CH-13 Emotion, Stress, and Health – Psychology and Life : Exam Guide

Chapter 13: Emotion, Stress, and Health 1) How are moods different from emotions? A) Moods are typically short-lived. B) Moods are more closely tied to triggering events. C) Moods may last several days. D) Moods are relatively intense. Answer: C Rationale: Emotions are specific responses to specific events. Moods are often less intense and there is often a weaker connection between moods and the events that trigger them. We can usually identify what triggers our emotions, but may not be able to do so as easily with our moods. 2) In his book The Expression of Emotions in Man and Animals, what position does Charles Darwin take with respect to emotions? A) They are learned behaviours. B) They develop through observation and imitation. C) They are maladaptive. D) They evolved. Answer: D Rationale: He was interested in the adaptive functions of emotions and he thought of them as highly specific modes of operation of the human brain. 3) According to Charles Darwin, which statement about emotions is true? A) They are designed to deal with recurring situations in the world. B) They are most relevant in situations that are novel in a species' experience. C) They are unpredictable and personal states of mind. D) They are likely to vary dramatically from human to human. Answer: A Rationale: Recurring situations include falling in love, being attacked by predators, giving birth, and fighting each other, among many others. 4) Which statement is consistent with Charles Darwin's view of emotions? A) different cultures have different types of emotional responses. B) there is little point or purpose to the function of emotions. C) emotional responses are learned through experience. D) children show similar patterns of emotional responses across cultures. Answer: D Rationale: Darwin viewed emotions as inherited, specialized mental states designed to deal with classes of recurring situations that apply to all humans. We might expect, therefore, that certain types of emotional responses would emerge in all members of the human species. 5) What did Silvan Tompkins’ studies on the emotional responses of human infants indicate? A) Infants who are presented with identical stimuli will show completely unique responses. B) Infants will quickly learn to use emotions as a way of getting reinforcers. C) Infants seem "prewired" to respond emotionally to certain stimuli. D) Infants ignore intense stimuli unless they have learned to be fearful. Answer: C Rationale: Infants respond to loud sounds with fear and difficulty breathing, for example. 6) The textbook describes a cross-cultural experiment in which the wrists of Chinese, Japanese, and American infants were grasped and held immobile to elicit anger responses. To elicit fear responses, the infants were presented with a loud disembodied toy gorilla head whose eyes lit up. What did this study reveal? A) the infants from all three countries produced similar behavioural responses. B) the American infants showed distress in the form of increased breathing rate but the other infants did not show distress in this way. C) the infants reacted with distinctly different facial expressions for fear and for anger. D) there were no differences in facial expressions for the infants from the three countries. Answer: A Rationale: The infants produced different behavioural responses to the two procedures that were similar across cultures. In addition, the infants’ facial expressions were similar across cultures, and were not consistently different for fear and anger. The study demonstrated cross-cultural consistency in these ways. However, there were also subtle differences in the facial expressions across cultures, suggesting that culture has an impact on emotional responses very early in life. 7) A four-month-old baby is participating in an experiment in which he is repeatedly shown the photograph of a man frowning. After repeated exposures to this photograph, he loses interest. If the baby is like other infants who respond in similar situations, when a new photograph showing a man smiling is presented, what will he do? A) cry. B) search for his mother. C) look away. D) show renewed interest. Answer: D Rationale: The smile is something new and attracts the baby's attention after he has habituated to the frowning face. 8) When a grandfather smiles at his infant granddaughter, she responds by moving toward him. If he looks angry, what is she likely to do? A) remain unaffected B) feel confused C) move away D) avert her eyes Answer: C Rationale: Infants have distinctive responses to facial expressions. Infants also seem to have an innate ability to interpret the expressions of others. 9) In his work on facial expressions, what did Paul Ekman discover? A) Darwin's view of emotion was substantially incorrect. B) all facial expressions are universal. C) cultures express all emotions in the same way. D) a set of emotional expressions is universal to the human species. Answer: D Rationale: According to Ekman, there is a set of seven emotional expressions that are universal to humans in response to the emotions of happiness, surprise, anger, disgust, fear, sadness, and contempt. 10) Based on Paul Ekman's view of emotional expressions, what should one conclude? A) Darwin's theory of emotions is not valid. B) emotional responses are primarily learned responses to specific situations. C) all species have the capacity to express all possible emotions. D) there are seven basic emotional expressions. Answer: D Rationale: According to Ekman, there are seven basic facial emotional expressions. 11) In a cross-cultural study of facial expressions described in the textbook, members of the Fore culture had difficulty distinguishing between two emotions. What are these two emotions? A) happiness and sadness. B) disgust and contempt. C) fear and surprise. D) hate and hostility. Answer: C Rationale: The Fore poses of fear and surprise were hard for Americans to distinguish, just as the Fore had confused them in Western poses. 12) Larry wants to travel widely, but his grasp of foreign languages is minimal. He asks his friend, Joshua if people from other cultures will be able to recognize when he is happy, sad, or angry, just from his facial expressions. How should Joshua respond? A) few people from other cultures will be able to identify these emotions. B) people from other cultures should be able to identify these emotions. C) people from other cultures will be able to identify just anger. D) research suggests that only females will be able to identify these emotions. Answer: B Rationale: Regardless of cultural differences, race, sex, or education, people all over the world express basic emotions through facial expressions in much the same way and are able to identify others' emotions by reading those facial expressions. 13) According to Paul Ekman's neuro-cultural theory of emotions, which statement is accurate? A) evolution is more important than culture in the development of emotions. B) similarities found between emotional expressions in different cultures are based primarily on brain similarities across all humans. C) emotions reflect the joint contributions of evolution and culture. D) biological mechanisms that control emotions are more important in adults than in children. Answer: C Rationale: When a particular emotion is aroused, the brain specifies the facial muscles that will move to produce the expression. Different cultures have different social rules for when and how people can show certain emotions, creating some subtle differences in the ways in which people of different cultures express emotions. 14) The textbook presents an anecdote dealing with the Wolof people of Senegal. The incident that is described involves the apparent suicide of a woman and the emotional response of the onlookers. What is the point of the anecdote? A) there are cultural norms for the expression of emotion. B) people throughout the world recognize the same basic emotions. C) the range of emotional expression is genetically inherited. D) differing cultures express most emotions in the same way. Answer: A Rationale: The noblewomen are taught not to show emotions overtly while the low caste individuals are expected to be more emotionally expressive. 15) In an incident described in the textbook, one of the authors was attending the funeral of an American friend of Syrian descent. Whenever a visitor would enter the funeral parlor, a group of women would shriek and wail. Why did the women respond in this manner? A) They mistook the visitor for the brother of the deceased. B) They were hired to display appropriately strong emotions. C) They were genuinely grief-stricken. D) They felt personally responsible for the death of the individual. Answer: B Rationale: It is difficult for family members of the deceased to sustain a high emotional pitch over the three days and nights of the wakes, so people are hired to show culturally appropriate grief for them. This is an example of cultural variation of emotional expression. 16) A study reported in the textbook demonstrated the contrast between American and Japanese beliefs about behavioural displays for pain. Participants in both cultures completed the Appropriate Pain Behavior Questionnaire (APBQ). What did the results reveal? A) Japanese participants provided lower scores on the APBQ: they indicated less approval for open emotional expressions of pain. B) Japanese participants provided higher scores on the APBQ: they indicated more approval for open emotional expressions of pain. C) both the Japanese and American participants had similar scores on the ABPQ: both indicated less approval for open emotional expressions of pain. D) both the Japanese and American participants had similar scores on the ABPQ: both indicated more approval for men's emotional displays than women's displays. Answer: A Rationale: This result was attributed to the traditional stoicism of many Asian cultures. This is an example of cross-cultural differences in norms related to emotional expression. However, in both cases, there was more approval for women's emotional displays of pain than for men’s. 17) Accordiing to a study described in the textbook, what shapes Japanese individuals’ views of acceptable behavioural displays of pain? A) traditional stoicism. B) traditional penance. C) traditional practices. D) traditional heritage. Answer: A Rationale: Culture may have the last word in types of emotional patterns that have evolved over time. 18) The operation of the autonomic nervous system during emotional responses is complex. What type of stimulation renders the parasympathetic division more active? A) mild, unpleasant B) strong, unpleasant C) mild, pleasant D) strong, pleasant Answer: C Rationale: With mild, pleasant stimulation, the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is more active, but with mild, unpleasant stimulation the sympathetic division is more active. 