CH-16 Therapies for Psychological Disorders – Psychology and Life : Exam Guide

Chapter 16: Therapies for Psychological Disorders 1) By the end of the second therapy session, a woman's therapist is speculating about the causes of her depression. Which therapeutic goal on the part of the therapist is being described? A) making a diagnosis. B) proposing an etiology. C) making a prognosis. D) prescribing and carrying out treatment. Answer: B Rationale: When a cause or etiology is determined, the probable origins of the disorder as well as the functions of the symptoms have been explored. 2) Dr. Cage is a psychiatrist who makes use of electric shock and prescription medications in his treatment of patients. Which term best characterizes this type of therapist? A) humanistic B) cognitive C) behaviour D) biomedical Answer: D Rationale: Biomedical therapies focus on changing the mechanisms of the central nervous system through surgery, electric shock, or medications so that the mind-body connection is directly affected. 3) Who practices psychological therapies? A) just clinical psychologists. B) just psychiatrists. C) both clinical psychologists and psychiatrists. D) both psychiatrists and physicians. Answer: C Rationale: Psychological therapies are practiced by both clinical psychologists (they have a PhD in psychology and training in the assessment and treatment of psychological problems) and psychiatrists (they have a medical degree and postdoctoral specialty in mental and emotional disorders). 4) Which approach to psychotherapy is associated with the "talking cure," in which individuals are helped to develop insightful connections between symptoms and unresolved hidden conflicts? A) cognitive B) psychodynamic C) humanistic D) behavioural Answer: B Rationale: The therapist helps individuals develop insights about the relationship of overt symptoms to unresolved hidden conflicts that are thought to have caused the symptoms. 5) When attempting to understand a disorder, how would a behaviour therapist most likely view the disorder? A) as a symptom of neurotransmitter malfunction. B) as a problem awaiting insight. C) as a symbolic representation. D) as a learned pattern of responses. Answer: D Rationale: Behaviours can be changed in many ways; reinforcement contingencies for behaviours that are desired or not desired can be changed, conditioned responses can be extinguished, and models of effective problem solving can be provided. 6) A therapist is helping a client to restructure the way she thinks and to alter her distorted self-statements. Which type of therapy is being implemented? A) biomedical B) humanistic C) psychodynamic D) cognitive Answer: D Rationale: Helping an individual restructure cognitions changes the way the individual defines and explains problems, often allowing the individual to deal better with the difficulties. 7) While a woman does not consider herself seriously disturbed, she feels the need to resolve some interpersonal problems in order to live a healthier life. Her therapist encourages her to allow herself to become a better person and to break the bonds of the restrictions that have her captive. Which type of therapy is being characterized? A) psychodynamic. B) behaviour. C) cognitive. D) humanistic. Answer: D Rationale: Humanistic therapies emphasize the client's values. These therapies tend to focus on healthy individuals who are seeking personal growth, self actualization, development of more meaningful personal relationships, and freedom of choice as well as responsibility for choices. 8) Which type of mental health professional has been trained to consider the social contexts of individuals’ problems and is most likely to become acquainted with clients' homes or work settings? A) clinical psychologist B) clinical social worker C) psychiatrist D) psychoanalyst Answer: B Rationale: Clinical social workers have specialized training that prepares them to collaborate with psychiatrists and clinical psychologists. 9) A student has some problems that have led her to seek professional help. She has decided that she would like to speak with someone who combines spirituality with practical problemsolving advice. Which type of professional would be most appropriate for the student? A) pastoral counsellor B) psychiatrist C) clinical social worker D) counselling psychologist Answer: A Rationale: A pastoral counselor is a member of a religious group who specializes in the treatment of psychological disorders. 10) To eliminate her hallucinations, a woman's therapist has written her a prescription for antipsychotic medication. Which type of professional is her therapist most likely to be? A) clinical psychologist. B) clinical social worker. C) pastoral counselor. D) psychiatrist. Answer: D Rationale: Psychiatrists have medical degrees and are trained to work from a biomedical perspective with people who have mental and emotional disorders. 11) What type of professional would most likely follow their name with the letters "Psy. D."? A) clinical social worker. B) psychiatrist. C) clinical psychologist. D) psychiatric nurse. Answer: C Rationale: Clinical psychologists have graduate training in assessment, treatment and research pertaining to psychological problems. Counseling psychologists have much the same training and often work in community settings such as schools, prisons, or clinics. Clinical and counseling psychologists have earned a Ph.D. or a Psy.D., both doctoral degrees in psychology. Psy.D. stands for Doctor of Psychology. 12) According to some therapists, which aspect of e-mail therapy allows clients to reveal their most pressing problems and concerns more quickly and with less embarrassment? A) relative anonymity B) relative confidentiality C) relative insight D) relative leniency Answer: A Rationale: There are dangers and benefits to therapy conducted over e-mail. Dangers include misdiagnosis if clients share limited information without the increased scrutiny that is possible face to face. However, it may be true that clients are more willing to share concerns when they don't have to worry about the therapist's overt reactions. 13) What does the term, deinstitutionalization mean? A) the practice of moving individuals from psychiatric hospitals to other venues for treatment. B) the practice of moving individuals into psychiatric hospitals from other venues for treatment. C) the practice of moving mentally ill homeless individuals into psychiatric hospitals for treatment. D) the practice of providing psychotherapy to mentally ill individuals. Answer: A Rationale: De-institutionalization refers to the practice of moving people from psychiatric hospitals to other venues for treatment. 14) In the context of mental illness, what does the term "revolving door" mean? A) a consequence of institutionalization wherein individuals remain incarcerated in the institutions for long periods of time. B) a consequence of homelessness wherein individuals do not get help for their ongoing mental problems. C) a consequence of deinstitutionalization wherein individuals leave institutions only for brief periods of time before needing help again. D) a consequence of homelessness wherein individuals with severe mental illness are victims of crimes. Answer: C Rationale: The revolving door is a consequence of de-institutionalization, when people leave institutions for only brief periods of time before needing help once again. 15) In a sample of 936 men and women, researchers examined the rate at which individuals with mental illness are the victims of violent crime such as robbery or assault. What did the results reveal? A) just over 25 percent had experienced a violent crime, a rate eleven times higher than for individuals in the general population. B) 50 percent had experienced a violent crime, a rate fifteen times higher than for individuals in the general population. C) about 80 percent had experienced a violent crime, a rate twenty times higher than for individuals in the general population. D) 10 percent had experienced a violent crime, a rate twenty times lower than for individuals in the general population. Answer: A Rationale: Researchers suggested that mental illness prevented individuals from recognizing risk or appropriately protecting themselves. 16) Developed by Sigmund Freud, what therapeutic technique is used for the exploration of unconscious motivations and conflicts? A) implosion therapy B) behaviour therapy C) psychoanalysis D) introspection Answer: C Rationale: Psychoanalysis is the form of psychodynamic therapy developed by Freud. It is an intensive, prolonged technique for exploring unconscious conflicts and motivations that produce anxieties, which in turn produce the symptoms of psychological disorders. 17) Because a central goal of the therapist is to help the patient understand the relationships between present symptoms and past origins, what other term is synonymous with psychodynamic therapy? A) reconstructive therapy. B) catharsis. C) transference. D) insight therapy. Answer: D Rationale: From this perspective, therapy succeeds and the patient recovers when insights release the patient from the repression established in early childhood. 18) Which type of patients would likely gain the most from traditional psychoanalysis? A) those with long-standing repressed memories. B) those with little motivation. C) those with poor verbal skills. D) those with limited finances. Answer: A Rationale: Psychoanalysis is one psychodynamic approach. It helps patients work through the painful feelings caused by repressed conflicts to an effective resolution. 19) A patient lies comfortably relaxed on a couch while verbally reporting his thoughts, feelings, sensations, and other mental events. Which term best reflects this procedure? A) transference. B) free association. C) resistance. D) dream work. Answer: B Rationale: This is an important procedure in psychoanalysis, designed to probe the unconscious and release repressed material. 20) A psychoanalyst has noticed that whenever a patient begins talking about his father, he has very little to say or he will quickly change the topic. When his father finally is discussed, the patient claims that his father is irrelevant. Which term best captures this behaviour? A) catharsis. B) resistance. C) transference. D) countertransference. Answer: B Rationale: Sometimes during free association, a patient will be unable or unwilling to discuss certain topics, ideas, experiences, or desires. To the analyst, this signifies a barrier between the patient's conscious and unconscious life. 21) A patient recounts a dream to her psychoanalyst in which she is pushing her dog around in a baby stroller. The therapist believes the dream may represent the woman's desire to have children. Which term refers to the patient's account of the dream? A) manifest content B) latent content C) transference D) resistance Answer: A Rationale: It is the dream content that we remember upon awakening that is called the manifest content. The latent content is hidden from us and contains the actual motives behind the dream. These latent motives are so painful or unacceptable that they are presented in symbolic form. 22) During psychoanalysis, a patient says to her therapist, "You look just like my ex-husband used to look before he would pick a fight. I hate that look!" Which term best reflects this patient's utterance? A) positive transference. B) negative transference. C) catharsis. D) countertransference. Answer: B Rationale: Often, the therapist is identified with a person who has been at the center of an emotional conflict in the past. Negative transference occurs when the feelings are of hostility or envy. 23) Transference is to countertransference as A) psychoanalysis is to behavior therapy. B) bad is to good. C) manifest is to latent. D) patient is to therapist. Answer: D Rationale: Counter-transference is the name given to the phenomenon that occurs in therapy in which the therapist comes to like or dislike a patient because the patient is perceived to be similar to an important person in the therapist's life. 24) In Harry Stack Sullivan's neo-Freudian approach to therapy, where is the emphasis placed? A) on interpersonal relationships. B) on the collective unconscious. C) on the death instinct. D) on object relations. Answer: A Rationale: Sullivan felt that mental disorders involve not only intrapsychic processes, but also strong societal pressures and troubled interpersonal relationships. 25) Compared to followers of traditional Freudian psychoanalysis, where do neo-Freudians place more emphasis? A) on the conflict between id and superego. B) on childhood experiences. C) on the patient's current social environment. D) on biological instincts and selfish concerns. Answer: C Rationale: More emphasis is also placed on continuing influence of life experiences including but also beyond childhood, the role of social motivations and interpersonal relationships, and the significance of ego functioning and development of the self-concept. 26) How do Melanie Klein's theories differ primarily from Freud’s? A) in terms of her emphasis on love and aggression as the two organizing forces of the psyche. B) in terms of the psychosexual stages that she renamed. C) in terms of her belief that the influence of the Oedipal conflict was stronger than Freud indicated. D) in terms of her focus on behaviourism. Answer: A Rationale: According to Melanie Klein’s theory, the organizing forces of the psyche is love and aggression. 27) Generally speaking, where do behaviour therapies place primary importance? A) on thoughts and inner drives. B) on desires, motivation, interests, and will. C) on the self, and those objects that enhance the development of the self. D) on learning and observable actions. Answer: D Rationale: Behaviour therapies are focused on applying learning principles to increase the frequency of desired behaviours and/or to decrease the frequency of undesired behaviours. 28) The college counselling centre is sponsoring a workshop to teach students how learning theory can be applied in a systematic way to increase desired behaviours or decrease unwanted behaviours. What will be the most likely focus of the workshop? A) principles of psychodynamic therapy. B) principles of client-centered therapy. C) principles of behaviour modification. D) principles of memory encoding, storage, and retrieval. Answer: C Rationale: In general, behaviour therapies like behaviour modification work best with specific problems rather than general types of personal problems. The therapies are grounded in empirical research. 29) A man is seeing a behaviour therapist because he feels compelled to count to fifty thousand each night before he goes to sleep. How is the therapist most likely to describe the problem? A) in terms of the man’s current relationships with his parents. B) in terms of the man’s early childhood experiences. C) in terms of the man’s counting behaviour. D) in terms of the man’s unconscious motivations. Answer: C Rationale: When there is a maladaptive reaction like this one, the reaction can be overcome, according to behaviour therapists, based on the principles of learning. The target behaviour is counting, which is not assumed to be symbolic of an underlying problem, but instead to itself be the problem. 30) Psychodynamic therapists have claimed that behaviourists treat outer, target behaviours rather than the true, inner causes of disorders. What do psychodynamic therapists predict will happen if inner causes are not explored? A) behavioural rehearsal B) symptom substitution C) intensification of the maladaptive symptom D) catharsis Answer: B Rationale: Symptom substitution is the appearance of a new psychological or physical symptom, which according to psychodynamic theory, replaces the symptom that was eliminated. According to the psychodynamic perspective, since the symptom was symbolic of an underlying problem that was not addressed by behaviour therapy, the symptom will reappear in some form until the underlying problem is addressed. However, research has shown that when pathological behaviours are eliminated by behaviour therapy, new symptoms are not substituted and there may be improvement in related less important symptoms as well. 31) Which behaviour therapy technique did Mary Cover Jones use to treat Peter, a little boy who was afraid of rabbits? A) implosion therapy B) flooding C) insight therapy D) counterconditioning Answer: D Rationale: In counter-conditioning, a new response is conditioned to replace a maladaptive response. The maladaptive response is countered with a new adaptive one. 32) How are repressed memories similar to eyewitness memories? A) they both may be subject to outside influence. B) it is impossible to accurately recover either type of memory. C) both forms have been shown to be generally accurate. D) individuals holding such memories lack confidence that the memories are real. Answer: A Rationale: Research shows that eyewitnesses will report as true memory information that was provided from an artificial source. In the same way, clinicians worry that the techniques of psychotherapy have the potential to implant beliefs about memories in patients' minds, though some repressed memories are based on actual occurrences. 