CH-4 Psychopharmacology – Foundations of Behavioral Neuroscience : Exam Guide

Chapter 4: Psychopharmacology 4.1 Multiple Choice 1) The motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease A) result from neurodegeneration of the corpus callosum. B) result from the formation of MPTP from dopamine in synaptic vesicles. C) result from the intravenous abuse of amphetamine. D) can be treated using L-DOPA. E) can be treated using drugs that activate MAO in dopamine neurons. Answer: D Rationale: The motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease can be treated using L-DOPA. 2) ________ refers to the study of the effects of drugs on the nervous system and behavior. A) Bio pharmacology B) Neuropharmacology C) Psychoimmunology D) Physio pharmacology E) Psychopharmacology Answer: E 3) ________ refers to the process by which drugs are absorbed, distributed within the body, metabolized, and then excreted from the body. A) Neuropharmacology B) Pharmacokinetics C) Drug metabolism D) Psychoimmunology E) Pharmacodynamics Answer: B 4) The fastest way for a drug to reach a site of action in the brain is via the ________ administration route. A) oral B) topical C) intravenous D) intramuscular E) intraperitoneal Answer: C 5) The ________ route requires caution because this route is most likely to result in accidental overdose. A) oral B) topical C) intravenous D) intramuscular E) intraperitoneal Answer: C Rationale: The IV route requires caution because this route is most likely to result in accidental overdose. 6) The ________ route of drug administration is commonly used to treat small laboratory animals with a drug. A) intraperitoneal B) oral C) intravascular D) topical E) intranasal Answer: A Rationale: The IP route of drug administration is commonly used to treat small laboratory animals with a drug. 7) Medicines are most commonly given to humans via the ________ route. A) intraperitoneal B) oral C) intravascular D) topical E) intranasal Answer: B Rationale: Medicines are most commonly given to humans via the oral route. 8) Administration of a drug via ________ is used when oral consumption of a drug might produce nausea and vomiting. A) injection into the gut B) the intracranial route C) a nasal patch D) oral consumption E) a rectal suppository Answer: E Rationale: Administration of a drug via a rectal suppository is used when oral consumption of a drug might produce nausea and vomiting. 9) Which term below refers to sniffing a drug so as to absorb the drug through the nasal mucosa? A) inhalation B) insufflation C) topical D) intrarectal E) sublingual Answer: B Rationale: Insufflation refers to sniffing a drug so as to absorb the drug through the nasal mucosa. 10) The rate at which a drug reaches active sites in the brain is determined mostly by its degree of A) water solubility. B) lipid solubility. C) drug metabolism via the liver. D) depot binding in blood, bone, and fat. E) drug metabolism in the kidneys. Answer: B Rationale: The rate at which a drug reaches active sites in the brain is determined mostly by its degree of lipid solubility. 11) The primary route of excretion of drugs from the body is via the A) liver. B) lungs. C) mucosa. D) kidneys. E) skin. Answer: D Rationale: The primary route of excretion of drugs from the body is via the kidneys. 12) Which of the following is true of drug effects? A) Drugs vary widely in their effectiveness. B) Drugs continue to show increases of effect even with very large doses. C) Heavier animals usually require lower drug doses than do lighter animals. D) A drug has only one effect. E) C and D are correct. Answer: A Rationale: Drugs vary widely in their effectiveness. 13) The effective dose 50 (ED50) value for Drug A is 2.0 mg/kg while its lethal dose 50 (LD50) value is 8 mg/kg. Which of the following is true of Drug A? A) Drug A is ineffective for its intended purpose. B) Drug A has a therapeutic index of 4.0. C) Drug A is safe for use in humans. D) The therapeutic index of Drug A is 0.25. E) The therapeutic index of Drug A is 25. Answer: B Rationale: Assuming that Drug A has an ED50 value of 2.0 mg/kg while its lethal dose 50 (LD50) value is 8 mg/kg, Drug A has a therapeutic index of 4.0. 14) The ________ is a measure of the safety of a drug. A) lethality score B) dose-response curve C) therapeutic index D) pharmacokinetic profile E) psychodynamic profile Answer: C 15) ________ refers to the capacity of a drug molecule to bind to a receptor. A) Dynamic capacity B) Sensitization C) Inactivation D) Affinity E) Binding capacity Answer: D 16) Which of the following is true of the relation between drug affinity and drug effects? A) A drug with high affinity for a receptor will exert an effect only at a very high dose. B) Drug affinity does not relate to drug activity. C) A drug with high affinity for a receptor will exert an effect at a low dose. D) A drug with a low affinity for a receptor will exert an effect only at a very