Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders 14.1 Multiple Choice 1) The seizure disorder suffered by Mrs R. in the chapter prologue was treated by A) administration of tPa. B) removal of a benign tumor from her brain. C) administration of antiseizure medication. D) removal of a malignant tumor from her brain. E) electrical stimulation of her subthalamus. Answer: B Rationale: The seizure disorder suffered by Mrs R. in the chapter prologue was treated by removal of a benign tumor from her brain. 2) In the chapter prologue, Mrs. R. suffered from ________ brought on by ________. A) tinnitus; a genetic disorder B) seizures; alcoholism C) seizures; a brain tumor D) impaired vision; years of reading under low-light conditions E) headaches; excessive caffeine intake Answer: C Rationale: In the chapter prologue, Mrs. R. suffered from seizures brought on by a brain tumor. 3) Benign tumors A) spread rapidly through the process of metastasis. B) are difficult to remove from brain tissue. C) do not require treatment. D) are likely to be fatal in very old persons. E) have a distinct border. Answer: E 4) A ________ is a mass of cells without useful function that shows uncontrolled growth. A) tumor B) cyst C) nodule D) gland E) polyp Answer: A 5) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a benign tumor? A) The tumor is harmless. B) The tumor is encapsulated. C) The tumor cells do not perform a useful function. D) The tumor grows by infiltrating other brain regions. E) The tumor has a distinct border. Answer: D Rationale: A benign tumor does not grow by infiltrating other brain regions. 6) A key reason as to why malignant tumors are deadly is that such tumors A) can compress liver and pancreatic cells. B) can grow quickly. C) are difficult to remove from gut D) destroy other brain cells through apoptosis. E) secrete toxic acids Answer: B Rationale: A key reason as to why malignant tumors are deadly is that such tumors can grow quickly. 7) Which of the following tumors is most dangerous? A) benign B) gliomas C) angiomas D) blastocytes E) neningioma Answer: B Rationale: The most dangerous tumor is a glioma. 8) The process through which malignant brain tumors directly damage neurons is A) the induction of hemorrhage. B) excessive release of oxygen radicals. C) compression and infiltration. D) the induction of seizure activity. E) overstimulation of neuron activity. Answer: C Rationale: The process through which malignant brain tumors directly damage neurons is compression and infiltration. 9) A meningioma is a ________ tumor that arises from ________. A) benign; astrocytes B) benign; Schwann cells C) malignant; Schwann cells D) benign; dural or arachnoid cells E) malignant; dural or arachnoid cells Answer: D Rationale: A meningioma is a benign tumor that arises dural or arachnoid cells. 10) A tumor of the ________ type is dangerous because it ________. A) neuroma; can compress neural tissue B) benign; is malignant and fast growing C) malignant; has an encapsulated border D) glioma; is malignant and fast growing E) benign; induced seizure activity. Answer: D Rationale: A tumor of the glioma type is dangerous because it is malignant and fast growing. 11) Which of the following cells CANNOT give rise to a brain tumor? A) meningeal cells B) neurons C) astrocytes D) glial cells E) ependymal cells Answer: B 12) A tumor of the ________ type was removed from the brain of Mrs. R. A) malignant B) glioma C) angioma D) blastocyte E) meningioma Answer: E Rationale: A tumor of the meningioma type was removed from the brain of Mrs. R. 13) ________ involve(s) periodic bouts of overactivity of cerebral neurons. A) Dementia B) Metastases C) Parkinson's disease D) Seizure disorders E) Strokes Answer: D 14) Seizures that result in uncontrollable muscle contractions involve the A) motor system. B) hypothalamus. C) cerebellum. D) limbic system. E) parietal cortex. Answer: A Rationale: Seizures that result in uncontrollable muscle contractions involve the motor system. 15) Unlike other seizure disorders, a grand mal seizure A) can produce convulsions, but not unconsciousness. B) is an example of a simple partial seizure disorder. C) is the most severe form of seizure disorder. D) is usually localized to a small focus within the brain. E) can dim consciousness, but does not produce motor convulsions. Answer: C Rationale: Unlike other seizure disorders, a grand mal seizure is the most severe form of seizure disorder. 