Chapter 6: Anxiety Disorders Multiple Choice 1. According to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), in any given year, what percent of adults suffer from at least one type of anxiety disorder? a. 6 percent b. 18 percent c. 24 percent d. 36 percent Answer: b. 2. The close relationship between symptoms of anxiety and the symptoms for depression suggests that a. anxiety and depression are really the same emotion. b. these disorders may share common etiological features. c. psychological testing is needed to tell them apart. d. anxiety and depression are not true mental disorders. Answer: b. 3. In which of these situations would an agoraphobic be most likely to exhibit avoidance or fear? a. touching an insect b. swimming in a backyard pool c. being at the top of a tall building d. sitting in the middle of a row in a crowded theater Answer: d. 4. According to the case study of the writer presented in your textbook, why would individuals with agoraphobia feel terrified of crowds? a. They fear people. b. They are paranoid. c. They have low self-esteem. d. They fear not being able to escape. Answer: d. 5. Anxiety is a reaction to a. avoidance. b. impaired insight. c. anticipated future problems. d. an immediate threat from the environment. Answer: c. 6. Which of the following statements about anxiety is true? a. Anxiety is a more severe emotion than depression. b. Anxiety is a less severe emotion than depression. c. Anxiety can be adaptive at low levels. d. Anxiety is always adaptive. Answer: c. 7. In what way is fear different from anxiety? a. Fear is more general. b. Fear occurs appropriately in the face of real danger. c. Fear is associated with anticipation of future problems. d. Fear is out of proportion to threats from the environment. Answer: b. 8. Which of the following is typically associated with an anxious mood? a. fainting and cramps b. preoccupation with other people c. pessimistic thoughts and feelings d. organization and rehearsal of adaptive responses Answer: c. 9. Barlow suggests that anxious apprehension involves which of the following? a. immediate danger b. specific negative emotions c. a preoccupation with others d. a sense of uncontrollability Answer: d. 10. Worry is a relatively uncontrollable sequence of negative emotional thoughts and images concerned with a. immediate danger. b. physiological hypoarousal. c. absence of positive affect. d. possible future threats or dangers. Answer: d. 11. Worriers are preoccupied with _______ rather than unpleasant visual images. a. fears b. fantasies c. affects d. “self talk” Answer: d. 12. People who worry excessively usually report that their worries are not a. realistic. b. distressing. c. excessive. d. hard to control. Answer: a. 13. According to the DSM, which of the following questions would be most useful in distinguishing a panic attack from anxiety? a. Do you experience a lot of nightmares? b. Would you describe your symptoms as distressing? c. Do your symptoms reach peak intensity within 10 minutes? d. Are your symptoms difficult for you to control? Answer: c. 14. To say that panic is like a "false alarm" means that panic is a. a normal fear response triggered at an inappropriate time. b. a deliberate attempt to seek attention. c. very different from the normal fear response. d. easily dismissed as harmless. Answer: a. 15. Compared to anxiety, a panic attack tends to be a. sudden. b. longer in duration. c. less intense. d. less like a normal fear response. Answer: a. 16. Which of the following is one of the DSM-5 criteria used to identify panic attack? a. shows gradual build-up over several days b. reaches peak intensity within 10 minutes c. involves a blend of several negative emotions d. involves preoccupation with words rather than images Answer: b. 17. Which of the following statements about panic attacks is true? a. Panic attacks are always cued. b. Panic attacks are always unexpected. c. Panic attacks are sometimes cued, sometimes unexpected. d. Panic attacks that are cued are less severe than unexpected panic attacks. Answer: c. 18. Under what circumstances is a panic attack said to be cued? a. when it occurs only in predictable situations b. when it occurs without warning or "out of the blue" c. when it is triggered by real, not imagined, dangers d. when it is triggered by imagined, not real, dangers Answer: a. 19. Which of the following situations is most likely to be associated with the development of a panic attack? a. Al was out walking his dog when another dog barked loudly. b. When Al was four years old, he almost drowned at the beach. c. Al misinterpreted a sudden increase in his heart rate as evidence of a heart attack. d. Al feels constantly on edge as a result of a long list of worries at work and at home. Answer: c. 20. Which of the following is appropriately matched? a. acrophobia: fear of heights b. claustrophobia: fear of open spaces c. altaphobia: fear of flying d. hemophobia: fear of insects Answer: a. 21. Fear is not considered phobic unless a. the person avoids contact with the source of the fear or experiences intense anxiety in the presence of the feared stimulus. b. the fear is generalized to more than one stimulus. c. the person has a failed attempt