low dose. E) A drug that has a potent behavioral effect will have a low affinity for its receptor. Answer: C Rationale: A drug with high affinity for a receptor will exert an effect at a low dose. 17) Repeated administration of a constant drug dose typically produces ________, which is defined as a(n) ________ effect of the drug. A) dynamic capacity; increased B) sensitization; reduced C) behavioral inactivation; increased D) tolerance; reduced E) homeostasis; constant Answer: D Rationale: Repeated administration of a constant drug dose typically produces tolerance, which is defined as a reduced effect of the drug over time. 18) ________ refers to an increased behavioral effect of a drug with repeated administration. A) Dynamic capacity B) Sensitization C) Inactivation D) Tolerance E) Binding capacity Answer: B 19) ________ refers to a pleasurable drug feeling that is "easy to bear." A) Euphoria B) Sensitization C) Mania D) Depression E) Dysphoria Answer: A 20) Withdrawal from heroin results in ________, which involves a feeling of anxious misery. A) euphoria B) dysphoria C) depression D) mania E) sensitization Answer: B 21) Which of the following is a compensatory mechanism that would result in drug tolerance? A) a decreased metabolism of the drug B) an increased plasma level of the drug C) an increased number of drug receptors in the brain D) a reduced number of tissue drug receptors E) an increased number of ion channel openings in response to prolonged receptor activation Answer: D Rationale: One explanation for tolerance is a reduced number of tissue drug receptors over repeated treatments. 22) A(n) ________ is an innocuous substance that has no specific physiological effect. A) placebo B) agonist C) drug D) pseudo transmitter E) ligand Answer: A 23) Drugs that block or inhibit postsynaptic receptor effects are termed A) agonists. B) ligands. C) synergists. D) antagonists. E) pheromones. Answer: D 24) Drugs that facilitate postsynaptic receptor effects are termed A) agonists. B) ligands. C) synergists. D) antagonists. E) pheromones. Answer: A 25) Injecting an animal with a dose of a chemical molecule that is a precursor for the synthesis of a synaptic neurotransmitter would be expected to A) reduce the availability of that neurotransmitter. B) increase the rate of synthesis and release of that neurotransmitter. C) alter the number of postsynaptic receptors. D) act as an antagonist at auto receptors. E) increase neurotransmitter reuptake into the axon. Answer: B Rationale: Injecting an animal with a dose of a chemical molecule that is a precursor for the synthesis of a synaptic neurotransmitter would be expected to increase the rate of synthesis and release of that neurotransmitter. 26) Blockage of _____ would be expected to decrease the levels of transmitters within the vesicles. A) presynaptic transporters B) axonal auto receptors C) vesicular transporters D) postsynaptic auto receptors E).degradation enzymes Answer: C 27) A drug that binds at a postsynaptic site different from that of the neurotransmitter and prevents the opening of ion channels would be termed a(n) A) indirect antagonist. B) ligand. C) direct synergist. D) direct antagonist. E) indirect pheromone. Answer: A Rationale: A drug that binds at a postsynaptic site different from that of the neurotransmitter and prevents the opening of ion channels would be termed an indirect antagonist. 28) Administration of a drug that binds at a postsynaptic site different from that of the neurotransmitter, and facilitates the opening of ion channels would be termed a(n) A) indirect antagonist. B) ligand. C) direct synergist. D) indirect agonist. E) indirect pheromone. Answer: D Rationale: Administration of a drug that binds at a postsynaptic site different from that of the neurotransmitter, and facilitates the opening of ion channels would be termed an indirect agonist. 29) Administration of a drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor, but does not open ion channels would be termed a(n) A) direct agonist. B) ligand. C) direct synergist. D) direct antagonist. E) indirect pheromone. Answer: D Rationale: Administration of a drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor, but does not open ion channels would be termed a direct antagonist. 30) Direct agonist is to direct antagonist as A) glycine is to rimonabant. B) morphine is to heroin. C) reserpine is to amphetamine. D) MAO is to dopamine. E) endogenous opioid is to naloxone. Answer: E Rationale: Direct agonist is to direct antagonist as endogenous opioid is to naloxone. 