CH-11 Human Development Across the Life Span – Psychology and Life : Exam Guide

Chapter 11: Human Development across the Life Span 1) Which finding would most likely be the product of a normative investigation? A) Shyness is a personality trait that is relatively stable over time. B) Children must have a rudimentary understanding of symbolism before they can learn to read. C) The average child can build a tower of three blocks at the age of 18 months. D) Attempts at toilet training are futile until the child has voluntary control of the necessary muscles. Answer: C Rationale: Normative investigations seek to describe a characteristic of a certain age or developmental stage. 2) A woman has been a participant in an ongoing study of intelligence for the past twenty years. Every few years, a researcher tests her intelligence and asks her questions about her achievements. What type of research design is being implemented? A) cross-sectional B) chronological C) lifespan D) longitudinal Answer: D Rationale: In a longitudinal design, the same individuals are repeatedly observed and tested over time. 3) What is one advantage of the longitudinal design? A) the results can be generalized widely to various cohorts. B) data are not likely to be lost due to participant attrition. C) all participants have lived through the same socioeconomic period. D) demand characteristics can be minimized Answer: C Rationale: Age-related changes cannot be confused with variations in differing societal circumstances as they can be if groups or individuals of different ages are tested at the same time. 4) A professor conducted a developmental study using a cross-sectional design. What type of comparisons would most likely have been made? A) participants of the same age at the same time B) participants of different ages at the same time C) participants of the same age at different times D) participants of different ages at different times Answer: B Rationale: In this way, a researcher can draw conclusions about behavioural differences that may be related to differences in ages. 5) Vance is using a cross-sectional design to conduct a study on attitudes toward gender equity in the work place. Vance finds that 40-year-old participants are much more resistant to gender equity than are 20-year-old participants. Which factor may make the interpretation of these findings difficult? A) results may be confounded by differences in the experiences of different birth cohorts. B) all of the participants were tested for their attitudes at approximately the same time. C) substantial data may be lost due to participant attrition. D) results may be due to the fact that attitudinal differences are related to differences in age. Answer: A Rationale: Social and political conditions experienced by people who were born in different years may be very different from one another depending on the age group. 6) When a male sperm cell fertilizes a female’s egg cell, what is the result? A) fetus. B) embryo. C) neonate. D) single-celled zygote. Answer: D Rationale: When a male sperm cell fertilizes a female’s egg cell the result is a single-celled zygote. 7) Technically, the eighth week following conception marks the beginning of which stage? A) prenatal. B) embryonic. C) fetal. D) neonatal. Answer: C Rationale: The fetal stage begins at the eighth week following conception. 8) In pregnant women, cocaine restricts placental blood flow and oxygen supply to the fetus. Which fetal brain function is most damaged by cocaine? A) motor movement. B) speech. C) attention. D) vision. Answer: C Rationale: Cocaine travels through the placenta and can directly affect fetal development. If the oxygen deprivation to the fetus is severe, blood vessels in the brain may burst. Such prenatal strokes can lead to lifelong mental handicaps. Children exposed to cocaine in the womb may have lifelong difficulties with attention as a result of brain systems damaged by cocaine. 9) Priscilla is pregnant for the first time and is visiting her doctor. The doctor reports that the heartbeat is now detectable, and that her baby is a few centimetres in length. Which stage of development is being described? A) fetal B) embryonic C) zygote D) germinal Answer: B Rationale: In the embryonic stage, which lasts from week 2 to 8 after conception, the heart starts beating and the embryo is only a few centimetres in length. 10) Which statement about the capacity of newborns is accurate? A) They are helpless and confused. B) They are capable of making a few simple responses. C) They have heightened visual and auditory acuity. D) They are able to respond to and influence the environment. Answer: D Rationale: Infants are prewired for survival. They are well-suited to respond to adult caregivers and to influence their own environments. 11) What have researchers investigating the auditory abilities of the fetus discovered? A) 4-month-old infants show preference for listening to their fathers' voices over other voices. B) the presence of in utero auditory ability is controversial. C) infants demonstrate a consistent preference for hearing novel voices. D) infants prefer to listen to their mothers' voices over other voices. Answer: D Rationale: Recent research suggests that children recognize their mothers’ voices even before they are born. 12) Baby Timmy has just developed the ability to combine information from each eye to perceive depth. Most likely, what age is Baby Timmy? A) 2 months B) 4 months C) 6 months D) a newborn Answer: B Rationale: At approximately 4 months of age, infants are able to combine information from their two eyes to perceive depth. 13) Robert Fantz and others have observed babies as young as 4 months old to determine if they prefer plain objects or objects with contours, complex or simple objects, viewing whole faces or those in disarray, and human faces or other similar visual stimuli. What did these studies conclude about infant preferences? A) They prefer objects with contours, simple objects, whole faces, and non-human visual stimuli. B) They prefer objects with contours, complex objects, whole faces, and human faces. C) They prefer plain objects, simple objects, faces in disarray, and non-human visual stimuli. D) They prefer plain objects, simple objects, whole faces, and human faces. Answer: B Rationale: Franz and others found babies as young as four months of age prefer looking at objects with complex features over those that were more plain and human faces. 14) Studies of the perceptual capabilities of infants have been done using the visual cliff. What have these studies illustrated? A) Infants are reluctant to crawl across either the shallow or deep ends of the apparatus. B) Infants are equally likely to crawl across the shallow and deep ends of the apparatus. C) Infants will only venture out on the deep end if they can crawl. D) Infants will avoid the deep end if they have experienced crawling. Answer: D Rationale: Their same-age peers who do not crawl do not avoid the "cliff." 15) What is the first body part to reach adult size? A) the brain B) the body C) the eye D) the hand Answer: A Rationale: Neural growth reaches adult size first by 12 years of age, the body and genitals reach adult size at approximately 19 years of age. The hands reach adult size before the body. 16) A baby is carried around by his mother in a tightly bound back cradle, common in his Native American culture. What effect will this experience likely have on the baby? A) It will change the sequence of locomotion that the baby goes through. B) It will delay walking, but not the sequence of locomotion that the baby goes through. C) It will delay walking and change the sequence of locomotion that the baby goes through. D) It will have no impact on walking, but will affect the baby’s emotional response to exploring his environment. Answer: B Rationale: Unimpaired children all possess the same potential for physical maturation; the baby who is in a back cradle much of the time will likely learn to walk by going through the same fixed, time-order sequence of physical behaviours including walking. 17) A youngster can't wait to be a "grown-up." What is the first concrete indicator that this youngster’s childhood is ending? A) the pubescent growth spurt. B) the onset of puberty. C) menarche. D) a concern with body image. Answer: A Rationale: The adolescent may grow three to six inches each year, and gain weight rapidly. All body parts do not grow to adult proportions all at once, so that the adolescent's shape changes several times over the teenage years. 18) Which area of the brain undergoes the greatest change from puberty into young adulthood? A) the frontal lobes B) the hippocampus C) the left hemisphere D) the cerebellum Answer: A Rationale: The frontal lobes undergo the greatest change from puberty into young adulthood. 19) As a man ages, what is most likely to happen to his ability to hear? A) High-frequency sounds will be the most difficult to hear. B) Low-frequency sounds will be the most difficult to hear. C) Hearing will deteriorate more rapidly than for a female of the same age. D) Hearing will deteriorate less rapidly than for a female of the same age. Answer: A Rationale: With age, , older adults have most difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds. 20) At approximately age 50, most women can expect the diminishing or cessation of menstruation and ovulation. Which term best characterizes this phenomenon? A) infertility. B) midlife crisis. C) menarche. D) menopause. Answer: D Rationale: Menopause marks the diminishing and cessation of reproductive capacity for women. 21) Steve is role-playing the part of French philosopher Jean-Jacques Rousseau in a debate with a classmate who is playing the role of British philosopher John Locke. Which view of development should Steve promote? A) environmental B) empirical C) tabula rasa D) nativist Answer: D Rationale: Empiricists believe that the stimulation people receive as they are nurtured directs human development, while nativists believe that nature shapes development. 22) A baby is learning about his world. He already knows about the value of sucking and grasping in helping him to adapt to his world and he is now working on understanding pushing and pulling. Which Piagetian term best characterizes these mental structures? A) schemes. B) assimilations. C) competencies. D) utterances. Answer: A Rationale: Schemes are the building blocks of developmental change; they enable individuals to interpret the world. 23) According to Piaget, which process restructures existing schemes so that new information is accounted for more completely? A) accommodation B) assimilation C) centration D) egocentrism Answer: A Rationale: These two basic processes work together to achieve cognitive growth, accommodation modifying existing schemes to allow for new information, and assimilation modifying new information to fit existing schemes. 24) A 3-year-old loves sports. Her mom recently taught her how to catch a big beach ball and her dad is now teaching her how to catch a small tennis ball. At first, she tries to "surround" the tennis ball with her arms, the way she did the beach ball. Slowly, she learns to use just her hands. Which Piagetian concept best captures the girl's attempt to restructure her scheme? A) egocentrism. B) centration. C) assimilation. D) accommodation. Answer: D Rationale: This allows the child's existing schemes to be restructured so that new information is accounted for and can be used to achieve new behaviour patterns. 25) A child is in the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development. If Piaget's model is correct, which stage will the child experience next? A) preadolescent B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational Answer: B Rationale: The preoperational stage, from ages 2-7 years, follows the sensorimotor stage, from 0-2 years. 26) Much of a child's behaviour is based on inborn schemes, but, as her parents can attest, she is learning that her actions have an effect on external events. According to Piaget's theory, which stage of cognitive development is being described? A) sensorimotor B) formal operational C) concrete operational D) preoperational Answer: A Rationale: Much of the infant's behaviour is based on inborn schemes like sucking and grasping. The inborn schemes are combined, coordinated and integrated, becoming more varied as infants discover that their actions affect the world around them. 27) Which scenario is likely the result of egocentrism? A) A child tells her grandmother that her teddy bear likes to take a bath. B) A child believes that rain comes from holes in the clouds. C) A child does not understand why his father is too tired to play tag. D) A child realizes that everyone has different dreams. Answer: C Rationale: Children at this stage are unable to take the perspective of another person. 28) A child is 4 years old. According to Piaget, what should the child be capable of doing? A) take the perspective of another person. B) distinguish the mental world from the physical world. C) ignore perceptually striking features of objects. D) mentally represent objects that are not physically present. Answer: D Rationale: The child begins to have mental representations of objects with which the child is not in direct sensorimotor contact (things that are not physically present.) 29) Preoperational children tend to be captivated by the more perceptually striking features of objects. Which Piagetian concept is being described? A) centration. B) assimilation. C) accommodation. D) object permanence. Answer: A Rationale: Children at this stage tend to focus their attention on one aspect of a situation and disregard other relevant aspects of it. 30) A child has two favourite glasses: a tall, skinny one with a picture of a giraffe on it and a short, fat one with a picture of a hippopotamus on it. When her mother pours her some milk using the "hippo" glass, the girls asks that the milk be moved into the "giraffe" glass because she is really thirsty. If the girl believes that simply transferring the milk into the taller glass increases the amount, what can be concluded about her cognitive development? A) She is in the stage of formal operations. B) She has not yet reached the concrete operational stage. C) She is incapable of accommodation. D) She is capable of mental operations. Answer: B Rationale: She only understands that one glass is taller; she does not understand that the amount of milk is the same no matter what the shape of the container is. 31) Piaget suggested that the most important cognitive acquisition of the infancy period of cognitive development is the ability to form mental representations of absent objects—those objects with which the infant is not in direct sensorimotor contact. Which term refers to this ability? A) centration. B) object permanence. C) assimilation. D) accommodation. Answer: B Rationale: Object permanence refers to children’s understanding that objects exist and behave independently of the child’s actions or awareness. Piaget believed that the process of fully understanding object permanence was completed by the age of two. Contemporary research techniques suggest that infants as young as three months of age have already developed aspects of this concept. 32) A boy can provide directions from home to the neighbourhood store and, if asked, he can also state how to return home. Which Piagetian term best captures this ability? A) conservation. B) egocentrism. C) reversibility. D) centration. Answer: C Rationale: This is the child's understanding that both mental operations and physical actions can be reversed. 33) James loves to read science fiction. He particularly likes works in which alternative worlds are described and he has begun writing his own story set in a world where good triumphs over evil, and cunning wins out over treachery. What stage of cognitive development is being described? A) formal operational B) concrete operational C) sensorimotor D) preoperational Answer: A Rationale: According to Piaget, in this final stage of cognitive growth, thinking becomes abstract. 34) In a study that is described in the textbook, researcher Renée Baillargeon showed 3month-old infants a possible physical event and an impossible physical event. How did the infants respond? A) They showed surprise when witnessing both types of events. B) They showed more surprise when witnessing the impossible event. C) They showed more surprise when witnessing the possible event. D) They could not understand the difference between a possible and an impossible event. Answer: B Rationale: The work of Baillargeon showed that 3-month old infants showed more surprise when witnessing an impossible physical event than a possible event. 35) With respect to theories of mind, which statement most directly captures the viewpoint of contemporary researchers who suggest that children develop foundational theories to explain their experiences of the world? A) Children begin to develop a general theory with respect to some aspect of the world, then use new experiences to refine their theory. B) The dynamic interplay of assimilation and accommodation results in the movement of children through successive stages of cognitive functioning. C) Older children are fundamentally different from younger children with respect to their cognitive abilities. D) Children can differentiate mental and physical worlds if the proper foundation for drawing such distinctions is established. Answer: A Rationale: Children develop foundational theories in each of several domains. One of them is theory of mind in which they develop a general ability to understand their own thought processes and those of others, and gradually use new experiences to refine their theories. 36) What would one expect a 3- or 4-year-old to say if asked the question,"What will happen if you removed everything that is inside a cat?" A) "The cat is still a cat." B) "Cats don't have insides." C) "It won't be a cat anymore." D) "Like its heart and stomach?" Answer: C Rationale: Three and four year olds understand that what is inside objects affects their function, even though they may have no idea what those insides are. 37) According to the view of Russian psychologist Lev Vygotsky, children absorb knowledge from their social context. Which term refers to this process? A) assimilation. B) internalization. C) accommodation. D) socialization. Answer: B Rationale: Internalization has a major impact on how cognition develops over time; children's cognition develops to perform culturally valued functions. 