19) Under which condition are both divisions of the autonomic nervous system most likely to be involved in preparing the body for emotional responses? A) when the arousing stimulation is intense. B) when the arousing stimulation is pleasant. C) when the arousing stimulation is unpleasant. D) when the arousing stimulation is mild. Answer: A Rationale: With more intense stimulation of either pleasant or unpleasant stimulation, both divisions of the autonomic nervous system are increasingly involved. 20) In the context of emotion, what does the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal glands accomplish? A) Inhibition of the sympathetic nervous system. B) Reduction of the emotional response to stimulation. C) Preparation of the body for potential danger. D) Calming of the body after an emergency has passed. Answer: C Rationale: These hormones lead the internal organs to release blood sugar, raise blood pressure, and increase sweating and salivation, all in silent preparation for potential danger. 21) Why do individuals continue to be aroused for some time after an emergency has passed? A) the individual is uncertain if the source of threat may return. B) cognitive appraisal maintains the individual in an aroused state. C) epinephrine and norepinephrine may still be circulating in the bloodstream. D) the parasympathetic system has not yet been activated Answer: C Rationale: This happens while the parasympathetic system is beginning to inhibit the release of the hormones in order to calm you after the emergency. 22) When asked if a particular emotional experience produces a distinct pattern of activity in the autonomic nervous system, how would a cross-cultural researcher most likely respond? A) The answer is no. B) The answer is yes. C) No answer can be given at this time as insufficient research has been conducted in this area. D) There is no definitive answer as the physiology of emotion is currently a topic of considerble debate. Answer: B Rationale: Research shows the same underlying patterns of autonomic arousal for negative emotions whether men and women are from a culture where displaying negative emotions is socially acceptable, or from a culture where it is not acceptable. 23) Which parts of the brain integrate the hormonal and neural aspects of arousal? A) reticular activating system and thalamus. B) hypothalamus and limbic system. C) hippocampus and pons. D) cerebellum and cortex. Answer: B Rationale: The hypothalamus and limbic system are responsible for integrating both the hormonal and the neural aspects of arousal. 24) Researchers have suggested that there are two distinct systems in the brain that handle approach-related and withdrawal-related emotional responses. Which part of the brain houses these two systems? A) the left amygdala only B) the occipital lobe C) the frontal lobe only D) the different hemispheres Answer: D Rationale: Researchers have suggested that there are two distinct systems in the brain that handle approach-related (e.g., a puppy) and withdrawal-related (e.g., a spider) emotional responses. These two emotional responses are apportioned to the different hemispheres of the brain. 25) Which statement about emotions is consistent with the beliefs of William James? A) emotions are experienced after the body reacts. B) people feel emotions when what happens is expected. C) people will respond only when they are not emotional. D) behavioural responses follow emotional responses. Answer: A Rationale: This view that emotion originates with feedback from the body is called the James-Lange theory of emotion. 26) Mrs. James feels sad. She asks her husband William for his advice on how she can reduce her feelings of melancholy. If William James is the famous psychologist and co-developer of the James-Lange theory of emotion, what would he likely suggest to his wife? A) She should start smiling and giggling. B) She should discuss her problems with a humanistic therapist. C) She should use introspection. D) She should consider antidepressants. Answer: A Rationale: These bodily actions (smiling and giggling) would presumably then lead to bodily feedback that would in turn lead to emotions (the experience of happiness). 27) In the context of emotion, peripheralist theory is to centralist theory as A) Robert Zajonc is to Carl Lange. B) Stanley Schachter is to Richard Lazarus. C) William James is to Walter Cannon. D) Stanley Schachter is to Paul Ekman. Answer: C Rationale: James' theory is peripheralist because it assigns emotions to visceral reactions, the parts of the autonomic system that are peripheral to the central nervous system. Cannon's is a centralist theory because emotion requires the brain to intercede between the input stimulation and the output stimulation. 28) An emotion-arousing stimulus has two simultaneous effects, causing bodily arousal via the sympathetic nervous system and a subjective experience via the cortex. Which theory of emotion is being described? A) James-Lange B) Lazarus-Schachter C) Cannon-Bard D) Ader-Cohen Answer: C Rationale: This theory states that an emotional stimulus produces both physiological arousal and experience of emotion concurrently; one does not cause the other. If you are angry, your heartbeat increases at the same time that you have an emotion of being “ticked off,” but neither the body nor the mind dictates the way the other responds. 29) In the approaches to emotion taken by Stanley Schachter and Richard Lazarus, where is the greatest emphasis placed? A) on how signals from the thalamus are routed to the cortex. B) on visceral reactions to emotional stimuli. C) on innate links provided by evolution. D) on cognitive appraisal of physiological arousal. Answer: D Rationale: Schachter said that we appraise our physiological arousal to discover what we are feeling, what emotional label fits best, and what our reaction means. Lazarus said that emotion grows out of ongoing interactions with the environment and may be largely unconscious because past experiences link emotions to situations. 30) Contrary to the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, when one experiences strong arousal without any obvious cause, how does such arousal tend to be interpreted? A) as irrelevant. B) as neutral. C) as positive. D) as negative. Answer: D Rationale: In addition, people's search for an explanation (e.g., if your heart is beating fast without an obvious cause you want to know why) tends to be biased toward finding stimuli that will explain or justify the negative interpretation. 31) An individual will sometimes experience a strong feeling of liking attached to certain stimuli but not know consciously why. Which researcher would strongly agree with this statement? A) Stanley Schachter B) Richard Lazarus C) Walter Cannon D) Robert Zajonc Answer: D Rationale: He did extensive research on the mere exposure effect, demonstrating that emotions do not necessarily come from the cognitive appraisal process. This research likely demonstrates that though cognitive appraisal is important, it is not the only process important to emotional experience. 32) Which scenario best characterizes the "mere exposure effect"? A) people prefer stimuli that they have been exposed to, even when the stimuli are not consciously recognized. B) people stop responding emotionally to a stimulus, simply because it has become familiar. C) males will express sexual interest in a female with whom they are not familiar. D) people become emotionally upset by the simple presentation of a neutral stimulus. Answer: A Rationale: People were exposed so briefly to the stimuli that they could not identify them consciously, but did indicate a preference for them over new items. The participants could not have used cognitive appraisal to assign positive emotions to the previously experienced stimuli. 33) Which statement about the role of cognitive appraisal in emotional experience is supported by research? A) cognitive appraisal is not a valid phenomenon. B) cognitive appraisal is an important process, but not the only one. C) people first respond instinctively, then search for cognitive explanations. D) cognitive appraisal is of least value in explaining responses to ambiguous or novel situations. Answer: B Rationale: Sometimes we will look to the environment to try to interpret why we feel as we do, and sometimes our emotions will be under control of innate processes. There are many different routes to emotional responses. 34) What does the research suggest about positive moods? A) produce more creative problem solving. B) detract from concentration. C) promote detailed information processing. D) detract from mental agility. Answer: A Rationale: You are likely to carry out your work more efficiently with more creative thought if you are in a positive mood. People in negative moods tend to process information in more detailed, effortful ways. 35) In an experiment described in the textbook, participants watched short films that put them in happy, neutral, or sad moods. Via videotape, the participants were then required to judge the guilt or innocence of people who said they had stolen a movie ticket. In general, what did the findings indicate? A) happy moods resulted in greater belief that people were being dishonest. B) sad moods resulted in more belief that people were being dishonest. C) happy moods made no difference in judgments. D) sad moods made no difference in judgments. Answer: B Rationale: Participants in sad moods made better than chance predictions of guilt whereas people with neutral or happy moods did not. People in sad moods were more likely to think that people were being dishonest. The researchers suggest that negative moods may make people less gullible. 36) According to research, what type of mood helps students to carry out school work more efficiently and creatively? A) pleasant. B) elated. C) negative. D) neutral. Answer: A Rationale: Researchers have consistently shown that people in positive moods produce more efficient and more creative thinking and problem solving than do people in more neutral moods. 37) A wife comes home from work and finds her husband studying for a test. Trying to be thoughtful, she tells him how much she appreciates his dedication to school. Based on research on the relationship between affect and cognition, how will her husband most likely respond? A) be positively affected by her comments and do better on his test. B) be distracted by her comments and do poorly on his test. C) not be affected one way or another by the compliment. D) feel better about himself, but be unaffected with respect to his test performance. Answer: A Rationale: People placed in a mildly pleasant mood perform better in terms of efficient problem solving and creativity than do those who are in more neutral moods. 38) What has the research indicated about individual differences in subjective well-being? A) genetics has an important impact. B) life experience has little if any impact. C) social relationships have little lasting influence. D) judgments of subjective well-being are based on positive emotions alone. Answer: A Rationale: Research indicates that genetics has a strong impact on subjective well-being. Evidence is based on studies of the extent to which monozygotic twins and dizygotic twins give similar reports of well-being. Life experience also matters, as does the balance of positive and negative emotions in people’s lives. As they study life events that may affect subjective wellbeing, researchers have suggested that “the single most important source of happiness” in people’s lives is good social relationships. 