31) Stimulation of a presynaptic auto receptor A) reduces the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal. B) alters the uptake of the neurotransmitter into the axon terminal. C) blocks the opening of ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane. D) increases the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal. E) would be expected to act as an agonist for this synapse. Answer: A 32) A drug that blocks a presynaptic auto receptor A) reduces the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal. B) alters the uptake of the neurotransmitter into the axon terminal. C) blocks the opening of ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane. D) increases the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal. E) would be expected to act as an antagonist for this synapse. Answer: D 33) Administration of a drug that blocks acetylcholinesterase in the brain would be expected to A) permanently damage brain cholinergic neurons. B) decrease the amount of acetylcholine in the synapse. C) increase the amount of acetylcholine in the synapse. D) alter the activity of the cholinergic auto receptor. E) reduce the rate of reuptake of Ache into glial cells. Answer: C Rationale: Administration of a drug that blocks acetylcholinesterase in the brain would be expected to increase the amount of acetylcholine in the synapse. 34) A general mechanism by which postsynaptic potentials are terminated involves A) increased synthesis of the neurotransmitter molecule. B) enzymatic synthesis of the neurotransmitter molecule. C) reuptake of the neurotransmitter molecule into the axon through a membrane transporter. D) increased number of postsynaptic receptors. E) diffusion into glial cells. Answer: C Rationale: A general mechanism by which postsynaptic potentials are terminated involves reuptake of the neurotransmitter molecule into the axon through a membrane transporter. 35) The axons of most sensory neurons release the neurotransmitter A) glycine. B) GABA. C) dopamine. D) glutamate. E) acetylcholine. Answer: D 36) Which of the following is true of ACh? A) Ach is a key transmitter for the control of feeding. B) The effects of ACh in the brain are mostly inhibitory. C) Elements of REM sleep are controlled by ACh in the medulla. D) Learning is facilitated by ACh activity in the basal forebrain. E) Ach controls mood and emotion. Answer: D 37) Which neurotransmitter acts to facilitate learning? A) dopamine B) dorepinephrine C) acetylcholine D) serotonin E) GABA Answer: C Rationale: Learning is facilitated by acetylcholine. 38) Match up the transmitter substance below with the appropriate behavioral role or action of that transmitter. A) acetylcholine; facilitates of learning B) dopamine; suppresses certain species-typical behaviors C) norepinephrine; facilitates of learning D) serotonin; increases vigilance E) GABA; generally activates voluntary movements Answer: A Rationale: Acetylcholine is known to facilitate learning. 39) ________ is the primary efferent neurotransmitter secreted by efferent axons of the CNS. A) Dopamine B) Norepinephrine C) Acetylcholine D) Serotonin E) GABA Answer: C Rationale: Acetylcholine is the primary efferent neurotransmitter secreted by efferent axons of the CNS. 40) Damage to which cholinergic system would be expected to impair learning? A) dorsolateral pons ACh system B) hypothalamocortical ACh system C) basal forebrain ACh system D) medial septal ACh system E) corticospinal ACh system Answer: C Rationale: Damage to the basal forebrain ACh system would be expected to impair learning. 41) Which of the following neuron systems that use ACh has been related to the control of REM sleep? A) dorsolateral pons ACh system B) hypothalamocortical ACh system C) basal forebrain ACh system D) medial septal ACh system E) nigrostriatal Ach system Answer: A Rationale: The dorsolateral pons ACh system is involved in the control of REM sleep. 42) ________ is the enzyme that accepts an acetate ion from coenzyme A and transfers it to a choline molecule, thereby producing acetylcholine. A) Acetylcholinesterase B) Coenzyme A C) Muscarine transferase D) Choline acetyltransferase E) Nicotine synthase Answer: D 43) Which pair of drugs below are known to facilitate and inhibit (respectively) the release of ACh? A) black widow spider venom; botulinum toxin B) botulinum toxin; muscarine C) botulinum toxin; black widow spider venom D) botulinum toxin; nicotine E) black widow spider venom; muscarine Answer: A Rationale: Black widow spider venom and botulinum toxin, respectively, are known to facilitate and inhibit the release of Ach. 44) Botox injections smooth the skin of the face by A) causing the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. B) activating the parasympathetic nervous system, thereby inducing relaxation. C) dissolving fatty deposits in the skin. D) causing increased blood flow to the facial muscles. E) blocking the activity of muscles in the face. Answer: E Rationale: Botox injections smooth the skin of the face by blocking the activity of muscles in the face. 45) The muscle weakness associated with myasthenia gravis reflects A) too many ACh receptors on cardiac muscles. B) reduced ACh function in the basal forebrain. C) loss of ACh receptors on skeletal muscles. D) reduced ACh function in the dorsolateral pons. E) an