38) A group of adults is asked to learn a new set of postal codes for different areas of the country within a limited period of time. What type of intelligence does this type of learning require? A) logical-mathematical B) crystallized C) fluid D) spatial Answer: C Rationale: Fluid intelligence refers to your ability to learn quickly and thoroughly and, perhaps because of processing speed, declines more with age than does crystallized intelligence, those mental components that make up your verbal abilities. 39) On which of the following types of memory tests would elderly individuals be most likely to show the greatest performance deficits? A) accessing the storage of general knowledge B) acquiring new information C) remembering personal information about events that occurred long ago D) recognizing faces of previous friends Answer: B Rationale: Aging affects the processes that allow new information to be effectively organized, stored and retrieved. 40) A great deal of research supports the conclusion that the brain works differently as one ages. What do the changes in function reflect with respect to day-to-day cognitive activities? A) compensation B) substitution C) accommodation D) sublimation Answer: A Rationale: Researchers have argued that when older brains use different areas from those used by younger brains, the change in activity of the brain represents compensations for age-related changes in the brain. Other researchers argue that brain activation unique to older adults reflects distraction, the inability to inhibit unnecessary brain activity. 41) In a study of speech perception described in the textbook, Janet Werker showed that infants under 8 months of age performed better than English-speaking adults on a task. What did this task involve? A) distinguishing between Hindi phonemes. B) localizing the source of a sound. C) associating speakers with samples of speech. D) producing phonemes that occur in Japanese but not in English. Answer: A Rationale: Werker found that 8-month old infants, regardless of which language they were learning, could hear the differences in Hindi sounds. Infants older than 8 months of age and adults could only hear the Hindi contrasts if they themselves were Hindi speakers. 42) What did research findings on the early perception of language-relevant speech sounds indicate? A) adults have sensitivities to sounds that infants do not have. B) adults lose their sensitivities to language-relevant speech sounds as part of the natural aging process. C) there are no differences between infants and adults with respect to their sensitivities to language-relevant speech sounds. D) infants start out with sensitivities to sounds that they lose if these contrasts are not used in their language. Answer: D Rationale: Infants can hear contrasts in the phonemes of languages regardless of what language they are learning as their own until about 8 months of age, but after that only the contrasts of the infants’ own language are discerned. 43) Research has shown that infants are likely to pay attention when adults use exaggerated and high-pitched intonation. Which term best characterizes this type of vocalization? A) telegraphic language. B) child-directed speech. C) infantile dialect. D) holophrastic phrases. Answer: B Rationale: Also known as motherese or parentese, child-directed speech is exaggerated and highpitched, and serves to keep the infant interested and attentive to things that their parents say to them. 44) Kyle is in the "naming explosion" phase of language acquisition. On average, how many words is he most likely to learn in a day? A) three B) six C) nine D) twelve Answer: C Rationale: The naming explosion occurs between 18 months and 6 years of age. It is a period of rapid language acquisition when children learn on average nine words per day. 45) According to the textbook, how do children learn word meanings? A) The way in which children acquire word meanings is a topic of current debate. B) The absence of errors in children's language usage facilitates the acquisition of word meanings. C) Children develop hypotheses about what each new word might mean. D) The ability to acquire word meanings is genetically predetermined. Answer: C Rationale: Children must decide to which piece of the world a new word applies. For instance, if the word is “dog” there will be a large set of possible meanings each time someone uses the word (for example, the whole dog vs. its nose or fur). Researchers suggest that children develop hypotheses about what each new word might mean. Particular meanings are assigned to new words through expectations such as the principle of contrasts which suggests that differences in form signal differences in meaning. When children hear new words, they look for meanings that contrast with meanings of words they already know. 46) In the context of a child's acquisition of particular meanings for words, which scenario exemplifies the principle of contrast? A) A child says "white" when a parent says "black." B) A child gets confused when his mother calls his teddy bear "Theodore" instead of “Teddy.” C) When a child says that he "runned home," a parent says "you ran home." D) One child has no difficulty learning word meanings while a child just one year younger struggles. Answer: B Rationale: Differences in forms should signal differences in meaning. These forms do not do so. Eventually the child will learn when different forms signal contrast in meaning and when they do not. 47) Accordiing to Noam Chomsky, how is grammar acquired? A) children are born with mental structures that facilitate language acquisition. B) the role of parents in the explicit instruction of grammatical rules has been underestimated. C) motherese is an essential ingredient in the acquisition of grammar. D) children acquire complete grammatical structure due to well-formed input. Answer: A Rationale: With or without an established language as a guide, children acquire complete grammatical structure at least at the word and sentence levels. Children who cannot hear and have not been taught to sign will eventually invent language signs of their own that come to have regular grammatical structure. 48) Many theorists believe that important aspects of the acquisition of grammar are biologically predetermined. To determine what knowledge is innate, what type of crosslinguistic studies have been done? A) Those that assess how quickly children enter the naming explosion phase. B) Those that assess if children are referential or expressive in their language usage. C) Those that assess what is hard and what is easy for children to acquire. D) Those that assess the match between adults' and children's styles across many languages. Answer: C Rationale: These studies are done across the world's many cultures. Those parts of language that are most easily acquired across cultures are the most likely to have innate predispositions. 49) Dan Slobin has defined a set of operating principles that together constitute children's language-making capacity. Which statement about these principles is accurate? A) They are more difficult for adults to acquire than they are for children to acquire. B) They are more difficult for children to acquire than they are for adults to acquire. C) They are written in simplified form, so that children can easily understand them. D) They are in the form of directives to the child. Answer: D Rationale: Children bring innate constraints to the task of learning language. According to Slobin, operating principles are the guidelines that define the child’s language-making capacity and take the form of directives to the child. For example, the operating principle “store together ordered sequences of word classes and functor classes that co-occur in the expression of a particular proposition type, along with a designation of the proposition type” directs children to process language input in a way that will help them to acquire grammar. 50) A little girl says, "Daddy door." To understand the meaning of this two-word utterance, what must the listener possess? A) knowledge of the little girl herself. B) knowledge of the context in which the words were spoken. C) knowledge of Slobin's theory of language-making capacity. D) knowledge of the little girl's immediate family. Answer: B Rationale: At this stage, children already have discovered that word order is important, but their speech lacks function words and consists mostly of nouns and verbs. 51) Which of the following illustrates an error of over-regularization? A) Allgone milk. B) Ba-ba-ba-ba-ba. C) I eated my breakfast. D) Nice kitty (pointing to skunk). Answer: C Rationale: Once children learn the past tense rule, as an example, they will often add "ed" to all verbs, overextending the rule. 52) What makes over-regularization an interesting error? A) adults make comparable errors when they are excited or in a hurry. B) it suggests that language does not have a consistent structure or grammar. C) it suggests that children have neglected to internalize the extension operating principle. D) it often appears after children have learned the correct forms of verbs and nouns. Answer: D Rationale: Children learn the correct forms as separate vocabulary items, then learn a new rule (e.g., past tense) and extend it, whether or not it applies. 53) An infant lives in an orphanage where he receives little attention when he is hungry and thirsty, is rarely picked up and cuddled, and has no particular adult who is in charge of meeting his needs. According to Erik Erikson, what would this infant develop? A) self-doubt. B) isolation. C) mistrust. D) role confusion. Answer: C Rationale: Mistrust, insecurity, and anxiety may develop when a strong attachment with a parent or caregiver who provides food and warmth, and the comfort of physical closeness is not available. 54) A babysitter works for a couple who have a 2-year-old boy. Whenever she arrives for work, she notices that the parents and child always seem to be involved in a confrontation, with the child demanding to do something and the parents typically restrictive or critical of the child's efforts. Based on Erikson's theory, what may the child be developing? A) mistrust. B) inferiority. C) feelings of despair. D) self-doubt. Answer: D Rationale: At this stage of development, excessive restriction or criticism leads to self-doubt rather than autonomy. Feelings of being a capable and worthy person will start to develop if the child is allowed to explore and manipulate objects, and sometimes people, in his environment. Expecting too much or allowing too little exploration can restrict the development of autonomy. 55) According to Erikson's theory of life span development, which crisis would a 14-year-old girl most likely face? A) competence vs. inferiority. B) intimacy vs. isolation. C) identity vs. role confusion. D) autonomy vs. self-doubt. Answer: C Rationale: Identity is discovered amid the confusion of the many different roles that children at this age play. When this crisis is resolved, the teenager begins to develop a coherent sense of self. 56) An acquaintance does not seem to have the capacity to make commitments to others. He never compromises, has no sense of responsibility, and seems to have few close friends. According to Erikson's lifespan theory, which crisis has not been adequately resolved? A) intimacy vs. isolation. B) generativity vs. stagnation. C) ego-integrity vs. despair. D) initiative vs. guilt. Answer: A Rationale: Intimacy is the capacity to make full emotional, moral, and sexual commitments to other people. Failure to resolve the crisis leads to inability to connect with others meaningfully and to psychological isolation. 57) Maggie and Mark’s new baby boy is very bold and uninhibited. He is rarely fearful of new situations and people, and he is very sociable with everyone. How will this child most likely behave as an adult? A) bold and uninhibited. B) as sociable as the average person. C) more shy than bold. D) unpredictably. Answer: A Rationale: Longitudinal studies on temperament have shown that some children at the extreme ends of the dimensions of inhibited versus uninhibited remain at those extremes. Others become less extreme over time, but very rarely do they shift categories, for example, starting out uninhibited and as an adult they’re inhibited. 58) Developmental psychologists use the term "attachment". To what does this term refer? A) the child's need for a favourite toy or object, usually a stuffed animal or blanket. B) the reflexive grasping an infant exhibits when an object, such as a finger, is put in the infant's hand. C) the enduring emotional relationship that develops between child and caregiver. D) the tendency of all living creatures to follow the first moving object that is seen or heard. Answer: C Rationale: Social development starts with attachment, and the earliest function of attachment is to ensure survival because children cannot feed or protect themselves. 59) While riding through the countryside one day, Ian happens to come upon a curious sight, a chick following a group of ducklings and a mother duck. What likely happened to produce this strange sight? A) The mother hen was unable to provide for her chick. B) The mother duck was the first moving object the chick saw after being hatched. C) Instinctive drift. D) The mother hen rejected her chick. Answer: B Rationale: Imprinting occurs rapidly on the first moving object seen by the infants of some species. This can be problematic if the first moving object is a member of another species. 60) According to John Bowlby, which statement about attachment in infants and adults is true? A) They will form attachments of some kind to everyone in their social environment. B) Attachments are due to biological predispositions. C) Attachment occurs despite biological predispositions to remain independent. D) Attachment is based on a one-directional process of conveying emotion from infant to caregiver. Answer: B Rationale: Bowlby believes that infants and adults are biologically predisposed to form attachments. 61) What is one of the most widely-used research procedures for assessing infant attachment? A) Attachment Inventory. B) "Ties that Bind" technique. C) Mother-Infant Union Form. D) Strange Situation Test. Answer: D Rationale: The Strange Situation Test, developed by Ainsworth, is a laboratory test consisting of eight episodes that is used to assess infant attachment. 62) The teacher of Jake’s developmental psychology class has decided to show the class the procedure developed by Mary Ainsworth to study the attachment of infants. Due to the fact that no infants are available, Jake has been asked to play the part of a child and his friend will be the "mother." Jake is led into a room filled with toys. After Jake begins playing with the toys, what will happen next? A) A stranger will tell Jake to leave the room, so that she can talk to his mother. B) Jake’s mother will go off with a stranger, leaving him alone in the room. C) A stranger will enter and Jake’s mother will temporarily leave the room. D) The toys will break and Jake’s reaction will be judged. Answer: C Rationale: This is called the Strange Situation Test. It measures the child's responses at separation and reunion, assessing categories of attachment. 63) In the Strange Situation Test, how will a securely attached child typically appear when the parent leaves the room? A) somewhat unconcerned B) somewhat distressed C) considerably anxious D) considerably pleased Answer: B Rationale: The child will typically seek some proximity, comfort, and contact, and then return to play. 64) In the Strange Situation Test, a 15-month-old child is upset and anxious when her mother leaves the room. When her mother returns, she cannot be comforted and shows anger, but also a desire for contact with her mother. How would this child most likely be categorized? A) insecurely attached-avoidant. B) insecurely attached-ambivalent/resistant. C) insecurely attached-disorganized. D) securely attached. Answer: B Rationale: This is one of the three categories of attachment recorded as a result of children's responses to the Strange Situation Test. Insecurely attached-ambivalent/resistant children become quite upset and anxious when the parent leaves the room. When they are reunited with the parent, they show anger and resistance to the parent but at the same time express a need for contact. 65) A child has parents who require him to conform to appropriate rules of behaviour that they have established, but they are also willing to talk with him about his concerns. What type of parenting is being characterized? A) demanding. B) authoritative. C) authoritarian. D) indulgent. Answer: B Rationale: Authoritative parents keep the lines of communication open, fostering the child's ability to self-regulate. This style of parenting is likely to produce an effective parent-child bond. 66) What type of parenting style is most likely to produce an effective parent-child bond? A) One that places primary emphasis on the importance of discipline and the setting of limits. B) One that makes demands on a child, but also keeps channels of communication open. C) One that encourages a child to control and modify his or her own behaviour, with little parental intervention. D) One that encourages a child to view parental interactions as a model for future behaviour. Answer: B Rationale: This style is most likely a balance of demanding appropriate behaviour and responsiveness to the child’s individuality. It is called an authoritative style. 67) Which parenting style is characterized by parents who apply discipline with little concern for their child's autonomy? A) authoritarian B) abusive C) authoritative D) rigid Answer: A Rationale: There is lack of balance between demanding age-appropriate behaviour and responsiveness to the individuality of the child. 68) Studies have been done to compare the intellectual and social development of children who stay at home versus those who attend day care. What did the results indicate about children in day care? A) They form more secure attachments than children who do not attend day care. B) There is an advantage socially but not intellectually. C) There is an advantage both socially and intellectually. D) There is an intellectual advantage, but they may have social problems. Answer: D Rationale: Research has confirmed that there are both positive and negative consequences of time spent in day care. Children in day care often performed better on standardized tests of memory and vocabulary, for example. However, children in daycare have also often experienced more social and behavioural problems in the classroom. The likelihood of social problems depends on the exact type of daycare, however. 