33) A boy is afraid of spiders of all sizes. His therapist asks him to develop a list of the situations in which spiders create anxiety for him, from the least to the most threatening. Next, he is taught how to relax and let go of tension. Finally, while relaxed, he is asked to imagine the least threatening situation on the list. Which term refers to this procedure? A) participant modeling. B) flooding. C) systematic desensitization. D) aversion therapy. Answer: C Rationale: Systematic desensitization is the process of psychologically confronting the feared object or situation while practicing relaxation, and doing so in a graduated sequence. 34) What concerns do clinicians have about the mechanisms of psychotherapy? A) therapists will prevent their clients from expressing memories fully. B) therapists will encourage clients to repress their memories. C) therapists will encourage clients to disbelieve any memories of the past they may have. D) therapists will trigger clients’ efforts to find repressed memories and reward them when the memories surface. Answer: D Rationale: Research supports that some reports of repressed memories are based on real occurrences, but clinicians worry that therapists who believe in repressed memories may implant those beliefs in their patients. Memory research provides evidence that people will report as true memories information that has been provided from an artificial source. An important goal of therapy is to achieve catharsis with respect to repressed memories and to help clients take control of their lives by interpreting disruptive life patterns that are consequences of repressed memories. However, research also demonstrates the potential for the processes of therapy to lead people to create false memories. Care must be taken to allow the client to explore his or her own memories without interference from the therapist’s beliefs. 35) According to Joseph Wolpe, one cannot be relaxed and agitated at the same time. Which term best reflects this concept? A) symptom substitution. B) object relations. C) reciprocal inhibition. D) resistance. Answer: C Rationale: Wolpe observed that the nervous system cannot be relaxed and agitated at the same time because incompatible processes initiated by the nervous system cannot be activated at the same time. 36) A girl has an unreasonable fear of heights. If a therapist were to use the technique of flooding, what would the girl most likely be asked to do? A) talk about what she fears most about high places. B) watch a video of rock climbers. C) go to the top of a mountain. D) imagine herself hang-gliding. Answer: C Rationale: In flooding, clients agree to be put directly into a situation that exposes them to their fear. 37) In a study described in the textbook, people suffering from fear of flying were either given a standard form of exposure therapy in which they actively visited airports and were exposed to aspects of flying that were gradually more anxiety-provoking, or they were given a form of therapy in which the locations were virtual environments. What did the results reveal? A) both forms of therapy were equally successful. B) people who actively visited physical locations experienced longer-lasting relief from anxiety. C) people who visited virtual locations experienced longer-lasting relief from anxiety. D) people who visited virtual locations developed substitute anxieties when the original anxieties were removed. Answer: A Rationale: Both types of therapy provided consistent and lasting relief. Participants had significantly more relief of fear of flying than did participants in a control group who received neither type of treatment. 38) A man who is very overweight is trying to cut down on the amount of food that he eats. He wears a thick rubber band on his wrist and whenever he finds himself in the kitchen, he snaps the rubber band, causing a sharp pain. Which type of therapy resembles this man’s approach? A) systematic desensitization. B) flooding. C) reciprocal inhibition. D) aversion therapy. Answer: D Rationale: Aversion therapy uses counter-conditioning procedures to pair noxious stimuli with tempting stimuli. In this case, the man is pairing the pain of the rubber band with being in the kitchen, in an attempt to decrease the amount of food he eats. 39) Upon which principles is contingency management based? A) operant conditioning. B) classical conditioning. C) modeling. D) cognitive restructuring. Answer: A Rationale: Contingency management is a strategy of changing behaviours based on modifying the consequences of the behaviour. 40) A man is on a diet-and-exercise program. Whenever he loses a pound of body fat, he puts $10 aside to be used to buy himself new golf clubs. Which term best characterizes this man’s approach? A) a positive reinforcement strategy. B) shaping. C) cognitive restructuring. D) modeling. Answer: A Rationale: When a response (losing a pound) is followed immediately by a reward ($10 to buy new clubs) the response tends to be repeated and to increase in frequency over time. The reward is a positive reinforcement. 41) In a study on behavioural treatment described in the textbook, some cocaine and opioiddependent participants received reinforcement contingent on being drug free by way of getting vouchers. The others were given the opportunity to win prizes when they were drug free. Researchers assessed the efficacy of each treatment program by measuring the average number of weeks participants in each group were abstinent. What did the results reveal? A) the voucher group remained abstinent for 7.8 weeks as compared to the prize group which remained abstinent for 7.0 weeks. B) the voucher group remained abstinent for 9.0 weeks as compared to the prize group which remained abstinent for 7.8 weeks. C) both contingency management treatments were unsuccessful in increasing the likelihood that participants would abstain from drugs. D) both contingency management treatments increased the likelihood that participants would abstain from drugs. Answer: D Rationale: Both approaches reinforced behaviours that were incompatible with drug use. Both approaches were successful in decreasing drug dependence. Basic learning principles were used to increase the probability of adaptive behaviours. 42) When a child was an infant, she received a great deal of attention because of an illness. Now, although she is healthy, she still demands attention. When she is put to bed at night, she cries until her parents come and hold her. Which term refers to the behavioural psychologist's suggestion that the parents ignore the crying behaviour? A) placebo therapy. B) systematic desensitization. C) an extinction strategy. D) modeling. Answer: C Rationale: Extinction strategies are programs that withhold reinforcement of undesirable behaviours. When everyone who might inadvertently reinforce the unwanted behaviour cooperates, extinction procedures work to eliminate the undesired behaviour. 43) In a study mentioned in the textbook, hospital personnel ignored patients when the patients engaged in schizophrenic behaviour, but reinforced their behaviour by paying attention to them when they were behaving normally. What was the outcome of this strategy? A) the appearance of substitute symptoms in the patients. B) a dramatic increase in symptoms. C) a slight increase in symptoms. D) a decrease in symptoms. Answer: D Rationale: Before the intervention, the symptoms of schizophrenia were inadvertently reinforced by staff when they asked patients how they were feeling and then paid increasing amounts of attention to patients who reported bizarre symptoms. When staff reinforced normal behaviours instead, the unusual symptoms decreased. 44) What is a key element in the use of social-learning therapy when modifying behaviour? A) the observation of models. B) the use of introspection. C) unconditional positive regard. D) contingency management. Answer: A Rationale: Social learning theory predicts that individuals acquire responses through observation. Thus people with phobias should be able to unlearn fear reactions through imitation of models. Through demonstration and encouragement the client is encouraged to imitate the modeled behaviour. Gradually, approach behaviours are shaped so that the client can approach the phobic object. The client is never forced to perform a behaviour; if he becomes resistant at any level, the client is encouraged to return to a previously successful, less threatening level of approach behaviour. 45) A boy's therapist has suggested that one way to overcome his strong fear of dogs is to watch others who are comfortable interacting with dogs. What type of therapy is being characterized? A) psychoanalysis. B) behavioural. C) social-learning. D) aversion. Answer: C Rationale: Social-learning theory predicts that people acquire responses through observation. Therefore, people should be able to unlearn fear reactions through imitation of models. 46) Sheldon is afraid of snakes. On the basis of the research discussed in the textbook, what would be the most effective strategy for eliminating Sheldon’s fear? A) participant modeling. B) symbolic modeling. C) desensitization. D) psychoanalysis. Answer: A Rationale: In participant modeling, the therapist demonstrates gradual approximations to the desired behaviour and encourages the client to imitate the approach behaviour. At first the therapist will demonstrate approach behaviour at a fairly minor level, perhaps touching the cage or the snake. Through encouragement and demonstration by the therapist, the client is encouraged to gradually shape approach to the snake until he can pick it up and let it crawl freely over him. If the client becomes fearful at any level, return to a previously successful level is encouraged. 47) Flo visualizes herself approaching the salesperson. Flo then imagines telling the salesperson that she has decided that the dress she purchased was inappropriate and that she would like a refund. What type of exercise is Flo most likely performing? A) behavioural rehearsal B) participant modeling C) desensitization D) flooding Answer: A Rationale: Social skills training helps people with inadequate social skills to be more effective socially. Behavioural rehearsal involves visualizing how one would act in a given situation and visualizing the positive consequences of those actions. 48) To increase the likelihood that treatment gains during therapy will carry over to real-life settings, what approach should therapists take? A) consistently reward clients every time appropriate behaviours occur. B) teach the clients to expect that tangible rewards will often be forthcoming after engaging in a particular behaviour. C) teach behaviours that are likely to be reinforced naturally in a client's environment. D) ensure that clients do not overuse the technique of reinforcing self-statements. Answer: C Rationale: Generalization techniques attempt to increase the similarity between therapy and real-life settings of target behaviours, models, reinforcers, and demands of the environment. 49) Cognitive therapy is to behaviour therapy as A) outside is to inside. B) leader is to follower. C) moods are to feelings. D) thoughts are to actions. Answer: D Rationale: The way the client thinks about significant life experiences is the focus of cognitive therapy. The assumption is that abnormal behaviour patterns and emotional distress start with what we think and how we think. 50) According to the cognitive approach to therapy, what is the major factor underlying abnormal behaviour patterns and emotional stress? A) what and how people think. B) an inadequate resolution of childhood conflicts and fixations. C) faulty learning. D) an absence of significant goals for which to strive. Answer: A Rationale: Cognitive therapies focus on changing different types of cognitive processes and providing different types of cognitive restructuring. 51) When a student complains that his poor test grade in calculus proves he doesn't have the ability to succeed in the course, his counsellor reminds him that it could also have been because it was a difficult test. What technique is the counsellor using to help change the student's thinking? A) challenging the student's basic assumptions about his functioning. B) evaluating the evidence the student has for and against the accuracy of automatic thoughts. C) reattributing blame to situational factors rather than to the student's incompetence. D) discussing alternative solutions to complex tasks that could lead to failure experiences. Answer: C Rationale: A therapist or counselor uses a combination of tactics to help change the cognitive foundation of depression. In this case, the counselor is exploring alternative explanations for the student's difficulties with calculus. 52) Jose’s therapist is confronting him. The therapist wants Jose to think more about what he wants to do rather than what he should do. What type of therapy is being described? A) psychodynamic B) social-learning C) behaviour D) rational-emotive Answer: D Rationale: RET was developed by Albert Ellis as a comprehensive system of personality change based on changing irrational beliefs that cause undesirable, highly charged emotional reactions. 53) Gino blames himself for not having enough interest to engage in sexual activity with his wife. How would a rational-emotive therapist respond in this situation? A) listen politely and paraphrase what Gino has just said. B) interpret the symbolic meaning of Gin’s refusal to engage in sexual activity with his wife. C) dispute Gino’s thinking and examine alternative reasons for his lack of sexual interest. D) look at the reinforcers that are missing in Gino’s sexual activities. Answer: C Rationale: In therapy, beliefs like this one are disputed through rational confrontation and examination of alternative explanations. 54) Posted on the wall in the room where the wrestling team practices, a sign reads: "You can achieve it if you believe it and if you believe it you can do it!" Which type of therapy is most consistent with this philosophy? A) psychodynamic therapy. B) cognitive behaviour therapy. C) social-learning therapy. D) behavioural therapy. Answer: B Rationale: This approach combines the cognitive emphasis on changing false beliefs with a focus on reinforcement contingencies in the modification of performance. 55) When a basketball player becomes frustrated after missing a series of three-point shots, the coach tells her, "Don't say to yourself 'I can't do it,' say to yourself, 'The next three shots are going in.'" Which term best characterizes this advice? A) assertiveness training. B) inoculation training. C) cognitive restructuring. D) chaining. Answer: C Rationale: Cognitive restructuring modifies unacceptable behaviour patterns by changing a person's negative self-statements into constructive coping statements. 56) Which of the following statements best illustrates the concept of cognitive self-efficacy? A) I can learn to do better. B) I did what I wanted to. C) The therapist does not act fearful. D) I know I am going to have trouble. Answer: A Rationale: By setting realistic goals, developing realistic strategies to reach them, and evaluating feedback realistically, you develop a sense of mastery and self-efficacy, the belief that you can handle the situation positively. 