16) The distinction between ________ and ________ seizures relates to whether these originate from a definite focus within the brain. A) generalized; complex B) simple; partial C) simple; complex D) partial; generalized E) complex; epileptic Answer: D Rationale: The distinction between partial and generalized seizures relates to whether these originate from a definite focus within the brain. 17) The key distinction between ________ and ________ seizures relates to whether these involve most of the brain. A) simple; complex B) complex; epileptic C) generalized; other types of D) partial; generalized E) simple; partial Answer: C Rationale: The key distinction between generalized and other types of seizures relates to whether these involve most of the brain. 18) The initial phase of a grand mal seizure is termed the ________ and is denoted by ________. A) clonic phase; relaxation of all muscles B) tonic phase; rhythmic jerking movements of the body C) aural phase; perception of music D) tonic phase; forceful contraction of all muscles E) aural phase; release of glycine within the spinal cord Answer: D 19) ________ is the most common of the seizure disorders noted in children. A) Petit mal disorder B) Coma disorder C) Simple partial seizure disorder D) Absence E) Status epilepticus Answer: D 20) ________ is a condition in which a patient shows a series of seizures, but does not regain consciousness. A) Petit mal disorder B) Coma disorder C) Simple partial seizure disorder D) Absence disorder E) Status epilepticus Answer: E 21) What is the most common cause of seizures? A) drug overdose B) sudden withdrawal from barbiturates C) scarring produced by damage within the brain D) exposure to toxic chemicals E) long-term use of sleeping pills Answer: C 22) An alcoholic who abruptly stops drinking may experience a seizure because A) of a sudden release from the inhibiting effects of alcohol. B) this abrupt withdrawal excites GABA receptors. C) alcohol withdrawal induces hyposensitivity of glutamate receptors. D) withdrawal leads to brain damage. E) long-term alcohol abuse causes brain damage. Answer: A 23) Anticonvulsant drugs work by A) directly inactivating motor neurons. B) facilitating acetylcholine receptor sites. C) increasing the effectiveness of inhibitory synapses in the brain. D) blocking the activity of GABA sites in the brain. E) causing the release of glutamate in brain. Answer: C 24) Another term for cerebrovascular accident is A) apoptosis. B) tumor growth. C) epilepsy. D) stroke. E) seizure disorder. Answer: D 25) Obstructive strokes can be caused by A) pressure from weakened blood vessels. B) intracranial bleeding. C) thrombi or emboli. D) malformed blood vessels. E) the weakening of blood vessels by toxic levels of glutamate. Answer: C 26) Which of the following will produce a hemorrhagic stroke? A) bleeding within the brain B) prevention of blood flow C) the formation of an embolus in the lungs D) the passage of a thrombus into the brain E) release of glycine in brain. Answer: A 27) Which of the following statements about an embolus is correct? A) It is composed of debris that travels in blood and eventually lodges in an artery. B) It can consist of pieces of thrombi. C) It can be caused by infection within the wall of the heart. D) It is due to pressure exerted by a tumor. E) An embolus secretes acids which destroy neurons. Answer: A 28) Which of the following is true regarding strokes? A) Hemorrhagic strokes are associated with bleeding within the heart. B) Ischemic strokes are related to excessive vasodilation of the brain blood vessels. C) The risk of stroke increases with age. D) Hemorrhagic strokes are associated with tumor compression of nerve tissue. E) Ischemic stroke will eventually produce a hemorrhagic stroke. Answer: C Rationale: The risk of stroke increases with age. 29) A key treatment for stroke involving weak and malformed blood vessels involves A) medication to lower blood pressure. B) administration of antibiotics. C) administration of demoteplase. D) brain surgery to seal off the faulty vessels. E) medication that speeds up the formation of blood clots. Answer: D Rationale: A key treatment for stroke involving weak and malformed blood vessels involves brain surgery to seal off the faulty vessels. 30) A key treatment for stroke caused by a thrombus involves A) medication to lower blood pressure. B) administration of a drug that dissolves clots. C) administration of demoteplase. D) brain surgery to seal off the faulty vessels. E) medication that speeds up the formation of blood clots. Answer: B Rationale: A key treatment for stroke caused by a thrombus involves administration of a drug that dissolves clots. 