69) Alison Clarke-Stewart, an expert on daycare, has summarized the literature to provide a series of guidelines for quality day care. Which of the following is among her recommendations? A) There should be at least one caregiver for every three children. B) There should be at least one caregiver for every ten children. C) Caregivers should be actively involved in the children’s activities. D) Children should have free choice of activities with limited structured lessons. Answer: C Rationale: Some of Clarke-Stewart’s recommendation relate to the physical comfort of the children, including a physically safe and comfortable environment with one caregiver for every six or seven children. Other recommendations cover educational and psychological aspects of the day care curriculum. For instance, she suggests that children should have a free choice of activities intermixed with explicit lessons. She also suggests that day care providers should share the qualities of good parents, including being responsive to individual children’s needs and actively involved in the children’s activities. 70) According to Harry Harlow, what is the basis for the attachment of infants to their mothers? A) eye contact B) proximity C) oral stimulation D) contact comfort Answer: D Rationale: Harlow found that baby monkeys nestled close to terry cloth "mothers" and spent little time with the wire "mothers." They used the cloth mother as a source of comfort and protection. However, it was later found that lack of responsiveness of the cloth mothers negatively affected the social development of the babies. 71) Harry Harlow used artificial "mothers" in his studies of the attachment behaviour of monkeys. Which group best characterizes the artificial mothers? A) adult female monkeys who were not related to the infants. B) wire and cloth constructions that were placed in the monkey cages. C) human adults who acted as mothers. D) older siblings of the experimental participants. Answer: B Rationale: Harlow used artificial mothers made of wire and cloth constructions. The cloth constructions were preferred, even if the wire mother had milk. 72) In Harry Harlow's research, how did the monkeys respond when scared by toys that made loud noises? A) They ran to the wire mother for protection. B) They ventured out to explore the fear stimulus and then returned to the terry cloth mother before exploring further. C) They were just as likely to run to a cloth mother as a wire mother. D) They ran to the cloth mother. Answer: D Rationale: The cloth mother was used for comfort, protection from feared objects, and as a base of operations when the babies were exploring the world around them. 73) In Harlow's research, the monkeys became attached to a "cloth mother”. What deficits did these monkeys display in adulthood? A) an inability to perform simple tasks. B) an inability to defend themselves. C) an inability to form normal sexual relationships. D) an inability to retain information about the environment. Answer: C Rationale: Strong attachment to the substitute "mother" was not enough; they needed interaction with responsive monkeys in their early lives to learn how to be able to form normal social and sexual relationships. 74) According to a recent study, how did children who spent their earliest days in orphanages differ from those who had been raised by their biological parents? A) They failed to show a normal pattern of brain response. B) They failed to show any enthusiasm. C) They failed to recognize their caregivers. D) They became easily attached to strangers. Answer: A Rationale: Children who spent their earliest days in orphanages were found to show an abnormal pattern of brain response when interacting with a stranger compared to children who were raised by their biological parents. 75) What does recent research on adolescence in Western society indicate? A) feelings of a lack of control are nearly universal among adolescents. B) few adolescents report enjoying life or feeling happy most of the time. C) adolescence is a time of elevated stress for most young people. D) few adolescents experience inner turmoil, although they experience more extreme emotions. Answer: D Rationale: Brain maturation may explain why adolescents experience both extreme negative and extreme positive emotions. However, research has confirmed that the experience of adolescents differs across cultures. 76) What did the research by Smetana and colleagues (2006) indicate about most adolescents? A) They are able to use their parents as ready sources of practical and emotional support. B) They are reluctant to use their parents as sources of practical and emotional support. C) They feel that their parents are indifferent to them. D) They feel that their parents do not understand them. Answer: A Rationale: Conflicts may occur in otherwise positive parent-adolescent relationships with few negative costs. Because adolescents are often able to use their parents as sources of support, conflicts may occur with their parents that leave the basic relationship unharmed. However, in the context of negative parent-adolescent relationships, social withdrawal and delinquency may occur. 77) Tasha’s parents notice that she is very susceptible to her close friends’ influence. These friends enjoy drinking beer and smoking marijuanA) According to the findings of a longitudinal study, how will Tasha most likely behave in one year’s time? A) She will have problems with drugs and alcohol. B) She will be well adjusted. C) She will be more dependent. D) She will be more independent. Answer: A Rationale: The study demonstrated that teens who were more susceptible to peer influence regarding drugs and alcohol at the outset of the study were more likely to have problems with drugs and alcohol one year later. Some adolescents seem to be more susceptible to peer influence than others and that susceptibility has consequences. 78) A happily-married modern couple expects to be parents soon. According to recent research, what should this couple consider about the impact of parenthood on their relationship? A) It is likely to make their marriage even happier. B) It may be a threat to the overall happiness of a marriage. C) It should minimize the number of conflicts that their marriage will face. D) It is likely to move them in the direction of less traditional sex roles. Answer: B Rationale: Couples are usually focused on equality between the man and the woman, but with the birth of a child husbands and wives may be pushed in the direction of more traditional gender roles. The wife may feel too much of the burden of child care; the husband may feel too much pressure to support the family. The net effect may be that the marriage changes in ways that both spouses find to be negative. 79) Tammy has finished her first year of college and is thinking about moving out of the family home. As the youngest child, however, she is concerned about how her parents are likely to react. What should Tammy expect? A) her parents will be reluctant to allow her to move out. B) her parents will not view her departure as a traumatic experience. C) her mother will react positively, but her father will react negatively. D) her father will react positively, but her mother will react negatively. Answer: B Rationale: Many parents look forward to the time when their youngest child leaves home and leaves them with an "empty nest." If there have been conflicts, parents may enjoy their children more when they are not under the same roof. 80) What did a longitudinal study conclude about couples who divorce? A) only high-distress relationships ended. B) couples who were married in their early twenties were the most likely to separate or divorce. C) couples with high levels of negative affect stayed married for a longer time prior to divorcing than those who showed low levels of positive affect. D) couples in both high-distress and low-distress relationships were represented in the group who separated or divorced. Answer: D Rationale: The study suggests that we cannot always predict which marriage will end on the basis of surface aspects of the relationship such as open conflict. Couples in the high-distress relationships reported low quality relationships, which they brought to an end. On the other hand, couples who reported low-distress relationships and average marriage quality also ended marriages in some cases. The individuals in these marriages may have low barriers to ending the relationship and attractive alternatives beyond it. When people have other alternatives, they may end a relationship in which they are at least moderately happy. 81) A man has developed a sense of personal identity, has been successful in establishing a career, and has been happily married for eight years. If he is like most other men, what question is he likely to ask himself at this stage in his life? A) "Can I trust others in this world?" B) "Who am I?" C) "In what ways can I contribute to others?" D) "Has my life been truly satisfying?" Answer: C Rationale: This is generativity, a commitment beyond oneself to family, work, society, or future generations. 82) George Vaillant conducted a longitudinal study of the personality development of highly intelligent men. Who were the men with the best physical and social outcomes by mid-life? A) those who had the most influential parents. B) those who were the most immature at the beginning of the study. C) those who concentrated their efforts on personal interests. D) those who contributed to the world in some way. Answer: D Rationale: Vaillant discovered that men with the best outcomes by midlife were those who were contributing to the world in some way. 83) A woman is celebrating her 77th birthday. If she is like most people nearing the end of her life, what perspective will she take? A) She will look back at her life with satisfaction. B) She will look back over her life with despair. C) She will maintain the same priorities that she had as a young adult. D) She will spend less time considering the future. Answer: A Rationale: Few older adults view their lives with despair. Most look to the future with a sense of wholeness and satisfaction. 84) What do MRI scans reveal about the regions of the frontal lobe that play an important role in regulating social behaviour and emotional functioning? A) They are smaller in women than in men. B) They are bigger in women than in men. C) They are bigger in children than in adults. D) They are equal in size in both men and women. Answer: B Rationale: studies confirm that sex differences appear in the brain in response to ordinary biological development. 85) What did fMRI scans reveal when subjects were exposed to emotionally charged pictures? A) Greater activity in the left amygdala preceded recognition success for women; greater activity in the right amygdala preceded success for men. B) Greater activity in the right amygdala preceded recognition success for women; greater activity in the left amygdala preceded success for men. C) Greater activity in the left amygdala preceded recognition success for both men and women. D) Greater activity in the right amygdala preceded recognition success for both men and women. Answer: A Rationale: fMRI scans reveal greater activity in the left amygdala for women and greater activity in the right amygdala for men. 86) Joey knows that he is a boy and thinks that it is better to be a boy than to be a girl. Which term best chharacterizes this phenomenon? A) sex role. B) sexual identity. C) gender role. D) gender identity. Answer: D Rationale: Gender is a psychological phenomenon that refers to learned sex-related behaviours of males and females. Gender identity is an individual's sense of maleness or femaleness that usually includes awareness and acceptance of one’s biological sex. Biological differences shape males’ and females’ behaviours. Cultural expectations have an important impact as well. In their earliest years, children begin to understand that they are either girls or boys—they settle into their gender identity. 87) How are play styles and toy preferences typically shaped? A) by one’s culture. B) by one’s parental preferences. C) by one’s heredity. D) by one’s physical strength. Answer: A Rationale: Children consolidate their knowledge of cultural expectations of men and women into gender stereotypes. 88) James is 7 years old and appears much more attuned to the "scripts" for genderappropriate behaviour than his older siblings. Why would this likely be the case? A) James is in the early phase of the preoperational stage of development. B) James is establishing his own likes and dislikes. C) James is establishing his own gender identity. D) James is experiencing identity versus role confusion. Answer: C Rationale: Older children are more likely to be flexible and indicate to researchers that both males and females engage in a variety of behaviours. By about age 8, children seem to recognize that there are not only differences, but also similarities between boys and girls. Between ages 5 and 7, gender stereotypes seem to be consolidations of knowledge about cultural expectations related to gender roles. 89) A father has just entered the room where he finds his son playing with his little sister's dolls. If this father is like most fathers, how will he respond? A) not pay much attention to his son's toy choices. B) encourage his son to engage in flexible gender behaviour by approving of his toy choices. C) give his son fewer positive reactions because of his choice of toys. D) purposely ignore the behaviour.. Answer: C Rationale: In general, children receive encouragement from their parents to engage in activities the parents think are gender-appropriate. 90) According to research, what do six-year-old boys prefer more so than six-year-old girls? A) group interactions B) one-on-one interactions C) outdoor activities D) indoor activities Answer: A Rationale: By the age of 6 years, boys prefer to interact in groups while girls prefer one-on-one interactions. 91) According to Piaget, the moral judgments of children progress from an emphasis on consequences to an emphasis on what other area? A) self-interest B) principles C) intentions D) social standards Answer: C Rationale: In Piaget's view, as a child progresses through the stages of cognitive development, moral development occurs in terms of the relative weights the child assigns to the consequences of an act and to his own intentions. As the child gets older, the relative weight of intention increases in moral judgments. 92) According to Piaget, what is a preoperational child most likely to believe? A) a boy who breaks ten cups accidentally is naughtier than someone who breaks one cup intentionally. B) a boy who breaks three cups intentionally is naughtier than someone who breaks ten cups intentionally. C) the number of cups someone breaks is as equally important as their motives for breaking them. D) it is important to take into consideration the actor's intentions when determining guilt. Answer: A Rationale: Younger children focus on consequences. As the child gets older, he will assign more importance to intention. 93) In a study described in the textbook, 3- to 5-year-old children made moral judgments about the behaviour of a person in which actions, outcomes, and intentions were varied. What did the researchers discover? A) the younger children based their acceptability ratings almost entirely on the outcome. B) only the 5-year-olds took outcome into account. C) younger children did not take intention into account when asked if the person should be punished. D) only the older children were able to make judgments regarding moral behaviour. Answer: A Rationale: Only the 5-year-olds took intention into account when judging acceptability. Younger children took intention into account when asked whether the actor should be punished. 94) Tracey is a young adult. How would Tracey’s stage of moral development be determined if she were participating in one of Kohlberg’s studies? A) by her ability to explain right and wrong in terms of consequences rather than intentions. B) by her answers to such questions as "Do you think it is morally acceptable to cheat on a test?" C) by her ability to refute philosophical moral arguments. D) by her answers to hypothetical moral dilemmas. Answer: D Rationale: Scoring is based on the reasons people give for their decisions, not the decision itself. 95) According to Carol Gilligan, upon which standard is women's moral development based? A) emotion B) caring for others C) intelligence D) submission Answer: B Rationale: She argued that Kohlberg overlooked potential gender differences, but later research does not confirm that this difference exists. While concerns about caring and justice are relevant to moral reasoning, it has not been confirmed that these concerns are found differently in men’s and women’s moral reasoning. 96) Cross-cultural research has expanded researchers’ understanding about the range of concerns that contribute to moral reasoning. Which three types of concerns were identified? A) autonomy, community, and divinity. B) justice, personal responsibility, and community. C) justice, personal responsibility, and interpersonal responsibility. D) morality, justice, and law and order. Answer: A Rationale: The moral goal of autonomy is to recognize peoples’ right to fulfillment of “rights, desires, and preferences.” The moral goal of community is “fulfillment of role-based duties to others, and the protection and positive functioning of social groups”. The moral goal of divinity “is for the self to become increasingly connected to the pure or divine.” The importance of each may vary cross-culturally, depending on the culture’s emphasis on independence and personal choice or interdependence and mutual assistance. 97) According to life span developmental theorists, a 30-year-old woman would likely be classified as being in the stage of late adulthood. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Late adulthood typically refers to the stage of life beginning around age 65, not 30 years old. At 30, a woman would likely be classified as being in early adulthood or possibly middle adulthood, depending on the specific criteria used by developmental theorists. 98) A disadvantage of longitudinal research is that some types of generalizations can be made only to cohorts of the research participants. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Longitudinal research involves studying the same group of individuals over an extended period. While this allows for observing changes over time, generalizations from longitudinal studies may be limited to the specific cohort being studied, making it challenging to apply findings to broader populations. 99) Most research on development uses a cross-sectional design, in which groups of participants of different ages are observed and compared at a given time. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Cross-sectional studies involve comparing different groups of individuals at a single point in time. This method is commonly used in developmental research because it allows researchers to examine age-related differences efficiently and is often more practical than longitudinal designs in terms of time and resources. 100) The single cell that results when a sperm fertilizes an egg is called a fetus. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The single cell resulting from the fertilization of an egg by a sperm is called a zygote, not a fetus. A fetus is a more developed stage of prenatal development, occurring after the embryonic stage. 101) Environmental factors such as malnutrition, infection, radiation, or drugs can prevent the normal formation of organs and body structures. Such factors are most likely to have adverse effects during the last few months of pregnancy. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Environmental factors can indeed affect prenatal development, but their impact can occur throughout pregnancy, not just during the last few months. Critical periods for organ development vary throughout gestation, and exposure to harmful agents at any point during pregnancy can lead to adverse effects on fetal development. 102) The visual systems of newborns are comparable to those of adults, with infants showing good sensitivity to contrast, visual acuity, colour discrimination, and depth perception almost immediately after birth. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Newborns do not have fully developed visual systems comparable to those of adults. While they are capable of some visual processing, their vision is still immature at birth. Newborns have limited visual acuity, reduced color discrimination, and poor depth perception, which develop gradually over the first few months after birth. 103) An elderly adult is more likely to have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds, even though speaking voices increase in pitch with aging. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Presbycusis, age-related hearing loss, often affects the ability to hear high-frequency sounds, while low-frequency sounds may still be relatively audible. This phenomenon occurs even though speaking voices may increase in pitch with aging due to changes in the elasticity of the auditory system. 104) In the nativist view of Jean-Jacques Rousseau, development occurs as a result of the stimulation people receive as they are nurtured, an approach known as empiricism. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Jean-Jacques Rousseau is associated with the nativist perspective, which suggests that development is primarily driven by innate factors and maturation, rather than solely by environmental stimulation. Empiricism, on the other hand, emphasizes the role of experience and learning in development, which contrasts with Rousseau's viewpoint. 105) In the theory of Jean Piaget, accommodation refers to the process of restructuring or modifying cognitive structures so that new information can fit into them more easily. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, accommodation involves modifying existing cognitive structures in response to new information or experiences. This allows individuals to adapt to and incorporate new knowledge into their existing schemas, facilitating cognitive growth and development. 106) With respect to normal cognitive development, object permanence takes place during the second half of Piaget's concrete operational stage. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Object permanence, the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight, develops during Piaget's sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to about 2 years old. It is not a feature of the concrete operational stage, which occurs between ages 7 and 11. 107) Children in the stage of concrete operations have typically mastered what Piaget called "conservation." A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Piaget proposed that children in the concrete operational stage (ages 7-11) have typically mastered the concept of conservation, which involves understanding that certain properties of objects (such as volume, mass, or number) remain the same even when their outward appearance changes. 108) According to Russian psychologist Lev Vygotsky, children absorb knowledge from their social context through a process of internalization. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Lev Vygotsky emphasized the role of social interaction and cultural context in cognitive development. He proposed that children learn through interactions with others, who provide guidance and support. Knowledge is internalized through social interactions, leading to cognitive development. 109) Crystallized intelligence usually shows a greater decline than fluid intelligence as people become elderly. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Crystallized intelligence, which involves accumulated knowledge and verbal skills, tends to remain stable or even increase with age. In contrast, fluid intelligence, which involves problem-solving and processing speed, tends to decline with age, typically showing a greater decline than crystallized intelligence. 110) It has been shown that training programs can reverse older adults' decline in some cognitive abilities; disuse, rather than decay, may be responsible for deficits in intellectual performance that are not related to processing speed. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Research has demonstrated that cognitive training programs can help older adults maintain or improve cognitive functioning in various domains. Some deficits in cognitive performance in older age may result from disuse rather than irreversible decay, suggesting that interventions targeting cognitive engagement can be beneficial. 111) The major body of research supports the conclusion that your brain will work differently as you age, the changes in functions reflect compensation and distraction with respect to dayto-day cognitive tasks. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Research indicates that as individuals age, there are changes in brain function that can involve compensation for declines in certain areas. These changes can influence cognitive tasks in day-to-day life, leading to strategies of compensation and potential distractions. This idea is supported by numerous studies on cognitive aging. 112) According to linguist Noam Chomsky, children are born with mental structures that facilitate the comprehension and production of language. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Noam Chomsky proposed the theory of universal grammar, suggesting that humans are born with an innate linguistic capacity that guides language acquisition. According to this view, children possess mental structures that enable them to understand and produce language from a young age. 113) Children's speech during the two-word stage has been characterized as "telegraphic" because it is filled with short, simple sequences using mostly nouns and verbs. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: During the two-word stage of language development, children typically produce short utterances containing essential elements of grammar, such as nouns and verbs. This speech is often described as "telegraphic" because it resembles the concise style of telegraph messages, omitting non-essential words and grammatical markers. 114) Erik Erikson identified four stages in the life cycle, culminating in a crisis characterized as "trust vs. mistrust." A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Erik Erikson proposed a psychosocial theory of development consisting of eight stages, each characterized by a unique psychosocial crisis or conflict. The first stage, not the culmination, is "trust vs. mistrust," which occurs in infancy. The stages continue throughout the lifespan, with each stage presenting its own crisis to resolve. 115) In the Strange Situation Test, a securely attached child will show some distress when the parent leaves the room, seek proximity, comfort, and contact upon reunion, and then gradually return to play. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: The Strange Situation Test is a procedure used to assess attachment patterns in children. A securely attached child will typically display distress upon separation from the parent, seek comfort and contact upon reunion, and then resume exploration or play in the presence of the parent, reflecting a healthy attachment relationship. 116) With respect to parenting styles, researchers have identified the "indulgent" style as generally most beneficial. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The "indulgent" parenting style, characterized by high responsiveness but low demandingness, tends to lead to permissive and undisciplined behavior in children. Research typically suggests that authoritative parenting, which combines high levels of warmth and support with clear expectations and boundaries, is associated with the most positive outcomes for children. 117) Technically speaking, sex differences are sets of behaviors and attitudes associated by society with being male or female and expressed publicly by the individual. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Sex differences refer to biological differences between males and females, such as differences in reproductive anatomy and genetic makeup. These differences are not solely defined by societal expectations or expressions but are rooted in biological factors. Gender differences, on the other hand, often encompass the social and cultural aspects associated with being male or female, including behaviors, attitudes, and roles, which can vary across different societies and contexts. 118) Developmental psychologists make a distinction between __________ age, the number of months or years since a person's birth, and __________ age, the age at which most people show the particular level of physical or mental development that is demonstrated. Answer: chronological; developmental Rationale: Chronological age refers to the actual time that has passed since a person's birth, measured in years or months. This is the age typically used in everyday contexts such as birthdays or legal adulthood. Developmental age, on the other hand, refers to the age at which an individual typically reaches certain developmental milestones or demonstrates particular levels of physical or mental abilities. This distinction is crucial in understanding variations in development among individuals. 119) If you were a participant in a developmental study that was using a __________ design, you would expect to be repeatedly observed and tested over time, often for many years. Answer: longitudinal Rationale: In a longitudinal study design, researchers follow the same group of individuals over an extended period, observing and testing them repeatedly at different points in time. This approach allows researchers to track developmental changes within individuals over time, providing insights into patterns of growth and stability. Longitudinal studies are particularly useful for understanding how individuals develop and change over the course of their lives. 120) According to Jean Piaget, the basic building blocks of developmental change are called __________. They are the mental structures that enable individuals to interpret the world. Answer: schemes Rationale: Jean Piaget, a renowned developmental psychologist, proposed the theory of cognitive development, which emphasizes the role of schemes in shaping how individuals understand and interact with their environment. Schemes are mental structures or frameworks that organize and interpret information. They serve as the basic building blocks of cognitive development, allowing individuals to make sense of their experiences and adapt to new information. Piaget described schemes as the mechanisms through which individuals assimilate new information into existing cognitive structures or accommodate existing schemes to incorporate new information. 121) In Piaget's theory, the __________ stage extends roughly from 2 to 7 years of age. Answer: preoperational Rationale: According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the preoperational stage is the second of four stages and typically occurs between the ages of 2 and 7 years. During this stage, children begin to develop language and symbolic thinking but still lack the ability for logical reasoning and conservation. 122) Piaget used the term __________ to refer to the fact that young children are unable to take more than one perceptual factor into account at the same time, often focusing on perceptually salient dimensions of a situation. Answer: centration Rationale: Centration is a concept in Piaget's theory that describes the tendency of young children to focus on only one aspect of a situation while disregarding other relevant factors. This often leads to errors in reasoning, as children may overlook important information by concentrating solely on perceptually salient features. 123) With respect to the structure of language, __________ are the minimal meaningful units of speech that allow people to distinguish one word from another. Answer: phonemes Rationale: Phonemes are the smallest units of sound in a language that can distinguish one word from another. They are the basic building blocks of spoken language and are combined to form syllables, words, and sentences. Different languages have different sets of phonemes, and mastering phonemes is crucial for understanding and producing speech. 124) During early language development, rules of language may be applied too widely, resulting in the grammatical error called __________. An example may be a child saying that he "runned" home. Answer: over-regularization Rationale: Over-regularization occurs when children apply grammatical rules of language inappropriately, resulting in errors such as adding regular past-tense endings (-ed) to irregular verbs or applying pluralization rules inconsistently. This phenomenon is common during the early stages of language development as children learn and internalize the rules of their language. 125) __________ is a form of learning in which some infant animals physically follow and form an attachment to the first moving object they see and/or hear. Answer: Imprinting Rationale: Imprinting is a critical period phenomenon observed in certain animal species, particularly birds and mammals, where newborn animals form strong attachments to the first moving object they encounter, typically their parent or caregiver. This process occurs during a sensitive period shortly after birth and is essential for social bonding and survival. Imprinting has been extensively studied by ethologists such as Konrad Lorenz. 126) Research has confirmed that concerns about __________ are patterns of responses related to moral reasoning for both men and women. Answer: caring and justice Rationale: Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development posits that individuals progress through stages of moral reasoning, with concerns about caring and justice being central to the highest level of moral reasoning, known as post-conventional morality. Research has shown that both men and women prioritize these two dimensions of moral reasoning, although they may emphasize one over the other to varying degrees. 127) A strategy for successful aging proposed by Paul Baltes and Margaret Baltes is called __________. In this strategy, finding alternative ways to do something you have always enjoyed, doing but can no longer do as easily, is called __________. Answer: selective optimization with compensation; compensation Rationale: Selective optimization with compensation (SOC) is a theoretical framework proposed by Paul Baltes and Margaret Baltes that emphasizes the importance of focusing on specific areas of life to maximize functioning and well-being in older adulthood. Within the SOC framework, compensation refers to the process of finding alternative ways to achieve goals or perform activities that have become more challenging due to age-related changes. This may involve utilizing resources, skills, or strategies to overcome limitations and maintain a sense of mastery and satisfaction in life. 128) What are two research designs that developmental psychologists use to understand the possible mechanisms of change? What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? Answer: Define longitudinal design and cross-sectional design. The longitudinal design has the advantages of assessing long-term change and also not confusing age-related changes with variations in differing societal circumstances, and the disadvantages include that some generalizations will only apply to the cohort tested, it is costly and time consuming, and participants may drop out or become lost to the researcher. The cross-sectional design has the advantages of being inexpensive and less time consuming, and a good tool to assess agerelated changes, but age-related changes are always confounded with differences in the societal or political conditions of different generations. 129) Discuss the various stages of prenatal development, including the age of the developing human and the major milestones of each stage. What are some possible things that could prevent the normal formation of organs and body structures? Answer: Describe the zygote, germinal stage (conception to implantation, or week 0-2), embryonic stage (week 2 to 8; all major organs develop here), and fetal stage (week 9 to 38, brain and further body growth). Environmental factors, called teratogens, such as infection, radiation, and drugs, can harm the developing human. 