enhanced release of glycine onto spinal cord motoneurons. Answer: C 46) The primary means by which the postsynaptic action of acetylcholine is terminated is via A) enzymatic destruction by acetylcholinesterase. B) reuptake of acetylcholine into the presynaptic terminal. C) reuptake of choline into the presynaptic terminal. D) diffusion away from the synapse. E) reduced synthesis of choline. Answer: A 47) Nicotine receptors are found in ________ in the periphery and in ________ in the brain. A) cardiac fibers; glial cells B) muscle fibers; axoaxonic synapses C) the pupils; axoaxonic synapses D) cardiac fibers; axo-dendritic synapses E) the lungs; axo-dendritic synapses Answer: B 48) Which pair of drugs below are antagonists for the muscarinic and nicotinic (respectively) receptors? A) atropine; curare B) hemicholium; atropine C) curare; atropine D) muscarine; nicotine E) acetylcholinesterase; choline acetyltransferase Answer: A Rationale: Atropine and curare are antagonists for the muscarinic and nicotinic (respectively) receptors. 49) ________ causes pupil dilation by blocking ________ receptors. A) Cocaine; dopaminergic B) Atropine; muscarinic C) Curare; muscarinic D) Belladona; adrenergic E) Muscarine; nicotinic Answer: B Rationale: Atropine causes pupil dilation by blocking muscarinic receptors. 50) ________ is the synthesis precursor for dopamine. A) Tyrosine B) Tryptophan C) Norepinephrine D) Tyramine E) Trypsin Answer: A 51) Which neurotransmitter activates voluntary movements and reinforces behavior? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) acetylcholine D) serotonin E) GABA Answer: A 52) Damage to which dopaminergic (DA) system would be expected to produce muscle tremors, limb rigidity, and difficulty in movement control? A) nigrostriatal DA system B) hypothalamocortical DA system C) mesocortical DA system D) nesolimbic DA system E) corticospinal DA system Answer: A Rationale: Damage to the nigrostriatal dopaminergic (DA) system would be expected to produce muscle tremors, limb rigidity, and difficulty in movement control. 53) Parkinson's disease involves the degeneration of neurons within the ________ DA system. A) nigrostriatal B) mesocortical C) hypothalamocortical D) mesolimbic E) retinal-suprachiasmatic Answer: A Rationale: Parkinson's disease involves the degeneration of neurons within nigrostriatal dopamine system. 54) Which of the following would be expected to result from administration of reserpine? A) The person would become quite agitated.. B) The person would be expected to have lower blood pressure. C) More dopamine would be released into the brain synapses of the person. D) More norepinephrine would be released into the brain synapses of the person. E) Vesicles would contain more dopamine. Answer: B 55) Which of the following is true of dopamine receptors? A) Dopamine receptors are metabotropic. B) Dopamine receptors are ionotropic. C) D1 receptors are located on the presynaptic membrane. D) D2 receptors are only found on postsynaptic membranes. E) Cyclic AMP is increased by activation of D1 and D2 receptors. Answer: A 56) A drug such as amphetamine, which causes the transporters for dopamine to run in reverse, would A) increase the synthesis of dopamine. B) enhance the reuptake of dopamine. C) antagonize the postsynaptic receptors for dopamine. D) spill dopamine into the synaptic cleft. E) decrease the metabolism of dopamine. Answer: D Rationale: A drug such as amphetamine, which causes the transporters for dopamine to run in reverse, would spill dopamine into the synaptic cleft. 57) Drugs that inactivate monoamine oxidase would be expected to A) reduce dopamine levels within the blood. B) elevate acetylcholine levels within the muscles. C) reduce serotonin levels in the synaptic cleft. D) cause the release of serotonin into the synaptic cleft. E) increase dopamine levels within neurons. Answer: E Rationale: Drugs that inactivate monoamine oxidase would be expected to increase dopamine levels within neurons. 58) Schizophrenia is treated with drugs that block a subtype of the ________ receptor.. A) GABA B) gkycine C) ACh D) dopamine E) Norepinephrine Answer: D Rationale: Schizophrenia is treated with drugs that block a subtype of the dopamine receptor. 59) Two conditions associated with abnormal brain dopamine levels are A) depression and Parkinson's disease. B) schizophrenia and Parkinson's disease. C) Alzheimer's disease and schizophrenia. D) Parkinson's disease and Huntington's chorea. E) mood disorder and depression. Answer: B 60) Deprenyl may delay the progression of symptoms in Parkinson's disease because this drug A) facilitates monoamine oxidase-A. B) reduces dopamine activity in the synapse. C) inhibits monoamine oxidase-B. D) acts on dopamine autoreceptors. E) is a potent D1/D2 agonist. Answer: C Rationale: Deprenyl may delay the progression of symptoms in Parkinson's disease because this drug inhibits monoamine oxidase-B. 61) The final synthesis step for norepinephrine requires the presence of ______ A) serotonin B) dopamine C) glycine D) ACHe E) epinephrine Answer: B 62) Which of the pairs below are synonymous? A) epinephrine and adrenalin B) nicotine and muscarine C) noradrenalin and muscarine D) serotonin and dopamine E) glycine and GABA Answer: A 63) Which neurotransmitter acts to promote vigilance? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) acetylcholine D) serotonin E) GABA Answer: B Rationale: Norepinephrine acts to promote vigilance. 64) The auto receptor for norepinephrine in brain is of the ________ adrenergic receptor subtype. A) α1 B) β1 C) β2 D) α2 E) All of the above are correct. Answer: D 65) Serotonin is synthesized from A) tyrosine. B) tyramine. C) tryptophan. D) MAO. E) epinephrine. Answer: C 66) Drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin or that cause the release of serotonin are used therapeutically to treat A) anorexia B) depression. C) some forms of acne disorder. D) high blood pressure E) allergies. Answer: B Rationale: Drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin or that cause the release of serotonin are used therapeutically to treat depression. 67) Many of the axons that use serotonin as a transmitter originate from the A) substantia nigra. B) red nucleus. C) axonal varicosities. D) dorsal raphe nucleus. E) ventral tegmental area. Answer: D Rationale: Many of the axons that use serotonin as a transmitter originate from the dorsal raphe nucleus. 68) The drug ________ releases serotonin and has been used to treat ________. A) fluoxetine; depression B) fenfluramine; obesity C) amphetamine; obesity D) reserpine; obesity E) fluoxetine; mania Answer: A Rationale: The drug fluoxetine releases serotonin and has been used to treat depression. 69) Which of the following neurochemical effects may contribute to the capacity of ecstasy (MDMA) to produce hallucinogenic effects in users? A) MDMA blocks norepinephrine reuptake and causes norepinephrine transporters to run in reverse. B) MDMA blocks dopamine receptors. C) MDMA destroys brain GABA neurons. D) MDMA blocks serotonin reuptake and causes serotonin transporters to run in reverse. E) MDMA activates glutamate receptors. Answer: D Rationale: The ability of ecstasy (MDMA) to block serotonin reuptake and cause serotonin transporters to run in reverse may contribute to the capacity of MDMA to produce hallucinogenic effects in users. 70) Which of the following represents a problem for the hypothesis that amino acids can function as neurotransmitters? A) Amino acids can be released from nerve terminals. B) EPSPs and IPSPs are produced by application of amino acids onto neurons. C) Amino acids are localized within neurons. D) Amino acids play a role in protein synthesis for all nerve cells. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Rationale: The fact that amino acids play a role in protein synthesis for all nerve cells is a problem for the hypothesis that amino acids can function as neurotransmitters. 71) The significance attached to glutamate, GABA, and glycine is that these are A) involved in Parkinson's disease. B) known to be solely inhibitory in the PNS. C) the predominant neuromodulators in the CNS. D) the most common neurotransmitters in the CNS. E) the major excitatory neurotransmitters in the PNS. Answer: D Rationale: The significance attached to glutamate, GABA, and glycine is that these are the most common neurotransmitters in the CNS. 72) Which pair of transmitter substances is most involved in synaptic neurotransmission in brain? A) glutamate; acetylcholine B) GABA; glycine C) glutamate; GABA D) glycine; acetylcholine E) acetylcholine; dopamine Answer: C 73) The hallucinogenic drug PCP (phencyclidine) A) is an indirect antagonist of the NMDA receptor. B) facilitates the binding of glutamate to the AMPA receptor. C) releases serotonin from neurons in the raphe nuclei. D) inhibits the dendrites of dopamine neurons in the ventral tegmental area. E) acts via the blockade of serotonin receptors. Answer: A Rationale: The hallucinogenic drug PCP (phencyclidine) is an indirect antagonist of the NMDA receptor. 74) Which of the following true of NMDA receptors? A) Activation of the NMDA receptor allows sodium and calcium ions into the nerve cell. B) NMDA receptors are metabotropic. C) Glutamate is an antagonist for the NMDA receptor. D) The activity of the NMDA receptor is not dependent on magnesium ions. E) The NMDA receptor produces IPSPs. Answer: A Rationale: Activation of the NMDA receptor allows sodium and calcium ions into the nerve cell. 75) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is produced from A) bucolic acid. B) butyric acid. C) glutamic acid. D) glycine. E) Iysergic acid. Answer: C 76) Withdrawal from ________ can result in seizures due to the loss of inhibitory action on ________ receptors. A) THC; CB2 B) alcohol; D1 and D2 C) THC; D1 and D2 D) MDMA; CB2 E) alcohol; NMDA Answer: E Rationale: Withdrawal from alcohol can result in seizures due to the loss of inhibitory action on NMDA receptors. 