mental disorders" in the DSM system and adherence to the medical model: • In the DSM system, mental disorders are defined as clinically significant behavioral or psychological syndromes or patterns that are associated with distress or disability. • The DSM adheres to the medical model by conceptualizing mental disorders as illnesses with identifiable symptoms, etiology (causes), and diagnostic criteria. • It emphasizes diagnosis based on symptom presentation and impairment in functioning, similar to diagnosing physical illnesses. 275. Describe the major changes in the DSM-5 compared to that of the multiaxial system of the DSM-IV. Why did the DSM-5 emphasize a dimensional component of assessment and diagnosis, and how does the DSM-5 attempt to accomplish this goal? Answer: Major changes in DSM-5 compared to the multiaxial system of DSM-IV and dimensional assessment: • DSM-5 changes: The DSM-5 eliminated the multiaxial system used in DSM-IV, where different aspects (axes) of diagnosis (e.g., clinical disorders, personality disorders) were assessed separately. • Dimensional component: DSM-5 introduced a dimensional approach to assessment, emphasizing the severity and functional impairments associated with disorders. • Reasons for dimensional emphasis: To capture the complexity and variability of symptoms within disorders, recognizing that individuals may experience symptoms on a continuum rather than as categorical entities. • Implementation in DSM-5: The DSM-5 includes dimensional assessments for certain disorders (e.g., severity ratings for depressive disorders) and encourages clinicians to consider dimensional aspects when diagnosing. These changes reflect ongoing efforts to improve diagnostic accuracy, account for clinical complexity, and better align with contemporary understanding of mental health disorders. 276. Name three or more culture-bound syndromes and discuss their features. Answer: Culture-bound syndromes and their features: 1. Koro: Found predominantly in Southeast Asia, individuals fear that their genitals are retracting into their body, leading to panic and a belief in impending death. 2. Amok: Seen in Malaysia and Philippines, characterized by sudden outbursts of aggression followed by amnesia for the event. 3. Taijin Kyofusho: Common in Japan, involves an intense fear of offending or embarrassing others through one's appearance or behavior. 277. Describe three major changes to the DSM-5, including new disorders and existing disorders reclassified under new diagnostic labels. Answer: Major changes in DSM-5: 1. New disorders: Intermittent Explosive Disorder and Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder were added as new disorders. 2. Reclassified disorders: Asperger's Syndrome was reclassified under Autism Spectrum Disorder. 3. Elimination of multiaxial system: The DSM-5 eliminated the multiaxial system used in DSM-IV, integrating all disorders into a single axis. 278. Summarize the criticisms of the use of a categorical model of diagnosis. What do behaviorally oriented psychologists feel should be the focus in understanding abnormal behavior? Answer: Criticisms of the categorical model of diagnosis and focus of behaviorally oriented psychologists: Criticisms: The categorical model is criticized for oversimplifying complex behaviors and experiences, ignoring the spectrum of symptom severity and individual variability. Behaviorally oriented psychologists: They advocate for a focus on observable behaviors, environmental factors, and learning processes in understanding abnormal behavior. 279. Describe four main points of controversy in the development of the DSM-5. Answer: Controversies in the development of the DSM-5: 1. Validity and reliability: Concerns over the reliability and validity of diagnostic criteria and changes made in DSM-5 compared to previous editions. 2. Diagnostic thresholds: Debate over the criteria for defining mental disorders and where to set diagnostic thresholds, potentially leading to over-diagnosis or under-diagnosis. 3. Pharmaceutical influence: Criticisms regarding the influence of pharmaceutical companies on the expansion of diagnostic criteria, potentially increasing the number of treatable conditions. 4. Dimensional vs. categorical: Controversy over the shift from a categorical approach (distinct diagnostic categories) to a more dimensional approach (recognizing symptom severity and variability). 280. Explain three approaches to demonstrating the reliability of methods of assessment. Answer: Approaches to demonstrating reliability of assessment methods: 1. Inter-rater reliability: Consistency of judgments between different raters or clinicians using the same assessment tool. 2. Test-retest reliability: Consistency of results over time when the same assessment is administered to the same individual on different occasions. 3. Internal consistency reliability: Consistency of responses across items within the same assessment tool, measured by techniques like Cronbach's alpha. 