130) John Watson argued that human infants are utterly helpless and only capable of making a few simple responses. How would you argue against this and show that infants are prewired for survival? Answer: Infants are well suited to respond to adult caregivers and to influence their social environments. Include their sensory abilities (can hear in the womb, visual system works at birth although it will be refined over time), they show visual preferences at 4 months, when they begin to crawl they show fear with the visual cliff apparatus. 131) A couple you know have just had a baby girl. Summarize the various stages and landmarks that a Piagetian would expect during the course of the development of thought. What are the basic processes on which such cognitive development is based? Answer: Include the stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, and formal operations. Define each one by age and accomplishments. Include the concepts of schemes, assimilation and accommodation, object permanence, egocentrism, centrism, and conservation. 132) The acquisition of language seems to be such a natural process, progressing quite smoothly and effortlessly. What have researchers learned about language acquisition processes? How are children like scientists in the way they learn the grammar of their language? Answer: Start from the smallest unit of speech, the phoneme. Discuss child-directed speech, the development of hypotheses about word meanings, the principle of contrast, the operating principles of language-making capacity, and some of the different ways use of words develops at the two-word stage and beyond. 133) Erik Erikson conceptualized the life span as a series of crises with which individuals must cope. Briefly describe the various stages in his approach, then focus on the psychological bonding that occurs during an infant's development of attachment. How is attachment studied and what have developmental psychologists learned about the various types of attachment and its consequences? Briefly relate the ideas of attachment theory to Erikson's thoughts about development of trust, will, competence, and purpose. Answer: List and briefly describe the eight stages of Erikson's theory. Focus on the first three stages to link the development of trust, autonomy, and initiative to attachment theory. Define attachment and discuss secure and insecure attachment as they relate to the adequate or inadequate resolution of each of the three earliest stages of Erikson's theory. 134) Distinguish between gender differences and sex differences. Summarize the impact that parents and peers have on the development of gender identity. Answer: Define sex differences and gender identity, focusing on biological and environmental influences. Discuss the ways in which children acquire gender identity and gender stereotypes. Discuss the development of male or female characteristics in the fetus. Analysis of sex differences focuses on the impact of hormones, and on consistent structural differences in amle and female brain development. Other analyses of sex differences focus on the unique ways men’s and women’s brains accomplish cognitive and emotional tasks, and confirm sex differences in encoding and recognition of emotionally arousing stimuli. Individuals’ sense that there are two genders in the world starts very early and is the individual’s sense of femaleness or maleness. At the same time, knowledge of gender stereotypes is acquired. Discuss research that helps us understand how children acquire the information that leads to gender identity and gender stereotypes. 135) How do you define morality? What claims did Piaget make? Describe Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning and Carol Gilligan's theory and state the differences between these two points of view. Answer: Discuss Piaget's use of consequences and intention in exploring the development of morality. How did Kohlberg expand these ideas? What are the four principles that govern Kohlberg's stage model? Carol Gilligan critiqued Kohlberg's work. What did she propose and what has research shown us about her work? 1) Which of the following is a weakness associated with longitudinal research? A) It cannot measure the stability of behaviour. B) Cultural experiences cannot be controlled. C) It costs a lot in terms of time and money. D) Historical influence cannot be controlled. Answer: C Rationale: Longitudinal research involves studying subjects over an extended period, which requires significant investments of time and resources. This extended duration contributes to the high costs associated with longitudinal studies, making option C the correct choice for identifying a weakness. 2) Dr. Halk is studying a group of 25 youngsters from the time they are born until they reach school age. This is known as _______ research. A) cross-sectional B) mixed design C) longitudinal D) historical Answer: C Rationale: Longitudinal research involves studying the same group of individuals over an extended period to observe changes over time. Dr. Halk's study, following a group of children from birth to school age, fits the definition of longitudinal research. 3) Dr. Halk is studying the influence of getting older on intelligence. He tests a group of firstgraders, a group of third-graders, and a group of sixth-graders. They are all tested in one day. This is an example of _________ research. A) cross-sectional B) longitudinal C) mixed design D) fixed effects Answer: A Rationale: Cross-sectional research involves studying individuals from different age groups at a single point in time. In this scenario, Dr. Halk is testing children of different ages (first-graders, third-graders, and sixth-graders) on the same day, which aligns with the characteristics of cross-sectional research. 4) Which of the following is an advantage of longitudinal research? A) It takes a relatively short period of time. B) It is quite flexible. C) It can measure stability of behaviour. D) It is extremely practical. Answer: C Rationale: Longitudinal research allows for the measurement of stability of behavior over time by observing how individuals' behaviors change or remain consistent across different points in their lives. 5) A developmental psychologist believes that increased TV watching by young children is responsible for a decline in reading scores when these children enter school. To explore her hypothesis, she records the TV watching habits of toddlers in a suburban community. She examines these habits again when the children enter kindergarten and once more when they complete first grade. This method is ________. A) longitudinal B) cross-sectional C) convergent D) experimental Answer: A Rationale: The psychologist is following the same group of children over time (from toddlerhood to first grade) to observe changes in TV watching habits and reading scores. This aligns with the definition of longitudinal research. 6) Developmental norms are useful because they ___________________. A) tell parents when their child will begin to talk B) tell parents when their child is ready to talk C) give an indication of future skills and potentials D) alert parents to extreme developmental deviations Answer: D Rationale: Developmental norms provide benchmarks for typical developmental milestones, allowing parents and professionals to identify significant deviations from typical development that may indicate developmental delays or issues. 7) An audience of 20-year-olds finds a series of off-colour jokes highly amusing. A group of 50-year-olds finds the same jokes highly offensive. It is concluded that, as people age, their senses of humour become more rigid and narrow. The major difficulty in drawing conclusions of this sort is that _______. A) longitudinal studies cannot distinguish between age differences and generational differences B) cross-sectional studies cannot distinguish between age differences and generational differences C) longitudinal studies cannot distinguish between age differences and differences in the time at which measurements are taken D) cross-sectional studies cannot distinguish between age differences and differences in the time at which measurements are taken Answer: B Rationale: Cross-sectional studies involve comparing different age groups at a single point in time. Thus, they cannot distinguish between age-related changes and differences due to generational factors. 8) A weakness of longitudinal studies is that they _______. A) take far too long to gather the appropriate data B) cannot eliminate sample biases C) cannot distinguish age differences from cohort differences D) do not distinguish significant from non-significant relationships Answer: A Rationale: Longitudinal studies indeed require a significant investment of time to gather data over an extended period, which can be considered a weakness, especially in terms of cost and potential attrition of participants over time. 9) The description and explanation of behaviour changes in the individual and the differences between individuals from conception to death is called __________. A) developmental psychology B) the whole life approach C) the life span development approach D) the longitudinal method Answer: C Rationale: The life span development approach encompasses the study of behavior changes from conception to death, considering both individual and group differences over time. 10) Dr. Cross is studying whether the psychological trait of dependency vs. independence changes as one gets older. He collects data from first-, fourth-, and ninth-graders. Dr. Cross is studying the relationship between age and dependency/independence using _______ research. A) longitudinal B) cross-sectional C) case study D) applied Answer: B Rationale: Dr. Cross is collecting data from different age groups (first-, fourth-, and ninth-graders) at a single point in time, which aligns with the characteristics of cross-sectional research. 11) Comparing the same group of people on the same measure(s) over a lengthy time period defines _______ research. A) longitudinal B) cross-sectional C) basic D) applied Answer: A Rationale: Longitudinal research involves studying the same group of individuals over an extended period to observe changes over time. This method allows researchers to track development or changes within the same participants, providing valuable insights into individual trajectories. 12) Collecting the responses of different people at different ages all at the same time characterizes _______ research. A) longitudinal B) cross-sectional C) basic D) applied Answer: B Rationale: Cross-sectional research involves studying different groups of individuals at the same time, each group representing different age groups. This method allows researchers to compare various age groups simultaneously, providing insights into age-related differences. 13) Cultural and historical influences are BEST controlled using _______ research. A) longitudinal B) cross-sectional C) basic D) applied Answer: A Rationale: Longitudinal research enables researchers to control for cultural and historical influences more effectively because it involves studying the same group of individuals over time, thereby minimizing the impact of external factors that could affect cross-sectional comparisons. 14) A researcher who selects a sample of people of varying ages and studies them at one point in time is, by definition, using the __________ method. A) longitudinal B) correlational C) cross-sectional D) biographical study Answer: C Rationale: Cross-sectional research involves studying individuals from different age groups at one specific point in time. By examining individuals of various ages simultaneously, researchers can draw conclusions about age-related differences in behavior or characteristics. 15) A researcher who studies a fixed group of people over a long period of time is, by definition, using the __________ method. A) longitudinal B) correlational C) cross-sectional D) biographical study Answer: A Rationale: Longitudinal research involves studying the same group of individuals over an extended period, allowing researchers to observe changes or development within the group over time. 16) A researcher who studies a fixed group of people over a long period of time is, by definition, using the __________. A) longitudinal method B) correlational method C) cross-sectional method D) case study method Answer: A Rationale: Longitudinal research involves studying the same group of individuals repeatedly over an extended period to observe changes or development within the group, making it the appropriate method in this scenario. 17) A psychologist spends her entire career studying how and why changes occur in people as they get older. This psychologist is most likely a(n) __________ psychologist. A) evolutionary B) personality C) health D) developmental Answer: D Rationale: Developmental psychologists focus on understanding the changes that occur across the lifespan, including physical, cognitive, social, and emotional development. Therefore, a psychologist studying changes in individuals as they age is likely a developmental psychologist. 18) How one develops is determined by continuous interaction between _________ and __________. A) learning; environment B) heredity; environment C) nurture; environment D) heredity; nature Answer: B Rationale: Development is influenced by both hereditary factors (genetics) and environmental factors (such as upbringing, culture, and experiences). The interaction between these factors shapes an individual's development, making option B the correct choice. 19) A psychologist spends his entire career studying how and why changes occur in people as they get older. This psychologist is most likely a(n) __________ psychologist. A) evolutionary B) personality C) health D) developmental Answer: D Rationale: This question repeats the previous one, indicating that a psychologist focusing on changes in individuals over time is likely a developmental psychologist, as they specialize in studying human growth and development across the lifespan. 20) The description and explanation of behavior changes in the individual and the differences between individuals from conception to death are called _________. A) developmental psychology B) the whole life approach C) the life span development approach D) the longitudinal method Answer: C Rationale: The life span development approach encompasses the study of behavioral changes and individual differences across the entire lifespan, from conception to death. This approach is broader than just focusing on one stage of development and is therefore the most appropriate option. 21) The life span development approach has which of the following goals? A) Describe the physical changes that occur between birth and adolescence. B) Describe and explain behavior changes within an individual and differences between individuals from conception to death. C) Explain the results of learning from conception to death. D) Investigate the influence of heredity and environment upon individuals from conception to death. Answer: B Rationale: The life span development approach aims to describe and explain behavioral changes within individuals as well as differences between individuals across the entire lifespan, from conception to death. 22) The field of _______ focuses on the questions of how people of different ages differ from one another and what caused those differences. A) personality B) comparative psychology C) developmental psychology D) geriatrics Answer: C Rationale: Developmental psychology focuses on studying how individuals of different ages differ from one another and seeks to understand the causes of these differences, making it the most appropriate option. 23) The study of psychological and physical changes from conception to death is _______ psychology. A) personality B) developmental C) evolutionary D) physiological Answer: B Rationale: Developmental psychology encompasses the study of both psychological and physical changes that occur from conception until death, making it the correct choice. 24) An approach that is concerned with description and explanation of changes within an individual and between individuals from conception until death is called the _______ approach. A) whole life B) life span developmental C) entire life developmental D) childhood/adulthood developmental Answer: B Rationale: The life span developmental approach is concerned with describing and explaining changes within individuals and between individuals across the entire lifespan, from conception until death. 25) The period of development from conception to birth is called the __________. A) neonate period B) prenatal period C) natal period D) postnatal period Answer: B Rationale: The period of development from conception to birth is known as the prenatal period, during which the fetus develops within the womb. 26) From the second week until the third month after conception, the developing organism is called a(n) __________. A) neonate B) fetus C) zygote D) embryo Answer: D Rationale: During the period from the second week until the third month after conception, the developing organism is referred to as an embryo. 27) The __________ roughly resembles a human being. A) zygote B) fetus C) embryo D) placenta Answer: B Rationale: The fetus, during its development, begins to resemble a human being more closely compared to earlier stages such as the zygote or embryo. 28) Toxic substances such as alcohol and nicotine that cross the placenta and may result in birth defects are called __________. A) neuroleptics B) teratogens C) pathogens D) antigens Answer: B Rationale: Teratogens are substances that can cause birth defects or developmental abnormalities when they cross the placental barrier during pregnancy. 29) The drug most abused by pregnant women is __________. A) nicotine B) marijuana C) cocaine D) alcohol Answer: D Rationale: Alcohol is the drug most commonly abused by pregnant women, and its consumption during pregnancy can lead to a range of developmental issues and birth defects in the unborn child. 30) A newborn baby is called a __________. A) neonate B) fetus C) zygote D) bionate Answer: A Rationale: A newborn baby is referred to as a neonate, typically in the first few weeks of life after birth. 31) A reflex crucial to an infant’s survival is __________. A) cooing B) grasping C) sucking D) stepping Answer: C Rationale: The sucking reflex is crucial for an infant's survival as it enables them to feed by instinctively sucking on a nipple or bottle. 32) The ability to see the world in three dimensions is called __________. A) visual acuity B) visual acumen C) depth perception D) spatial awareness Answer: C Rationale: Depth perception refers to the ability to perceive the world in three dimensions, including perceiving distance and spatial relationships between objects. 