57) A clinical version of existential psychology assumes that, given the bewildering number of realities faced by people today, depressive and obsessive syndromes reflect a retreat from these realities. Which syndromes reflect exploitation of these realities? A) obsessive-compulsive and histrionic B) dissociative and somatoform C) dependent and borderline D) sociopathic and narcissistic Answer: D Rationale: Existential therapy is based on the idea that people suffer existential crises: problems of everyday living, a lack of meaningful relationships, and an absence of significant goals. These crises give rise to these two basic kinds of human maladies. 58) What was the direct outcome of the human-potential movement, which emerged in North America in the late 1960s? A) that the concept of freedom of choice is elusive. B) a renewed interest in Freudian psychoanalysis. C) the extension of therapy to people who did not have psychological disorders. D) a review of the practices used in the area of biomedical therapy. Answer: C Rationale: The human-potential movement encompassed methods to enhance the potential of the average human being toward greater levels of performance and greater richness of experience. It is therapy for mentally healthy people who want to be more effective, more productive, and happier. 59) "The primary goal of my therapy is to promote healthy psychological growth in the individual." Which psychologist most likely made this statement? A) Carl Rogers. B) Sigmund Freud. C) Albert Bandura. D) B.F. Skinner. Answer: A Rationale: Client-centered therapy begins with the assumption that all people have the tendency to selfactualize or reach their potential. Healthy development is hindered by faulty learning patterns. 60) According to Carl Rogers, what is the primary source of anxiety and unhappiness? A) the lack of reinforcers that are available in one's daily life. B) unresolved conflicts stemming from early childhood. C) conflicts between naturally positive self-images and negative external criticisms. D) the false belief that people have the freedom to choose what they will become. Answer: C Rationale: This conflict is called incongruence and may function outside of awareness so that a person feels unhappiness and low self-worth without knowing why. 61) Carly seems to be more concerned with what others think of her than of what she thinks of herself. According to Carl Rogers, which statement about Carly is true? A) In time, she will grow psychologically and self-actualize. B) She will experience anxiety and unhappiness. C) She needs to take an assertiveness training course. D) She does not have free will. Answer: B Rationale: Faulty learning patterns may result in acceptance of the evaluation of others as more important than those provided by our own bodies and minds. This creates a conflict between external criticisms and naturally positive self-image, which in turn creates unhappiness and anxiety. 62) Which type of therapy is characterized by unconditional positive regard, genuineness, and empathy? A) rational-emotive B) client-centered C) social-learning D) behavior Answer: B Rationale: Client-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, emphasizes the creation of a supportive therapeutic environment characterized by three core conditions: unconditional positive regard, genuineness (or congruence), and empathy. Unconditional positive regard refers to the therapist's acceptance and nonjudgmental attitude towards the client, regardless of their thoughts, feelings, or behaviors. Genuineness involves the therapist being authentic and transparent in their interactions with the client, expressing their true feelings and thoughts. Empathy entails the therapist's ability to understand and share the client's internal experiences from their perspective. These core conditions form the foundation of client-centered therapy, facilitating the client's self-exploration, personal growth, and therapeutic change. Therefore, option B, client-centered therapy, is the correct answer. 63) Joli has been asked to role-play a client-centered therapist in a classroom exercise. When the student who is playing the client screams, "Nobody does what I tell them to!" how should Joli respond? A) “Why not stop complaining and do things for yourself?” B) “You sound angry and frustrated.” C) “Hostility often symbolizes sexual inadequacy.” D) “The reason you feel angry is because you feel inadequate.” Answer: B Rationale: In client-centered therapy, the therapist aims to provide a supportive and empathetic environment for the client to express their feelings without judgment. Option B demonstrates empathetic listening and reflects back the client's emotional state without interpretation or judgment. By acknowledging the client's emotions ("angry and frustrated"), Joli validates the client's experience and facilitates further exploration of their feelings. This response aligns with the principles of client-centered therapy, which prioritize empathy, unconditional positive regard, and genuineness in therapeutic interactions. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate response for Joli to demonstrate in this scenario. 64) Which approach to therapy attempts to make an individual whole by expressing pent-up feelings and dealing with unfinished business from past conflicts? A) Gestalt B) cognitive C) behaviour D) client-centered Answer: A Rationale: Gestalt therapy focuses on ways to unite mind and body to make a person whole. The goal is self-awareness, and this is achieved by helping clients express pent-up feelings and recognize unfinished business from past conflicts. 65) Which statement about the "empty chair technique" is accurate? A) The client is given the opportunity to confront and explore feelings. B) The therapist is most likely an adherent of the psychodynamic approach. C) The client learns to change false beliefs. D) The therapist is practicing a technique most closely associated with marital therapy. Answer: A Rationale: The client is asked to imagine that a feeling, person, situation, or object is occupying the empty chair that has been placed beside him or her. The client is encouraged to talk to the chair’s occupant with the goal of expressing emotions and exploring the impact that the occupant of the chair has had on the client’s life. 66) It has been said that group therapy is useful in dispelling "pluralistic ignorance." To what does this phrase refer? A) the collective lack of knowledge held by all the members of the group. B) people's belief that they are the only ones with certain feelings and problems. C) the group mind-set that develops as group therapy progresses, which oftentimes leads to rigidity of thought. D) not knowing what the other members of the group are thinking. Answer: B Rationale: The shared group experience can show people that others share the same false belief that "it's only me." This feeling may come from the fact that people tend to conceal negative information about themselves from others. 67) A husband and wife are experiencing marital difficulties. If they go to couples counselling, what will the therapist most likely believe to be the source of their problems? A) unsatisfying sexual practices. B) poor communication patterns. C) differences in ethical and moral values. D) emotional instability. Answer: B Rationale: Couple therapy seeks to clarify typical communication patterns of partners and then help them improve the quality of their interaction. 68) Where do family therapists tend to focus their attention? A) on the cognitions of the most maladjusted individuals in the family. B) on the behaviours of the most maladjusted individuals in the family. C) on the family member who seems to be the most problematic. D) on the whole family system. Answer: D Rationale: Each family member is treated as a part of a system of relationships. The therapist works with the family to help them perceive what is troubling one or more of the family members. 69) Research suggests that certain parenting practices may maintain a child’s anxiety. What are the implications of this research? A) when parents do not allow their children sufficient autonomy, their children may not gain enough self-efficacy to cope successfully with social relationships. B) when parents do not allow their children sufficient autonomy, their children may not gain enough self-efficacy to cope successfully with novel tasks. C) the most importance should be placed on changing the adolescents' level of functioning. D) the most importance should be placed on changing the mothers' and fathers' parenting practices. Answer: B Rationale: When children are not allowed sufficient autonomy, novel tasks may continue to provoke anxiety. In a study of children who had anxiety disorders, half of the children underwent cognitive behavioural therapy that included skills training and exposure to a hierarchy of feared situations. The other half was involved in similar therapies, but their parents were also involved in the therapy sessions. Parents were taught how to increase their children’s autonomy and self-efficacy. Though both groups achieved lower levels of anxiety, the group whose parents were involved showed greater improvements than their peers whose parents were not involved. 70) Which statement is most consistent with the beliefs of Virginia Satir, a developer of family therapy approaches? A) family therapy does not help individual members, but rather the family group. B) the family therapist may play many roles, including influence agent, mediator, and referee. C) most family therapists assume that the problems brought into therapy are caused by dispositional aspects of individuals. D) the family therapist is not typically concerned with dissolving dysfunctional structural elements within families. Answer: B Rationale: Satir noted that the family therapist plays many roles, acting as an interpreter and clarifier of the interactions that are taking place and as influence agent, mediator, and referee. 71) A man who has alcoholism feels a strong affiliation to Alcoholics Anonymous (AA), to the extent that he devotedly attends their meetings and has volunteered to organize a number of AA functions. Relative to individuals who do not have as strong an attachment to AA, how will this man likely behave? A) This degree of reaction formation will ultimately lead to increased anxiety. B) His enthusaism will decrease and he will likely begin to drink alcohol again. C) He will be less likely to abuse alcohol. D) He will be more likely to initially resist drinking, but will likely relapse in the course of the next year. Answer: C Rationale: Self-help groups have the most impact on individuals who are satisfied with the groups of which they are a part. Strong affiliation with a group allows the individual to maintain behavioural self-efficacy, in this case with respect to ability to control alcoholism. 72) How do most proponents of biomedical therapies conceive of mental disorders? A) as having psychological origins. B) as originating from childhood experiences. C) as stemming from problems in the brain. D) as being less important than medical illnesses. Answer: C Rationale: When something goes wrong with the brain, the results are seen in abnormal behaviours and abnormal emotional and cognitive patterns. Environmental, social, and behavioural disturbances can alter the functioning of the brain. 73) In the history of the treatment of mental disorders, which discovery has had the most dramatic impact? A) psychosurgical procedures. B) electroconvulsive therapy. C) drug therapies. D) the unconscious mind. Answer: C Rationale: In the history of the treatment of mental disorders, nothing has rivaled the revolution created by the discovery of drugs that can calm anxious patients, restore contact with reality in withdrawn patients, and suppress hallucinations in psychotic patients. 74) What is the main reason why the number of patients in mental hospitals in Canada has decreased since the 1950s? A) psychosurgery. B) improvement in psychotherapeutic techniques. C) drug therapies. D) electroconvulsive therapy. Answer: C Rationale: In 1955, over 66,000 Canadians were living in mental institutions, with an average stay of several years. With the introduction of drug therapies, this number decreased so that by the early 1970’s, it was estimated that fewer than half of the country’s mental patients actually resided in mental hospitals (and those who did only stayed for an average of a few months). 75) In part, how do antipsychotic drugs affect the brain? A) by reducing norepinephrine and serotonin B) by reducing dopamine C) by increasing norepinephrine and serotonin D) by increasing dopamine Answer: B Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs work in part by reducing the activity of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain. 76) What is the dominant symptom of tardive dyskinesia? A) loss of bladder control. B) loss of hair. C) a reduction in the production of white blood cells. D) disturbance of motor control. Answer: D Rationale: Tardive dyskinesia is a disturbance of motor control, especially the facial muscles, caused by antipsychotic drugs. 77) Which statement about antipsychotic drugs is supported by research? A) Thay address the psychopathology underlying schizophrenia. B) They virtually eliminate the possibility of a relapse. C) They are effective at controlling the most disruptive symptoms of schizophrenia. D) They control only minor symptoms associated with schizophrenia. Answer: C Rationale: Research on antipsychotic drugs suggest that overall, they are effective at controlling the most disruptive symptoms of schizophrenia. 78) How do antidepressants affect the brain? A) by decreasing norepinephrine and serotonin B) by decreasing dopamine C) by increasing norepinephrine and serotonin D) by increasing dopamine Answer: C Rationale: Antidepressants work by increasing the activity of two neurotransmitters: norepinephrine and serotonin. 79) Which psychological disorder is typically treated with tricyclics and monoamine oxidase inhibitors? A) schizophrenia. B) dementia. C) anxiety. D) depression. Answer: D Rationale: Tricyclics, SSRI's like Prozac, and MAO inhibitors are the three classes of antidepressant medications. In differing ways, they each leave more neurotransmitters available to bring about neural signals that in about 50 percent of cases will relieve the symptoms of depression. 80) Drug X works by limiting the action of monoamine oxidase. What will likely be the resulting effect of Drug X on the brain? A) an increase in norepinephrine at the synapse. B) a decrease of norepinephrine at the synapse. C) an increase of dopamine at the synapse. D) a decrease of dopamine at the synapse. Answer: A Rationale: The monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors limit the action of the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which is responsible for breaking down (metabolizing) norepinephrine. When MAO is inhibited, more of the neurotransmitter is left available and active to bring about neural signals that help decrease the symptoms of depression. 81) Which psychological disorder has been treated fairly effectively with lithium salts? A) bipolar disorder. B) schizophrenia. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) borderline personality disorder. Answer: A Rationale: Lithium salts have proven effective in the treatment of bipolar disorders. 82) A patient suffers from panic disorder. Which type of medication will the psychiatrist most likely prescribe? A) Valium B) Xanax C) an antianxiety drug D) an antidepressant drug Answer: D Rationale: Panic disorders, agoraphobia, and specific phobias seem to respond best to antidepressants, although researchers do not yet understand the biological mechanisms involved in this. 83) Which psychological disorder is best treated with Valium and Xanax? A) generalized anxiety disorder B) panic disorder C) schizophrenia D) major depressive disorder Answer: A Rationale: Benzodiazepines are useful in treating generalized anxiety disorder by increasing the activity of GABA. 84) Jeffrey has undergone a prefrontal lobotomy. How will Jeffrey most likely behave? A) He will demonstrate heightened aggression. B) He will show emotional flatness. C) He will demonstrate hyperactivity. D) He will show extreme agitation. Answer: B Rationale: Prefrontal lobotomy severs connections between the frontal lobes and diencephalon, particularly the thalamus and hypothalamus, bringing about permanent changes in cognitive functions, emotional expression, social behaviours, and coherent sense of self. This type of psychosurgery is no longer performed because the operation permanently destroyed basic aspects of human nature. 