281. Explain three approaches to demonstrating the validity of methods of assessment. Answer: Approaches to demonstrating validity of assessment methods: 1. Content validity: Ensures that the assessment tool adequately samples the content it is supposed to measure. 2. Criterion validity: Assesses how well the assessment tool correlates with an external criterion (e.g., comparing a depression scale with clinical diagnosis of depression). 3. Construct validity: Evaluates how well the assessment tool measures the theoretical construct or concept it claims to measure, using methods such as factor analysis. 282. What is a clinical interview? Describe five main components typically covered in this type of interview. Answer: A clinical interview is a structured or semi-structured conversation between a clinician (psychologist, psychiatrist, counselor) and a client/patient aimed at gathering information about the client's psychological history, current concerns, and symptoms. Components typically covered: 1. Chief complaint: Reason for seeking therapy or presenting problem. 2. History: Personal history, including developmental, medical, and psychiatric history. 3. Current symptoms: Detailed exploration of current emotional, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms. 4. Psychosocial context: Exploration of significant life events, relationships, work/school, and daily functioning. 5. Assessment: Initial impressions and hypotheses regarding diagnosis or treatment recommendations based on gathered information. 283. Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of computerized interviews. Answer: Advantages and disadvantages of computerized interviews: Advantages: • Standardization: Ensures consistency in administration and scoring of questions. • Efficiency: Can be administered to large groups simultaneously, saving time and resources. • Scalability: Easily adaptable to different languages and settings. • Confidentiality: Responses can be kept confidential, promoting honest answers. Disadvantages: • Lack of rapport: Removes human interaction and empathy, potentially affecting rapport and trust. • Limited flexibility: May not adapt well to unique responses or complex situations. • Access barriers: Requires computer literacy and access to technology, which may be limiting. • Bias: Programming and design can introduce biases, affecting the validity of results. 284. Differentiate between a structured, semi-structured, and unstructured interview. What are the strengths and weaknesses of each? Answer: Different types of interviews and their strengths/weaknesses: Structured interview: • Definition: A fixed set of questions asked in a specific order, with predetermined answers and scoring criteria. • Strengths: High reliability due to standardization, easy comparison of responses, suitable for research settings. • Weaknesses: Limited flexibility in exploring unique responses, may miss important contextual information. Semi-structured interview: • Definition: Combines a set of predetermined questions with flexibility to explore topics in more depth based on respondent's answers. • Strengths: Allows for exploration of individual experiences and perspectives, provides a balance between structure and flexibility. • Weaknesses: Requires skilled interviewers to maintain consistency while allowing for exploration, potential variability in data collection. Unstructured interview: • Definition: Open-ended format with no predetermined questions, allowing for free-flowing conversation. • Strengths: Provides rich, detailed information, captures nuances and context-specific details. • Weaknesses: Low reliability due to lack of standardization, difficult to compare responses across interviews, requires skilled interviewers to maintain focus. 285. How does David Wechsler define intelligence? Based on this definition, speculate on the problems associated with the use of intelligence testing. Answer: David Wechsler's definition of intelligence and associated problems: Definition of intelligence: David Wechsler defined intelligence as the global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally, and to deal effectively with their environment. Problems associated with intelligence testing based on this definition: • Cultural bias: Tests may Favor certain cultural or socioeconomic groups over others, influencing scores. • Narrow definition: Emphasis on cognitive abilities may overlook other important aspects of human functioning (e.g., emotional intelligence, creativity). • Stigma: Labeling individuals based on intelligence test scores can perpetuate stereotypes and limit opportunities. • Validity: Challenges in measuring complex constructs like intelligence with a single test score, as it may not fully capture individual differences or potential. Understanding these issues is crucial for interpreting intelligence test results accurately and ethically, considering their implications for individuals' lives and opportunities. 