39) A woman's life is in constant turmoil. She has been having problems with her marriage, her children have recurring illnesses, and the company that she works for may be going out of business. Which term best reflects the woman’s experience? A) acute stress. B) chronic stress. C) hozho. D) hardiness. Answer: B Rationale: Chronic stress is a state of enduring arousal, which continues over time, and in which demands are perceived to be greater than the inner and outer resources available for dealing with them. 40) In the 1920s, Walter Cannon outlined the first scientific description of the way animals and humans respond to danger. Which term best characterizes this dual stress response? A) general adaptation syndrome. B) fight-or-flight response. C) tend-and-befriend response. D) sympathetic arousal. Answer: B Rationale: Cannon outlined the first scientific description of the way animals and humans respond to danger. The sequence of activity is triggered in the nerves and glands to prepare the body either to defend itself and struggle or to run away to safety. 41) Which structure in the brain has sometimes been referred to as the stress center because of its important role in emergencies? A) hippocampus. B) thalamus. C) hypothalamus. D) autonomic nervous system. Answer: C Rationale: The hypothalamus is at the centre of the stress response. 42) Why is the hypothalamus referred to as the stress center? A) It determines whether a situation is stressful or not. B) It is the part of the brain that is most damaged when the organism is under stress. C) It is responsible for activating the flight-or-fight response. D) It relays information about stressful events to the reticular formation. Answer: C Rationale: It controls the autonomic nervous system and activates the pituitary gland, preparing the body to defend itself or to run from danger. 43) Researchers conducted an experiment with the goal of comparing students’ predictions about their emotional responses to their actual responses. They asked the students to predict how they imagined they would feel if their grade on an assignment were higher or lower than their prediction, or pretty much accurate. They later asked them how the actual outcomes made them feel. What did the researchers discover? A) students experienced much more rejoicing over a higher than expected grade than they thought they would. B) students’ predictions about their future emotions were pretty much accurate. C) students on average did somewhat worse on their assignments than they had predicted. D) students did somewhat better than they had expected but they experienced much less rejoicing about these better-than-expected results than they had predicted. Answer: D Rationale: Researchers have demonstrated in other studies as well that people have trouble predicting their future emotional responses. They suggest that, once outcomes occur, people are better than they anticipate at putting those outcomes into broader perspective. When people predict how they are going to feel, they don’t anticipate that broader perspective. Students might not rejoice as much about a better-than-expected grade because that outcome occurs as part of their ongoing life. The grade is put into the context of their unfolding day. 44) A criminal is in a police lineup. He is breathing quickly, his heart is racing, and his blood pressure is highly elevated. In addition, his stomach feels uneasy. What is the most likely source of these symptoms? A) autonomic nervous system. B) somatic nervous system. C) hippocampus. D) thalamus. Answer: A Rationale: The ANS regulates the activities of the body's organs and smooth muscles. It also gets adrenaline flowing from the adrenal glands, which in turn signal other organs to do their work, continuing a complex cycle of events that is physical, emotional, cognitive, and behavioural. 45) In response to stress, which hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex and signals various organs to release approximately thirty other hormones into the bloodstream? A) adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) B) thyrotropic hormone (TTH) C) epinephrine D) norepinephrine Answer: A Rationale: The ACTH is known as the stress hormone. It stimulates the outer part of the adrenal glands, resulting in the release of hormones that control metabolic processes and the release of sugar from the liver into the blood. 46) Bob and Sue are experiencing the same stressor. A recent analysis by health psychologist Shelley Taylor suggests that physiological responses to stress may have different consequences for females than for males. According to Taylor, how would Sue most likely respond to a stressor? A) with fight but not flight. B) with flight but not fight. C) with tend-and-befriend. D) with both fight-or-flight and tend-and-befriend. Answer: C Rationale: Females keep their offspring safe by tending to their needs, while at the same time befriending other members of their social group to further protect their offspring by reducing the offspring’s vulnerability. 47) Some children are playing a trivia game. In the "Famous Scientists" category, a player must identify the first modern researcher to investigate the effects of continued severe stress on the body and the originator of the general adaptation syndrome. Who is this individual? A) Walter Cannon. B) Donald Meichenbaum. C) William James. D) Hans Selye. Answer: D Rationale: Beginning in the 1930s, Selye reported on the damaging effects of many environmental events on animals due to the complex response of the animals to the events. He said that many kinds of stressors trigger the same reactions, or bodily responses. 48) Which is the correct sequence of stages in the general adaptation syndrome? A) exhaustion, alarm, resistance B) exhaustion, resistance, alarm C) alarm, resistance, exhaustion D) resistance, alarm, exhaustion Answer: C Rationale: The general adaptation syndrome includes three stages: an alarm reaction, a stage of resistance, and a stage of exhaustion. 49) A student just realizes that there is an important test the next day and he has not yet started preparing. This stress-inducing realization will trigger which stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A) exhaustion B) alarm C) resistance D) procrastination Answer: B Rationale: Alarm reactions are brief periods of bodily arousal that prepare the body for vigorous activity. 50) Gary has been stressed chronically. According to Hans Selye’s discovery, what will be the outcome of the increased production of "stress hormones" in Gary’s body? A) an increase in feelings of generalized anxiety. B) a breakdown in the immune system. C) an increased susceptibility to Type 1 Diabetes. D) a decrease in the sexual response cycle. Answer: B Rationale: In the long-term, ACTH, which plays a role in short-term stress, reduces the ability of the natural killer cells to destroy cancer cells and life-threatening infections. 51) Beth has been exposed to a stressful event. According to research, what role will her interpretation of the stressful event play in terms of her stress response? A) It can affect her body's physiological responses. B) It has very little to do with the amount of stress that she will experience. C) It is not as important as the physiological effects of stress itself. D) Genetic inheritance has a greater influence than cognitive appraisal. Answer: A Rationale: To fully understand the effect of stress on us, we have to combine what we know about the physiological effects with what research has taught us about the effect of psychological factors on our appraisals of stressors. 52) Within the last six months, Jason has gotten married, found out that he’s going to be a father, landed a great job, bought a new house, lost his best friend to cancer, and discovered that his parents are getting a divorce. What should Jason understand about the relationship between major changes in life situations and stress? A) both positive and negative life changes may be sources of stress. B) only negative life changes contribute to stress. C) changes in life situations appear not to be related to stress. D) positive life changes are actually more stressful than negative life changes. Answer: A Rationale: The original scale that measured this relationship included both positive and negative life changes; adults rated the readjustment required for each change. 53) Nathan was a participant in the development of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. What role would Nathan most likely have played? A) listed all of the stressful events that had occurred in his life. B) described how he would have reacted in a number of ambiguous social situations. C) rated a series of individuals on the basis of how well-adjusted they appeared to be. D) estimated the amount of readjustment required for a variety of life changes. Answer: D Rationale: the Social Readjustment Rating Scale is a simple measure for rating the degree of adjustment required by the various life changes, both pleasant and unpleasant. 54) When the Social Readjustment Rating Scale was updated in the 1990s, what did the researchers discover? A) participants felt they had better control over their stress responses. B) the life-change unit estimates had decreased by 45 percent. C) men in the 1990s reported experiencing more stress in their lives than women did. D) people reported experiencing higher levels of stress than the original 1960s sample. Answer: D Rationale: It was found that participants in the 1990’s reported experiencing more stress in their lives than their peers had in the 1960’s. 55) In a study described in the textbook, procrastinators were compared to nonprocrastinators who had been assigned a paper that was due late in the semester. What did the researchers discover about the procrastinators? A) They had more symptoms of physical illness early in the semester. B) They had fewer symptoms of physical illness early in the semester. C) They had fewer symptoms of physical illness late in the semester. D) They received better grades on their papers. Answer: B Rationale: The nonprocrastinators got to work right away and so experienced stress early in the semester. The procrastinators avoided early semester stress and reported fewer symptoms of physical illness early in the semester. Later in the semester, when they needed to be in good health to complete the work they had put off, procrastinators reported more symptoms. The consequence of avoiding stress early in the semester was a great increase in physical illness toward the end of the semester. 