33) The visual cliff was developed to measure __________. A) whole-part perception B) object perception C) distance perception D) depth perception Answer: D Rationale: The visual cliff is a laboratory device used to measure an infant's depth perception by assessing their willingness to crawl over a perceived "cliff." 34) When infants are presented with a sound at one side of their heads, they __________. A) do not appear to perceive it B) will begin to cry C) will try to move away from it D) will turn their head toward it Answer: D Rationale: Infants typically turn their heads toward a sound presented at one side of their heads, indicating their ability to perceive and localize auditory stimuli. 35) At birth, babies ______________. A) are color-blind, except for black, white, and shades of grey B) can distinguish only blues and purples in addition to black, white, and shades of grey C) can distinguish most, but not all, colors D) can distinguish all of the colors Answer: C Rationale: At birth, babies can distinguish between some colors, but their ability to perceive colors is not fully developed, and they may have difficulty distinguishing certain colors. 36) Which statement about maturation is true? A) It ends at puberty. B) It is a more or less automatic thing. C) It is only used to describe psychological changes, not physical changes, in a growing child. D) It begins at birth. Answer: B Rationale: Maturation refers to the biological unfolding of development in an individual, which occurs more or less automatically over time, independent of environmental influences. 37) Which of the following is true of newborns? A) They are passive creatures who eat, sleep, and remain relatively oblivious to their world. B) Most of their senses operate very poorly at birth. C) They hear and understand very little of what is going on around them. D) They absorb and process information from the outside world almost as soon as, or even before, they enter it. Answer: D Rationale: Newborns are capable of absorbing and processing information from their environment almost immediately after birth, indicating that they are not passive creatures but rather actively engage with their surroundings. 38) Which of the following developmental sequences is in correct order? A) embryo, zygote, fetus, infant B) ovum, embryo, fetus, infant C) fetus, embryo, ovum, infant D) ovum, fetus, embryo, infant Answer: B Rationale: The correct developmental sequence is ovum (egg), embryo, fetus, and infant, as reflected in option B. 39) Which of the following is NOT a stage of development? A) ovum B) uterine C) embryo D) fetal Answer: B Rationale: "Uterine" does not represent a stage of development. The ovum, embryo, and fetal stages are all recognized stages of prenatal development. 40) Gloria was born prematurely. She may be able to live outside her mother’s body if: A) she was born less than 2 months before she was due. B) she had passed her age of viability. C) she was in the seventh or later month of her prenatal development. D) all of the above Answer: D Rationale: Premature infants may be able to survive outside the mother's body if they have passed the age of viability, typically around the seventh month of prenatal development. Therefore, all the options provided are correct criteria for determining the viability of a premature infant. 41) At birth, the infant’s nervous system is best described as _________. A) complete B) modified C) incomplete D) immature Answer: C Rationale: The infant's nervous system at birth is incomplete and undergoes significant development and maturation after birth and during early childhood. 42) When adults are surprised by a loud noise, they often show the startle reflex. In infants, the same reflex is called the ________ reflex. A) rooting B) Moro C) grasping D) sucking Answer: B Rationale: The startle reflex in infants, also known as the Moro reflex, is elicited by sudden changes in sensory stimulation such as a loud noise or a sudden movement. 43) Researchers have discovered that during specific periods in one’s life, certain abilities must develop or they will not develop later. These are known as ____________. A) developmental milestones B) imprinting C) critical periods D) maturational readiness Answer: C Rationale: Critical periods refer to specific periods in development during which certain abilities or characteristics must develop for normal development to occur. If these abilities do not develop during these critical periods, they may be difficult or impossible to acquire later in life. 44) Postnatal is to after being born as _______ is to before being born. A) fetal B) prenatal C) neonatal D) pregnancy Answer: B Rationale: Postnatal refers to the period after birth, while prenatal refers to the period before birth, encompassing the development of the fetus within the womb. 45) During prenatal development, the organism depends on the ________ to exchange food and waste products with the mother’s bloodstream. A) ovum B) umbilicus C) placenta D) uterus Answer: C Rationale: The placenta is an organ that develops during pregnancy and serves as the interface between the developing organism (fetus) and the mother, facilitating the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between the fetal bloodstream and the maternal bloodstream. 46) Which of the following is NOT incompletely developed at birth? A) myelinization B) size of the brain C) cortex D) none of the above Answer: D Rationale: All of the options listed are incompletely developed at birth. Myelinization, brain size, and cortical development continue after birth and throughout childhood. 47) An infant will turn his head toward anything that touches his cheek. This is the ________ reflex. A) rooting B) Moro C) grasping D) sucking Answer: A Rationale: The rooting reflex is the infant's automatic turning of the head in the direction of a touch on the cheek or mouth, which helps facilitate breastfeeding. 48) The observation that infant attachment occurs in a variety of cultures supports the idea that ______ play(s) a role in attachment. A) learning B) society C) child-rearing practices D) heredity Answer: D Rationale: The fact that infant attachment occurs across various cultures suggests that biological factors (heredity) play a role in attachment, in addition to cultural and environmental influences. 49) Which of the following phenomena is most closely associated with the concept of critical period? A) classical conditioning B) imprinting C) motor programs D) creolization Answer: B Rationale: Imprinting, a rapid and relatively permanent type of learning that occurs during a critical period early in an organism's life, is closely associated with the concept of critical period. 50) Which of the following are newborn humans capable of doing? A) locating sound sources B) discriminating their mother’s voice from other voices C) noticing the differences among three objects D) all of the above Answer: D Rationale: Newborn humans are capable of all the listed abilities shortly after birth, indicating a degree of sensory and cognitive development even in the early stages of life. 51) In humans, the machinery for perceiving the world: A) must await the second year of physical maturation. B) is pretty much ready at birth. C) develops during the second half of the child’s first year. D) is pretty much dependent on learning experiences. Answer: B Rationale: Human infants are born with sensory systems that are largely developed and functional, allowing them to perceive the world around them from birth. 52) Human and animal neonates come into the world equipped with a number of built-in responses called _______. A) reflexes B) tropisms C) instincts D) motor programs Answer: A Rationale: Neonates, both human and animal, possess innate reflexes that are present at birth and do not require learning, helping them respond to their environment and ensuring basic survival needs. 53) The most obvious change ushering in adolescence is __________. A) voice change B) intellectual growth C) the growth spurt D) emotional upheaval Answer: C Rationale: The growth spurt is often considered the most noticeable physical change that marks the onset of adolescence. During this period, individuals experience rapid growth in height and weight due to hormonal changes. This growth spurt typically occurs during early to midadolescence and is a prominent and visible indicator of the transition from childhood to adulthood. While other changes such as voice changes, intellectual growth, and emotional upheaval are also characteristic of adolescence, the growth spurt is typically the most obvious and noticeable change. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. 54) Most young adolescents are at the level of thinking that Piaget described as __________. A) formal operational B) preoperational C) sensorimotor D) concrete operational Answer: D Rationale: According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, most young adolescents are at the concrete operational stage, characterized by the ability to think logically about concrete events and objects but not yet capable of abstract thinking as in the formal operational stage. 55) Fifteen-year-old Harriet has begun to write an impassioned novel about growing up in Canada. In her novel she describes her experiences in a way that portrays herself as unique and special, such that no one has ever thought such deep thoughts or experienced such ecstasy before. Harriet’s writings most clearly reflect __________________. A) her sense of autonomy B) the personal fable C) the period of rebellion common to all adolescents D) her developing sense of conscience Answer: B Rationale: Harriet's portrayal of herself as unique and special, with experiences and feelings unlike anyone else's, reflects the personal fable, a belief common in adolescence that one is unique and invulnerable, leading to feelings of being special or exceptional. 56) In order to make the transition from dependence on parents to dependence upon one’s self, the adolescent must develop a stable sense of ____________________. A) identity B) control C) status D) acceptance Answer: A Rationale: Adolescents must develop a stable sense of identity, including understanding their values, beliefs, and personal goals, in order to achieve independence and autonomy. 57) When adolescents are asked what they MOST dislike about themselves, they are most likely to say they dislike their __________________. A) personality B) social status C) physical appearance D) inability to control their own life Answer: C Rationale: Research suggests that adolescents are most likely to express dissatisfaction with their physical appearance when asked what they dislike about themselves, reflecting the heightened importance of physical appearance during this developmental period. 58) Research indicates that onset of puberty _______________. A) has remained relatively unchanged for several centuries B) is occurring at later ages than ever before in developed countries C) is occurring at earlier ages than ever before in developed countries D) is less important to teenagers today than it has been historically Answer: C Rationale: Research indicates that the onset of puberty is occurring at earlier ages than ever before in developed countries, possibly due to improvements in nutrition and overall health. 59) Betty and Bob are 12-year-old twins. Which of the following is probably an accurate statement about their physical development? A) Bob should almost double his strength during his teen years. B) Betty should almost double her strength during her teen years. C) Betty and Bob’s strength will remain equal during their teen years. D) At age 10, Bob should have been stronger than Betty. Answer: A Rationale: Generally, males experience greater increases in strength during adolescence compared to females, so Bob is more likely to almost double his strength during his teen years compared to Betty. 60) Parents often feel that, as their child gets older, the child shares less intimacy with them. Which statement about the intimacy between parents and adolescents is true? A) Adolescence is noted for a decrease in parent-child intimacy. B) Adolescence is noted for an increase in parent-child intimacy. C) The intimacy the child has with the parent stays about the same through adolescence as it was in childhood. D) Adolescents become less intimate with peers during this period. Answer: C Rationale: Research suggests that the intimacy between parents and adolescents generally remains stable throughout adolescence and may even increase in some cases, contradicting the common perception that parent-child intimacy decreases during this period. 61) Which of the following ages is considered the period of adolescence? A) 11-13 years B) 13-15 years C) 10-15 years D) 12-19 years Answer: D Rationale: Adolescence typically spans from approximately 12 to 19 years of age, encompassing the transition from childhood to adulthood, marked by physical, cognitive, and socio-emotional changes. 62) According to Erikson’s theory, the _______ stage of development occurs in old age. A) generativity versus stagnation B) intimacy versus isolation C) integrity versus despair D) trust versus mistrust Answer: C Rationale: According to Erikson's psychosocial theory of development, the stage that occurs in old age is integrity versus despair, during which individuals reflect on their lives and either feel a sense of fulfillment and acceptance (integrity) or experience regret and dissatisfaction (despair). 63) According to Erik Erikson, the crucial task confronting a person approaching death is that of establishing or attaining _______. A) trust B) ego identity C) ego integrity D) autonomy Answer: C Rationale: Erikson proposed that the crucial task confronting individuals approaching death is that of establishing or attaining ego integrity, which involves a sense of completeness and satisfaction with one's life. 64) As children approach their teen years, contact with _______ becomes more important in their development. A) peers B) parents C) teachers D) adults Answer: A Rationale: During adolescence, peer relationships become increasingly important in a teenager's development as they seek social connections, acceptance, and identity exploration outside of the family unit. 65) The most obvious change ushering in adolescence is _______. A) voice change B) intellectual growth C) the growth spurt D) emotional upheaval Answer: C Rationale: The most obvious physical change marking the onset of adolescence is the growth spurt, during which individuals experience rapid increases in height and weight. 66) The emergence of sexual feelings in adolescence is closely followed by and intertwined with a need for _______. A) independence B) control C) excitement D) intimacy Answer: D Rationale: As adolescents experience sexual maturation, they often seek intimacy and emotional connection in relationships, which is closely intertwined with their emerging sexual feelings. 67) The cessation of menstruation is called __________. A) menopause B) endometriosis C) menarche D) the climacteric Answer: A Rationale: Menopause refers to the natural cessation of menstruation and reproductive function in women, typically occurring around the age of 45 to 55. 68) Men experience __________ in testosterone levels between the ages of 48 and 70. A) virtually no decline B) a gradual decline of between 10 and 20 percent C) a gradual decline of between 30 and 40 percent D) a gradual decline of between 50 and 60 percent Answer: C Rationale: Men typically experience a gradual decline in testosterone levels between the ages of 48 and 70, with levels decreasing by approximately 30 to 40 percent during this period. 69) The pattern of events that is repeated in each new generation is referred to as the __________. A) developmental sequence B) family cycle C) family circle D) family pattern Answer: B Rationale: The pattern of events that is repeated in each new generation, including stages such as marriage, parenthood, and retirement, is referred to as the family cycle. 70) Which of the following statements about marital satisfaction appears to be true? A) It is low for elderly couples. B) It is highest for young adults. C) It may reach its highest level during late adulthood. D) It is highest for those who marry young. Answer: C Rationale: Research suggests that marital satisfaction may reach its highest level during late adulthood, as couples have had more time to adjust to each other, overcome challenges, and develop deeper emotional bonds over the years. 71) During late adulthood, husbands and wives: A) find they cannot express their true feelings. B) often have a high level of marital satisfaction. C) often have a low level of marital satisfaction. D) turn to children for companionship. Answer: B Rationale: Research indicates that many couples in late adulthood often have a high level of marital satisfaction, as they have had time to build and strengthen their relationship over the years, and often rely on each other for companionship and support. 72) George, at age 42, lost his job, was divorced by his wife, and couldn’t seem to keep friends for very long. George came more and more to feel that he was accomplishing nothing with his life. According to Erikson, George is probably: A) not going to undergo a midlife transition. B) about to undergo a nervous breakdown. C) experiencing feelings of stagnation. D) not responsible for his own life situation. Answer: C Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, individuals in middle adulthood face the psychosocial crisis of generativity versus stagnation. George's experiences align with feelings of stagnation, where he feels unproductive and lacks a sense of purpose or accomplishment in his life. 73) Generativity or stagnation are two feelings that may dominate a person’s life during: A) middle adulthood. B) young adulthood. C) late adulthood. D) the period after he is told that he has a terminal illness. Answer: A Rationale: Generativity versus stagnation is a psychosocial crisis that occurs during middle adulthood, according to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development. Individuals in this stage may focus on contributing to society and future generations (generativity) or may experience feelings of stagnation if they feel unproductive or lack a sense of purpose. 