286. How is an IQ score determined using the Wechsler scales? Answer: Determining an IQ score using the Wechsler scales: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales, such as the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) or the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC), determine IQ scores through several steps: 1. Administration: The test is administered individually by a trained examiner, typically a psychologist or trained professional. 2. Subtests: The test consists of multiple subtests that assess various cognitive abilities, including verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, working memory, and processing speed. 3. Scoring: Each subtest produces a raw score, which is then converted into a scaled score based on the individual's age group. 4. Composite scores: These scaled scores are combined to calculate several composite scores, including the Full-Scale IQ (FSIQ), which represents overall intellectual functioning. 5. Standardization: IQ scores are standardized, with a mean (average) score of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, allowing comparison to the general population. 287. Compare and contrast the MMPI and the Rorschach. Discuss the history, features, reliability, and validity of these tests. How might the use of both instruments be helpful in a psychological evaluation? Answer: Comparison of MMPI and Rorschach: MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory): • History: Developed in 1943, revised several times; originally designed to identify psychological disorders. • Features: Consists of true/false questions assessing personality traits, psychopathology, and clinical syndromes. • Reliability: High internal consistency and test-retest reliability; standardized and normed on large samples. • Validity: Includes scales to assess validity and detect response biases; demonstrates predictive validity for diagnosing mental disorders. Rorschach Inkblot Test: • History: Created in 1921 by Hermann Rorschach; based on interpretations of inkblots to assess personality and underlying thought disorders. • Features: Involves showing 10 inkblots to the respondent, who describes what they see; responses are analyzed based on content and perceptual accuracy. • Reliability: Critics cite concerns over inter-rater reliability and standardization; scoring and interpretation can vary among clinicians. • Validity: Controversial; lacks strong empirical support but has some utility in clinical settings for generating hypotheses about personality dynamics. Usefulness in psychological evaluation: • MMPI: Useful for assessing personality traits, identifying psychopathology, and treatment planning in clinical settings. • Rorschach: Helpful in exploring deeper personality dynamics, unconscious conflicts, and thought disorders that may not be captured by self-report measures. 288. What are the advantages and disadvantages of a structured personality test like the MMPI? Answer: Advantages and disadvantages of structured personality tests like the MMPI: Advantages: • Standardization: Provides consistent administration, scoring, and interpretation across different settings and populations. • Reliability: Generally high reliability due to standardized scoring procedures and large normative samples. • Objectivity: Minimizes subjective interpretation by relying on standardized scoring algorithms. • Comprehensive: Covers a wide range of personality traits and clinical syndromes, aiding in differential diagnosis. Disadvantages: • Limited flexibility: May not capture unique or nuanced aspects of individual personality that are relevant in clinical practice. • Response biases: Susceptible to response biases (e.g., social desirability) that can affect validity. • Cultural bias: Items and norms may not be equally valid across different cultural or linguistic groups. • Complexity: Interpretation requires specialized training and familiarity with the test, limiting accessibility outside of clinical settings. Understanding these aspects helps clinicians determine the appropriate use and interpretation of structured personality tests like the MMPI in psychological evaluations. 289. How are projective assessments different from objective assessment instruments? Answer: Differences between projective assessments and objective assessment instruments: Projective assessments: • Nature: Involve ambiguous stimuli (e.g., inkblots, incomplete sentences) to elicit unconscious thoughts and feelings. • Response: Responses are interpreted subjectively by the examiner based on content, symbolism, and patterns. • Examples: Rorschach Inkblot Test, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). • Purpose: Explore deeper personality dynamics, unconscious conflicts, and emotions. Objective assessment instruments: • Nature: Use standardized, structured items with clear response options (e.g., multiple-choice, Likert scales). • Response: Responses are quantitatively scored based on predetermined criteria or algorithms. • Examples: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI), Beck Depression Inventory (BDI). • Purpose: Assess specific traits, behaviors, or symptoms in a standardized and replicable manner. 