56) When a web-based survey was conducted of adults across the United States after the World Trade Center and the Pentagon were attacked on September 11, 2001, what did researchers find? A) individuals who watched more television coverage had fewer symptoms of PTSD. B) the attacks on the Pentagon significantly raised the incidence of PTSD in the Washington D.C. area. C) the group most affected were those who lived in the New York City metropolitan area. D) less exposure to television coverage raised the probability of the occurrence of symptoms of PTSD. Answer: C Rationale: The survey assessed individuals’ exposure to the incidents of September 11, and their mental health symptoms. Greater exposure made it more likely that people would experience PTSD. The group in the New York City area who were most likely to have been personally involved in the tragedy were those most affected. The difference in response between New York and Washington D.C. where a lower incidence of PTSD was found, might reflect the difference between attacks on a civilian target and on a military target. The survey also showed that people who watched the most television coverage of the events reported higher levels of PTSD. 57) Which statement about the distinction between acute psychological stress and chronic psychological stress is accurate? A) The distinction is identical to the distinction between acute physiological and chronic physiological stress. B) The distinction is sometimes difficult to make. C) The distinction is determined by the severity of the symptoms. D) The distinction is based on whether the source of the stress is internal or environmental. Answer: B Rationale: An illness may originally be an acute source of stress. However, over time if the illness continues the stress associated with the illness can become chronic. This applies to many of life's events. 58) A study examined individuals who worked full time in university administration, with their effort largely focused on the quality of student life. What did the results of this study reveal? A) more meetings were associated with greater fatigue and higher subjective workload. B) less meetings were associated with greater fatigue and lower subjective workload. C) more meetings were associated with greater feelings of happiness and lesser subjective workload. D) less meetings were associated with higher subjective workload. Answer: A Rationale: The more often you are interrupted for meetings, the less you will likely feel that you are making progress on the primary focus of your work (in this case, quality of student life). 59) Researchers have looked at the relationship between happy events (uplifts) and irritating events (hassles). What did these researchers discover about the inflammatory factors indicative of cardiovascular disease? A) They are affected by uplifts only. B) They are affected by undesirable life events only. C) They are affected positively by daily hassles and negatively by uplifts. D) They respond in a positive way to uplifts by decreasing these factors and in a negative way to hassles by increasing these factors. Answer: D Rationale: If we want to predict our quality of life based on daily hassles, we also need to know about the uplifts; negatives experiences may be balanced out by positive ones. 60) A worker believes that anyone who is working under pressure must be experiencing a great deal of stress. What information should this worker consider? A) working under pressure is actually beneficial. B) some people may not experience stress when working under pressure. C) the relationship between pressure and stress remains unclear. D) most individuals have a tendency to exaggerate the amount of stress that they are experiencing. Answer: B Rationale: Some stressors are almost universally defined as threats; however, other stressors can be defined differently by different people, depending on life events, life demands, and personal preferences and competencies. 61) When a man's wife approaches him about the many problems in their marriage, he is puzzled and wonders privately if he should take his wife's concerns seriously. According to Richard Lazarus, what process is the man illustrating? A) emotional appraisal. B) primary cognitive appraisal. C) secondary cognitive appraisal. D) denial. Answer: B Rationale: Primary appraisal describes the initial evaluation of the seriousness of the demand. It includes an evaluation of what's happening, and how relevant, good, or stressful it is. If the demand is appraised as stressful, the potential impact of it is then appraised. 62) Which statement about stress moderator variables is accurate? A) They filter the usual effects of stressors. B) They increase the potential impact of a stressor. C) They are primarily innate. D) They typically eliminate the source of stress. Answer: A Rationale: They change the impact of a stressor on the individual's reactions. They filter or modify the usual effects of stressors. For instance, if you are feeling good, you are usually able to deal better with stressors. Feeling good is a moderator variable. 63) Days before a student is scheduled to make a presentation in class, she works out a plan for relieving the anxiety associated with giving the presentation. Which term best captures this student’s approach? A) Type A behaviour. B) Type B behaviour. C) anticipatory coping. D) primary appraisal. Answer: C Rationale: Coping can precede a stressful event and includes dealing with thoughts and feelings about the event that themselves can be stressful. 64) A student finds examinations to be very stressful. If he decides to cope by using a problem-directed coping strategy, what might he do? A) go to a movie the night before an exam to distract himself. B) tell himself that exams are not a valid way to evaluate his knowledge. C) speak to his teachers about alternative methods of evaluation. D) use meditation before taking an exam. Answer: C Rationale: Problem-directed coping involves dealing directly with the stressor; it is most useful for dealing with controllable stressors that can be changed or eliminated through your own actions. 65) Romeo is no longer in love with Juliet, but is afraid to tell her. Recently, he has found himself watching more television than usual and fantasizing about taking a vacation instead of having to confront Juliet. What approach is Romeo using as a way to reduce his stress level? A) anticipatory coping B) problem-directed coping C) emotion-focused coping D) perceived control Answer: C Rationale: This approach is useful for managing uncontrollable stressors, those that cannot be changed through your own actions. You may not be able to eliminate the stress, but you may be able to change your thoughts and feelings about it. 66) A man's wife of 25 years has been diagnosed with terminal cancer and has been given no more than three months to live. As a way to help the husband reduce his stress, what approach should be recommended? A) implement the general adaptation response B) implement the fight-or-flight response. C) adopt an emotion-focused coping style. D) adopt a problem-focused coping style. Answer: C Rationale: This might include a support group, which acknowledges his stress and the threat to his wellbeing, and also acknowledges that he is taking steps to manage it. 67) If one's stressors are uncontrollable, which coping techniques would be most appropriate? A) problem-focused B) somatically-focused C) emotion-focused D) cognitively-focused Answer: C Rationale: With controllable stressors you appraise the situation and your resources for dealing with it and undertake an appropriate response to decrease the impact of the stressor. When stressors are uncontrollable, you acknowledge the stress, and try to change thoughts and feelings about the stressor to modify its threat to your well-being. 68) What approach to managing stress is superior? A) Emotion-focused coping. B) Problem-focused coping. C) Multiple coping strategies. D) Anticipatory coping. Answer: C Rationale: Multiple coping strategies give you a better chance that your resources will match the perceived demand. 69) Elaine has earned her degree and is going on a potentially stressful job interview. When she arrives at the location of the interview, she imagines that the people she will be speaking with are all stand-up comedians, which makes her smile and relax. Which type of coping strategy is Elaine using? A) stress inoculation. B) cognitive reappraisal. C) socioemotional support. D) informational support. Answer: B Rationale: People experience the stress in their lives in part by the way they appraise the life-events that are stressing them. Changing one’s appraisal (evaluation of the stressors and negative thoughts about how you are handling them) can change one's response to the event. 70) In helping a student deal with her fear of speaking in public, her counsellor asks her to be aware of the origins of her fear, then identify new behaviours that negate her fear, and finally evaluate how these new behaviours are working for her. Which term characterizes this threephrase process? A) anticipatory coping. B) stress inoculation. C) general adaptation. D) stress moderation. Answer: B Rationale: This is a process proposed by Meichenbaum in which you change what you are telling yourself about stress and change your handling of it in order to manage the stress. 71) A friend is trying to deal with her stressors. She plans on applying the three-phase process of stress inoculation proposed by cognitive-behaviour therapist Donald Meichenbaum. What step should she take first? A) identify new behaviours that will negate her self-defeating behaviours. B) appraise the consequences of any adaptive behaviours she emits. C) redefine her problems in terms of causes and results. D) avoid negative self-talk. Answer: C Rationale: In this stage, people try to develop greater awareness of their actual behaviour, and its cause and results. 72) An individual believes that the course of his chronic illness cannot be directly influenced by the attitude he takes toward his illness and that only the advances of medical science can help him. Based on the research on the effects of perceived control, what will be the most likely outcome for this individual? A) He will receive less support from family and friends. B) His chances for a poor psychological adjustment will increase. C) He will die from his illness. D) He will show both physical and psychological benefits from his realistic approach. Answer: B Rationale: Belief that we cannot influence the outcome of a situation, that it is controlled outside of our actions and emotions, results in more physical and psychological distress than when we have higher levels of perceived control. 73) One study examined the impact of informational and emotional support for men and women who were undergoing facial surgery. What did the results reveal? A) People who had less social support anticipated their surgery with more sadness, required more anesthesia, and had briefer hospital stays. B) People who had more social support anticipated their surgery with less anxiety, required less anesthesia, and had briefer hospital stays. C) Men and women were equally affected by emotional support. D) Women benefitted more than men from informational support. Answer: B Rationale: Research found that overall, people who had more social support anticipated their surgery with less anxiety, required less anesthesia during surgery, and had briefer hospital stays. 