74) One way to minimize the effects of aging on physical condition is to _______. A) not worry about aging B) have a proper diet C) engage in vigorous exercise D) all of the above Answer: C Rationale: Engaging in regular vigorous exercise is one effective way to minimize the effects of aging on physical condition, along with maintaining a proper diet and adopting a positive attitude towards aging. 75) A gradual and inevitable decline in the life processes begins in __________. A) adolescence B) young adulthood C) middle age D) old age Answer: C Rationale: A gradual decline in the life processes typically begins in middle age, as individuals experience physiological changes associated with aging, such as decreased muscle mass, slower metabolism, and declines in sensory abilities. 76) In one study, a little more than half of the elderly people surveyed reported being __________ than/as when they were younger. A) much less happy B) somewhat less happy C) just as happy D) somewhat happier Answer: C Rationale: In one study, a majority of elderly individuals reported being just as happy as when they were younger, suggesting that overall happiness levels may remain relatively stable or even improve with age for many individuals. 77) The vast majority of older adults are __________. A) impotent or incapable of sexual response B) uninterested in sex, even if capable of sexual activity C) sexually active, but no longer orgasmic D) sexually active and orgasmic Answer: D Rationale: The vast majority of older adults remain sexually active and capable of experiencing sexual pleasure and orgasm, although sexual activity may decline with age for some individuals due to various factors such as health issues or changes in relationship status. 78) Older people who were often labelled as “senile” in the past were most likely suffering from __________. A) normal aging B) Parkinson’s disease C) Huntington’s disease D) Alzheimer’s disease Answer: D Rationale: Older individuals who were often labeled as "senile" in the past were likely suffering from Alzheimer's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by progressive memory loss, cognitive decline, and changes in behavior. 79) A disorder common in late adulthood that is characterized by losses in memory and cognition, and changes in personality, and that is believed to be caused by deterioration of the brain’s structure and function is __________. A) Wernicke’s syndrome B) Parkinson’s disease C) Alzheimer’s disease D) Korsakoff’s syndrome Answer: C Rationale: Alzheimer's disease is a common disorder in late adulthood characterized by progressive loss of memory, cognitive decline, changes in personality, and deterioration of brain structure and function. 80) The most severe challenge to be faced during adulthood is probably __________. A) divorce B) loss of one’s job C) retirement D) death of a spouse Answer: D Rationale: The death of a spouse is often considered one of the most severe challenges to be faced during adulthood, as it involves coping with profound grief, loss, and adjustment to a major life change. 81) How did Erikson identify the conflict experienced in old age? A) industry vs. inferiority B) intimacy vs. isolation C) generativity vs. stagnation D) integrity vs. despair Answer: D Rationale: Erikson identified the conflict experienced in old age as integrity versus despair, where individuals reflect on their lives and either feel a sense of fulfillment and acceptance (integrity) or experience regret and dissatisfaction (despair). 82) Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of __________. A) cognitive development B) language development C) perceptual development D) motor development Answer: A Rationale: Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of cognitive development, which outlines stages of cognitive growth and understanding from infancy through adolescence. 83) Which of the following is the correct order for Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development? A) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations B) preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations, sensorimotor C) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operations, formal operations D) preoperational, formal operations, sensorimotor, concrete operations Answer: A Rationale: The correct order for Piaget's four stages of cognitive development is sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, and formal operations, representing the sequence of cognitive growth from infancy through adolescence. 84) According to Piaget, which of the following is crucial to cognitive development at the sensorimotor stage? A) egocentrism B) attachment C) language D) object permanence Answer: D Rationale: According to Piaget, object permanence is crucial to cognitive development at the sensorimotor stage, which occurs during infancy and is characterized by the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight. 85) According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between two and seven years of age, in which the individual becomes able to use mental representations and language to describe, remember, and reason about the world, though only in an egocentric fashion, is the __________ stage. A) concrete operations B) preoperational C) sensorimotor D) formal operations Answer: B Rationale: According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between two and seven years of age is the preoperational stage, characterized by the use of symbols and language but limited by egocentric thinking and lack of logical operations. 86) The mother of a young child who didn’t like to drink milk was trying to coax him to drink some. Taking the glass of milk, she poured it all into a smaller cup and said, "There! Now you won’t have to drink so much." She would never have fooled the child if he had not been in the __________ stage. A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational Answer: B Rationale: The child's inability to understand conservation, as demonstrated by pouring the milk into a smaller cup to make it appear as though there is less, indicates that the child is in Piaget's preoperational stage of cognitive development. 87) According to Piaget, children learn to retrace their thoughts, correct themselves, and see more than one dimension to a problem, but cannot yet handle abstract concepts during the __________ stage. A) preoperational B) formal operational C) concrete operational D) sensorimotor Answer: C Rationale: According to Piaget, children in the concrete operational stage of cognitive development demonstrate the ability to think logically about concrete events and can consider multiple dimensions of a problem, but they still struggle with abstract concepts. 88) According to Piaget, children begin to develop concepts and the ability to think in terms of abstractions in the __________ stage. A) preoperational B) formal operational C) concrete operational D) sensorimotor Answer: B Rationale: According to Piaget, children in the formal operational stage of cognitive development demonstrate the ability to think abstractly, form hypotheses, and engage in deductive reasoning, marking a significant cognitive milestone. 89) Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of _______________. A) cognitive development B) language development C) perceptual development D) attachment Answer: A Rationale: Jean Piaget is renowned for his theory of cognitive development, which describes stages of intellectual growth and understanding from infancy through adolescence. 90) The mother of a young child who didn’t like to drink milk was trying to coax him to drink some. Taking the glass of milk, she poured it all into a small cup and said, "There! Now you won't have to drink so much." She would never have fooled the child if he had not been in the ________________ stage. A) preconventional B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational Answer: B Rationale: The scenario described, involving the child's inability to understand conservation, indicates that the child is in Piaget's preoperational stage of cognitive development. 91) Which of the following is the correct order for Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development? A) Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations. B) Preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations, sensorimotor. C) Preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operations, formal operations. D) Preoperational, formal operations, sensorimotor, concrete operations. Answer: A Rationale: Piaget's four stages of cognitive development occur in the following order: sensorimotor (birth to about 2 years), preoperational (about 2 to 7 years), concrete operational (about 7 to 11 years), and formal operational (adolescence to adulthood). 92) Which of the following concepts was NOT used by Piaget? A) schema B) assimilation C) accommodation D) critical period Answer: D Rationale: Piaget did not use the concept of critical period in his theory of cognitive development. Critical periods refer to specific times during development when particular stimuli or experiences are necessary for proper development to occur. 93) Adjusting behaviour or thoughts to fit new environmental demands is called _______. A) schema B) accommodation C) assimilation D) structure Answer: B Rationale: Accommodation is the process of modifying existing cognitive structures or schemas to incorporate new information or experiences encountered in the environment. 94) Piaget’s theory of intellectual development assumes that: A) children pass through certain stages at a specific age. B) children pass through a series of six sequential stages. C) children pass through a series of stages in the same order. D) children pass through stages but in no particular order and at no specified ages. Answer: C Rationale: Piaget's theory of intellectual development assumes that children pass through a series of stages in a fixed order: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. However, the timing of reaching each stage may vary among individuals. 95) _______ is most famous for his theory that all children go through a series of sequential intellectual stages. A) Ainsworth B) Bowlby C) Gesell D) Piaget Answer: D Rationale: Piaget is most famous for his theory of cognitive development, which posits that children progress through a series of sequential stages of intellectual growth. 96) The proper sequence of the intellectual stages of development are: A) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete, and formal. B) sensorimotor, concrete, preoperational, and formal. C) formal, sensorimotor, preoperational, and concrete. D) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete, and formal. Answer: D Rationale: The correct sequence of Piaget's stages of intellectual development is sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. 97) The belief that one is the centre of the world is called, by Piaget: A) animism. B) egocentrism. C) self-centring. D) centrismic thinking. Answer: B Rationale: Piaget termed the belief that one is the center of the world and that others see things from one's own perspective as egocentrism. 98) Which of the following states has as a main theme the ability to consider many possible solutions to a problem and the ability to systematically test those possibilities? A) preoperational B) sensorimotor C) formal operations D) concrete operations Answer: C Rationale: The formal operational stage, according to Piaget, is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, consider hypothetical situations, and systematically test possible solutions to problems. 99) Based on Piagetian theory, which of the following relationships is NOT correct? A) concrete operations—have attained conservation B) preoperational—animism C) formal operations—egocentrism D) sensorimotor—developing object permanence Answer: C Rationale: The relationship between formal operations and egocentrism is not correct according to Piagetian theory. Egocentrism is characteristic of the preoperational stage, not the formal operational stage. 100) According to Piaget, what are the ages for the formal operational stage? A) birth to age 2 B) age 2 to 7 C) age 7 to 11 D) beyond age 11 or 12 Answer: D Rationale: According to Piaget, the formal operational stage typically begins around age 11 or 12 and continues into adulthood, marking the stage where individuals develop abstract thinking abilities and the capacity for hypothetical reasoning. 101) What event marks the end of the Piagetian stage of sensorimotor development? A) the ability to do abstract thinking B) the ability to do reversible thinking C) the development of conservation D) the development of object permanence Answer: D Rationale: According to Piaget, the development of object permanence marks the end of the sensorimotor stage. Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not directly perceived. 102) Piaget attributed cognitive development to the interaction of what two processes? A) assimilation and accommodation B) assimilation and egocentric thinking C) egocentric thinking and conservation D) conservation and accommodation Answer: A Rationale: Piaget proposed that cognitive development occurs through the interaction of assimilation (interpreting new experiences in terms of existing cognitive structures) and accommodation (adjusting existing cognitive structures to incorporate new information or experiences). 103) Erik knows that the St. Bernard is a large dog instead of a little pony. This is an example of what Piaget called ________. A) accommodation B) assimilation C) conservation D) egocentric thinking Answer: A Rationale: Accommodation is the process of modifying existing cognitive structures to incorporate new information or experiences. In this example, Erik adjusts his understanding (accommodation) to recognize that a St. Bernard is a large dog, not a little pony. 104) The adage “Out of sight, out of mind” is most accurately applied to the early part of the _______ stage of development. A) formal operations B) concrete operations C) preoperational D) sensorimotor Answer: D Rationale: The sensorimotor stage, according to Piaget, is characterized by the development of object permanence, which means that objects continue to exist even when they are not visible. Before this understanding develops, infants may act as if objects cease to exist when they are out of sight. 105) Suppose that you show a small boy two bars of fresh fudge that are equal on all dimensions (exactly the same size, shape, and weight). You ask him if the two bars are the same and he says, "Yes." You then cut one of the bars into 10 chunks as he watches. You are surprised when he now asks if he can have the cut-up fudge because it has more candy than the intact bar. This episode illustrates that the youngster: A) probably is retarded. B) lacks the concept of object permanence. C) is in the preoperational stage. D) is in the concrete operational stage. Answer: C Rationale: This scenario demonstrates the lack of conservation, a characteristic of the preoperational stage. Children in this stage often focus on one aspect of an object and ignore other relevant dimensions, leading to misconceptions like believing that the cut-up fudge has more candy than the intact bar. 106) In which stage of cognitive development does the conservation concept first appear? A) formal operations B) concrete operations C) preoperational D) sensorimotor Answer: B Rationale: According to Piaget, the concept of conservation first appears in the concrete operational stage, typically around ages 7 to 11. Children in this stage begin to understand that certain properties of objects, such as quantity, mass, and volume, remain the same even when their outward appearance changes. 107) If a child can tell you what “Y” is equal to when you give her the equation X = Y + 10, then she is in the _______ stage of cognitive development. A) formal operations B) concrete operations C) preoperational D) sensorimotor Answer: A Rationale: The ability to solve problems involving abstract concepts and hypothetical situations, as demonstrated in algebraic thinking, is characteristic of the formal operational stage according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development. 108) Piaget’s stage theory assumes that: A) all children pass through certain stages at a specified age. B) all children pass through a series of six stages. C) all children pass through stages in the same order. D) children often skip some of the stages. Answer: C Rationale: Piaget's stage theory assumes that children pass through the stages of cognitive development in a fixed order: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. However, the timing of reaching each stage may vary among individuals. 109) Which of the following sequences of Piagetian stages is the correct order? A) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations B) preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations, sensorimotor C) concrete operations, preoperational, formal operations, sensorimotor D) sensorimotor, concrete operations, preoperational, formal operations Answer: A Rationale: The correct order of Piaget's stages of cognitive development is sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, and formal operations. 110) Preoperational, concrete operations, and formal operations are all stages devised by _______. A) Bruner B) Freud C) Skinner D) Piaget Answer: D Rationale: Preoperational, concrete operations, and formal operations are stages of cognitive development proposed by Jean Piaget. 111) Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of _______. A) cognitive development B) language development C) perceptual development D) attachment Answer: A Rationale: Jean Piaget is best known for his theory of cognitive development, which focuses on how children actively construct their understanding of the world through their experiences and interactions. This theory outlines distinct stages of development, each characterized by different cognitive abilities and ways of thinking. 112) A characteristic that first shows up in the formal operations stage is _______. A) irreversibility B) abstract thinking C) egocentrism D) logical thinking Answer: B Rationale: Abstract thinking is a hallmark characteristic of the formal operations stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development. During this stage, individuals gain the ability to think abstractly, form hypotheses, and engage in deductive reasoning. 