31) The death of neurons following a stroke is caused by A) over-stimulation of nerve cells by abnormally high levels of glutamate. B) neuronal firing produced by compression. C) interruption of glycogen delivery to the cell. D) enhanced release of the inhibitory transmitter GABA. E) loss of oxygen radicals. Answer: A Rationale: The death of neurons following a stroke is caused by over-stimulation of nerve cells by abnormally high levels of glutamate. 32) Which of the following represents a potential therapy for stroke? A) drugs that promote inflammatory reactions B) drugs that inactivate GABA receptors C) drugs that block glutamate receptors D) introduction of free radicals into the affected brain region E) drugs that excite glutamate receptors Answer: C Rationale: Drugs that block glutamate receptors represent a potential therapy for stroke. 33) Which of the following represents a therapy for non-hemorrhagic ischemic stroke? A) drugs that activate GABA receptors B) drugs that block glutamate receptors C) drugs that block inflammatory reactions D) tPa E) the anticoagulant desmoteplase Answer: E 34) The impact of ________ within the internal carotid artery is serious because this artery ________. A) tPa; supplies blood to the gut B) neurofibrillary tangles; supplies blood to the heart C) atherosclerotic plaque; supplies blood to the brain D) tPa; absorbs CSF from the brain E) atherosclerotic plaque; supplies blood to the gut Answer: C Rationale: The impact of atherosclerotic plaque within the internal carotid artery is serious because this supplies blood to the brain. 35) Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke? A) stress B) low blood pressure C) high blood levels of cholesterol D) marijuana smoking E).yoga Answer: C 36) What causes the impaired fetal development induced by rubella? A) The virus induces key cells to form a 23rd chromosome. B) toxins produced by the rubella virus C) alteration of chromosome number by the virus D) induction of an error of metabolism within key brain cells E) deletion of key enzymes within the brain Answer: B 37) A mother who contracts rubella during her pregnancy may deliver a child that suffers from A) phenylketonuria. B) fetal alcohol syndrome. C) Moebius syndrome. D) mental retardation. E) Tay-Sachs syndrome. Answer: D 38) ________ is(are) a primary symptom or sign of fetal alcohol syndrome. A) Grand mal seizures B) Swelling of the brain C) An immature immune system D) Abnormal facial development E) Motor tics of the hands and arms Answer: D 39) Fetal alcohol syndrome can result A) from chronic paternal alcoholism. B) from as little as a single drinking binge during a critical period of fetal development. C) from the combined effects of alcohol and other drugs. D) only from chronic maternal alcoholism. E) from a single exposure to a beer consumed by the mother. Answer: B 40) Phenylketonuria is caused by A) an inherited lack of an enzyme. B) neurofibrillary tangles. C) toxic chemicals released by a virus. D) accumulation of waste products in the brain. E) prenatal exposure to rubella. Answer: A 41) Treatment for phenylketonuria consists of early diagnosis and A) a diet low in thyroxine. B) a complete blood transfusion at birth. C) a shift to diet low in phenylalanine. D) lifelong supplemental phenylalanine. E) daily injections of the precursor of phenylalanine. Answer: C 42) Tay-Sachs disease is characterized by A) accumulation of waste products within brain neurons. B) damage to lysosomes contained within neurons. C) interference with the chemical signals that control normal brain development. D) faulty migration of cells to the cortex during development. E) incomplete myelinization. Answer: A 43) The term congenital refers to A) a condition present at birth. B) the fact that a fetus has both male and female internal reproductive structures. C) a neurological condition that appears during puberty. D) a mismatch between gender identity and gender morphology. E) a genetic metabolic error of the brain. Answer: A 44) Which of the following is NOT a congenital disorder? A) phenylketonuria B) galactosemia C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Down syndrome E) Parkinson’s disease Answer: B 45) Down syndrome is caused by A) improper migration of brain cells during brain development. B) an inherited faulty gene. C) a genetic error in which a vital enzyme is missing in the brain. D) the presence of an extra twenty-first chromosome. E) obstetric difficulties at the time of birth. Answer: D 46) Abnormal microscopic structures develop in the brains of older persons with Down syndrome and those