77) Which of the following is true of GABA? A) GABA has a general excitatory effect. B) GABA is involved in Parkinson's disease. C) An excess of GABA may result in epilepsy. D) The inhibitory effects of GABA act stabilize brain electrical activity. E) Loss of GABA function will reduce anxiety. Answer: D Rationale: The inhibitory effects of GABA act stabilize brain electrical activity. 78) The GABAA receptor is a(n) ________ receptor that controls a ________ channel. A) ionotropic; chloride B) ionotropic; potassium C) metabotropic; chloride D) metabotropic; potassium E) ionotropic; sodium Answer: A Rationale: The GABAA receptor is an ionotropic receptor that controls a chloride channel. 79) Match the drug with its correct action on GABA function. A) fenfluramine; agonist at the GABAA receptor B) picrotoxin; indirect antagonist of the GABAA receptor C) diazepam; reduces the activity of GABAA receptors D) baclofen; antagonist at the GABAA receptor E) THC; antagonist at the GABAA receptor Answer: B Rationale: Picrotoxin is an indirect antagonist of the GABAA receptor. 80) Match the drug with its correct action on GABA function. A) muscimol; direct agonist at the GABAA receptor B) picrotoxin; indirect antagonist of the GABAB receptor C) diazepam; indirect antagonist of GABAA receptors D) baclofen; antagonist at the GABAA receptor E) THC ; agonist at the GABAA receptor Answer: A Rationale: Muscimol is a direct agonist at the GABAA receptor. 81) Which of the following is true of glycine? A) The glycine receptor opens sodium channels and thus induces IPSPs. B) Lockjaw is produced by an excess amount of glycine in the brain. C) Glycine is an excitatory neurotransmitter in the peripheral nervous system. D) The toxicity of strychnine results from its activation of glycine receptors. E) The glycine receptor is ionotropic. Answer: E Rationale: The glycine receptor is ionotropic. 82) Which of the following is an agonist at the glycine receptor? A) baclofen B) glycine C) muscimol D) GABA E) strychnine Answer: B 83) A key difference between neuropeptides and monoamine neurotransmitters is that neuropeptides A) are not terminated by reuptake into axon terminals. B) are not packaged within vesicles. C) do not act via receptors. D) are not synthesized in the neuron soma. E) are secreted only from the active zone of an axon terminal. Answer: A Rationale: A key difference between neuropeptides and monoamine neurotransmitters is that neuropeptides are not terminated by reuptake into axon terminals. 84) The term "opioid" refers to ________, while the term "opiates" refers to ________. A) postsynaptic receptors; endogenous chemicals B) exogenous drugs; endogenous chemicals C) presynaptic receptors; postsynaptic receptors D) analgesic chemicals released from glial cells; auto receptors E) endogenous chemicals; exogenous drugs Answer: E 85) Which of the following is true of opioid systems and effects? A) Opioids reduce appetite. B) Opioids are commonly used to induce diarrhea. C) Heroin is an opioid receptor antagonist. D) Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist. E) Opioid drugs enhance the aversiveness of pain. Answer: D 86) Imagine that you are suffering from severe pain and that you have the opportunity to request a drug to alleviate the pain. Which of the following drugs should you ask for? A) an opiate that produces analgesia only at high doses B) naloxone C) caffeine D) an opiate that produces analgesia at low doses E) a drug that blocks GABA receptors Answer: D Rationale: The best choice to alleviate pain would be an opiate that produces analgesia at low doses. 87) A person who is admitted to a hospital emergency room with an opiate overdose is likely to be treated with A) heroin. B) THC. C) naloxone. D) mu opioid receptor agonists. E) kappa opioid receptor agonists. Answer: C Rationale: Naloxone is used to reverse opiate overdose. 88) Which of the following is characteristic of cannabinoid receptors? A) Receptor inactivation results in analgesia. B) THC is a drug that inactivates the cannabinoid receptors. C) Receptor activation by THC can stimulate appetite. D) Receptor activation by THC reduces nausea and vomiting. E) CB1 receptors are found in high levels in the brainstem. Answer: D 89) Caffeine produces excitatory effects via A) induction of the release of dopamine. B) alteration of the flow of blood to the brain. C) stimulation of GABA receptors. D) activation of adenosine receptors. E) blockade of adenosine receptors. Answer: E 90) A key stimulus for the release of adenosine from brain cells is A) low blood insulin levels. B) high levels of triglycerides and glucose in plasma. C) an energy/oxygen deficit in cells. D) consumption of caffeine. E) high levels of insulin. Answer: C 91) Nitric oxide A) is an insoluble gas. B) acts as a messenger between glial cells. C) stimulates blood vessels that produce penile erections. D) constricts blood vessels in metabolically active brain regions. E) is an important transmitter for mood and emotion. Answer: C Rationale: Nitric oxide stimulates blood vessels that produce penile erections. 