113) A characteristic that first shows up in the concrete operations stage is _______. A) irreversibility B) abstract thinking C) egocentrism D) logical thinking Answer: D Rationale: Logical thinking is a characteristic that emerges during the concrete operations stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development. Children in this stage demonstrate the ability to think logically about concrete events and objects, but they may struggle with abstract concepts. 114) The mother of a young child who didn’t like to drink juice was trying to coax him to drink some. Taking the glass of juice, she poured it all into a smaller cup and said, "There! Now you won’t have to drink so much." She would never have fooled the child if he had not been in the _______ stage. A) preconventional B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational Answer: B Rationale: The scenario described involves the concept of conservation, which is a characteristic of the preoperational stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development. Children in this stage lack the understanding of conservation, leading them to focus on superficial changes in appearance rather than underlying quantities. 115) The basic sound units of any language are called __________. A) phonemes B) sound bytes C) semantics D) morphemes Answer: A Rationale: Phonemes are the basic units of sound in language. They are distinct sounds that differentiate words from one another in a language. Understanding phonemes is crucial for effective communication and language development. 116) The sounds of “t,” “th,” and “sh” are __________. A) semantics B) morphemes C) phonemes D) sound bytes Answer: C Rationale: "t," "th," and "sh" are examples of phonemes, which are the smallest distinct units of sound in language. These sounds help differentiate words and convey meaning in spoken language. 117) The smallest meaningful units in a language are __________. A) morphemes B) semantics C) phonemes D) processors Answer: A Rationale: Morphemes are the smallest units of meaning in language. They can be words or parts of words (prefixes, suffixes) that carry semantic significance. Understanding morphemes is essential for comprehending the meaning of words and constructing meaningful sentences. 118) Prefixes, suffixes, and words are examples of __________. A) subjugations B) semantics C) morphemes D) phonemes Answer: C Rationale: Prefixes, suffixes, and words are examples of morphemes, which are the smallest units of meaning in language. Morphemes can combine to form words and convey specific meanings within a language. 119) _______ is the system of rules that governs how we combine words to form meaningful phrases and sentences. A) syntax B) grammar C) semantics D) morphology Answer: A Rationale: Syntax refers to the rules governing the structure of sentences in a language, including word order, sentence structure, and grammatical relationships between words. It dictates how words are combined to form meaningful phrases and sentences. 120) The system of rules that governs how we assign meaning to the morphemes we use is called __________. A) syntax B) phonology C) regularization D) semantics Answer: D Rationale: Semantics is the branch of linguistics concerned with the meaning of words and sentences. It encompasses the rules and principles by which meaning is assigned to morphemes, words, and sentences within a language. 121) The strange situation procedure has been used to study _________. A) social smiling B) attachment C) identification D) dependence and independence Answer: B Rationale: The strange situation procedure, developed by Mary Ainsworth, is a research method used to assess the quality of attachment between infants and their caregivers. It involves observing how infants respond to separations and reunions with their caregivers in a controlled laboratory setting. 122) The strange situation procedure, in which researchers unobtrusively watch an infant in the presence or absence of several combinations of the child, caretaker, and stranger, is used to study _________. A) social smiling B) attachment C) identification D) dependence and independence Answer: B Rationale: The strange situation procedure is specifically designed to study attachment relationships between infants and their caregivers. By observing how infants react to separations and reunions with their caregivers in varying situations, researchers can assess the quality and nature of attachment bonds. 123) Erik is a newborn. According to Erikson, his main task will be to develop a sense of __________. A) trust B) initiative C) industry D) autonomy Answer: A Rationale: According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory, the main task of infancy (birth to 18 months) is to develop a sense of trust. This stage is characterized by the challenge of developing trust versus mistrust in the world, primarily through interactions with caregivers. 124) Erikson’s theory of social development viewed the ages of 2 to 3, his second stage, as being characterized by the major challenge of __________. A) identity versus role diffusion B) basic trust versus mistrust C) industry versus inferiority D) autonomy versus shame and doubt Answer: D Rationale: Erikson's second stage of psychosocial development, occurring during early childhood (ages 2 to 3 years), is characterized by the challenge of autonomy versus shame and doubt. During this stage, children develop a sense of independence and autonomy in their actions and decisions. 125) Erikson’s theory of social development viewed the ages of 3 to 6, his third stage, as being characterized by the major challenge of __________. A) identity versus role diffusion B) initiative versus guilt C) industry versus inferiority D) autonomy versus shame and doubt Answer: B Rationale: Erikson's third stage of psychosocial development, occurring during the preschool years (ages 3 to 6 years), is characterized by the challenge of initiative versus guilt. Children in this stage begin to assert themselves more in the world and take on responsibilities, but may experience guilt if they overstep boundaries or feel they have done something wrong. 126) The period of life between roughly the ages of 10 and 20, when a person is transformed from a child to an adult, is __________. A) puberty B) menarche C) maturation D) adolescence Answer: D Rationale: Adolescence is the developmental period spanning roughly from ages 10 to 20, marked by significant physical, cognitive, and socioemotional changes as individuals transition from childhood to adulthood. 127) Erikson saw the major challenge of young adulthood as that of ________. A) intimacy versus isolation B) identity versus role diffusion C) generativity versus stagnation D) integrity versus despair Answer: A Rationale: Erikson's stage of intimacy versus isolation occurs during young adulthood (roughly ages 20 to 40). The major challenge during this stage is forming intimate, loving relationships with others while maintaining a sense of independence and identity. 128) The major turning point in most adults’ lives is __________. A) getting their first job B) buying their first house C) dealing with aging parents D) having and raising children Answer: D Rationale: Having and raising children is often considered a major turning point in most adults' lives, as it involves significant changes in roles, responsibilities, and priorities, shaping their identity and relationships. 129) Erikson’s intimacy vs. isolation crisis would most likely be associated with which event in the family cycle? A) your last child leaving home B) your first child leaving home C) marrying D) adolescence Answer: C Rationale: Erikson's stage of intimacy versus isolation, occurring during young adulthood, is closely associated with the event of marrying or forming intimate partnerships. This stage involves the challenge of establishing close, meaningful relationships while avoiding feelings of social isolation. 130) Which of the following theorists believe that people go through stages, each of which has a “crisis” associated with it? A) Bandura B) Kohlberg C) Piaget D) Erikson Answer: D Rationale: Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory proposes that individuals go through stages of development, each characterized by a unique psychosocial crisis or challenge that must be resolved for healthy development. These crises involve conflicts between opposing tendencies or needs, such as trust versus mistrust, autonomy versus shame and doubt, and intimacy versus isolation. 131) According to Erikson, a conflict of identity vs. role confusion occurs during: A) adolescence. B) young adulthood. C) middle adulthood. D) old age. Answer: A Rationale: Erik Erikson proposed that the conflict of identity versus role confusion occurs during adolescence, typically between the ages of 12 to 18 years. During this stage, individuals struggle to develop a coherent sense of self and may experience confusion about their identity and future roles in society. 132) Erik Erikson found that each stage in personality development has a particular _______. A) crisis B) conflict C) identity D) anxiety Answer: A Rationale: According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory, each stage of personality development is characterized by a specific crisis or conflict that individuals must resolve in order to progress successfully to the next stage of development. 133) Which of the following stages is the most critical, according to Erikson? A) generativity vs. stagnation B) autonomy vs. self-doubt C) identity vs. role confusion D) trust vs. mistrust Answer: D Rationale: Erik Erikson considered the first stage of psychosocial development, trust versus mistrust (infancy), to be the most critical stage. This stage lays the foundation for the individual's overall sense of trust and security in the world, which influences subsequent stages of development. 134) According to Erikson, the last stage of development involves the crisis of: A) identity vs. role confusion B) generativity vs. stagnation C) autonomy vs. doubt D) ego integrity vs. despair Answer: D Rationale: The last stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory, occurring in late adulthood (age 65 and beyond), involves the crisis of ego integrity versus despair. During this stage, individuals reflect on their lives and accomplishments, confronting feelings of satisfaction or regret about the life they have lived. 135) An identity crisis is most likely experienced, according to Erikson, at which of the following stages? A) late childhood B) adolescence C) early adulthood D) middle adulthood Answer: B Rationale: According to Erikson, the identity crisis is most likely experienced during adolescence (ages 12 to 18 years), as individuals grapple with questions of identity, self-concept, and their place in society. 136) According to Erikson, a sense of producing and contributing to the world is called _______. A) generativity B) self-actualization C) maturation D) worthiness Answer: A Rationale: According to Erikson's theory, generativity refers to the sense of productivity and contribution to society that individuals develop during adulthood. It involves caring for and guiding the next generation, as well as making meaningful contributions to one's community and society. 137) In Erikson’s theory, children between the ages of 3 and 5 are concerned with the issue of _______. A) trust vs. mistrust B) autonomy vs. shame C) initiative vs. guilt D) industry vs. inferiority Answer: C Rationale: According to Erikson, the psychosocial crisis experienced by children between the ages of 3 and 5 is initiative versus guilt. During this stage, children explore their environment, take initiative in activities, and develop a sense of purpose and direction. However, they may also experience guilt if they believe they have done something wrong or if their efforts are met with disapproval. 138) The first stage of Erikson’s personality theory is known as: A) autonomy vs. doubt. B) trust vs. mistrust. C) initiative vs. guilt. D) industry vs. inferiority. Answer: B Rationale: The first stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory, occurring during infancy (birth to 18 months), is known as trust versus mistrust. During this stage, infants develop a sense of trust in their caregivers and the world around them, based on consistent and nurturing care. 139) Holly, at age 13, is suspicious of both friends and strangers, and very cautious before trying anything new. According to Erikson, these traits were probably formed during Holly’s passage through the stage of _______. A) introversion vs. extroversion B) trust vs. mistrust C) autonomy vs. doubt D) initiative vs. guilt Answer: B Rationale: According to Erikson's theory, traits such as suspicion of others and caution may stem from unresolved conflicts during the trust versus mistrust stage of development, which occurs during infancy. Negative experiences or inconsistent caregiving during this stage can lead to a lack of trust in others and the world. 140) Lawrence Kohlberg is noted for his theories of __________ development. A) cognitive B) social C) moral D) emotional Answer: C Rationale: Lawrence Kohlberg is best known for his theories of moral development, which focus on the development of moral reasoning and decision-making abilities throughout childhood and adolescence. Kohlberg's theory outlines stages of moral development, each characterized by increasingly complex moral reasoning and understanding of ethical principles. 141) According to Kohlberg, children interpret behaviour in terms of concrete consequences at the __________ level of moral development. A) precognitive B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional Answer: B Rationale: Kohlberg's preconventional level of moral development is characterized by a focus on obedience and avoiding punishment, as well as satisfying personal needs. At this level, individuals interpret behavior in terms of concrete consequences, such as rewards and punishments. 142) The shift to formal operational thought sets the stage for moral reasoning at the __________ level. A) conventional B) moral realism C) postconventional D) preconventional Answer: A Rationale: According to Kohlberg, the conventional level of moral development is marked by adherence to social norms and rules. The shift to formal operational thought, which occurs during adolescence, allows individuals to consider societal expectations and the perspectives of others, contributing to moral reasoning at the conventional level. 143) Katherine is nice to Sally even though she doesn’t like Sally at all, because most of her friends like Sally. Katherine is in which stage of moral development, according to Kohlberg? A) moral autonomy B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional Answer: C Rationale: Katherine's behavior of being nice to Sally to conform to social expectations reflects the conventional stage of moral development according to Kohlberg. At this stage, individuals base their moral decisions on conforming to social norms and maintaining positive relationships with others. 144) On what did Kohlberg think moral reasoning was principally based? A) decision-making skill and ability B) formal parental teachings C) parental actions D) religious teachings Answer: A Rationale: Kohlberg believed that moral reasoning was principally based on an individual's decisionmaking skills and abilities, rather than solely on external influences such as parental teachings, actions, or religious beliefs. 145) Kohlberg found that the typical responses of 7-year-old children to the moral dilemmas he presented them were at the _______ level. A) amoral B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional Answer: B Rationale: Kohlberg found that the typical responses of 7-year-old children to moral dilemmas were at the preconventional level. At this stage, children base their moral reasoning on avoiding punishment or seeking rewards. 146) Kohlberg found that the typical responses of adolescents to the moral dilemmas he presented them were at the _______ level. A) amoral B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional Answer: C Rationale: Kohlberg found that the typical responses of adolescents to moral dilemmas were at the conventional level. Adolescents begin to base their moral reasoning on conforming to societal norms and expectations. 147) Reasoning out what one should do in posed moral dilemmas based on abstract principles of right and wrong and justice illustrates the _______ level of moral development. A) preconventional B) postconventional C) conventional D) nonconventional Answer: B Rationale: Kohlberg's postconventional level of moral development is characterized by reasoning based on abstract principles of justice, human rights, and ethical principles. Individuals at this level consider universal moral principles when making moral decisions. 148) A man beat up two men who had raped his daughter. If you were asked “Was the old man right to do this?” which answer would be HIGHEST according to Kohlberg’s level of moral development? A) The man was right according to his belief that his daughter had been unjustly wronged, and he was correcting this wrong. B) The man was wrong because he could be sent to jail for beating the boys. C) The man was wrong because his neighbours would think he should have gone to the police. D) The man was right because now he is a hero in the eyes of the community. Answer: A Rationale: According to Kohlberg's postconventional level of moral development, the highest response would be option A, where the man's actions are based on an abstract moral principle of justice and protecting his daughter from harm. 149) A typical statement of someone in the _______ level of Kohlberg’s moral development would be “I'm not going to steal because I’ll probably be punished if I do.” A) conventional B) preconventional C) law-abiding D) none of the above Answer: B Rationale: This statement reflects reasoning at the preconventional level of Kohlberg's moral development, where individuals make moral decisions based on avoiding punishment or seeking rewards. 150) In the _______ level of moral development, right and wrong are decided by the probability of subsequent punishment. A) conventional B) preconventional C) law-abiding D) none of the above Answer: A Rationale: In the conventional level of Kohlberg's moral development, individuals base their moral judgments on conforming to societal norms and laws, where right and wrong are determined by the probability of subsequent punishment for breaking rules or laws. Test Bank for Psychology and Life Richard J. Gerrig, Philip G. Zimbardo, Serge Desmarais, Tammy Ivanco 9780205037117, 9780205859139