85) Which individuals have benefitted the most from the use of electroconvulsive therapy? A) those with serious depression. B) those with obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) those with generalized anxiety disorder. D) those with schizophrenia. Answer: A Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy has proven quite successful at alleviating the symptoms of serious depression. 86) Which alternative to ECT uses repeated pulses of magnetic stimulation? A) vagus nerve stimulation. B) rTMS. C) positron emission tomography. D) fMRI. Answer: B Rationale: Repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (rTMS) is a technique for producing temporary inactivation of brain areas using repeated pulses of magnetic stimulation. It can be just as effective as some antidepressant drugs for relief of major depressive disorder and some other psychopathologies, even though research has not yet determined why this is so. 87) Typically, how long does it take for ECT to alleviate the symptoms of depression? A) three to four days B) eight to ten days C) one month D) three months Answer: A Rationale: ECT works quickly at alleviating depressive symptoms in a three or four day course of treatment. Drug therapies, on the other hand, can take one to two weeks before symptoms are alleviated. 88) Esther is about to undergo electroconvulsive therapy. What side effects can she expect? A) substantial deficits in physical functioning. B) substantial deficits in cognitive functioning. C) a temporary speech impairment. D) temporary memory problems. Answer: D Rationale: ECT has proven quite successful in alleviating the symptoms of serious depression. However, because the biological mechanisms that cause it to be successful are largely unknown, and because of its potential side-effects, it is usually reserved for the most severe cases of depression. ECT produces amnesia for the events in the period of time preceding the treatment as well as difficulty forming new memories. Most patients recover from these deficits in the first few weeks after treatment. 89) If one were to use a computer analogy to point out the main distinction between psychological and biomedical approaches to treatment, which analogy would be most appropriate? A) psychological treatments focus on changing the hardware, whereas biomedical treatments focus on changing the software. B) biomedical treatments focus on changing the hardware, whereas psychological treatments focus on changing the software. C) both biomedical and psychological treatments focus on not changing the software. D) both biomedical and the psychological treatments focus on changing the software. Answer: B Rationale: With respect to this analogy, if you think of the brain as a computer, mental illness may arise either from the brain’s hardware or from the software that programs its actions. Biomedical treatments focus on changing the brain’s hardware and psychological treatments focus on changing its software. However, cutting edge research blurs the edges between hardware and software. There is growing evidence that psychological therapies change the brain in lasting ways. 90) In a study described in the textbook, individuals with social phobia were treated either biomedically or psychologically. Following the treatment period, they were asked to deliver speeches and underwent PET scans. In terms of behavioural measures and brain activity, what was concluded from this study? A) both treatment groups showed behavioural improvement and decreased activity in areas of the brain associated with emotional responses. B) although both groups showed behavioural improvement, only the biomedical treatment led to decreased activity in areas of the brain associated with emotional responses. C) although both groups showed decreased activity in areas of the brain associated with emotional responses, only those treated psychologically showed behavioural improvement. D) neither treatment group demonstrated behavioural improvement or changes in brain activity when compared to a control group of participants. Answer: A Rationale: People with social phobias treated either biomedically or psychologically showed behavioural improvement and decreased activity in areas of the brain associated with emotional responses. 91) In an early review of research on the effectiveness of therapy, what did Hans Eysenck discover about roughly two-thirds of all people with neurotic problems? A) They manifested symptoms that were simply imagined. B) They would recover spontaneously within two years. C) They could be cured through the use of drug therapy. D) They could not be cured through any known treatment. Answer: B Rationale: It remains true that some percentage of people recover without intervention. This spontaneous remission is one of the baseline criteria against which the effectiveness of therapies must be assessed. Doing something must be shown to lead to a higher percentage of improved cases than doing nothing. 92) A researcher believes that if a new form of therapy works, it works only because the patient expects it to work. Which term best characterizes this phenomenon? A) the spontaneous-remission effect. B) the placebo effect. C) clinical ecology. D) behavioural reversal. Answer: B Rationale: The placebo effect (the belief that improvement will occur, which leads to actual improvement) is an important part of the therapeutic process. However, researchers generally want to show that their specific therapy is more effective than the placebo effect alone. 93) A researcher would like to determine if a new form of therapy is more effective than a placebo therapy. To what should the new therapy be compared? A) all of the other forms of therapy. B) only those therapies that have previously been shown to be ineffective. C) psychoanalysis. D) a neutral therapy that just creates expectations of healing. Answer: D Rationale: If the new form of therapy does not produce better outcomes than the placebo therapy, the new therapy has not been shown to be more effective than the placebo effect alone. 94) With respect to the question of therapeutic effectiveness, what aspect concerns contemporary researchers the most? A) whether or not psychotherapy works. B) what therapies work best for what problems. C) what psychotherapy has contributed to the outpatient movement D) how much psychotherapy costs relative to the benefits. Answer: B Rationale: The question of whether therapy works has been answered in general by previous studies. Researchers want to increase knowledge about what therapies work best for what problems, and to ensure that what works in research settings also works in the community where there is more diversity of symptoms and experiences. 95) Students at a university are encouraged to take workshops that offer relaxation training so that they can better deal with test anxiety before it develops. Which term best characterizes this approach? A) Proactive prevention B) Primary prevention C) Secondary prevention D) Tertiary prevention Answer: B Rationale: Tertiary prevention seeks to prevent relapse and therefore to limit the long-term impact of a psychological disorder. Primary therapy seeks to prevent a condition before it begins. 96) When a therapist is proposing a probable etiology, he or she is estimating the course the problem will take with and without any treatment. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Proposing a probable etiology involves identifying the likely cause or origin of a problem, not estimating the course it will take with or without treatment. It focuses on understanding the underlying factors contributing to the issue rather than predicting its future course. 97) Resistance is the process by which a person in psychoanalysis attaches feelings to a therapist formerly held toward some significant person who figures in a past emotional conflict. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Resistance in psychoanalysis refers to the unconscious defense mechanisms that clients use to avoid the exploration of painful or threatening material, not necessarily attaching feelings to the therapist. It involves avoidance, reluctance, or opposition to the therapeutic process, often stemming from unconscious conflicts. 98) A person who is undergoing catharsis while in a session of psychoanalytic therapy will express strongly felt, but usually repressed, emotions. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Catharsis in psychoanalytic therapy involves the release of pent-up emotions, often through expression or reliving of repressed feelings or memories. It is a fundamental aspect of psychoanalytic therapy aimed at relieving psychological tension by bringing unconscious material into conscious awareness. 99) Troubled interpersonal relationships and strong societal pressures are important focuses of the therapy of Harry Stack Sullivan. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Harry Stack Sullivan, a key figure in interpersonal psychotherapy, emphasized the significance of interpersonal relationships and social factors in shaping an individual's personality and mental health. His therapeutic approach focuses on improving interpersonal functioning and addressing the impact of social dynamics on mental well-being. 100) Systematic desensitization, flooding, and aversion therapy are forms of psychodynamic therapies developed by successors of Sigmund Freud. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Systematic desensitization, flooding, and aversion therapy are actually forms of behavior therapy, which emerged as alternatives to psychodynamic approaches. They are based on principles of learning and behavior modification, particularly within the framework of classical and operant conditioning, rather than Freudian psychodynamic theory. 101) Central to the theory of reciprocal inhibition, which Joseph Wolpe applied to treatment of fears and phobias, is the idea that the nervous system cannot be relaxed and agitated at the same time. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Reciprocal inhibition, a key concept in Joseph Wolpe's theory of systematic desensitization, suggests that relaxation and anxiety cannot coexist simultaneously within the nervous system. By inducing relaxation in the presence of anxiety-provoking stimuli, the anxiety response is inhibited, facilitating the extinction of fear responses. 102) When using the technique known as flooding, a therapist might have a client who is afraid of the dark sit in a darkened room. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Flooding involves exposing the individual to the feared stimulus or situation at full intensity, without gradual exposure or relaxation techniques. In this case, having a client afraid of the dark sit in a darkened room is an example of flooding, aiming to extinguish the fear response by prolonged exposure. 103) Aversion therapy would be a useful technique for treating an individual who is extremely fearful of dogs. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Aversion therapy involves pairing a negative stimulus with a behavior to reduce the frequency of that behavior. It is typically used to eliminate undesirable behaviors rather than fears or phobias. Therefore, it would not be an appropriate technique for treating a fear of dogs. 104) Research has determined that symbolic modeling therapy is more effective than participant modeling when treating phobias. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Symbolic modeling therapy involves observing someone else cope with the feared object or situation, often through film or other media, while participant modeling involves direct participation in the feared activity with the support of a model. Research does not consistently show one to be more effective than the other; effectiveness may vary depending on individual preferences and the specific phobia being treated. 105) According to Aaron Beck, depression is maintained because depressed patients are unaware of the negative automatic thoughts that they habitually formulate. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Aaron Beck's cognitive theory of depression posits that negative automatic thoughts contribute to the maintenance of depression. Depressed individuals may not be fully aware of these automatic thoughts, which are often negative and distorted, but they influence mood and behavior, perpetuating the depressive cycle. 106) According to Carl Rogers, the problem facing all humans is that we too often receive unconditional positive regard, so we never learn to take responsibility for our actions. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Carl Rogers emphasized the importance of unconditional positive regard in fostering personal growth and self-actualization. He believed that individuals need a supportive environment, including unconditional positive regard, to develop a congruent self-concept. Rogers did not suggest that excessive unconditional positive regard was a problem; rather, it was a facilitator of psychological health. 107) One of the best-known methods of Gestalt therapy is the empty chair technique, in which two clients are asked to sit in a room with one empty chair. The therapist observes how the clients determine who shall stand and who shall sit. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: In the empty chair technique of Gestalt therapy, a single client is typically asked to imagine or interact with another person or aspect of themselves represented by an empty chair. It is not a method involving two clients and observing their interactions; rather, it is a tool for facilitating awareness, exploration, and integration of conflicting aspects of the self. 108) In family therapy, the "client" is a whole nuclear family, and each family member is treated as a member of a system of relationships. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Family therapy considers the family unit as the client, recognizing that individual behavior and psychological functioning are influenced by interactions within the family system. Each family member's role and relationships within the family are examined to understand patterns of communication, interaction, and dysfunction within the family unit. 109) The self-help concept applied to community group settings was pioneered by Alcoholics Anonymous. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is credited with pioneering the self-help concept applied to community group settings, particularly for individuals struggling with addiction. AA's model of peer support, mutual aid, and shared experience has influenced numerous self-help and support groups addressing a wide range of issues beyond alcoholism. 110) Antipsychotic drugs cure schizophrenia, eliminating the underlying psychopathology. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs are used to manage symptoms of schizophrenia by targeting neurotransmitter imbalances in the brain, particularly dopamine. While they can effectively alleviate symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, they do not cure schizophrenia or eliminate its underlying psychopathology. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication, therapy, and support to manage symptoms and promote recovery. 111) Antidepressant drugs generally work by increasing the activity of the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and serotonin. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Most antidepressant medications, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), work by increasing the levels of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. By doing so, they help regulate mood and alleviate symptoms of depression. 112) Lithium salts have proven effective in the treatment of bipolar disorders. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Lithium salts are one of the most well-established treatments for bipolar disorder. They are effective in stabilizing mood and preventing both manic and depressive episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder. Lithium is considered a first-line treatment for bipolar disorder and has been used successfully for decades. 113) Electroconvulsive therapy has proven extremely successful at quickly alleviating the symptoms of serious depression. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a highly effective treatment for severe depression, especially when other treatments have not been successful. It involves administering electrical currents to the brain, resulting in a controlled seizure. ECT is often used in cases of severe depression where rapid symptom relief is necessary, and it can bring about significant improvement even after just a few sessions. 114) After years of study, researchers have concluded that psychodynamic therapy is still the best alternative when making a choice regarding clinical intervention. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: While psychodynamic therapy has its merits and can be effective for certain individuals and conditions, there is no single "best" therapy for all situations. Different therapeutic approaches, including cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), interpersonal therapy (IPT), and others, have been shown to be effective for various mental health conditions. The choice of therapy depends on factors such as the individual's diagnosis, preferences, and therapeutic goals. 115) With respect to the goal of preventing psychological problems, primary prevention attempts to limit the duration and severity of a disorder once it has begun, and tertiary prevention seeks to prevent a condition before it begins. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: In the context of preventing psychological problems, primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disorder before it occurs, typically through interventions targeting risk factors or promoting protective factors at the population level. Tertiary prevention, on the other hand, focuses on reducing the impact and recurrence of a disorder that has already been diagnosed, often through rehabilitation and maintenance strategies to prevent relapse or exacerbation. 116) A __________ counselor is a member of a religious order who specializes in the treatment of psychological disorders, often combining spirituality with practical problem solving. Answer: Pastoral Rationale: A pastoral counselor is a member of a religious order who integrates spiritual principles with therapeutic techniques to address psychological issues. They often provide counseling services within the framework of a particular faith tradition, offering support and guidance to individuals seeking help with mental health concerns while incorporating spiritual elements into their therapy sessions. 117) The principal procedure used in psychoanalysis to probe the unconscious and release repressed material is called __________. In this procedure, a patient lets his or her mind wander and gives a running account of thoughts, wishes, physical sensations, and mental images. Answer: Free association Rationale: Free association is a fundamental technique in psychoanalysis developed by Sigmund Freud. In free association, the patient is encouraged to express thoughts, feelings, and memories without censorship or judgment, allowing unconscious material to emerge. This method helps the therapist uncover repressed conflicts and gain insight into the patient's unconscious motivations. 118) __________ refers to what happens when a therapist comes to like or dislike a patient because the patient is perceived as similar to significant people in the therapist's life. Answer: Countertransference Rationale: Countertransference occurs when a therapist projects their own unresolved feelings, attitudes, or experiences onto a client, based on similarities between the client and significant individuals from the therapist's past. These unconscious reactions can influence the therapeutic relationship and the therapist's ability to remain objective, potentially hindering the effectiveness of treatment. 119) Melanie Klein contended that there are two fundamental organizing forces in the psyche: __________ which unites the psyche, and hate, which __________. Answer: Love; splits the psyche Rationale: Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, proposed that love and hate are primary organizing forces in the psyche. Love serves to integrate the psyche, fostering connections and emotional bonds, while hate disrupts this integration, leading to fragmentation and psychological conflicts. Klein emphasized the significance of early childhood experiences in shaping these emotional dynamics. 120) A client is taught to relax her muscles and imagine visually her feared stimulus, in gradual steps from initially remote associations to direct images. Psychologically confronting the feared stimulus while being relaxed and doing so in a graduated sequence is a therapeutic technique called __________. Answer: Systematic desensitization Rationale: Systematic desensitization is a behavioral therapy technique developed by Joseph Wolpe for treating phobias and anxiety disorders. It involves teaching clients relaxation techniques, such as progressive muscle relaxation, and then exposing them to increasingly anxiety-provoking stimuli in a systematic and controlled manner. Through repeated exposure and relaxation, clients learn to associate relaxation with the feared stimulus, reducing anxiety over time. 121) The term __________ therapy refers to any of a group of psychotherapeutic treatments that attempt to change feelings and behaviors by changing the way a client thinks about or perceives significant life experiences. Answer: Cognitive Rationale: Cognitive therapy focuses on identifying and modifying dysfunctional thought patterns and beliefs that contribute to emotional distress and maladaptive behaviors. By challenging and restructuring these cognitive distortions, individuals can develop healthier ways of interpreting and responding to life events, leading to improvements in mood and behavior. 122) One of the earliest forms of cognitive therapy was __________ therapy, developed by Albert Ellis. Therapists who follow this approach teach clients to recognize the "shoulds," "oughts," and "musts" that are controlling their actions. Answer: Rational-Emotive (RET) Rationale: Rational-Emotive Therapy (RET), developed by Albert Ellis, emphasizes identifying and challenging irrational beliefs and distorted thinking patterns that contribute to emotional disturbances. Therapists using RET help clients replace irrational beliefs with more rational and adaptive thoughts, leading to improved emotional well-being and behavior. 123) __________ is a statistical technique for evaluating hypotheses by providing a formal mechanism for detecting the general conclusions found in data from many different experiments. Answer: Meta-analysis Rationale: Meta-analysis involves the statistical synthesis of results from multiple studies on a particular topic to provide a comprehensive and quantitative summary of the research findings. This method allows researchers to determine the overall effect size of a treatment or intervention across various studies, enhancing the reliability and generalizability of conclusions drawn from the collective evidence. 124) There is growing evidence that psychological therapies produce lasting changes in the __________. Answer: Brain Rationale: Neuroscientific research has demonstrated that psychological therapies can induce neuroplasticity, leading to structural and functional changes in the brain associated with improved mental health outcomes. These changes may involve alterations in neural connectivity, neurotransmitter systems, and brain regions implicated in emotion regulation, cognitive processing, and behavior control. 125) One of the most important paradigm shifts in mental health care in recent years is supplementing treatment with __________. Answer: Prevention Rationale: There has been increasing recognition of the importance of preventive interventions in mental health care, aimed at reducing the incidence and severity of mental health problems before they fully develop. Prevention strategies may include early intervention programs, promotion of mental health literacy, fostering resilience and coping skills, and addressing social determinants of mental health. Integrating prevention efforts alongside treatment can lead to better outcomes and reduce the burden of mental illness on individuals and society. 126) The field of therapy must appear to be a bewildering maze of choices to the average citizen. Suppose someone pretty intelligent asks you to make sense out of this maze. Can you state the basic goals of the therapeutic process, list the major approaches, and describe the major types of therapists and therapeutic settings? Answer: Goals include: reaching a diagnosis; proposing probable etiology; prognosis; treatment planning and implementation. Major approaches: biomedical; cognitive; behavioural; psychodynamic; existential-humanistic; integrative. Therapists: clinical social workers; psychologists; psychiatrists; psychoanalysts; pastoral counselors. Therapeutic settings: hospitals, clinics, schools, private offices, e-mail. 127) How did psychoanalysis develop and what are its major assumptions? Describe the techniques used by psychoanalysts and then mention briefly how specific neo-Freudian therapies differ from the traditional Freudian approach. Finally, compare psychoanalysis to the techniques a behaviour therapist would use to treat problems. Answer: Psychoanalysis is an extensive and prolonged technique for exploring the unconscious. It is an insight therapy, which employs dream analysis, catharsis, and free association. Discuss transference and countertransference. Other psychodynmaic therapies include those of Harry Stack Sullivan and Melanie Klein. Behaviour therapies do not look for unconscious motives, but instead focus on the use of principles of learning to increase or decrease behaviours. 128) Imagine that you are Aaron Beck and a client has come to you for treatment of depression. Describe the focus of your efforts. How would your approach differ from that of your contemporary, Albert Ellis? If you were Carl Rogers, would your approach be any different? If so, how? Finally, explain how a proponent of biomedical therapy would treat depression. Answer: Cognitive therapists help clients correct faulty patterns of thinking by substituting more effective problem solving techniques. RET is a comprehensive system of personality change based on transformation of irrational beliefs that cause distressing, highly emotional reactions and undesirable behaviours. Rogers' approach is client-centered, non-directive, reflective and based on unconditional positive regard and the belief that all people strive for self-actualization. Biomedical approaches focus on brain changes and resulting behaviour changes and changes in emotional and thought patterns brought about by drug therapies, psychosurgery, rTMS, and ECT. 129) Imagine that your friend has a phobia of spiders. What are some different techniques that a behaviour therapist would use to treat the phobia? Which treatment would have the longest lasting effect? Answer: Exposure therapies require the client to be exposed to the feared object. Systematic desensitization teaches the client to relax while they are exposed to the feared object. Sociallearning therapy modifies problematic behaviour patterns by having the client learn responses through observation. One study showed that participant modeling was more successful than desensitization at eliminating a phobia. 130) Regarding therapeutic treatment of disorders and problems of daily living, the goal of research is to discover the most efficient ways to overcome distress. How do researchers test the effectiveness of particular therapies and make comparisons between therapies? Answer: Spontaneous remission is a baseline criteria for deciding the effectiveness of therapies, as is the placebo effect. Researchers are more interested now in which therapies work best for which problems. The fact that psychotherapy and drug therapy work at about the same level of effectiveness alone and better together has been established. Clinical observation and basic research, uncontrolled and controlled studies of short- and long-term outcomes are important. 131) Define and discuss prevention, mentioning primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention and giving examples of each. Answer: People usually present for treatment when they already have symptoms. Researchers have identified some of the risk factors that might lead to prevention of problems before they begin (primary prevention), limiting the duration and severity of the problem once it has begun (secondary prevention), and/or limiting the long-term effects of problems by preventing relapse (tertiary prevention). Give examples (e.g., tertiary—help people maintain drug therapies). 132) Briefly discuss what psychologists can do to be sure that the therapies they are doing are effective. Answer: Randomized experimental designs should be used to compare the therapy the clinician is using with other well-known therapies and placebos. Mention factors that can bias client and clinician perception of improvement, e.g., spontaneous remission. 133) Discuss evidence that suggests that therapy can affect brain activity. Answer: Research shows that psychotherapy can restore the brain’s balance in the same systems that are affected by drugs. 1) Which of the following is TRUE of clinical psychologists who engage in private practice? A) They must go through a licensing procedure in most provinces. B) They have an M.D. degree only. C) They can prescribe drugs for their clients. D) They are always trained in psychoanalysis. Answer: A Rationale: Clinical psychologists engaging in private practice typically must undergo a licensing procedure, which varies by jurisdiction but generally involves meeting specific educational and training requirements, as well as passing licensing examinations. 2) What type of mental health professional must possess a doctorate in medicine? A) psychiatric social workers B) psychiatrists C) clinical psychologists D) psychiatric nurses Answer: B Rationale: Psychiatrists are medical doctors (M.D. or D.O.) who specialize in mental health and must possess a doctorate in medicine to practice. 3) What type of mental health professional is most likely to specialize in work with students? A) psychiatrists B) clinical psychologists C) psychiatric social workers D) counseling psychologists Answer: D Rationale: Counseling psychologists are most likely to specialize in work with students, particularly in university counseling centers or educational settings. 4) Most therapists today _____________. A) adhere to the psychoanalytic approach B) adhere to the behavioral approach C) adhere to the humanistic approach D) do not adhere strictly to one approach Answer: D Rationale: Most therapists today do not adhere strictly to one theoretical approach but instead integrate various techniques and perspectives, drawing from multiple theoretical orientations based on the needs of their clients and empirical evidence. 5) What technique is used when patients are asked to relate thoughts, feelings, or images without modifying them? A) hypnosis B) primary analysis C) dream analysis D) free association Answer: D Rationale: Free association is a technique used in psychoanalysis where patients are encouraged to express thoughts, feelings, and images without censorship or modification, allowing for the exploration of unconscious processes. 6) A therapist is interested in interpreting dreams and in having clients relate their thoughts without modifying them. This therapist is most likely to be a: A) client-centered therapist. B) psychoanalyst. C) cognitive therapist. D) behavior therapist. Answer: B Rationale: The interest in interpreting dreams and encouraging clients to relate their thoughts without modification aligns with the principles of psychoanalysis, making option B, psychoanalyst, the most appropriate choice. 