92) Treatment with a drug that inhibits MAO may slow down the progression of Parkinson's disease because A) MAO may metabolize environmental chemicals into toxins that damage dopamine neurons. B) MAO reduces the availability of dopamine in brain neurons. C) MAO metabolizes serotonin, which in turn inhibits dopamine activity. D) Parkinson's results from consumption of MPTP. E) B and C are correct. Answer: A Rationale: Treatment with a drug that inhibits MAO may slow down the progression of Parkinson's disease because MAO may metabolize environmental chemicals into toxins that damage dopamine neurons. 4.2 True-False 1) Injections for a rat are most commonly given via the intraperitoneal route. Answer: True 2) Physicians must use caution when prescribing a drug that has a large therapeutic index. Answer: False 3) A drug that releases a transmitter substance is called an antagonist for the synapse. Answer: False 4) The term "direct antagonist" is synonymous with "receptor blocker." Answer: True 5) A drug that blocks or slows reuptake of a transmitter substance is termed an antagonist. Answer: False 6) Glutamate is the universal transmitter by which sensory organs transmit information to the brain. Answer: False 7) REM sleep is controlled by cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain. Answer: False 8) Learning is facilitated by ACh activity in the basal forebrain. Answer: True 9) Black widow spider venom releases ACh from neurons. Answer: True 10) Acetylcholine is inactivated by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. Answer: True 11) Myasthenia gravis involves decreased release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction. Answer: False 12) The amino acid tyrosine is the precursor for the synthesis of norepinephrine. Answer: True 13) Amphetamine is used to treat Parkinson's disease. Answer: False 14) Noradrenergic synapses in the CNS are of the metabotropic type. Answer: True 15) Glutamate is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain. Answer: True 16) Benzodiazepines and alcohol increase the effectiveness of GABA receptors. Answer: True 17) Glycine is the primary inhibitory transmitter in the brain stem and spinal cord. Answer: True 18) Neuropeptides are removed from the synapse by membrane transporters. Answer: False 19) THC interferes with concentration and memory and can distort our sense of time. Answer: True 20) Caffeine acts by blocking adenosine receptors. Answer: True 4.3 Short-Answer Essay 1) Describe the major components of pharmacokinetics. Answer: Pharmacokinetics involves the administration of a drug into the body, its absorption into the blood, its distribution within the tissues of the body, and the metabolism/elimination of the drug from the body. 2) Explain what is meant by a therapeutic index (TI). Answer: The TI represents the difference in dose response curves for a therapeutic effect (e.g., reduction of appetite) versus a toxic effect (e.g., a dose required to induce seizures). A drug with a low TI value requires caution when prescribing. 3) Compare and contrast drug tolerance with drug sensitization. Answer: Repeated drug administration can result in reduced drug action (tolerance) or enhanced drug action (sensitization). Tolerance may represent increased drug clearance or reduced action at receptor sites. 4) Explain what is meant by a placebo effect. Answer: The term placebo refers to an innocuous substance that has no specific effect. A placebo effect is when a placebo induces a change in the body owing to a person's belief in the effectiveness of the placebo. An example would be a change in pain perception after given a fake injection of morphine. 5) Contrast the location and function of auto receptors with postsynaptic receptors. Answer: Auto receptors provide negative feedback onto either synthesis of neurotransmitters or to inhibit the release of transmitter; these are metabotropic effects involving second messengers. Postsynaptic receptors bind transmitter and either directly control an ion channel (ionotropic) or use a second messenger to control an ion channel (metabotropic). 6) What is the advantage of reuptake over enzymatic degradation in the termination of neurotransmitter postsynaptic effects? Answer: Reuptake transports the neurotransmitter molecule into the presynaptic terminal button where it can be moved into a vesicle for release into the cleft. Degradation cleaves the molecule into biologically inactive components. Restoration of the molecule will require all of the components required for synthesis. Reuptake is economical as it pertains to synthesis of the transmitter molecule. 