suffering from A) Tay-Sachs disease. B) Alzheimer's disease. C) Korsakoff's syndrome. D) Parkinson's disease. E) status epilepticus. Answer: B 47) People with Down syndrome A) have brains that are approximately 10 percent lighter than those of normal people. B) suffer from augmented activity of the frontal lobe. C) often fail to learn to talk. D) have no distinguishing physical characteristics. E) hace an extra Y chromosome. Answer: A 48) The brain damage noted in a human who has contracted BSE ("Mad Cow Disease") is caused by a A) type of protein known as a prion. B) virus. C) bacterium. D) deficiency in blood levels of calcium. E) kuru virus. Answer: A 49) The disorder known as transmissible spongiform encephalopathy results in A) degeneration of the brain. B) shrinking of the brain ventricles. C) anomalies of the face. D) nausea. E) greater cortical weight. Answer: A Rationale: The disorder known as transmissible spongiform encephalopathy results in degeneration of the brain. 50) A disease condition is considered to be sporadic if it A) occurs often. B) is seen in many parts of the world. C) is not caused by heredity. D) cannot be traced to a specific cause. E) is easily treated using drugs. Answer: C 51) Misfolded prion proteins may be toxic to brain cells because these A) can be passed from neuron to neuron. B) trigger apoptosis in a neuron. C) overstimulate glutamate receptors. D) block sodium currents through the neuron membrane. E) damage lysosomes leading to neuron swelling. Answer: B Rationale: Misfolded prion proteins may be toxic to brain cells because these trigger apoptosis in a neuron. 52) A common element for neurodegenerative diseases is A) an infection related to the prion bacterium. B) suppression of apoptosis within the brain. C) the presence of misfolded proteins within brain cells. D) the inactivation of caspase-12 within neurons. E) the inactivation of caspase-12 within glia. Answer: C 53) Which of the following is true of Parkinson's disease (PD)? A) PD is a rare neurodegenerative syndrome. B) Nigrostriatal neurons die in PD. C) Most cases of PD are inherited.. D) Muscle flacidity is a PD symptom. E) Early intervention can cure PD. Answer: B 54) Tracing the cause of Parkinson's disease is difficult because PD is A) an inherited disorder. B) can be caused by drugs of abuse such as caffeine. C) an unrecognized infectious disorder. D) can be caused by environmental toxins. E).is a sporadic disorder. Answer: D 55) Parkinson's disease has been traced to A) overproduction of dopamine within the basal ganglia. B) degeneration of dopamine neurons within the nigrostriatal system. C) loss of cholinergic neurons within the frontal cortex. D) overproduction of GABA within the caudate nucleus. E) overactivation of serotonin neurons in the hippocampus. Answer: B 56) Abnormal or misfolded intracellular proteins are tagged by ________ molecules, which targets them for destruction by the ________. A) parkin; ubiquitin B) α-synuclein; parkin C) ubiquitin; proteasomes D) parkin; Lewey bodies E) ubiquitin; neurofilaments Answer: C 57) ________ is caused by degeneration of dopamine-secreting neurons of the substantia nigra. A) Multiple sclerosis B) Parkinson's disease C) Acute anterior poliomyelitis D) Encephalitis E) Dowen syndrome Answer: B 58) Which of the following represents a current therapy for Parkinson's disease? A) stereotaxically guided destruction of the internal division of the globus pallidus B) administration of an immune factor against β-amyloid C) administration of amphetamine or cocaine D) stereotaxically guided destruction of the internal division of the primary motor cortex E) administration of haloperidol Answer: A 59) The standard drug treatment for Parkinson's disease is administration of A) haloperidol. B) belladonna. C) L-DOPA. D) apomorphine. E) cocaine and amphetamine. Answer: C Rationale: The standard drug treatment for Parkinson's disease is administration of L-DOPA. 60) Administration of ________ may prevent the further development of Parkinson's disease. A) L-DOPA B) deprenyl C) MPTP D) L-DOPA E) hydrogen peroxide Answer: B Rationale: Administration of deprenyl may prevent the further development of Parkinson's disease. 61) Surgical removal of portions of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. A) caudate nucleus B) orbitofrontal cortex C) putamen D) basal ganglia E) globus pallidus Answer: E 62) ________ is a recent treatment for Parkinson's disease that allows patients to suppress their motor symptoms.. A) Electrical stimulation of the primary motor region B) Intracranial administration of the drug haloperidol C) Administration of reserpine into the spinal cord D) Deep electrical stimulation of the subthalamic region E) Infusion of GABA into the locus coeruleus Answer: D Rationale: Deep electrical stimulation of the subthalamic region is a recent treatment for Parkinson's disease that allows patients to suppress their motor symptoms. 