7) What is the process by which a patient projects feelings about other individuals onto the psychoanalyst? A) resistance B) reactance C) countertransference D) transference Answer: D Rationale: Transference is the process by which a patient projects feelings, attitudes, and desires onto the therapist, often based on past relationships, and is a central concept in psychoanalytic therapy. 8) The major goal of insight therapies is to give people __________. A) basic training in observational learning and practice B) feedback from their biologically controlled responses C) help in understanding perceptual processes D) clearer understanding of their feelings, motivations, and actions Answer: D Rationale: The major goal of insight therapies, such as psychoanalysis and psychodynamic therapy, is to provide individuals with a clearer understanding of their feelings, motivations, behaviors, and underlying conflicts, leading to insight and personal growth. 9) Psychoanalysis was a therapy technique designed by __________. A) Fritz Perls B) Sigmund Freud C) Carl Rogers D) Alfred Adler Answer: B Rationale: Psychoanalysis was developed by Sigmund Freud as a therapy technique aimed at exploring unconscious conflicts and desires through techniques such as free association, dream analysis, and interpretation of transference. 10) The term “free association” is associated with which of the following therapeutic endeavors? A) applied behavior analysis B) analytical analysis C) specific therapies D) psychoanalysis Answer: D Rationale: Free association is a technique associated with psychoanalysis, where patients are encouraged to express their thoughts, feelings, and associations without censorship or modification, facilitating the exploration of unconscious processes and conflicts. 11) Person-centred therapy has its roots in: A) humanistic psychology. B) the medical model. C) psychoanalysis. D) the cognitive model. Answer: A Rationale: Person-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, is based on humanistic psychology, which emphasizes individuals' inherent capacity for growth, self-actualization, and personal fulfillment. 12) Insight therapies include all but which one of the following? A) psychoanalysis B) humanistic therapy C) behavior modification D) Gestalt therapies Answer: C Rationale: Insight therapies focus on increasing self-awareness and understanding of one's emotions, thoughts, and behaviors. Behavior modification, on the other hand, is a form of therapy that focuses on changing behavior through reinforcement and conditioning techniques rather than insight. 13) Psychoanalytic theory was developed by: A) Freud. B) Perls. C) Erikson. D) Rogers. Answer: A Rationale: Psychoanalytic theory, including psychoanalysis as a therapeutic approach, was developed by Sigmund Freud. 14) Of the following, which type of therapist would be more interested in a client’s past rather than the current situation? A) psychoanalytic B) rational-emotive C) behavioral D) Gestalt Answer: A Rationale: Psychoanalytic therapists, influenced by Freudian theory, often focus on exploring a client's past experiences, particularly childhood experiences and relationships, to understand current emotional and behavioral patterns. 15) The overall goal of psychoanalysis is to: A) make the unconscious conscious. B) promote fulfillment of the person’s potential. C) remove symptoms as quickly as possible. D) correct faulty thinking and perception. Answer: A Rationale: The primary goal of psychoanalysis is to make the unconscious aspects of the mind conscious, facilitating insight into unresolved conflicts, desires, and motivations that influence thoughts and behaviors. 16) In the psychoanalytic technique of _________, the patient is encouraged to say whatever thoughts come to mind, regardless of their order or appropriateness. A) abreaction B) cathexis C) free association D) transference Answer: C Rationale: Free association is a psychoanalytic technique in which the patient is encouraged to express any thoughts, feelings, or images that come to mind without censorship or modification, allowing unconscious material to emerge. 17) When using __________, the psychoanalyst points out connections and associations the client may not have known to exist in her personality. A) abreaction B) empathy C) unconditional positive regard D) interpretation Answer: D Rationale: Interpretation in psychoanalysis involves the psychoanalyst pointing out connections and associations between the client's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that may be unconscious or unrecognized by the client, promoting insight and self-understanding. 18) A student finds himself hating a professor because the latter reminds him of his abusive father. In psychoanalytic terms, the student is exhibiting __________. A) abreaction B) transference C) resistance D) cathexis Answer: B Rationale: Transference occurs when unconscious feelings, desires, and attitudes from past relationships are projected onto another person, often the therapist or someone in a current relationship, as seen in the student's feelings toward the professor. 19) Psychoanalysis is considered LEAST useful in treating ___________. A) anxiety disorders B) phobia C) depression D) schizophrenia Answer: D Rationale: Psychoanalysis is generally considered less useful in treating schizophrenia, a severe mental disorder characterized by hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking, which typically requires a different approach such as medication and behavioral therapies. 20) Sigmund Freud believed that many psychological problems resulted from: A) feelings and emotions repressed during childhood. B) organic disturbances, such as brain tumors. C) poor social interactions. D) failure to “find oneself” during adolescence. Answer: A Rationale: Sigmund Freud proposed that many psychological problems stem from unresolved conflicts and repressed feelings and emotions from early childhood experiences, which influence thoughts, feelings, and behaviors throughout life. 21) The belief that anxiety results from feelings and emotions repressed during childhood was proposed by _________. A) Perls B) Moniz C) Pinel D) Freud Answer: D Rationale: Sigmund Freud proposed the idea that anxiety arises from unresolved conflicts and repressed feelings and emotions from early childhood experiences, a central tenet of psychoanalytic theory. 22) Which method was NOT used by Freud to identify repressed feelings? A) role playing B) dream interpretation C) asking a client to talk about whatever comes to mind D) free association Answer: A Rationale: Freud used various methods, including dream interpretation, free association, and encouraging clients to talk about whatever comes to mind (free association), to identify repressed feelings and unconscious conflicts. Role playing is not commonly associated with Freudian psychoanalysis. 23) Maureen is in therapy because she is very frightened of her father and feels tongue-tied around him. After a few months she begins to feel frightened of her therapist also. According to Freud, this is an example of __________. A) latency B) interpretation C) transference D) sublimation Answer: C Rationale: According to Freudian psychoanalytic theory, transference occurs when unconscious feelings and attitudes from past relationships, such as those with parents, are transferred or projected onto the therapist or other individuals in the present. 24) On the door of the refrigerator is a sheet of paper with check marks on it. Every time Alice cleans her room properly and makes the bed she receives a check mark. When she accumulates 100 check marks, she can get the new video game she wants. What type of behavioral program are Alice’s parents using? A) modeling B) systematic desensitization C) token economy D) negative reinforcement Answer: C Rationale: Alice's parents are using a token economy, which involves providing tokens or rewards (in this case, check marks) for desired behaviors (cleaning her room and making the bed), which can be exchanged for larger rewards (the new video game). 25) During a case conference, a therapist says his recommendation is to use a technique based on classical conditioning that associates the client’s drinking with an unpleasant stimuli. You recognize that the recommended treatment is: A) modeling. B) extinction. C) aversion therapy. D) systematic desensitization. Answer: C Rationale: The recommended treatment described involves pairing the client's drinking behavior with an unpleasant stimulus, a technique known as aversion therapy, which is based on classical conditioning principles. 26) What do behavior therapists see as the cause of maladaptive behaviors? A) learning B) distortions in thinking C) unconscious conflicts D) discrepancy between the real self and the ideal self Answer: A Rationale: Behavior therapists attribute maladaptive behaviors to learning processes, such as conditioning and reinforcement, rather than to unconscious conflicts or distortions in thinking. 27) Which method of treating phobias involves progressive relaxation and exposure to the feared object (either actual or imagined)? A) extinction B) systematic desensitization C) punishment D) token economy Answer: B Rationale: Systematic desensitization involves combining relaxation techniques with gradual exposure to the feared object or situation, whether through imagination or real-life encounters, to reduce anxiety and fear associated with phobias. 28) Arranging anxiety-provoking situations in a hierarchy would be characteristic of __________. A) behavioral contracting B) operant conditioning C) aversive conditioning D) systematic desensitization Answer: D Rationale: Systematic desensitization involves creating a hierarchy of anxiety-provoking situations or stimuli, ranging from least to most anxiety-inducing, and then systematically exposing the individual to each level while practicing relaxation techniques to reduce anxiety. 29) Making someone who is afraid of snakes handle dozens of snakes in an effort to get him to overcome his fear is called __________. A) systematic desensitization B) aversive conditioning C) flooding D) paradoxical intent Answer: C Rationale: Flooding involves exposing an individual to an intense and prolonged exposure to the feared object or situation, with the goal of reducing anxiety through extinction of the fear response. 30) In which of the following therapies might a therapist use real physical pain to change behavior? A) operant conditioning B) aversive conditioning C) psychoanalysis D) desensitization Answer: B Rationale: Aversive conditioning involves pairing an undesirable behavior with an unpleasant stimulus, such as physical pain or discomfort, to decrease the likelihood of the behavior occurring in the future. 31) Paula’s mother painted Paula’s nails with an unpleasant-tasting salve to stop her nail biting. This illustrates ________. A) aversive conditioning B) systematic desensitization C) biofeedback D) modeling Answer: A Rationale: Paula's mother's action of applying an unpleasant-tasting salve to stop her nail-biting behavior represents aversive conditioning, where an undesirable behavior (nail biting) is paired with an unpleasant stimulus (unpleasant-tasting salve) to decrease the likelihood of the behavior occurring in the future. 32) Operant conditioning can be used in classrooms, hospitals, prisons, and industry by giving individuals exchangeable rewards for performing appropriate actions. This illustrates which of the following? A) classical conditioning B) bartering C) a token economy D) bribery Answer: C Rationale: This scenario illustrates a token economy, which is a form of operant conditioning involving the exchange of tokens or rewards for desirable behaviors, commonly used in various settings to promote positive behaviors and discourage undesirable ones. 33) Systematic desensitization is especially useful as a treatment for ___________. A) panic disorders B) schizophrenia C) depression D) phobias Answer: D Rationale: Systematic desensitization is a behavioral therapy technique particularly useful for treating phobias, as it involves gradual exposure to feared stimuli or situations paired with relaxation techniques to reduce anxiety and fear responses. 34) Aversive conditioning belongs in the category of: A) Gestalt therapy. B) psychoanalysis. C) classical conditioning therapies. D) operant conditioning therapies. Answer: C Rationale: Aversive conditioning, which involves pairing an undesirable behavior with an unpleasant stimulus to decrease the likelihood of the behavior recurring, falls under the category of classical conditioning therapies. 35) The focus of behavior therapies is on: A) conflict resolution. B) external observable behavior. C) restructuring the whole personality. D) finding the causes of undesirable behavior. Answer: B Rationale: Behavior therapies focus primarily on external, observable behaviors and use techniques based on learning principles to modify or change these behaviors. 36) In ___________, an unpleasant event is paired with a particular response in order to make that response less likely to occur. A) aversive conditioning B) token economies C) reward training D) biofeedback Answer: A Rationale: Aversive conditioning involves pairing an unpleasant event or stimulus with a specific behavior to decrease the likelihood of that behavior occurring in the future. 37) Systematic and contact desensitization evolved from: A) classical conditioning principles. B) modeling therapies. C) biofeedback techniques. D) operant conditioning principles. Answer: A Rationale: Systematic and contact desensitization techniques evolved from classical conditioning principles, specifically the process of extinction, where a conditioned fear response is gradually extinguished through repeated exposure to the feared stimulus without negative consequences. 38) Systematic desensitization is especially useful as a treatment for: A) panic disorders. B) schizophrenia. C) depression. D) phobias. Answer: D Rationale: Systematic desensitization is particularly effective in treating phobias, as it involves gradually exposing individuals to feared stimuli or situations in a controlled manner while pairing exposure with relaxation techniques to reduce anxiety and fear responses. 39) What approach to therapy uses the principles of classical and operant conditioning? A) behavior modification B) cognitive C) humanistic D) psychoanalytic Answer: A Rationale: Behavior modification, also known as behavior therapy, utilizes principles of classical and operant conditioning to change maladaptive behaviors through reinforcement, punishment, and extinction. 40) Which therapeutic approach is most concerned about changing the problem behavior? A) behavior modification B) cognitive C) humanistic D) psychoanalytic Answer: A Rationale: Behavior modification, or behavior therapy, is most concerned with changing specific problem behaviors using techniques based on learning principles, such as reinforcement, punishment, and extinction. 41) The first step in behavior therapy is to: A) listen carefully to the client’s description of his problem. B) develop a detailed treatment plan. C) explain the logic of the behavioral approach to the client. D) search for effective reinforcers to be used in modifying the client’s bad habit. Answer: A Rationale: The first step in behavior therapy is typically to listen carefully to the client's description of their problem, which helps the therapist understand the nature of the issue from the client's perspective and gather relevant information for developing an appropriate treatment plan. 42) The “token economy” is most closely associated with the ___________ approach to treatment. A) operant conditioning B) cognitive C) humanistic existential D) rational-emotive Answer: A Rationale: The "token economy" is a therapeutic approach based on operant conditioning principles, where desirable behaviors are reinforced with tokens or rewards that can be exchanged for privileges or goods, making option A, operant conditioning, the correct choice. 