290. Describe the use of psychological tests in the assessment of neuropsychological functioning. Identify at least two tests by name and describe what they measure. Answer: Psychological tests in neuropsychological assessment: Use in assessment of neuropsychological functioning: • Purpose: Evaluate cognitive functions (e.g., memory, attention, executive functioning) and detect neurological deficits. • Examples: 1. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery: Assesses broad neuropsychological functions through a series of standardized tests. 2. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS): Measures intelligence and cognitive abilities across several domains, including verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, working memory, and processing speed. 291. Describe three tests found in the Halsted-Reitan Battery that could be used in the assessment of head trauma. Answer: Tests in the Halsted-Reitan Battery for head trauma assessment: 1. Trail Making Test (Parts A and B): • Purpose: Assesses visual attention, task switching, and cognitive flexibility. • Procedure: In Part A, participants connect numbered circles sequentially. In Part B, they alternate between numbers and letters (e.g., 1-A-2-B). 2. Grooved Pegboard Test: • Purpose: Evaluates manual dexterity, motor speed, and coordination. • Procedure: Participants insert pegs into a pegboard with slotted holes using one hand at a time as quickly as possible. 3. Finger Tapping Test: • Purpose: Measures motor speed and coordination. • Procedure: Participants tap a mechanical device with their index finger as rapidly as possible for a specified duration. These tests are part of the Halsted-Reitan Battery, which provides a comprehensive evaluation of cognitive and motor functions that may be affected by head trauma or neurological disorders. 292. Discuss the advantages and limitations of behavioral assessment. Answer: Advantages and limitations of behavioral assessment: Advantages: • Objective: Focuses on observable behaviors, providing concrete data for assessment and treatment planning. • Reliability: Allows for consistent measurement and observation of behaviors over time and across settings. • Relevance: Directly addresses specific behavioral issues or concerns that are the focus of treatment. • Flexibility: Can be adapted for different populations and settings, including clinical, educational, and organizational contexts. Limitations: • Limited scope: May not capture underlying thoughts, emotions, or motivations that contribute to behaviors. • Context dependency: Behaviors may vary based on environmental factors or the presence of an observer (reactivity). • Complexity: Some behaviors are difficult to observe or quantify objectively, especially internal experiences or subtle behaviors. • Interpretation: Requires careful interpretation to avoid biases or misinterpretation of observed behaviors. 293. Describe the following techniques: the behavioral interview, self-monitoring, use of PDAs (e.g., smart phones), direct observation, behavioral rating scales. Answer: Techniques in behavioral assessment: Behavioral interview: • Description: Structured interview focusing on identifying specific behaviors, antecedents, and consequences. • Purpose: Gather information about the frequency, intensity, and context of target behaviors. Self-monitoring: • Description: Clients record their behaviors, thoughts, or emotions in real-time using journals or PDAs. • Purpose: Increase awareness of behaviors, identify patterns, and track progress in behavior change. Use of PDAs (e.g., smartphones): • Description: Mobile devices used to record behaviors, thoughts, or emotions through apps or digital tools. • Purpose: Enhance convenience, accuracy, and accessibility of self-monitoring data. Direct observation: • Description: Systematic observation and recording of behavior in natural or controlled settings. • Purpose: Provide objective data on behavior frequency, duration, and context. Behavioral rating scales: • Description: Standardized tools to assess behaviors through ratings by observers, caregivers, or self-report. • Purpose: Quantify behaviors based on specific criteria or dimensions, aiding in diagnosis or treatment planning. 294. Discuss the use of thought diaries and questionnaires that assess automatic thoughts and dysfunctional attitudes. What criticisms have the behaviorists made about the use of cognitive techniques such as the thought diary? Answer: Use of thought diaries and questionnaires assessing automatic thoughts and dysfunctional attitudes: Thought diaries: • Purpose: Track and analyze automatic thoughts (spontaneous, often unconscious, cognitive processes) related to emotions or behaviors. • Questionnaires assessing automatic thoughts and dysfunctional attitudes: • Purpose: Assess cognitive patterns, beliefs, and attitudes contributing to emotional distress or maladaptive behaviors. Criticisms from behaviorists: • Focus on internal processes: Behaviorists emphasize observable behaviors and environmental influences rather than internal cognitive processes. • Validity concerns: Behaviorists argue that self-report measures of thoughts and attitudes may be subjective and influenced by social desirability. • Treatment focus: Behaviorists prefer techniques that directly target observable behaviors and environmental contingencies for behavior change. Understanding these techniques and criticisms is crucial for integrating behavioral and cognitive approaches effectively in assessment and treatment planning in clinical practice. 