63) Which of the following is true of Huntington's disease (HD)? A) HD is characterized by a poverty of movement. B) HD can be cured using pallidotomy. C) People who develop HD at a younger age have shorter stretches of glutamine. D) HD is a hereditary disorder involving chromosome 4. E) HD involves degeneration of the mesolimbic DA system. Answer: D Rationale: HD is a hereditary disorder involving chromosome 4. 64) Parkinson's disease ________, but Huntington's disease ________. A) is characterized by a poverty of movement; is characterized by uncontrollable movement B) cannot be controlled; can be cured using pallidotomy C) is a hereditary disorder; does not usually have genetic origins D) usually occurs in the twenties and thirties; almost always occurs in the fifties and sixties E) can be cured with drug treatment or surgery; can only be controlled Answer: A Rationale: Parkinson's disease is characterized by a poverty of movement, but Huntington's disease is characterized by uncontrollable movement. 65) A common treatment for Huntington's disease is A) L-DOPA. B) stereotaxic removal of the putamen. C) avoiding alcohol during pregnancy. D) electrical stimulation of the subthalamic nucleus. E) There is no current treatment for this disorder. Answer: E 66) ________ is a rare motor disorder is caused by a defective gene on chromosome 4. A) Phenylketonuria B) Huntington's disease C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Rabies E) Alzheimer's disease Answer: B 67) The first signs of neurodegeneration in Huntington's disease involve loss of A) neurons involved in the synthesis of nitrous oxide. B) dopamine-secreting neurons of the nigrostriatal system. C) neurons involved in glucose metabolism. D) GABAergic neurons of the putamen. E) cholinergic neurons in the pons. Answer: D 68) The term dementia refers to A) impaired cell functioning caused by viral toxins. B) deterioration of intellectual abilities caused by an organic brain disorder. C) the appearance of hallucinations and delusions. D) demyelinization by autoimmune responses. E) loss of neurons in the cerebral cortex and cells surrounding the third ventricle. Answer: B 69) The memory deficit noted in Alzheimer's disease involves A) loss of spiny neurons in the putamen. B) a form of retrograde amnesia. C) anterograde amnesia similar to that of Korsakoff's syndrome. D) loss of dopaminergic cells with the striatum. E) a severe degeneration of the parietal cortex. Answer: C 70) An example of an early symptom of Alzheimer's disease is A) difficulty in remembering appointments. B) an inability to rise from bed in the morning. C) mood swings. D) trembling of the hands and feet. E) muscle stiffness. Answer: A 71) Dying neurons that contain accumulations of amyloid and twisted protein filaments are called A) neurofibrillary tangles. B) neuritic plaques. C) free radicals. D) beta amyloid precursor proteins. E) amyloid plaques. Answer: A 72) A critical intracellular trigger for the development of Alzheimer's disease is A) overproduction of the short form of the β-amyloid protein. B) reduced amounts of the tau protein in brain cells. C) overproduction of the long form of the β-amyloid protein. D) an unfolding of the long form of the β-amyloid protein. E) induction of apoptosis within hippocampal neurons. Answer: C 73) Which of the following is true about Alzheimer's disease (AD)? A) Opiate exposure is a cause of AD. B) Early detection is critical for arresting the progress of AD. C) Most forms of AD may be hereditary. D) The disease may be treated by blocking the formation of β-amyloid. E) The disease is congenital. Answer: D 74) A promising approach for the prevention of Alzheimer's disease involves A) an antagonist of glutamate receptors in brain. B) infusion of L-DOPA into the brain ventricles. C) a drug that blocks the immune system. D) a vaccine that passively stimulates the immune system to destroy β-amyloid. E) the use of the opiate MPTP. Answer: D Rationale: A promising approach for the prevention of Alzheimer's disease involves a vaccine that passively stimulates the immune system to destroy β-amyloid. 