43) Within a token economy system, the solution to the problem of having to continually reinforce the patient for each correct response is to: A) introduce a partial reinforcement schedule. B) implement an extinction procedure. C) shift from a program of operant conditioning to a program of classical conditioning. D) use punishment, instead of positive reinforcement, to control the behavior on a long-term basis. Answer: A Rationale: In a token economy, introducing a partial reinforcement schedule means that not every correct response is reinforced, which helps to maintain the effectiveness of the reinforcement while reducing the need for continual reinforcement for each correct response. 44) Which therapy does NOT assume that many psychological problems are the result of internal thoughts and feelings? A) humanistic B) Gestalt C) psychoanalytic D) behavioral Answer: D Rationale: Behavioral therapy focuses primarily on observable behaviors and does not typically emphasize internal thoughts and feelings as the root cause of psychological problems, making it the correct choice. 45) _______ therapy assumes that problem behaviors are learned and, as such, can be unlearned. A) Behavior B) Group C) Gestalt D) Person-centered Answer: A Rationale: Behavior therapy assumes that problem behaviors are learned through conditioning processes and can be unlearned or modified through various behavioral techniques and interventions. 46) In ___________ therapy, the person must learn an association between the target behavior and an unpleasant event. Thus, the person receives unpleasant consequences for the undesired behavior. A) Gestalt B) group C) aversive conditioning D) rational-emotive Answer: C Rationale: Aversive conditioning involves associating an undesired behavior with an unpleasant stimulus or consequence to reduce the likelihood of the behavior occurring in the future. 47) Aversive conditioning: A) is a type of behavior therapy. B) is no longer used by therapists. C) is designed so that the person receives unpleasant consequences for undesired behavior. D) both A and C Answer: D Rationale: Aversive conditioning is a type of behavior therapy designed to reduce undesirable behaviors by associating them with unpleasant consequences, making options A and C correct. 48) A technique that assumes it is impossible to be relaxed and anxious at the same time is ___________. A) systematic desensitization B) overgeneralization C) conditioning D) free association Answer: A Rationale: Systematic desensitization is a technique used in behavior therapy that involves pairing relaxation techniques with gradually increasing exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli, based on the assumption that relaxation and anxiety cannot coexist simultaneously. 49) Which technique uses reinforcement to change behavior? A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning C) aversive conditioning D) desensitization Answer: A Rationale: Operant conditioning is a technique that uses reinforcement, both positive and negative, to modify or change behavior based on the consequences that follow the behavior. 50) After Jeff is expelled from school for missing too many classes, he seeks help from a therapist. The therapist develops a contract that specifies that if Jeff attends all his classes, he will be allowed certain privileges at home; however, if he cuts classes, he will be subject to certain penalties. Jeff’s therapist is probably a _______ therapist. A) behavior B) psychoanalytic C) client-centered D) rational-emotive Answer: A Rationale: The therapist in this scenario, who is using a contract specifying consequences for Jeff's behavior, is likely employing behavior therapy techniques, making option A, behavior therapist, the correct choice. 51) Jerry is 22 years old and still gets cavities from eating too many sweets. Jerry’s dentist trains him to think of the pain of having his teeth drilled each time he reaches for a piece of candy. The dentist is using _________ to cure Jerry’s excess eating of sweets. A) negative transference B) desensitization C) behavioral contracting D) aversive conditioning Answer: D Rationale: The dentist is using aversive conditioning by associating an unpleasant consequence (the pain of having teeth drilled) with the behavior of eating sweets to decrease the likelihood of Jerry continuing the behavior. 52) Every time Jeanie opens her cigarette case or uses her lighter, she gets a painful electric shock. Jeanie’s friends and family have been asked not to give her any cigarettes or light any for her, so she must use her own lighter if she wants to smoke. Eventually, Jeanie loses her desire to smoke, thanks to ___________. A) negative transference B) desensitization C) behavioral contracting D) aversive conditioning Answer: D Rationale: Jeanie loses her desire to smoke due to aversive conditioning, where smoking-related behaviors are paired with painful electric shocks, leading to a decrease in the behavior of smoking. 53) The method that gradually reduces a client’s fears is called ____________. A) operant conditioning B) free association C) desensitization D) reciprocal inhibition Answer: C Rationale: Desensitization is the method that gradually reduces a client's fears by exposing them to fearinducing stimuli or situations in a controlled and gradual manner while teaching relaxation techniques to reduce anxiety. 54) Julian seeks professional help for his fear of spiders. In stages, his therapist shows him pictures, movies, and models of spiders, then a real dead spider, a small live spider in a jar, several live spiders in a jar, and finally a live spider loose in the room. At each stage, he makes sure that Julian is fully relaxed. This technique is known as _______. A) free association B) desensitization C) aversive conditioning D) transactional therapy Answer: B Rationale: The technique described is desensitization, where the client is gradually exposed to fearinducing stimuli (spiders, in this case) in a systematic and controlled manner while learning relaxation techniques to reduce anxiety. 55) Martha and Stan are newlyweds. They see a therapist because Martha is afraid of sexual intercourse. The therapist asks Martha exactly which acts make her anxious, constructs a hierarchy of those threatening acts, teaches her to relax, and asks her to imagine each threatening scene in the hierarchy and use the relaxation technique to reduce her anxiety as she imagines each scene from the bottom to the top of her hierarchy. The therapist is using ___________. A) desensitization B) behavioral contracting C) free association D) positive regard Answer: A Rationale: The therapist is using desensitization by gradually exposing Martha to feared sexual situations while teaching relaxation techniques to reduce her anxiety, following a hierarchical structure of increasing exposure to the feared stimuli. 56) Cognitive models of therapy tend to focus on: A) corrective emotional experiences. B) changing thinking processes. C) removing symptoms. D) fulfilling one’s potential. Answer: B Rationale: Cognitive models of therapy focus on changing thinking processes, such as cognitive distortions and negative thought patterns, to alleviate psychological distress and promote healthier behaviors and emotions. 57) Cognitive behavior therapy is particularly effective in the treatment of ___________. A) anxiety disorders B) schizophrenia C) somatoform disorders D) depression Answer: D Rationale: Cognitive behavior therapy (CBT) is particularly effective in treating depression, as it focuses on identifying and changing negative thought patterns and beliefs associated with depressive symptoms. 58) Beck’s cognitive therapy is particularly effective in the treatment of _____________. A) somatoform disorders B) anxiety disorders C) depression D) schizophrenia Answer: C Rationale: Beck's cognitive therapy is particularly effective in the treatment of depression, as it aims to identify and modify negative automatic thoughts and cognitive distortions commonly associated with depressive symptoms. 59) Which of the following therapists has used modeling to treat phobias? A) Ellis B) Bandura C) Perls D) Rogers Answer: B Rationale: Albert Bandura is known for using modeling techniques in the treatment of phobias, where individuals observe others (models) successfully confronting feared stimuli or situations, leading to a reduction in fear responses. 60) _________ has used modeling techniques to reduce a wide range of phobic behaviors. A) Ellis B) Perls C) Bandura D) Rogers Answer: C Rationale: Albert Bandura has extensively used modeling techniques, such as in his social learning theory, to reduce various phobic behaviors by demonstrating successful coping strategies through observational learning. 61) Albert Bandura has used __________ techniques to reduce a wide range of phobic behaviors. A) token economy B) rationalization C) modeling D) group therapy Answer: C Rationale: Albert Bandura is well-known for his use of modeling techniques, where individuals learn new behaviors by observing others, to reduce various phobic behaviors. 62) Psychotherapies that emphasize changing clients’ perceptions of their life situation as a way of modifying their behavior are called __________. A) behavior therapy B) client-centered therapy C) cognitive therapy D) Gestalt therapy Answer: C Rationale: Psychotherapies that focus on changing clients' perceptions and thought patterns to modify their behavior fall under the category of cognitive therapy. 63) Rational-emotive therapy classifies as a _________ approach. A) humanistic B) behavioral C) cognitive D) psychoanalytic Answer: C Rationale: Rational-emotive therapy (RET) is a form of cognitive therapy that focuses on identifying and challenging irrational beliefs and thought patterns to promote healthier emotional and behavioral responses. 64) Albert Ellis is best known as a _________ therapist. A) Gestalt B) rational-emotive C) family D) group Answer: B Rationale: Albert Ellis is best known as the founder of rational-emotive therapy (RET), which is a form of cognitive therapy focused on identifying and challenging irrational beliefs to alleviate emotional distress and promote personal growth. 65) The originator of rational-emotive therapy is _________. A) Bandura B) Perls C) Rogers D) Ellis Answer: D Rationale: Albert Ellis is the originator of rational-emotive therapy (RET), which is a cognitive therapy approach aimed at identifying and challenging irrational beliefs to improve emotional wellbeing. 66) What is the primary goal of client-centered therapy? A) to eliminate the client’s undesirable behaviors B) to help clients develop insight into their behaviors C) to provide a caring and accepting environment D) to develop realistic modes of thinking Answer: C Rationale: The primary goal of client-centered therapy, founded by Carl Rogers, is to provide a caring, empathetic, and accepting environment in which clients can explore their feelings and experiences without fear of judgment. 67) Client-centered therapy was founded by __________. A) Rogers B) Wolpe C) Adler D) Jung Answer: A Rationale: Client-centered therapy was founded by Carl Rogers, who emphasized the importance of creating a supportive and nonjudgmental therapeutic environment to facilitate clients' selfexploration and growth. 68) Gestalt therapy is an outgrowth of the work of __________. A) Wolpe B) Rogers C) Perls D) Lazarus Answer: C Rationale: Gestalt therapy is an outgrowth of the work of Fritz Perls, who developed this approach focusing on experiential techniques and the integration of fragmented aspects of the self into a unified whole. 69) Genuineness, empathy, unconditional positive regard, and self-growth are all associated with ________ therapy. A) Gestalt B) humanistic C) cognitive D) behavioral Answer: B Rationale: These characteristics—genuineness, empathy, unconditional positive regard, and a focus on self-growth—are fundamental principles of humanistic therapy, particularly client-centered therapy developed by Carl Rogers. 70) Which of the following is a leading figure in Gestalt therapy? A) Fritz Perls B) Max Wertheimer C) Rollo May D) Albert Ellis Answer: A Rationale: Fritz Perls is a leading figure in Gestalt therapy, known for his development and promotion of this approach focusing on holistic awareness, personal responsibility, and integration of mind and body. 71) The term “unconditional positive regard” is associated with ____________. A) Fritz Perls B) Sigmund Freud C) Carl Rogers D) B. F. Skinner Answer: C Rationale: "Unconditional positive regard" is a concept associated with Carl Rogers, a prominent figure in humanistic psychology. It refers to the therapist's acceptance and support of the client without judgment or conditions, fostering an environment conducive to personal growth and self-exploration. 72) Which of the following approaches is based on the premise that people naturally strive to reach their potential and lead a fulfilling life? A) psychoanalytic B) behavioral C) humanistic D) biomedical Answer: C Rationale: The humanistic approach is based on the premise that individuals naturally strive for selfactualization and personal growth, aiming to lead fulfilling lives by realizing their potential. This contrasts with other approaches such as psychoanalytic and behavioral, which may focus on unconscious processes or observable behaviors. 73) In Gestalt therapy, the focus is on: A) changing overt behavior. B) becoming more aware of the self. C) resolving repressed conflicts. D) fulfilling personal potential. Answer: B Rationale: In Gestalt therapy, the focus is on increasing awareness of one's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in the present moment, rather than on analyzing past experiences or resolving conflicts. The emphasis is on helping individuals achieve self-awareness and integration of fragmented aspects of the self. 74) An essential element of client-centered therapy is _____________. A) a non-threatening atmosphere B) free association C) detailed exploration of the client’s childhood D) properly timed and worded interpretations Answer: A Rationale: A non-threatening atmosphere characterized by empathy, genuineness, and unconditional positive regard from the therapist is an essential element of client-centered therapy, as proposed by Carl Rogers. This supportive environment encourages clients to explore their feelings and experiences openly. 75) For client-centered therapy to be effective, the client must perceive the therapist as showing _______. A) unconditional positive regard B) empathy C) genuineness D) all of the above Answer: A Rationale: In client-centered therapy, the therapist must demonstrate unconditional positive regard, empathy, and genuineness to create a supportive and trusting therapeutic relationship. These qualities facilitate the client's self-exploration and growth. 76) The time frame on which Gestalt therapy focuses is _______. A) the present B) the past C) the future D) all of the above Answer: A Rationale: Gestalt therapy focuses primarily on the present moment, emphasizing awareness of current thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. The therapy encourages individuals to experience and integrate their present experiences fully rather than dwelling on past events or future concerns. 77) A humanistic psychologist would most likely agree that: A) anxiety occurs when we try so hard to live up to others’ expectations that we lose touch with our own desires and feelings. B) anxiety results from feelings and emotions repressed during childhood. C) anxiety results from unconscious desires. D) anxiety results from irrational thoughts. Answer: A Rationale: A humanistic psychologist would likely agree that anxiety often arises from incongruence between an individual's self-concept and external expectations, leading to a disconnection from one's genuine desires and feelings. 78) Sally’s therapist wants her to bring her parents and siblings to counseling sessions with her. Sally is going through: A) social skills training. B) family therapy. C) assertiveness training. D) client-centered therapy. Answer: B Rationale: Sally's therapist wanting her to involve her family members in counseling sessions suggests that she is undergoing family therapy. Family therapy focuses on addressing issues within the family system and improving communication and relationships among family members. 