to repress the fear. d. the person experiences a parasympathetic storm. Answer: a. 22. Repetitive, unwanted, intrusive cognitive events in the form of thoughts, images, or impulses that intrude suddenly into consciousness are called a. phobias. b. disorders. c. obsessions. d. compulsions. Answer: c. 23. What are compulsions? a. a type of obsession b. normal feelings of drive c. intrusive, unwanted thoughts d. irrational, repetitive behaviors Answer: d. 24. How do patients typically view their compulsions? a. as very pleasurable b. as making sense c. as senseless and irrational d. as necessary to their survival Answer: c. 25. What motivated Ed, in the case presented in your text, to rush to the mailbox and tear open an envelope containing a form that he had just completed? a. He feared he would let down his company if his work was not perfect. b. He was afraid that his writing contained symbolic representations of hidden sexual desires. c. He thought his writing of a particular letter would be associated with the strangulation of his wife. d. He thought the evil voices he heard would punish him for his failure to follow their plan as they had instructed. Answer: c. 26. How do clinical obsessions differ from normal obsessions? a. They differ in degree rather than kind. b. Clinical obsessions are more visually oriented. c. The content of the reported images is different. d. Clinical obsessions are more likely to be acted upon. Answer: a. 27. After studying her patients' compulsions, what is a clinician most likely to conclude about their effects? a. The compulsions reduce anxiety and increase pleasure. b. The compulsions increase anxiety, but also increase pleasure. c. The compulsions reduce anxiety, but do not increase pleasure. d. The compulsions increase anxiety, and do not increase pleasure Answer: c. 28. Compulsives can sometimes resist their compulsions, but they usually return to their compulsive behavior because they a. will become more distressed if they do not engage in the compulsive behavior. b. miss the pleasure produced by their compulsions. c. do not view their compulsions as a problem. d. need the attention that their compulsive behaviors attracts. Answer: a. 29. You are starting a research project in which you wish to compare the everyday compulsive behavior of individuals not diagnosed with a mental disorder with the most common forms of compulsive behavior found in those diagnosed with OCD. What are the two most common forms of compulsion found in those so diagnosed? a. eating and dressing b. escape and avoidance c. checking and cleaning d. counting and collecting Answer: c. 30. Amy loves collecting coffee mugs and has been collecting them for years. At the drop of a hat, she will launch into a discussion of her collection, the price of mugs, and her plans for purchasing more mugs. Her friends say she must have obsessive-compulsive disorder. You disagree. What do you say to her friends when they ask why you disagree? a. Unlike an obsessive-compulsive, Amy derives pleasure from this activity. b. Although Amy experiences anxiety, it is the result of a deep-seated conflict. c. Amy is actually suffering from depression, which she hides by engaging in mug collecting. d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is an inherited disorder and there is no evidence that other family members have the disorder. Answer: a. 31. During the first half of the twentieth century, psychiatrists tended to adopt a generalized position with regard to anxiety disorder. In other words they a. lumped together the various anxiety disorders. b. only defined “generalized anxiety disorder.” c. focused on an integrated and unified definition of anxiety. d. defined anxiety only in psychotic disorders. Answer: a. 32. The impact of the current shift in classification in the DSM-5 is increased precision. This means that a. the new organizational structure for these disorders reflects a major shift in our understanding of the causes of these disorders. b. dramatic improvement in the efficacy of treatment methods aimed at specific types of disorder is now possible. c. arguments about the relative merits of lumping and splitting in the classification of mental disorders are all now moot. d. the essential features and diagnostic boundaries of these conditions have been clarified. Answer: d. 33. DSM-5 approach to classifying anxiety disorders is based primarily on a. a psychodynamic model of the cause of each disorder. b. descriptive features of each disorder. c. specific scores on tests of anxiety. d. a dimensional approach. Answer: b. 34. Which of the following are contained in the current DSM categories of phobias? a. linguistic, natural, and symbolic b. neurotic, physical, and psychotic c. agoraphobia, social, and specific d. generalized, antisocial, and nonspecific Answer: c. 35. A differential diagnosis between social and specific phobia is a bit tricky. You need to look for the most important difference between social phobia and specific phobia, which is that social phobia a. does not involve avoidance. b. involves both the element of performance and interpersonal interactions. c. is much less distressing. d. also involves the element of panic. Answer: b. 36. In which situation might a person exhibit a social phobia? a. performing at a concert b. watching a concert on TV c. going for a walk d. having one's name called over the loudspeaker at a concert Answer: a. 37. Bill worries about a long list of concerns. He finds himself constantly thinking about these topics at work, when he exercises, and as he tries to sleep. He is easily fatigued, can't concentrate, and is often restless. He has been worrying like this for the past year. Bill seems to meet the criteria for the diagnosis of a. agoraphobia. b. social phobia. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. Answer: c. 38. Tim has been worried about his grades for more than three months. After hearing about the diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder, he becomes convinced that he has the disorder himself. After seeing a mental health professional, what is he told? a. He is actually suffering from the early stages of panic disorder. b. His concern over grades is more indicative of obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. He does not meet the criteria for generalized anxiety disorder in terms of length of time and number of worries. d. The focus of his worry suggests that he is suffering from a phobic reaction rather than a generalized anxiety disorder. Answer: c. 39. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is one of the most controversial anxiety disorders because a. the diagnostic reliability of GAD is lower than that of other anxiety disorders. b. the symptoms of GAD primarily involve depression. c. the criteria for GAD do not involve any reference to etiology. d. the symptoms of GAD are no different than normal worrying. Answer: a. 40. What must a person demonstrate in order to be diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. a history of phobias b. free-floating anxiety c. both obsessions and compulsions d. realization that the obsessions or compulsions are excessive or unreasonable Answer: d. 41. What is an essential element of the diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. The obsessions develop in response to the compulsions. b. The person engages in compulsions, which increases anxiety. c. The person's sleep is disrupted by nightmares. d. The person tries to ignore, suppress, or neutralize the unwanted thoughts or impulses. Answer: d. 42. In the theoretical debate around the nature of anxiety disorders, those who suggest that all anxiety disorders should be seen as the same disorder are sometimes referred to as a. splitters. b. lumpers. c. amalgamationists. d. anxiolytics. Answer: b. 43. In the debate between "lumpers" and "splitters" regarding anxiety disorders, the splitters argue that a. people with anxiety disorders are split off from reality. b. people with anxiety disorders show signs of split personality. c. it is not possible to separate normal from pathological anxiety. d. there are a number of separate disorders. Answer: d. 44. Research on the long-term outcomes for people experiencing anxiety disorders indicates that a. even with therapy, long-term outcomes are generally poor. b. long-term outcomes tend to be quite mixed and unpredictable. c. age of onset predicts long-term outcomes across all disorders. d. treatment response is primarily positive and long-lasting. Answer: b. 45. Which of the following is true as to the course of anxiety disorders? a. The long-term outcome of individuals with anxiety disorder is mixed and unpredictable. b. Individuals with agoraphobia avoidance tend to get over their fears with age. c. The frequency and intensity of anxiety attacks tend to increase with age. d. Patients with generalized anxiety disorder may find their physical symptoms replaced with worries . Answer: a. 46. Studies of the long-term course of obsessive-compulsive disorder indicate that which of the following is true? a. 60 percent of patients demonstrate recovery after one year. b. At a 40-year follow-up, approximately 30 percent show improvement. c. Approximately 50 percent of patients still show symptoms after 30 years. d. A higher percentage of females than males had not relapsed after 30 years. Answer: c. 47. According to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), which type of anxiety disorder is the most common? a. specific phobias b. generalized anxiety disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. agoraphobia with panic attacks Answer: a. 48. Prospective studies of the relationship between drinking problems and anxiety disorders suggest that a. anxiety disorders lead to heavy drinking. b. heavy drinking increases the probability that an anxiety disorder will later develop. c. anxiety disorders can lead to heavy drinking, and heavy drinking can lead to anxiety disorders. d. the relationship exists for patterns of alcohol abuse but not for alcohol dependence. Answer: c. 49. Among those diagnosed with an anxiety disorder a. the relapse rates are higher for men than for women. b. the relapse rates are higher for women than for men. c. the comorbidity rates are higher for women than for men. d. the comorbidity rates are higher for men than for women. Answer: b. 50. One study found that ___ percent of people who met the criteria for one anxiety disorder also met the criteria for at least one other form of anxiety disorder or mood disorder. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 Answer: c. 51. What is the only anxiety disorder that does not exhibit a significant gender difference? a. agoraphobia b. panic disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: d. 52. How does the prevalence of anxiety disorders among the elderly compare to the prevalence among other age groups? a. The prevalence rate is lower among the elderly. b. The highest prevalence rates are found among the elderly. c. The prevalence rates are virtually identical across the life span. d. Whether the rates are high or low depends on both age and gender. Answer: a. 53. In Western societies anxiety is most frequently associated with work performance, whereas in non-Western societies, anxiety is most frequently associated with a. family or religious concerns. b. personal appearance. c. intimate relationships. d. educational achievement. Answer: a. 54. Cultural anthropologists have recognized many different cultural concepts of distress that, in some cases, a. appear to be unique to specific cultures. b. appear to be caused by the presence of outsiders in the culture. c. look similar but have very different causes than Western disorders. d. resemble very closely disorders listed in the DSM-5. Answer: d. 55. What was the major result of the Cross-National Collaborative Panic Study? a. Panic disorder occurs in all countries studied. b. Panic disorder does not exist in some of the countries included in the study. c. Mental health professionals in some countries do not recognize the symptoms of panic disorder as serious problems. d. Differences in language and conceptualization of symptoms made it impossible to study similarities in the diagnosis of panic. Answer: a. 56. Current theories regarding the evolutionary significance of anxiety and fear suggest that a. anxiety is viewed as often adaptive, but fear is not. b. fear is viewed as often adaptive, but anxiety is not. c. both emotional responses are adaptive in some circumstances. d. neither emotional response is considered to be adaptive under any circumstances. Answer: c. 57. What conclusion was reached by researchers studying the relationship between stressful life events and anxiety/depressive disorders? a. Stressful life events are much more common precursors of depression. b. Stressful life events are much more common precursors of anxiety disorders. c. Stressful events frequently precede the development of both anxiety and depressive disorders. d. The reported association between life events and these disorders is the result of the tendency to expect such a relationship rather than a true association. Answer: c. 58. According to John Bowlby’s research on agoraphobia in 1973 and in 1980, which of the following individuals would be at greatest risk for the onset of this disorder? a. Alice, who has just changed her college major b. Teresa, who is having difficulty finding a job c. Sara, who has just moved away from home for her first year in college d. Christine, who has had an increase in the number of serious arguments with her parents Answer: d. 59. Which of the following best describes the connection between particular forms of adverse environmental events and specific types of mental disorder? a. Neglect is most closely linked to mood disorders. b. Abuse is most closely linked to anxiety disorders. c. There does not seem to be any direct connection. d. Direct connections have been found for women but not for men. Answer: c. 60. What type of attachment has been reported to be associated with the development of agoraphobia? a. secure b. insecure c. ambivalent d. regressive Answer: b. 61. After Harriet was in a bicycle accident, she became fearful of riding bicycles. Which theory of the development of phobias would explain this fear? a. preparedness b. psychoanalytic c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning Answer: d. 62. While walking along the road, a car drives by and honks right next to you. The car hits your leg, and you are slightly injured. A few weeks later, you hear a car horn and become very nervous. What is the horn honking in this scenario? a. conditioned stimulus b. conditioned response c. unconditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response Answer: a. 63. The preparedness model of phobic acquisition holds that phobias develop in response to a. stimuli to which the person has had little exposure. b. objects with symbolic associations to sex and aggression. c. any neutral stimulus paired with an unconditioned stimulus. d. objects and situations that are fear-relevant. Answer: d. 64. One important element in the development of social phobias may be a biologically-based preparedness to fear a. large crowds. b. faces that appear angry or rejecting toward us. c. the body posture of people who are seen as important. d. unrelated persons more than biologically related persons. Answer: b. 65. Research has suggested that a factor contributing to the development of some anxiety reactions is that a. operant conditioning and preparedness work against each other. b. people apparently learn to avoid certain stimuli if they