74) Researchers have found that both informational and emotional supports are effective for different people in different situations. Generally, what appears to matter in terms of support? A) that there is a match between what an individual wants and what an individual gets. B) that the individual accepts and benefits from the support that is offered. C) that informational support is almost always critical to recovery whereas emotional support is not. D) that emotional support is almost always critical to recovery whereas informational support is not. Answer: A Rationale: Research has shown that people benefit most from social support in stressful situations when there is a match between what they want and what they get. In a sample of women with breast cancer, individuals had the worst outcomes when they received support they did not want. Researchers suggest that this pattern may have emerged because unwanted assistance made it difficult for the women to obtain the type of support they really wanted. 75) Research has demonstrated that people can experience positive outcomes from deeply negative events. Which term best characterizes this phenomenon? A) Posttraumatic growth. B) Tend and befriend. C) General adaptation syndrome. D) Cognitive appraisal. Answer: A Rationale: Benefit finding describes people's abilities to find positives in negative life events. Posttraumatic growth includes positive responses to illness, accidents, natural disasters, and other traumatic events. 76) In a study on a group of women diagnosed with breast cancer, researchers observed these women over the course of a year to determine how their mental and physical health evolved. What did the results reveal? A) women who were doing the best were the ones who were able to use perceived benefits to engage in positive reappraisal coping. B) women who were doing the worst were the ones who received the least amount of informational support. C) women who were doing the best were the ones who were able to use perceived losses to engage in negative reappraisal coping. D) women who were doing the worst were the ones who were unable to engage in any kind of reappraisal coping. Answer: A Rationale: In general, the women who were doing the best in follow up were the ones who were able to use perceived benefits to engage in positive reappraisal coping. 77) Within the biopsychosocial model, which scenario best exemplifies health behaviour? A) taking one’s temperature every morning. B) taking medications that have been prescribed by a physician. C) exercising regularly to prevent future illness. D) treating oneself to a night out after losing five pounds. Answer: C Rationale: When you undertake an activity for the purpose of preventing disease or detecting it in the asymptomatic stage, you are exhibiting health behaviour. Optimal health or wellness incorporates physical, intellectual, emotional, spiritual, social and environmental aspects of life; health is a multidimensional experience, assuming a link between mind and body. 78) What is the general goal of health psychology? A) To encourage individuals globally to undergo regular medical checkups. B) To use psychological knowledge to promote wellness. C) To apply the principles of medicine to treat the physical body and the psyche. D) To foster the biomedical approach to treatment. Answer: B Rationale: Health psychologists would like to use psychological principles to increase the chances that we will actually do the things that are good for us 79) According to the textbook, if health researchers wish to continue the trend toward an improved quality of life, which contributing factors to death must be addressed? A) lifestyle factors. B) infectious disease. C) primitive civilizations. D) the lack of vaccines. Answer: A Rationale: If researchers wish to contribute to the trend toward improved quality of life, they must attempt to decrease those deaths associated with lifestyle factors. 80) Which causes of death have been appropriately ranked from highest to lowest? A) heart disease, cancer, influenza and pneumonia, accidents B) accidents, heart disease, cancer, strokes C) strokes, cancer, accidents, heart disease D) cancer, heart disease, accidents, influenza and pneumonia Answer: D Rationale: Cancer causes 29.3% of deaths, followed by heart disease at 22.4%, accidents at 4.1%, and influenza and pneumonia at 2.5%. 81) Which personality type has been associated with the initiation of smoking? A) obsessive. B) passive-aggressive. C) sensation-seeking. D) dependent. Answer: C Rationale: One personality type that has been associated with the initiation of smoking is called sensation seeking. 82) What does the research on smokers who have quit indicate? A) once a smoker quits, he or she is unlikely to relapse. B) individuals go through stages in their readiness to quit. C) most of those who have quit have used professional treatment programs. D) male sensation seekers have more difficulty quitting than female sensation seekers. Answer: B Rationale: Research on smokers who have quit shows that people go through stages in their readiness to quit. 83) Which fact about AIDS and HIV infection is accurate? A) the HIV virus is not airborne and requires direct access to the bloodstream. B) relatively few people are actually at risk for AIDS. C) the time between infection with the virus and appearance of symptoms is approximately thirty days. D) most drug users are likely to be HIV positive. Answer: A Rationale: The HIV virus requires direct access to the bloodstream, and is not airborne. 84) Chloe is a physician who has just made a brilliant diagnosis. According to researchers in health psychology, what will be the largest problem that Chloe will likely face? A) a difference of opinion between her and her patient concerning the diagnosis. B) the patient's perception of the prescribed treatment regimen as unrealistic. C) getting her patient to adhere to a treatment regimen. D) acceptance of the diagnosis by other family members. Answer: C Rationale: Failing to adhere to treatment regimens is one of the most serious problems in health care. 85) A person is sitting comfortably in a quiet room with his eyes closed. As he repeats a word silently to himself, his breathing slows, his heart rate and blood pressure decrease, and tension leaves his muscles. Which term best captures this behaviour? A) the relaxation response. B) biofeedback. C) cognitive restructuring. D) cognitive reappraisal. Answer: A Rationale: The relaxation response is a condition in which muscle tension, cortical activity, heart rate, and blood pressure decrease, and breathing slows. In this low level of arousal, there is reduced electrical activity in the brain and less input from the environment than usual. 86) Neal Miller developed a procedure for making an individual aware of ordinarily weak or internal responses by providing clear external signals. Which term refers to this procedure? A) the relaxation response B) biofeedback C) cognitive control D) stress-inoculation Answer: B Rationale: Biofeedback is a self-regulatory technique that makes an individual aware of ordinarily weak or internal responses by providing clear external signals. 87) In a study by Robert Ader and Nicholas Cohen, some rats were taught to associate sweettasting saccharin with cyclophosphamide, a drug that weakens immune response. Later, when given only saccharin, how did the rats respond? A) demonstrated an increased ability to manage stress. B) showed an improved ability to heal small wounds on their skin. C) demonstrated less accuracy on a previously mastered maze. D) produced significantly fewer antibodies to foreign cells. Answer: D Rationale: The learned association alone was so powerful that some rats died from drinking only the saccharin solution, suggesting that immune function can be modified by psychological states. 88) What did James Pennebaker suggest as a means to promote health? A) try actively to suppress negative thoughts and feelings. B) eat a diet that is rich in leafy green vegetables. C) share personal traumas and shameful experiences. D) choose psychological treatments over medical treatments. Answer: C Rationale: Pennebaker showed that suppressing thoughts and feelings about traumatic or shameful events takes a toll on mental and physical health, undermining the body's defenses against illness. 89) To call Sandi competitive would be an understatement. In addition, she is aggressive, impatient, and hostile. She complains about not having enough hours in the day and is irritated by people who are late for appointments. Which term best reflects this behaviour pattern? A) Type A B) Type B C) hostile D) extraverted Answer: A Rationale: This is a complex behaviour pattern that includes being excessively aggressive, competitive, impatient, time urgent, and hostile. 90) A coworker seems very satisfied with his life and work, and does not feel that he has to engage in competition with his fellow workers to advance at work. He seems very cheerful and is often seen in the company of others. Which term best reflects this behaviour pattern? A) Type A B) Type B C) extraverted D) optimistic Answer: B Rationale: This person is less competitive, less hostile, less time urgent: everything that the Type A person is, the Type B person is not. 91) Which characteristic of Type A people puts them most at risk? A) time urgency. B) impatience with others. C) hostility. D) lack of social support. Answer: C Rationale: The personality trait that has emerged most forcefully as ‘toxic’ is hostility. 92) In his book, The Expression of Emotions in Man and Animals, Charles Darwin makes the case that emotions are learned, not innate. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: In his book "The Expression of Emotions in Man and Animals," Charles Darwin actually argued the opposite, suggesting that emotions have an innate component. Darwin proposed that certain emotional expressions are universal across cultures, indicating an innate basis for at least some emotions. 93) The research of Paul Ekman has shown that there are just two universal emotional expressions, fear and anger. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Paul Ekman's research on facial expressions has identified more than just fear and anger as universal emotional expressions. He identified several basic emotions that are universally recognizable across different cultures, including happiness, sadness, disgust, surprise, and contempt, in addition to fear and anger. 94) Physiologically, with mild unpleasant stimulation, the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is more active, and with mild, pleasant stimulation, the parasympathetic division is more active. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Physiologically, the autonomic nervous system responds differently to pleasant and unpleasant stimulation. When faced with mild unpleasant stimulation, the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system becomes more active, preparing the body for action. Conversely, with mild pleasant stimulation, the parasympathetic division becomes more active, promoting relaxation and digestion. 95) The James-Lange theory of emotion is considered a peripheralist theory. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: The James-Lange theory of emotion posits that emotions arise from physiological arousal. According to this theory, an individual first experiences physiological arousal, which then leads to the experience of emotion. Because the theory emphasizes the role of bodily responses in the experience of emotion, it is considered a peripheralist theory. 96) According to the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, one must first consciously search the environment for an interpretation of arousal before emotion can be experienced. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: According to the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, emotions are elicited as a result of the cognitive evaluation or interpretation of events. However, this cognitive appraisal does not necessarily require conscious searching of the environment for an interpretation of arousal before emotion can be experienced. Emotions can be triggered by automatic cognitive processes as well. 97) Researchers studying twins have come to the conclusion that genetics plays little role in explaining individual differences in subjective well-being. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Research on twins has consistently shown that genetics play a significant role in explaining individual differences in subjective well-being. Studies on identical twins raised apart, for example, have demonstrated substantial heritability for subjective well-being, indicating that genetic factors contribute significantly to an individual's overall happiness and life satisfaction. 98) Acute stress is defined as a transient state of arousal with typically clear onset and offset patterns. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Acute stress is characterized by a sudden and short-lived response to a stressor, typically with a clear onset and offset pattern. It is distinct from chronic stress, which persists over a longer duration. Acute stress responses often involve immediate physiological changes that help the body cope with the perceived threat or challenge. 99) The hypothalamus has sometimes been referred to as the stress center because it is involved in a variety of emotional responses. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: The hypothalamus, a region of the brain located below the thalamus, is often referred to as the "stress center" because it plays a crucial role in coordinating the body's response to stress. It regulates the release of stress hormones, such as cortisol and adrenaline, and is involved in various emotional responses, including the activation of the fight-or-flight response. 100) Stress produces a wide range of physiological changes, including dilation of blood vessels, reduction in adrenalin secretion, and contraction of the pupil of the eye. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Stress typically produces a range of physiological changes, but the specific changes mentioned in the statement are inaccurate. Stress typically causes vasoconstriction (not dilation) of blood vessels, an increase (not reduction) in adrenaline secretion, and dilation (not contraction) of the pupil of the eye. These physiological changes are part of the body's adaptive response to stress, preparing it to react to potential threats or challenges. 101) If you were to complete the Social Readjustment Rating Scale, you would be asked to rate the degree of adjustment required by a variety of life changes, both pleasant and unpleasant, then a total number of life-change units (LCUs) would be computed. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: The Social Readjustment Rating Scale, developed by Holmes and Rahe, requires individuals to rate the degree of adjustment needed for various life events, whether positive or negative. These events are assigned life-change units (LCUs), and the total number of LCUs experienced within a certain timeframe is computed to assess the individual's stress level. 102) Researchers who have studied procrastination have found that students who are procrastinators are likely to report fewer symptoms of physical illness early in the semester and more symptoms of physical illness toward the end of the semester than nonprocrastinating peers. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Research on procrastination has indeed shown that procrastinating students may report fewer symptoms of physical illness early in the semester because they are avoiding stressful tasks. However, as deadlines approach and stress accumulates due to delayed work, procrastinators may experience increased physical symptoms toward the end of the semester compared to non-procrastinating peers. 103) Research has illustrated that it is possible for the emotional responses of posttraumatic stress to occur in an acute form immediately following the trauma and to subside over a period of several months. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Posttraumatic stress responses can manifest acutely following a traumatic event and then gradually subside over time for many individuals. While posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) involves persistent symptoms lasting for more than a month, acute stress reactions can occur immediately after a traumatic event and may resolve within a few weeks or months without developing into PTSD. 104) Daily hassles are the types of stressors that confront very few of us in our everyday lives. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Daily hassles are common stressors that most people encounter in their everyday lives. These stressors can include minor annoyances, such as traffic jams, arguments, or work deadlines. Daily hassles can accumulate over time and contribute significantly to overall stress levels and well-being. 105) Stress moderator variables will usually increase the impact of a stressor and cause it to be more harmful. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Stress moderator variables can either increase or decrease the impact of a stressor, depending on their nature and how they interact with the stressor. While some moderator variables may exacerbate the effects of stress, others may serve as protective factors, buffering against the negative impact of stressors. Therefore, stress moderator variables can both amplify and mitigate the harmful effects of stress. 106) The emotion-focused coping approach is useful for managing the impact of more uncontrollable stressors. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Emotion-focused coping involves managing the emotional distress caused by a stressor rather than directly addressing the stressor itself. This approach can be particularly useful for coping with stressors that are perceived as uncontrollable or cannot be changed. By regulating emotions and seeking social support, individuals can alleviate the negative impact of stressors that are beyond their control. 107) The Navajo concept of hozho means disharmony, or evil introduced through violation of taboos, witchcraft, overindulgence or bad dreams. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The Navajo concept of hozho refers to a state of harmony, balance, and beauty in the Navajo culture, rather than disharmony or evil. It encompasses a holistic view of well-being that involves physical, mental, emotional, and spiritual harmony. Hozho is achieved through living in harmony with oneself, others, and the environment. 108) Accidents are the leading cause of death in Canada. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Accidents are not the leading cause of death in Canada. In Canada, as in many other developed countries, chronic diseases such as heart disease, cancer, and stroke are the leading causes of death. While accidents do contribute to mortality rates, they are not the primary cause of death. 109) Your friend is watching a crime scene drama on television. He is enjoying it. This is an example of the relaxation response. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Enjoying a crime scene drama on television is not an example of the relaxation response. The relaxation response refers to a physiological state characterized by decreased arousal, reduced muscle tension, and a sense of calm induced by relaxation techniques such as deep breathing, meditation, or progressive muscle relaxation. Enjoyment of a television show may involve entertainment or stimulation rather than relaxation. 110) Biofeedback is a self-regulatory technique by which an individual acquires voluntary control over biological processes. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Biofeedback is indeed a self-regulatory technique that enables individuals to gain voluntary control over physiological processes such as heart rate, blood pressure, muscle tension, and skin temperature. Through the use of electronic monitoring devices, individuals receive realtime feedback about their bodily functions, allowing them to learn to control these processes through relaxation techniques and mental exercises. 111) The Type B behaviour pattern is characterized by excessive emphasis on competition, aggression, impatience, and hostility. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The statement describes characteristics more aligned with the Type A behavior pattern, not Type B. Type A behavior pattern is characterized by competitiveness, aggression, impatience, and hostility, along with a sense of time urgency and a tendency toward multitasking. In contrast, Type B behavior pattern is characterized by a more relaxed, patient, and laid-back approach to life, with less emphasis on competitiveness and hostility. 112) Neuroanatomy research has focused on the __________ as a part of the limbic system that controls emotion and the formation of emotional memory. Answer: amygdala Rationale: The amygdala is a key structure within the limbic system of the brain, which is associated with emotions, emotional behavior, and motivation. Research has shown that the amygdala plays a crucial role in processing emotions, particularly fear, and in forming emotional memories. 113) Integration of the neural with the endocrine aspects of emotional arousal is controlled by the __________ and the __________. Answer: hypothalamus; limbic system Rationale: The hypothalamus plays a central role in regulating the endocrine system, including the release of hormones involved in stress response and emotional arousal. It also interacts closely with the limbic system, which is responsible for emotional processing and behavior. 