295. Describe three measures of physiological arousal that use probes attached to the body in their assessment. What are these instruments measuring and how do they accomplish the measurement? Answer: Measures of physiological arousal using probes: 1. Electrocardiography (ECG/EKG): • Measurement: Records electrical activity of the heart. • Probes: Electrodes attached to the chest to detect and measure heart rate and rhythm. • Purpose: Assess cardiac function and monitor changes in heart rate variability related to stress or emotional arousal. 2. Electrodermal activity (EDA) or Galvanic Skin Response (GSR): • Measurement: Measures changes in electrical conductance of the skin. • Probes: Electrodes attached to the fingers or palm. • Purpose: Reflects sympathetic nervous system activity and emotional arousal, used in biofeedback and stress research. 3. Electromyography (EMG): • Measurement: Records electrical activity produced by skeletal muscles. • Probes: Surface electrodes or fine-wire electrodes attached to specific muscles. • Purpose: Measures muscle tension and activity levels, useful in assessing stress responses and muscle disorders. 296. Discuss the use of brain scans in diagnosing psychological disorders. What problems have been identified in the use of these instruments in identifying psychological disorders? Where has imaging research shown the most promise? Answer: Use of brain scans in diagnosing psychological disorders: Benefits: • Localization of brain activity: Helps identify brain regions associated with specific symptoms or disorders. • Objective assessment: Provides quantitative data on brain structure and function. • Treatment planning: Guides treatment strategies such as medication or neurofeedback. Challenges: • Complexity of brain-behavior relationships: Difficulty in establishing causal relationships between brain findings and psychological symptoms. • Interpretation issues: Variability in brain structure and function among individuals and across populations. • Ethical concerns: Privacy, informed consent, and potential stigma associated with brain imaging results. Promising areas in imaging research: • Neuroplasticity: Understanding how the brain changes in response to interventions or experiences. • Early detection: Identifying neural markers for early diagnosis of conditions like Alzheimer's disease or schizophrenia. • Individualized treatment: Tailoring treatments based on neuroimaging findings to optimize outcomes. 297. Identify ways in which assessments instruments should be used so as to avoid introducing cultural bias into psychological assessment. How does the client’s language preference impact the results of the assessment? Name at least two psychological assessment instruments and the issues that have or need to be addressed in their use with diverse populations. Answer: Avoiding cultural bias in psychological assessment: Considerations: • Cultural competence: Understanding cultural norms, values, and practices that may influence assessment outcomes. • Language preference: Providing assessments in the client's preferred language to ensure accurate understanding and expression. • Test adaptation: Adapting assessment instruments to be culturally appropriate and valid for diverse populations. Impact of language preference: • Accuracy: Language proficiency affects the client's ability to understand instructions and respond accurately. • Validity: Misinterpretations due to language barriers can lead to inaccurate assessment results. Examples of assessment instruments and cultural issues: 1. Beck Depression Inventory (BDI): • Issue: Items may not be culturally relevant or understandable across diverse populations. • Adaptation: Translating and culturally validating the BDI for different linguistic and cultural groups. 2. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT): • Issue: Interpretations of ambiguous stimuli may vary based on cultural background and experiences. • Consideration: Adapting picture stimuli or interpretation guidelines to account for cultural diversity and context. Addressing cultural bias in psychological assessment requires ongoing research, collaboration with diverse communities, and careful consideration of cultural factors in test development and administration. Test Bank for Abnormal Psychology in a Changing World Jeffrey S. Nevid, Spencer A. Rathus, Beverly Greene 9780205965014, 9780135821688, 9780134458311, 9780205961719, 9780130052162

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