observe other people showing a strong fear response to those stimuli. c. some people are more prepared than others for emotional events. d. people need to experience emotional events themselves for those events to affect their lives in future. Answer: b. 66. As a cognitive psychologist, you hypothesis that many factors can contribute to the cause of an anxiety disorder, but the following are especially important: a. conditioned stimuli and responses. b. perceptions, memories and attention. c. negative reinforcement. d. neurotransmitter levels. Answer: b. 67. Research has consistently found evidence that problems with anxiety show up at high rates in people who believe that a. they are in control of a situation. b. they are not in control of events. c. events are their fault. d. important people have treated them badly. Answer: b. 68. According to D.M. Clark's research, people with anxiety sensitivity would likely be frightened most by a. stomach discomfort. b. heart palpitations. c. foot pain. d. insomnia. Answer: b. 69. Several lines of research have clarified the basic cognitive mechanisms involved in generalized anxiety disorder, as well as in panic disorder. Experts now believe that a factor that plays a crucial role in the onset of this process is a. depression. b. conditioned responses. c. the hypothalamus. d. attention. Answer: d. 70. A patient with panic disorder tends to interpret the rapid beating of his heart as a heart attack; a cognitive psychologist would call this a. automatic thinking. b. catastrophic misinterpretation. c. illusion of predictability. d. "what-if" thinking. Answer: b. 71. Cognitive psychologists believe that people whose threat schemas contain a high proportion of "what-if" questions a. are more likely to suffer from a conviction that they will fail. b. usually experience depression along with anxiety. c. experience a dramatic increase in negative affect. d. are able to avoid the experience of anxiety by suppressing their anxious thoughts. Answer: c. 72. According to cognitive models of anxiety, such as Borkovec, Alcaine and Behar’s model, why do people continue to worry despite the fact that it is unproductive? a. They have a superstition that worry will lead to symptom reduction. b. Classical conditioning has led to an association between worry and cognitive stability. c. The worry is reinforced by a temporary reduction in uncomfortable physiological sensations. d. The worry results from activation of the superego in order to punish oneself for past misdeeds. Answer: c. 73. A person with social phobia can perform a particular task when alone but not in front of an audience; according to Barlow's model of anxious apprehension, this is due to a. misinterpreting the audience as hostile. b. insufficient practice of the task. c. the distraction of self-focused attention. d. poor interpersonal skills. Answer: c. 74. What is thought suppression? a. a symptom of panic attack b. an attention deficit caused by intrusive images c. an active attempt to stop thinking about something d. the absence of rational thinking Answer: c. 75. According to Wegner, what typically happens when people prone to anxiety disorders try to rid their mind of distressing or unwanted thoughts? a. The thoughts actually become more associated with emotions. b. They relax because physiological cues are decreased. c. Physiological changes in the brain attempt to repress the unwanted thoughts. d. The thoughts are replaced with scenes related to images from previous dreams. Answer: a. 76. The episodic nature of obsessive-compulsive disorder symptoms is thought to be related to a. cycles of activity in neurotransmitters. b. changing levels of environmental stress. c. changes in the ability to suppress thoughts. d. a rebound from attempts to suppress strong emotion. Answer: d. 77. What have studies of the genetics of panic disorder and generalized anxiety disorder found concerning the genetic component in a model of the cause of these disorders? a. both appear to be either modestly or moderately heritable b. neither appears to have a significant heritable component c. both have a very high heritable component d. generalized anxiety disorder has a high heritable component, but panic disorders appear to be very low Answer: a. 78. Twin studies of anxiety disorders indicate that generalized anxiety disorder has a heritability of a. around 20 to 30 percent. b. less than 5 percent. c. over 50 percent. d. almost 100 percent. Answer: a. 79. The brain pathway that operates as a "short cut" in the detection of danger a. provides for quicker conscious processing of threat. b. is acquired through classical conditioning. c. interferes with the organism's ability to respond to threat. d. allows some threats to be responded to very quickly. Answer: d. 80. The two different pathways in the brain involved in the detection of danger differ from one another with respect to a. their roles in panic disorder versus specific phobia. b. the amount of conscious thinking and reasoning. c. the detection of reality-based versus unrealistic threats. d. their presence in humans versus lower animals. Answer: b. 81. Brain imaging studies of patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) show