75) Which of the following is NOT true of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? A) Most ALS cases are sporadic. B) ALS is a degenerative disease. C) The cause of death in ALS is failure of respiration. D) Spinal cord and cranial motor neurons are destroyed in ALS. E) ALS is caused by damage to Beta-amyloid in nerve cells. Answer: E 76) ________ is considered to be an autoimmune demyelinating disease. A) Moebius syndrome B) Alzheimer's disease C) Multiple sclerosis D) Parkinson's disease E) Huntington's disease Answer: C 77) Which of the following is true of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A) MS is most likely to develop in a person over the age of 65. B) The cortex is the target of MS. C) MS is caused by misfolded prion proteins. D) People who live close to the equator are most likely to develop MS. E) MS is more common in people born during the late winter and early spring. Answer: E 78) An important cause of multiple sclerosis involves A) a lack of an enzyme needed for myelinization. B) the formation of neurofibrillary tangles. C) the conversion of MPTP to MPP+. D) damage to myelin induced by the person's immune system. E) low levels of the β-amyloid protein. Answer: D 79) The most common infectious diseases likely to produce neurological damage are ________ and ________. A) AIDS; polio B) poliomyelitis; AIDS C) multiple sclerosis; Alzheimer's disease D) encephalitis; meningitis E) rabies; herpes simplex Answer: D 80) Acute anterior poliomyelitis is a(n) A) form of viral encephalitis. B) bacterial infection. C) congenital disorder. D) immune system disease. E) degenerative disease. Answer: A 81) Rabies is a type of A) hoof and mouth disease. B) viral encephalitis. C) autoimmune disorder. D) bacterial infection. E) disorder related to environmental toxins. Answer: B 82) Having a stiff and painful neck is one of the most important symptoms of meningitis because this is associated with A) release of excitotoxins by astrocytes. B) excessive pressure on the carotid artery. C) painful stretching of inflamed meninges. D) damage to the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord. E) damage to myelin. Answer: C Rationale: Having a stiff and painful neck is one of the most important symptoms of meningitis because this is associated with painful stretching of inflamed meninges. 83) The most severe form of meningitis is A) bacterial. B) viral. C) caused by the herpes simplex virus. D) caused by the rabies virus. E) associated with use of heroin. Answer: A 84) An effective treatment for bacterial meningitis involves administration of A) interferon β. B) NMDA agonists. C) antibiotics. D) L-DOPA. E) GABA antagonists. Answer: C Rationale: An effective treatment for bacterial meningitis involves administration of antibiotics. 14.2 True-False 1) Tumors that arise from glial cells are usually benign. Answer: False 2) Benign tumors have a distinct border. Answer: True 3) Seizures that result in convulsion involve the motor system. Answer: True 4) The most common cause of seizures is scarring of the brain. Answer: True 5) An embolus is a blood clot that obstructs a blood vessel. Answer: False 6) A single drinking episode rarely results in fetal alcohol syndrome. Answer: False 7) Phenylketonuria can be treated by placing an infant on a diet low in phenylalanine. Answer: True 8) Down syndrome is a congenital disorder. Answer: True 9) A disorder that one is born with is called a congenital disorder. Answer: True 10) A sporadic disease is both frequent and related to heredity. Answer: False 11) The standard treatment for Parkinson's disease is transplantation of fetal dopamine cells into caudate. Answer: False 12) Parkinson's disease can be induced by drugs such as MPTP. Answer: True 13) Huntington's disease involves uncontrollable movements of the limbs. Answer: True 14) A key symptom of Huntington's disease is anterograde amnesia. Answer: False 15) Huntington's disease is a sporadic disease. Answer: False 16) Interferon β treatment can reduce the symptoms of multiple sclerosis. Answer: True 17) The most common source of encephalitis is a mosquito bite. Answer: True 14.3 Short-Answer Essay 1) Differentiate between a benign and a malignant tumor. Answer: A benign tumor is harmless and has a distinct border that separates the tumor from surrounding tissue. A malignant tumor has no distinct border; it can infiltrate surrounding tissue, making it difficult to remove from brain. 2) Explain the differences between partial and generalized seizures. Answer: A partial seizure has a definite focus (location) within the brain and acts just within this limited region. A generalized seizure has a widespread area of activation and can involve most of the brain. 