114) The __________ theory of emotion is a centralist theory that states that an emotional stimulus produces two co-occurring reactions, arousal and experience of emotion, that do not cause each other. Answer: Cannon-Bard Rationale: The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion proposes that emotional experiences and physiological responses occur simultaneously but independently of each other. This theory contrasts with the James-Lange theory, which suggests that physiological responses precede the experience of emotion. 115) Walter Cannon found that a sequence of activity is triggered in response to danger, and called this dual stress response the __________ response. Answer: fight-or-flight Rationale: Walter Cannon coined the term "fight-or-flight response" to describe the physiological reactions that occur in response to perceived threat or danger. This response prepares the body to either confront the threat (fight) or flee from it (flight). 116) Shelley Taylor and her colleagues have hypothesized that females experience a __________ response to stress, enabling them to protect their offspring and join social groups to reduce vulnerability. Answer: tend-and-befriend Rationale: The tend-and-befriend response, proposed by Shelley Taylor, suggests that in addition to the fight-or-flight response, females may have evolved a tendency to nurture offspring and seek social support during times of stress. This response may promote survival by fostering social bonds and cooperation. 117) First described by Hans Selye, the __________ is a three-stage response to continuing threat by almost any serious stressor. Answer: general adaptation syndrome Rationale: The general adaptation syndrome, proposed by Hans Selye, describes the body's response to stress as occurring in three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. This model suggests that the body adapts to stressors over time but may eventually become exhausted if stress is prolonged or severe. 118) Illnesses that are aggravated by or primarily attributable to prolonged emotional stress or other psychological causes are called __________ disorders. Answer: psychosomatic Rationale: Psychosomatic disorders are physical illnesses or conditions that are influenced by psychological factors such as stress, anxiety, or emotional distress. These disorders often involve symptoms that cannot be fully explained by underlying organic pathology. 119) __________ is an anxiety disorder characterized by the persistent reexperience of traumatic events through distressing recollections, dreams, hallucinations, or dissociative flashbacks. Answer: Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) Rationale: Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a psychiatric disorder that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Symptoms include intrusive memories, flashbacks, nightmares, and emotional distress related to the traumatic event. 120) The process of dealing with internal and external demands that are perceived as exceeding the individual's resources is called __________, which may consist of behavioural, emotional, or motivational responses and thoughts. Answer: coping Rationale: Coping refers to the cognitive and behavioral efforts made by individuals to manage stressors or demands that exceed their perceived resources. Coping strategies can vary and may include problem-solving, seeking social support, or engaging in relaxation techniques. 121) The two main ways of coping are defined by whether the goal is to confront the problem directly, called __________ coping, or to lessen the discomfort associated with the stress, called __________ coping. Answer: problem-directed; emotion-focused Rationale: Coping strategies can be categorized into problem-focused coping, which involves actively addressing the stressor or problem, and emotion-focused coping, which involves managing the emotional distress associated with the stressor. These strategies can help individuals adapt to and manage stressful situations. 122) Charles Darwin believed that emotions were a product of evolution and were universal. Show how the research of Paul Ekman supported this conclusion and how culture constrains emotional expression. Answer: Paul Ekman identified seven universal expressions. Discuss how this finding supports Darwin’s views. Cultures establish social rules that guide people in appropriate expressions of emotion. 123) Summarize three major theoretical approaches to emotions, as well as the physiology of emotion. Answer: Discuss the physiology of emotions, the James-Lange Theory, the Cannon-Bard Theory, and cognitive appraisal theories. 124) If you are like most people, you have experienced stress in your life. What is going on in your body when you are in the midst of the fight-or-flight response? How did Hans Selye describe the body's reaction to stress? Answer: Describe the sequence of activity that is triggered in the nerves and glands during the fight-or-flight response. Describe Selye's general adaptation syndrome. 125) What are the differences between traumatic events, chronic stressors, and daily hassles? How do these stressors affect our physiological wellbeing? Answer: Define traumatic events, chronic stressors, and daily hassles. Discuss how these can affect our physiological wellbeing. 126) Looking at stress from a psychological perspective, what have psychologists learned about the importance of cognitive appraisal and the various types of coping responses? Answer: Appraisal includes a personal definition of the meaning of the stress to the individual, primary and secondary appraisals and stress moderator variables. Give examples of coping responses. 177) One of the major concerns of health psychologists is the promotion of healthy behaviours and lifestyles. Explain the biopsychosocial model of health and illness, then summarize the findings with respect to the major health threats of smoking and AIDS. Answer: Define biopsychosocial, which links physical health to state of mind and to the environment of the individual. Improved quality of life is linked to lifestyle factors. Smoking and AIDS both have an impact on the individual and require adjustments to significant changes in lifestyle. Successful treatment involves meeting both the physiological and psychological needs of individuals. HIV creates the chronic stress of the fear that AIDS will develop. Discuss adherence to a regimen of treatment, as well as learning to use both the resources of the body and the mind to adjust to chronic illness and to improve quality of life. 128) Discuss patient adherence to treatment regimens. Why is adherence important and what are some ways in which adherence can be improved? Answer: Patients are often given a treatment regimen. Patient perceptions of severity of the illness, social support, and the match between physicians’ and patients’ attitudes are all variables that affect adherence. 129) Many investigators believe that psychological strategies can improve wellbeing. Talk about this claim from the perspective of using mind and body to heal. Discuss biofeedback and the relaxation response. Answer: Define and discuss wellbeing. Relaxation through meditation has ancient roots; describe and give examples of the relaxation response. Define biofeedback and psychoneuroimmunology. Mention Pennebaker's work and the effect of psychological factors on health outcomes. 1) A careful examination of emotions can be traced back to ___________. A) B. F. Skinnerian emotion B) Charles Darwin C) The Renaissance D) World War I Answer: B Rationale: Charles Darwin's work on emotions, particularly in his book "The Expression of the Emotions in Man and Animals" published in 1872, laid the foundation for the scientific study of emotions. Darwin argued that emotions have evolved through natural selection and can be understood through careful observation of their expression and the circumstances under which they occur. 2) Affective states accompanied by physiological changes that often influence behavior are called __________. A) motives B) drives C) emotions D) traits Answer: C Rationale: Emotions involve both subjective feelings and physiological changes, such as increased heart rate, sweating, or changes in facial expressions. These physiological changes often accompany emotional experiences and can influence behavior. 3) The statement “If you expect something to make you feel bad, chances are it will” is reflective of which of the following theories of emotion? A) somatic B) Darwinian C) appraisal D) opponent-process Answer: C Rationale: This statement reflects the appraisal theory of emotion, which suggests that our emotional experiences are influenced by how we interpret or appraise situations. If we anticipate a negative outcome, our appraisal of the situation can lead to the experience of negative emotions. 4) If you want to get people to do something for you, the best time to try to persuade them is when they are __________. A) unemotional B) scared C) happy D) emotionally aroused Answer: D Rationale: When people are emotionally aroused, they tend to be more receptive to persuasive messages and are more likely to act on them. Emotional arousal can increase motivation and engagement, making it an opportune time for persuasion. 5) Emotion is to affect as appraisal is to __________. A) mood B) arousal C) interpretation D) sense Answer: C Rationale: Emotion refers to the subjective experience of feelings, while affect refers to the broader range of emotional experiences including mood. Similarly, appraisal refers to the cognitive evaluation or interpretation of a situation, which precedes the experience of emotion. 6) In a conflict situation, the closer we get to the goal, the: A) weaker the approach and avoidance forces become. B) stronger the approach and avoidance forces become. C) easier the conflict is to resolve. D) less anxiety we feel. Answer: C Rationale: As we approach a goal in a conflict situation, the conflicting forces (such as approach and avoidance motivations) may intensify, making the conflict more difficult to resolve. However, as the goal becomes closer, there may also be a greater sense of clarity or direction, which can facilitate resolution. 7) General diffuse feeling states that are often long-lasting and of low intensity are called _______. A) emotions B) arousals C) moods D) motives Answer: C Rationale: Moods are characterized by a general and enduring emotional state that is often less intense than emotions. Unlike emotions, which are typically short-lived and tied to specific events or experiences, moods can persist over time and may not have a clear trigger. 8) The ability to experience love appears to be strongly influenced by one’s ____________. A) ability to fantasize B) degree of attractiveness C) past experience D) sexual preference Answer: C Rationale: Past experiences, including early attachment relationships and learned patterns of relating, play a significant role in shaping an individual's ability to experience and express love. These experiences can influence how one perceives and responds to intimate relationships. 