that OCD a. has neurological foundations similar to other anxiety disorders. b. has neurological foundations different from other anxiety disorders. c. has no neurological foundation. d. can be related to danger-detection pathways. Answer: b. 82. Research from the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has suggested a model called the pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infection, or PANDAS, which has a. been proven. b. resulted in several law suits against hospitals. c. not yet been supported or refuted by strong evidence. d. been considered to be the result of pseudoscience with no evidence to support it. Answer: c. 83. An inhibitory neurotransmitter that functions to reduce levels of anxiety is called a. MAO. b. dopamine. c. GABA. d. glutamate. Answer: c. 84. Your textbook presents the case study of Ed, a 38-year-old lawyer diagnosed with OCD. What was the first form of treatment Ed received for this disorder? a. sugar (placebo) b. an anticonvulsant c. antidepressant medication d. an antianxiety drug Answer: c. 85. Systematic desensitization involves a. suppression of phobic thoughts. b. insight into unconscious motivations. c. exposure to the feared item while maintaining relaxation. d. dampening of physiological reactions with medication. Answer: c. 86. Flooding refers to the a. recovery of repressed memories. b. exposure to highly feared objects. c. rebound effect after thought suppression. d. side effects of antianxiety medications. Answer: b. 87. Alex suffers from agoraphobia, and while in treatment he is asked to repeatedly confront places like crowded shopping malls and theaters that he has been avoiding. The treatment he is receiving is a. stimulus generalization. b. stimulus discrimination. c. situational exposure. d. avoidance reconditioning. Answer: c. 88. Pamela experiences frequent unexpected panic attacks. A treatment that could help her to reduce her fear of bodily sensations that seem to trigger her panic attacks would be a. situational exposure. b. interoceptive exposure. c. flooding. d. deep breathing. Answer: b. 89. Exposure and response prevention is most effective in the treatment of a. panic attacks. b. social phobias. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. Answer: d. 90. Which of the following is one of the reasons why it is important to distinguish between statistical significance and clinical importance of treatment outcome studies? a. Clinical importance is based on subjective judgment, not statistical procedures. b. Statistical significance could be based on relatively trivial changes in the patients' adjustment. c. Statistical significance can only be calculated in correlational designs. d. Clinical importance involves statements of certainty, whereas statistical significance involves statements of probability. Answer: b. 91. A therapist asks a patient to describe what he believes would happen if his worst-case scenario became reality. The patient says, "If I fail this test, I'll never get into graduate school." What cognitive aspect is the therapist working with? a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. automatic thinking c. decatastrophizing d. all-or-nothing thinking Answer: c. 92. The technique of breathing retraining provides panic disorder patients with education about the a. psychological effects of hyperventilation. b. physiological effects of hyperventilation. c. counter-productive effects of avoidance. d. self-fulfilling nature of self-focused attention. Answer: b. 93. A psychiatrist prescribes a benzodiazepine for a patient suffering from an anxiety disorder. Which of the following symptoms are most likely to respond to this treatment? a. worry and rumination b. palpitations and rumination c. rumination and muscle tension d. muscle tension and palpitations Answer: d. 94. Which category contains the drugs known as benzodiazepines? a. antimanic b. antipsychotics c. antidepressants d. minor tranquilizers Answer: d. 95. Which of the following are examples of the benzodiazepine class of drugs? a. Zoloft and Paxil b. Valium and Xanax c. Haldol and Thorazine d. Elavil and Stelazine Answer: b. 96. Which neurotransmitter is affected by benzodiazepine drugs? a. GABA b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. norepinephrine Answer: a. 97. Benzodiazepines are most effective for treating a. depression. b. agoraphobia. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. Answer: c. 98. Which of the following is considered a drug of choice for panic disorder because it produces clinical improvement more quickly than antidepressants? a. Alprazolam (Xanax) b. Buspirone (BuSpar) c. Phenelzine (Nardil) d. Clonazepam (Klonopin) Answer: a. 99. Another class of antianxiety medication is known azapirones. Rather than working on GABA neurons, this antianxiety medication works on __________ transmission. a. dopamine b. serotonin c. amygdala d. sympathetic Answer: b. 100. Approximately what percentage of patients who have used a benzodiazepine for more than six months will experience withdrawal effects if they discontinue use of the drug? a. 10 percent b. 20 percent c. 40 percent d. 60 percent Answer: c. 101. Which of the following drugs is the first-line treatment