79) A type of psychotherapy in which people meet regularly to interact and help one another achieve insight into their feelings and behavior is __________ therapy. A) virtual B) group C) Gestalt D) response Answer: B Rationale: Group therapy involves regular meetings of individuals who come together to share experiences, provide mutual support, and work towards achieving insight into their feelings and behaviors through interaction with one another. 80) When problems exist between parents and children, their problems are usually BEST handled by __________. A) psychoanalysis B) family therapy C) operant conditioning D) individual therapy Answer: B Rationale: When problems exist between parents and children, family therapy is often the best approach. Family therapy addresses the dynamics and interactions within the family system, allowing for the exploration and resolution of conflicts and issues affecting family relationships. 81) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group therapy? A) It is relatively economical. B) Clients learn that others have problems similar to their own. C) Clients practice and receive feedback on their interpersonal skills. D) The therapist does not need as much training as an individual therapist. Answer: D Rationale: Group therapy typically requires skilled facilitation and management from a trained therapist. Therefore, the statement that the therapist does not need as much training as an individual therapist is incorrect. 82) Which of the following is a component of community psychology? A) emphasis on prevention B) free association C) the search for authenticity D) systematic desensitization Answer: A Rationale: Community psychology emphasizes preventive measures to promote mental health and wellbeing within communities, making it distinct from individual-level therapeutic techniques like free association or systematic desensitization. 83) The therapeutic approach that most stresses prevention is the __________ approach. A) behavioral B) cognitive C) community psychology D) humanistic Answer: C Rationale: Community psychology places a strong emphasis on prevention strategies aimed at addressing social, environmental, and systemic factors contributing to mental health issues within communities. 84) An important advantage of group therapy is that: A) group members serve as therapists. B) clients learn that others have problems similar to their own. C) much more serious problems can be discussed than in individual therapy. D) only one participant has to speak each session. Answer: B Rationale: Group therapy provides clients with the opportunity to realize that they are not alone in their struggles, as they interact with others who share similar experiences and challenges. 85) An important aim of community psychology is: A) maintenance of the family and local environment. B) prevention of psychological problems. C) establishment of planned communities. D) inoculation of all people with available vaccines. Answer: B Rationale: One of the primary aims of community psychology is the prevention of psychological problems through interventions at the community level, such as promoting social support networks, reducing stigma, and addressing systemic barriers to mental health. 86) When problems exist between parents and children, their problems might best be handled by _______. A) Gestalt therapy B) psychoanalysis C) desensitization D) family therapy Answer: D Rationale: Family therapy is specifically designed to address issues within family relationships, making it the most suitable approach for handling problems between parents and children. 87) What was a major reason for the decrease in the number of psychosurgeries performed? A) the government stopped paying for the procedure B) laws prohibited the procedure C) patient rights activists protested the surgery D) drug treatments were developed Answer: D Rationale: The decrease in the number of psychosurgeries performed can be attributed to the development and widespread adoption of drug treatments for various psychological disorders. Psychosurgery, such as lobotomy, was once considered a viable treatment option for conditions like severe depression, schizophrenia, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. However, with advancements in pharmacotherapy, particularly the development of psychotropic medications like antidepressants, antipsychotics, and anxiolytics, there was a shift away from invasive surgical interventions towards less invasive and potentially more effective drug treatments. As drug treatments became more widely available and accepted, the use of psychosurgery declined significantly. Therefore, option D, drug treatments were developed, is a major reason for the decrease in the number of psychosurgeries performed. 88) What was a major reason for the decrease in the number of psychosurgeries performed? A) the government stopped paying for the procedure B) laws prohibited the procedure C) patient rights activists protested the surgery D) drug treatments were developed Answer: D Rationale: The development of effective drug treatments for mental illnesses, such as antipsychotic medications, led to a decline in the use of psychosurgery as a treatment option. 89) How do most antipsychotic drugs seem to work? A) reduce the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine B) cause more excitatory neurons to fire C) prevent serotonin and norepinephrine from being broken down D) block the activity of dopamine Answer: D Rationale: Most antipsychotic drugs work by blocking the activity of dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of psychosis associated with conditions like schizophrenia. 90) Prefrontal lobotomy is one form of __________. A) shock treatment B) ECT C) drug therapy D) psychosurgery Answer: D Rationale: Prefrontal lobotomy is a type of psychosurgery that involves the surgical severing or destruction of connections in the prefrontal cortex of the brain. It was historically used as a treatment for various mental disorders, but its use has declined significantly due to ethical concerns and the development of alternative treatments. 91) Virtually all antipsychotic drugs work by __________. A) increasing the amount of serotonin in the brain B) blocking dopamine receptors in the brain C) increasing the amount of acetylcholine in the brain D) inhibiting the function of the hypothalamus Answer: B Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs primarily work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of psychosis associated with conditions like schizophrenia. 92) Lithium is a naturally occurring __________. A) drug B) enzyme C) salt D) plant Answer: C Rationale: Lithium is a naturally occurring salt that is commonly used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder. 93) Which of the following has been fairly effective in treating bipolar disorders? A) cingulotomy B) valium C) lithium carbonate D) ECT Answer: C Rationale: Lithium carbonate has been found to be fairly effective in treating bipolar disorders, helping to stabilize mood swings associated with this condition. 94) Which of the following is NOT used in biomedical therapy? A) electric shock B) language C) drugs D) surgery Answer: B Rationale: Language is not a form of biomedical therapy. Biomedical therapy typically includes interventions such as electric shock therapy, drug therapy, and surgery. 95) The medical model views abnormal behavior as resulting from: A) drug interactions. B) exposure to teratogens. C) poor nutritional habits. D) underlying organic causes. Answer: D Rationale: The medical model views abnormal behavior as resulting from underlying organic causes, such as biochemical imbalances, neurological issues, or genetic predispositions. 96) Physicians who are trained to treat psychological disorders are called: A) clinicians. B) counsellors. C) psychiatrists. D) psychiatric psychologists. Answer: C Rationale: Physicians who specialize in treating psychological disorders, including prescribing medication and other forms of treatment, are called psychiatrists. 97) Which of the following is NOT a biomedical therapy? A) ECT B) psychosurgery C) tertiary prevention D) chemotherapy Answer: C Rationale: Tertiary prevention is a public health concept aimed at reducing the impact of an already established disease or condition. It is not a form of biomedical therapy. Biomedical therapies include interventions such as ECT, psychosurgery, and drug therapy. 98) The medically based therapy most commonly used today is: A) electroconvulsive therapy. B) psychoactive drugs. C) psychosurgery. D) trephination. Answer: B Rationale: Psychoactive drugs, including antidepressants, antipsychotics, and mood stabilizers, are the most commonly used medically based therapies for treating mental disorders today. 99) The _________ approach to treatment is NOT an example of biological therapy for mental disorders. A) electroshock B) implosion C) psychosurgery D) chemotherapy Answer: B Rationale: Implosion is a form of exposure therapy used in behavior therapy and is not a biological therapy. Biological therapies include interventions like electroshock, psychosurgery, and chemotherapy. 100) Electroshock treatment often is accompanied by: A) a total mental breakdown during the first week following application. B) tardive dyskinesia. C) temporary visual hallucinations. D) a memory loss of unpredictable length. Answer: D Rationale: Electroshock treatment (ECT) often causes temporary memory loss, which can vary in duration and severity depending on individual factors and the specifics of the treatment regimen. 101) Electroshock treatment is mainly effective in treating _______. A) depression B) schizophrenia C) anxiety disorders D) all of the above Answer: A Rationale: Electroshock treatment, also known as electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), is mainly effective in treating severe depression that has not responded to other forms of treatment. It is less commonly used for schizophrenia or anxiety disorders. 102) The procedure known as __________ is one type of psychosurgery. A) gastroplasty B) transaxial tomography C) audiography D) prefrontal lobotomy Answer: D Rationale: Prefrontal lobotomy is a type of psychosurgery that involves severing connections in the prefrontal cortex of the brain. This procedure was historically used to treat various mental disorders, although its use has significantly declined. 103) Dr. Lee believes that all psychological disorders can be treated in much the same way as can physical disorders. He was most likely trained under the __________ model. A) psychoanalytic B) rational-emotive C) Freudian D) medical Answer: D Rationale: Dr. Lee's belief aligns with the medical model, which views psychological disorders as akin to physical disorders and advocates for their treatment using medical interventions such as medication, surgery, or other biomedical therapies. 104) Biotherapy techniques include _______. A) psychoanalysis B) ECT C) psychosurgery D) both b and c Answer: D Rationale: Biotherapy techniques involve biological interventions aimed at treating mental disorders. This includes treatments like electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and psychosurgery, which directly affect brain function or structure. 105) A procedure that severs the connections from parts of the brain that control emotions is: A) limbic curettage. B) trephining. C) ECT. D) prefrontal lobotomy. Answer: D Rationale: Prefrontal lobotomy is a surgical procedure that severs connections in the prefrontal cortex of the brain, which is involved in regulating emotions and behavior. 106) A technique known as prefrontal lobotomy: A) earned a Nobel prize for Ugo Cerletti. B) caused many patients to cease displaying emotional reactions. C) is widely used today for a wide range of disorders. D) was often used in conjunction with electroconvulsive therapy. Answer: B Rationale: Prefrontal lobotomy, while once used to treat various mental disorders, often led to negative outcomes, including a reduction in emotional responsiveness in patients. It is no longer widely practiced due to its associated risks and ethical concerns. 107) Valium, Librium, and Miltown are popular _______ drugs. A) antianxiety B) antidepressant C) antiphobic D) antipsychotic Answer: A Rationale: Valium, Librium, and Miltown are benzodiazepine medications commonly used as antianxiety drugs to treat anxiety disorders. 108) The initial treatment of choice for schizophrenia is probably _______. A) psychotherapy B) chemotherapy C) prefrontal lobotomy D) electroconvulsive therapy Answer: B Rationale: The initial treatment of choice for schizophrenia typically involves chemotherapy, which refers to the use of antipsychotic medications to manage symptoms and stabilize the condition. 109) Schizophrenia has been most effectively controlled with ___________. A) chemotherapy B) family therapy C) T-groups D) electroconvulsive therapy Answer: A Rationale: Schizophrenia is most effectively controlled with chemotherapy, particularly antipsychotic medications, which help manage symptoms and improve functioning in individuals with schizophrenia. 110) Electroconvulsive therapy is used to alleviate _________. A) anxiety B) schizophrenia C) somatoform disorders D) severe depression Answer: D Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is primarily used to alleviate severe depression that has not responded to other treatments. It is not typically used to treat schizophrenia or somatoform disorders. 111) Electroconvulsive therapy ___________. A) is used more frequently today than in years past. B) is effective only if administered daily over a six-month period C) is capable of damaging the brain D) produces only negative results Answer: C Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) has the potential to cause damage to the brain, particularly if administered improperly or without appropriate medical supervision. While it can be an effective treatment for certain conditions, it carries risks, including cognitive side effects. 112) The effects of psychosurgery ___________. A) are all negative B) are difficult to predict C) do not include undesirable side effects D) are useless in controlling pain Answer: B Rationale: The effects of psychosurgery are difficult to predict and can vary widely depending on factors such as the specific procedure performed, the individual's condition, and other variables. While some individuals may experience positive outcomes, others may face significant negative consequences. 113) Prefrontal lobotomy is a technique used in ___________. A) shock treatments B) psychosurgery C) drug therapy D) ECT Answer: B Rationale: Prefrontal lobotomy is a form of psychosurgery that involves surgically severing connections in the prefrontal cortex of the brain. It was historically used to treat various mental disorders, although its use has declined due to ethical concerns and the availability of alternative treatments. 114) Which treatment is LEAST likely to be used today? A) drug therapy B) prefrontal lobotomy C) ECT D) behaviour therapy Answer: B Rationale: Prefrontal lobotomy is the least likely treatment to be used today due to its associated risks, ethical concerns, and the availability of alternative treatments such as drug therapy, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), and behavioral therapy. 115) Which treatment is MOST likely to be used today? A) drug therapy B) prefrontal lobotomy C) ECT D) in vitro therapy Answer: A Rationale: Drug therapy is the most commonly used treatment today for a wide range of mental health conditions. It includes the use of medications such as antidepressants, antipsychotics, anxiolytics, and mood stabilizers to manage symptoms and improve functioning. 116) Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of _______. A) barbiturate use B) psychosurgery C) ECT D) antipsychotic drugs Answer: D Rationale: Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect commonly associated with the long-term use of antipsychotic medications. It involves involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and other parts of the body and can be irreversible in some cases. Test Bank for Psychology and Life Richard J. Gerrig, Philip G. Zimbardo, Serge Desmarais, Tammy Ivanco 9780205037117, 9780205859139