9) Dr. Zhivago and Lara fell in love while working in a hospital in a war zone. It is possible that their passion was heightened by _________. A) their lack of experience B) boredom with the hospital routine C) arousal caused by fear of attack D) professional knowledge about human reproduction Answer: C Rationale: The environment of a war zone, characterized by heightened arousal and threat, can intensify emotions, including passion and love. The heightened arousal caused by fear of attack can lead individuals to seek comfort and connection with others, potentially fostering or intensifying romantic relationships. 10) Emotions vary from one another in: A) quality. B) intensity. C) both of the above D) none of the above Answer: B Rationale: While emotions may vary in quality (i.e., the specific nature or type of emotion), they also vary in intensity, ranging from mild to intense emotional experiences. Intensity reflects the strength or magnitude of the emotional response, which can differ across different emotions. 11) When photographs of facial expressions conveying different emotions were shown to subjects in different countries, the subjects: A) tended to agree on the emotional meaning of the different expressions. B) rarely agreed on the emotional meaning of the different expressions. C) agreed only on expressions of anger and fear. D) none of the above Answer: A Rationale: This phenomenon, known as cross-cultural agreement in facial expressions, suggests that certain facial expressions are universally recognized regardless of cultural background. It supports the idea of basic emotions that are universally expressed and recognized. 12) The emotions that are most easily recognized from facial expressions include happiness, anger, and _______. A) love B) disgust C) fear D) sadness Answer: B Rationale: Research has consistently shown that happiness, anger, and disgust are among the most easily recognized emotions from facial expressions. These emotions have distinct facial configurations that are recognizable across different cultures. 13) Anger is a(n) _______. A) primary reflex B) emotion C) motive D) social drive Answer: B Rationale: Anger is considered one of the basic emotions and is characterized by feelings of hostility, frustration, and antagonism. It is a distinct emotional state that can be triggered by various situations or stimuli. 14) Which of the following is NOT an emotion? A) anger B) thirst C) fear D) lust Answer: B Rationale: Anger, fear, and lust are all considered emotions, whereas thirst is a physiological sensation related to the body's need for water. Emotions involve subjective feelings and often lead to specific behavioral responses, whereas physiological sensations like thirst do not. 15) The _______ nervous system influences physiological effects associated with emotions. A) apathetic B) primal C) empathic D) sympathetic Answer: D Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for activating the body's "fight or flight" response, which involves physiological changes such as increased heart rate, sweating, and heightened arousal. These physiological effects are commonly associated with emotional experiences. 16) Which of the following is NOT a physiological change associated with emotion? A) adrenaline secretion B) saliva secretion C) increased perspiration D) increased breathing Answer: B Rationale: Adrenaline secretion, increased perspiration, and increased breathing are all physiological changes commonly associated with emotional arousal. While saliva secretion can be influenced by emotional states such as hunger or disgust, it is not typically considered a primary physiological change associated with emotion. 17) Which of the following researchers found that cats continued to show typical behavioral reactions of fear, anger, and pleasure after the sympathetic nervous system tract had been severed? A) William James B) Walter B. Cannon C) Carl Lange D) Charles Darwin Answer: B Rationale: Walter B. Cannon conducted research on the sympathetic nervous system's role in the physiological responses associated with emotion. He found that cats continued to exhibit emotional behaviors even after the sympathetic nervous system was severed, suggesting that emotions are not solely dependent on this physiological system. 18) According to the _________ theory, arousal of organs and the experience of emotion are simultaneous. A) Schacter and Singer B) Cannon-Bard C) James-Lange D) appraisal Answer: B Rationale: The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that arousal and emotional experience occur simultaneously, rather than one causing the other. According to this theory, emotional stimuli trigger both physiological arousal and the subjective experience of emotion independently of each other. 19) Which theory of emotion includes activation of the thalamus? A) James-Lange B) Cannon-Bard C) Schacter-Singer D) appraisal Answer: B Rationale: The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion involves the simultaneous activation of the thalamus, which relays sensory information to both the cerebral cortex (where conscious experience occurs) and the autonomic nervous system (which controls physiological arousal). This theory suggests that emotional experience and physiological arousal are independent but parallel processes. 20) Emotional arousal and experience occur at the same time because of stimulation of the cerebral cortex, according to the _______ theory. A) James-Lange B) Cannon-Bard C) Schacter-Singer D) appraisal Answer: B Rationale: The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that emotional arousal and experience occur simultaneously due to the stimulation of the cerebral cortex by emotional stimuli. This theory contrasts with the James-Lange theory, which suggests that physiological arousal precedes and causes the experience of emotion. 21) According to the _______ theory, the thalamus plays a significant role in one’s emotions. A) James-Lange B) Cannon-Bard C) Schacter-Singer D) cognitive Answer: B Rationale: The Cannon-Bard theory posits that emotional stimuli are simultaneously relayed to both the thalamus (which is involved in sensory processing) and the cerebral cortex (where conscious experience occurs), leading to both physiological arousal and emotional experience. 22) The _______ theory of emotion placed the source of emotions in the thalamus. A) James-Lange B) Cannon-Bard C) Activation D) Jukebox Answer: B Rationale: The Cannon-Bard theory proposed that emotions originate in the thalamus, which serves as a relay station for sensory information, including emotional stimuli. This theory emphasizes the simultaneous activation of both physiological responses and emotional experiences. 23) Note the following sequence of events: Emotional stimulus → thalamus → simultaneous physiological arousal and emotional experience. The order of occurrences summarizes the _______ theory of emotion. A) James-Lange B) Cannon-Bard C) activation D) jukebox Answer: B Rationale: This sequence of events corresponds to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, which posits that emotional stimuli are first processed by the thalamus before leading to both physiological arousal and emotional experience simultaneously. 24) Emotional experience and arousal occur at the same time due to stimulation of the cerebral cortex, according to ________. A) Schachter-Singer B) James-Lange C) Valins D) Cannon-Bard Answer: D Rationale: This statement aligns with the Cannon-Bard theory, which suggests that emotional experiences and physiological arousal occur simultaneously due to the activation of the cerebral cortex by emotional stimuli. 25) According to Cannon-Bard, which of the following plays an important role in experiencing emotion? A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) limbic system D) sympathetic nervous system Answer: A Rationale: According to the Cannon-Bard theory, the thalamus plays a crucial role in experiencing emotion by relaying emotional stimuli to the cerebral cortex, where conscious experience occurs, and to the autonomic nervous system, which controls physiological arousal. 26) There is a positive correlation between stress and ________. A) positive life changes B) negative life changes C) low scores on the SRRS D) major illness Answer: B Rationale: Stress is positively correlated with negative life changes, as experiencing significant life stressors can contribute to psychological and physiological strain, leading to increased levels of stress. 27) Which of the following is the better predictor of psychological and physical health, according to Lazarus? A) hassles B) uplifts C) life events D) negative attitudes Answer: A Rationale: Lazarus suggested that daily hassles, rather than major life events or negative attitudes, are better predictors of psychological and physical health outcomes. The accumulation of minor stressors in daily life can have a significant impact on well-being. 28) Unpredictability is stressful because: A) we don’t know when “uplifts” will occur. B) we must expect too much control. C) we cannot plan for random events. D) hassles cancel good effects of “uplifts.” Answer: C Rationale: Unpredictability is stressful because it disrupts one's ability to plan and prepare for events, leading to uncertainty and a lack of control over outcomes. This lack of control can contribute to feelings of stress and anxiety. 29) Overall, research has indicated that __________ influences the amount of stress that people experience. A) the seriousness of life events B) the degree of control people have over their lives C) intelligence D) physical health Answer: B Rationale: Research suggests that the degree of control individuals perceive they have over their lives influences the amount of stress they experience. A sense of control can buffer the impact of stressors, while a lack of control can increase feelings of stress. 30) Type A behavior is characterized by ____________. A) learned helplessness B) relaxed attitude C) anger and impatience D) lack of competitiveness Answer: C Rationale: Type A behavior is characterized by traits such as competitiveness, time urgency, impatience, and hostility. Individuals with Type A behavior are often driven, ambitious, and prone to experiencing high levels of stress due to their competitive and impatient nature. 31) John is likely experiencing burnout if he exhibits which of the following? A) a high level of energy B) a reduced sense of accomplishment C) an increased sense of control over his life and earnings D) increased interest in his job Answer: B Rationale: Burnout is characterized by feelings of exhaustion, cynicism, and inefficacy in one's job role. John's belief that he must constantly increase his sales quota, coupled with his excessive working hours and lack of vacation, suggests a potential experience of reduced sense of accomplishment, which is a key component of burnout. This is because despite his efforts, he may feel that he is unable to meet unrealistic expectations, leading to feelings of ineffectiveness and decreased satisfaction with his achievements. Test Bank for Psychology and Life Richard J. Gerrig, Philip G. Zimbardo, Serge Desmarais, Tammy Ivanco 9780205037117, 9780205859139