3) Explain the differences between hemorrhagic and obstructive cerebrovascular accidents. What are common causes of each? Answer: Hemorrhagic strokes are caused by bleeding within the brain related to a malformed blood vessel or a high blood pressure. Obstructive cerebrovascular accidents are related to the plugging of a blood vessel by a thrombus (a blood clot) or an embolus (bacterial debris or a portion of clot). 4) Explain what causes neuronal death when the blood supply to a region of the brain is interrupted. Answer: Interruption of blood flow depletes the region of oxygen and glucose, which causes the release of glutamate. Cells that are overstimulated by glutamate die and are then consumed by microglia. 5) What causes fetal alcohol syndrome? What are the symptoms of this disorder? Answer: Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is associated with use of alcohol by a mother during pregnancy. The symptoms of FAS include mental retardation, abnormal facial development, and deficient brain development. 6) Explain the significance of prions for neurological disorders. Answer: Prions are "protein infectious agents." Prions are three-dimensional proteins that when misfolded can accumulate in a neuron leading to toxicity and death of the cell. Prions cannot be destroyed with heat, and can transmitted to others (transplantation of infected prion tissue). 7) Describe the causes and symptoms of multiple sclerosis. Answer: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is disease that involves progressive removal of the myelin and is an autoimmune disease. The damage is associated with axons within the cerebral white matter and the symptoms involve the loss of neural messages. The disease appears to be one that involves a viral infection, but one that is late in onset. The symptoms are episodic. 8) What are the most common forms of viral encephalitis? Answer: Encephalitis is an infection that invades the entire brain. A common cause of encephalitis is a virus transmitted by mosquitos, which in turn receive it from horses, birds, or rodents. 14.4 Essay 1) Describe the risk factors for stroke. Answer: Stroke can involve obstructions of brain blood vessels or can involve the rupture of blood vessels. Known risk factors include cigarette smoking, high blood pressure, high blood cholesterol levels, diabetes, and the presence of plaque within the lumen of blood vessels (atherosclerosis). 2) Describe the symptoms and causes of phenylketonuria and Tay-Sachs disease. How are these diseases related to one another? Answer: Each of these diseases is an example of an inherited metabolic disorder. Phenylketonuria is an inherited lack of an enzyme that results in the buildup in blood of a toxic metabolite of phenylalanine (resulting in severe mental retardation). During a critical period of postnatal brain development, the PKU child is placed on a low phenylalanine diet. Tay-Sachs disease is a disease in which the lysosomes are unable to destroy certain cellular waste products, which accumulate to toxic levels. 3) Describe the etiology and symptoms of Huntington's disease and of Parkinson's disease. How do both these diseases of the basal ganglia differ from one another? Answer: Huntington's disease (HD) is caused by degeneration of the caudate nucleus and the putamen. The disease is marked by uncontrollable jerky movements of the arms and legs. HD is a hereditary disorder, related to a dominant gene on chromosome 4. Parkinson's disease is associated with neurodegeneration of the nigrostrial dopamine system and involves tremor at rest, muscle rigidity, slowness of movement, and postural instability. 4) Describe the neuroanatomical changes that accompany Down syndrome and Alzheimer's disease. In what way are these diseases similar to each other? How do they differ from one another? Answer: Down syndrome is a congenital disorder involving profound mental retardation. The disorder is induced by the presence of an additional twenty-first chromosome. After age 30, a Down's person will experience brain atrophy and degeneration (a similarity to that of Alzheimer's disease). Alzheimer's disease (AD) involves dementia, which first appears as a memory difficulty. AD is associated with severe degeneration of brain structures such as the hippocampus and neurocortex. Both disorders are characterized by abnormal intracellular abnormalities. Test Bank for Foundations of Behavioral Neuroscience Neil R. Carlson 9780205968091, 9780134639796, 9780205947997
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