7) Compare and contrast functions and locations of the two types of acetylcholine receptors. Answer: Nicotinic receptors are ionotropic and are located on muscle fibers and in the brain. Muscarinic receptors are metabotropic and are located only in the brain. ACh is an agonist for both receptors. Curare blocks nicotinic receptors, while atropine blocks muscarinic receptors. 8) Explain why blockade of serotonin reuptake is a common drug strategy for the treatment of certain mental disorders. Answer: Several mental disorders are related to reduced brain levels of serotonin (e.g., depression). Blockade of serotonin reuptake increases synaptic transmitter levels, which would be expected to ameliorate such disorders. 9) Describe the major functions of glutamate in neurotransmission. Answer: Glutamate is the primary excitatory amino acid transmitter in the brain and is thought to exert effects via four receptor types (NMDA, AMPA, kainate, and metabotropic glutamate receptor). Glutamate may play a role in cognition and in memory. 10) Describe the varied effects of the activation of opiate receptors in the brain. Answer: There are at least three classes of opiate receptors in brain (mu, delta, and kappa). Activation of these receptors results in analgesia and euphoria. 4.4 Essay 1) Draw a diagram that represents a terminal button and postsynaptic neuron. Indicate in this diagram at least eight ways that drugs can affect synaptic transmission and give an example of each. Answer: This would involve the student reproducing Fig 4.4 on page 83. Here's the diagram that represents a terminal button and postsynaptic neuron, along with eight ways that drugs can affect synaptic transmission: Diagram Description • Presynaptic Terminal (Axon Terminal): • Contains synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitters. • Synaptic Cleft: • The gap between the presynaptic terminal and the postsynaptic neuron. • Postsynaptic Neuron: • Contains receptors for neurotransmitters on its membrane. Ways Drugs Can Affect Synaptic Transmission 1. Synthesis of Neurotransmitters (NT) • Example: L-DOPA increases the synthesis of dopamine. 2. Storage of Neurotransmitters in Vesicles • Example: Reserpine prevents the storage of norepinephrine (NE), reducing its availability. 3. Release of Neurotransmitters • Example: Botulinum toxin inhibits the release of acetylcholine (ACh), causing muscle paralysis. 4. Binding to Receptors • Example: Nicotine binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, mimicking acetylcholine. 5. Blocking Receptors • Example: Haloperidol blocks dopamine receptors to reduce symptoms of schizophrenia. 6. Reuptake of Neurotransmitters • Example: Fluoxetine (an SSRI) inhibits the reuptake of serotonin, increasing its availability. 7. Degradation of Neurotransmitters • Example: MAO inhibitors prevent the breakdown of monoamines, increasing their levels. 8. Second Messenger Systems • Example: Lithium affects second messenger systems within the neuron to stabilize mood in bipolar disorder. This diagram visually represents the presynaptic terminal, synaptic cleft, and postsynaptic neuron, along with the key ways drugs can influence synaptic transmission. 2) Describe the synthesis of acetylcholine. List three different treatments that would act to alter the release of acetylcholine. Answer: ACh is formed from choline and acetyl-CoA in the presence of choline acetyltransferase. ACh is released into synapses and has effects at 2 receptor types: nicotinic and muscarinic. Action potentials release ACh; botulinum toxin prevents ACh release; black widow spider venom stimulates ACh release. 3) Describe the synthesis of dopamine and diagram the postsynaptic dopamine receptor subtypes. Identify the most common dopamine agonists and antagonists and describe their mechanisms of action. Answer: DA is synthesized from tyrosine and then L-DOPA. Dopamine acts via 2 families of receptors: the D1 and D2 receptors. D1 receptors are postsynaptic and linked to increased cyclic AMP, whereas D2 receptors are found pre- and post synaptically and are negatively coupled to cyclic AMP. DA auto receptors inhibit the presynaptic cell. 4) Describe the four different subtypes of noradrenergic receptors in the brain. How are these receptors differentiated from one another? Answer: Norepinephrine and epinephrine are the agonists for the alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Each is divided into 2 subclasses, which are differentiated by their relative reaction to agonists and antagonists. 5) Explain how nitric oxide exerts an effect on adjacent neurons in the body. Answer: Nitric oxide is produced in nerve cells and diffuses out of the cells to exert effects on second messenger systems in adjacent cells (e.g., cyclic AMP). NO has effects in the periphery (intestinal muscle contraction) and in the brain. Test Bank for Foundations of Behavioral Neuroscience Neil R. Carlson 9780205968091, 9780134639796, 9780205947997