for panic disorder and social anxiety? a. antianxiety drugs b. anticonvulsants c. barbiturates d. SSRIs Answer: d. 102. Why do some psychiatrists prefer imipramine to antianxiety drugs for the treatment of panic disorder? a. It is longer lasting. b. It is less expensive. c. It helps people get to sleep. d. It is less likely to lead to dependence. Answer: d. 103. At a meeting of psychiatrists, you see a sign for a session titled "Antidepressant drugs: Not just for depression." A summary of the session indicates that the speaker will outline how selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors can be used in treating anxiety disorders. What are some reasons for using these drugs instead of antianxiety drugs? a. They are cheaper and act faster. b. They act naturally and do not affect appetite. c. They have fewer side effects and are safer to use. d. They are much more powerful and can be used in smaller doses. Answer: c. 104. A group of mental health professionals specialize in the treatment of anxiety disorders. Based on current empirical evidence, these professionals would be well advised to a. stick with one specific mode of treatment for all disorders. b. use medications with their more severe cases. c. use any combination of treatments, because they all appear equally effective with all anxiety disorders. d. select specific treatments according to specific symptoms exhibited by their patients. Answer: d. Short Answer 105. __________ refers to an exaggerated fear of being in situations from which escape might be difficult, such as being caught in a traffic jam, on a bridge, or in a tunnel. Answer: Agoraphobia 106. __________ are persistent, irrational, narrowly defined fears that are associated with specific objects or situations. Answer: Phobias 107. In the case of an anxiety disorder, behavior that represents an attempt to ensure the person’s safety or the safety and health of a friend or family member is known as compulsive ___________ . Answer: checking 108. Experts who classify mental disorders can be described informally as belonging to one of two groups. Those who argue that anxiety is a generalized condition or set of symptoms without any special subdivisions are referred to as _________ . Answer: lumpers 109. The symptoms of various anxiety disorders overlap considerably. When a person meets the diagnostic criteria for more than one disorder, this is known as __________ . Answer: comorbidity 110. Following up on the work started by John Bowlby, several studies have found that people with a variety of anxiety disorders are more likely to have had what type of problems as children? Answer: attachment 111. The observation that conditioned responses to fear-relevant stimuli, such as spiders and snakes, are more resistant to extinction than are those responses to fear-irrelevant stimuli, such as flowers, supports the __________ model. Answer: preparedness 112. Laboratory research indicates that feelings of lack of __________ contribute to the onset of panic attacks among patients with panic disorder. Answer: control 113. D.M. Clark, a psychologist, suggests that panic disorder may be caused by the catastrophic __________ of bodily sensations or perceived threat. Answer: misinterpretations 114. Work by LeDoux and others suggests that the __________ plays a central role in circuits in the brain designed to detect danger and organize a response to it. Answer: amygdala 115. In the years since systematic desensitization was originally proposed, many different variations on this procedure have been employed. The crucial feature of the treatment involves systematic maintained __________ to the feared stimulus. Answer: exposure 116. Current evidence suggests that patients who receive both medication and psychotherapy may do better in the short run, but patients who receive only __________ behavior therapy may do better in the long run because of difficulties that can be encountered when medication is discontinued. Answer: cognitive Essay 117. Define phobia. Describe the difference between a phobia and a normal fear. Give an example of the difference between a phobia and a normal fear. Answer: (1) A phobia is a persistent, irrational narrowly defined fear that is associated with a specific object or situation. (2) In contrast to a normal fear, phobia involves attempts to avoid an object that others do not find dangerous. (3) A person who fears cats may prefer not to be around them, and may show physiological arousal when close to a cat; a person who is phobic of cats would have an immediate fear reaction upon seeing a cat, and the person's attempts to avoid getting closer to the cat might interfere with whatever the person was doing at the time. 118. Describe the nature of obsessions and compulsions in obsessive-compulsive disorder, and explain how they differ from "normal" obsessions and compulsions. Do both have to be present for the diagnosis of OCD to be made? Which typically comes first? What is their functional relationship? Answer: Obsessions are repetitive, unwanted, intrusive thoughts or images or impulses that may seem silly or crazy, are anxiety-provoking, and are resisted strongly but unsuccessfully. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that are used to reduce anxiety, especially the anxiety associated with the obsessions, and that do not produce any pleasure. Most patients with OCD show both obsessions and compulsions, but this is not necessary for the diagnosis. The person must recognize that the obsessions or compulsions are excessive or unreasonable. What's more, the thoughts must not be simply excessive worries about real problems. Most normal people (80-90%) experience obsessive thoughts at times. Research suggests that the difference between normal obsessions and clinical obsessions is a matter of degree. In most cases, it would appear that the obsessive thoughts come first and that the compulsive behaviors are often an attempt to cope with the anxiety provoked by the obsessive thoughts. 119. Compare and contrast the theoretical position of "lumpers" with that of "splitters" with regard to anxiety disorders. Answer: Lumpers are theorists who suggest that there should be no subdivisions of anxiety disorders. For them, anxiety is anxiety and the particular manner in which it manifests is not particularly relevant. These theorists believe it is quite likely there is one etiological model that can account for all forms of anxiety disorders, and variations are only a matter of individual differences and life experiences. Splitters, on the other hand, suggest that we need different diagnostic categories for several variations of anxiety disorders. For them, the differences seen in anxiety disorder are due to different etiologies and, likely, different treatments. Splitters believe diagnostic distinctions will guide the research and treatment of what, for them, are different diseases.. 120. Discuss the prevalence rates of anxiety disorder across life spans, comparing adults with the elderly. Answer: Prevalence rates for anxiety disorders are lower for individuals over 60 than those who are under 60, although there is some evidence that this rate may increase as individuals reach ages of 70 or 80 and encounter the inevitable fears of old age, disease and death. In addition it is relatively uncommon for an individual to develop an anxiety disorder later in life. Older adults diagnosed with anxiety disorder most likely developed the condition at an earlier age. The diagnostic process is also complicated by age. Some physical disorders associated with age, such as cardiovascular problems, have symptoms similar to some anxiety disorders. For example, hearing loss can lead one to behave in a way that looks like social avoidance. Now, if an elderly person has a physical trauma, such as a fall or a car accident, that leads her to go out less, should this be seen as a symptom of agoraphobia or a sensible precaution due to failing abilities? 121. Describe the hypothesized role of thought suppression in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Answer: Attempts to disregard or forget a troubling thought may actually make the thought more intrusive, as the troubling thought becomes associated with the other thoughts meant to replace it. The troubling thought also becomes associated with negative feelings, so that afterwards the negative feelings can trigger the unwanted thought, and the unwanted thought can trigger negative feelings. As a result of the individual's attempt to suppress strong emotions, a rebound effect may occur, culminating in a vicious cycle, which may help to explain the episodic nature of obsessive-compulsive symptoms. 122. Discuss what is known about the role of genetics in anxiety disorders and whether evidence points toward specific genetic risks for specific disorders. Answer: Genetic factors seem to be involved to a modest extent in all the anxiety disorders, with evidence for separate risks for panic disorder versus generalized anxiety disorder. However, although there is also a genetic risk for obsessive-compulsive disorder, it appears to be part of a more generalized increased risk for several types of anxiety disorder. The overall degree of heritability for anxiety disorders appears to be in the range of 20 to 30 percent. 123. Which anxiety disorders respond to treatment with antianxiety medications? What are the major drugs used and what are their side effects? Answer: In the past, the major class of drugs used to treat anxiety disorders was the benzodiazepine class. Examples of these drugs are diazepam (Valium) and alprazolam (Xanax). These drugs tend to reduce symptoms of anxiety, especially vigilance and subjective somatic sensations. They reduce muscle tension, palpitations, perspiration, and gastrointestinal distress. They have been used to treat generalized anxiety disorder and social phobias. The side effects include sedation and cognitive impairments; the most serious adverse effect is the potential for addiction. More recently, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (e.g. Luvox, Prozac, Paxil) have become the preferred drugs for treating almost all forms of anxiety disorders. These drugs have fewer unpleasant side effects and are safer to use. Test Bank for Abnormal Psychology Thomas F. Oltmanns, Robert E. Emery 9780205997947, 9780205970742, 9780134899053, 9780134531830
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