Chapter 5: Sensation and Perception 1) Which cognitive process is best defined as apprehending objects and events in the environment, sensing them, identifying them, and reacting to them? A) sensation. B) learning. C) thinking. D) perception. Answer: D Rationale: Perception includes the processes that organize information in the sensory image and interpret the image as having been produced by properties or objects in the external, threedimensional world. 2) During which stage of the perceptual process do higher-level cognitive processes, such as memories, values, beliefs, and attitudes assign meaning? A) sensation B) perceptual organization C) synthesis D) identification and recognition Answer: D Rationale: These two processes attach meaning to what we perceive. Identification answers the question, “What is this object?” Recognition answers the questions, “What is the object’s function?” 3) In the context of perception, from which stimuli do we derive our information? A) proximal B) distal C) peripheral D) differential Answer: A Rationale: What we wish to perceive is the real object in the environment, the distal stimulus; the stimulus from which we must derive our information is the proximal stimulus, the image on the retina. 4) Which research topic best characterizes a psychophysics study? A) The relationship between personality and physical size B) The effect of light intensity on the experience of brightness C) Moving objects through space in the absence of physical touch D) The effect of aerobic exercise on psychological adjustment Answer: B Rationale: Psychophysics is the study of the relationship between physical stimuli (such as light intensity) and the behavior or mental experiences (such as the experience of brightness) the stimuli evoke. 5) An individual has trouble hearing and is being tested for a hearing aid. The individual is presented with tones of various intensities and is asked to indicate whenever a sound is detected. Which measurement is likely being determined? A) difference threshold. B) absolute threshold. C) the just noticeable difference. D) response bias. Answer: B Rationale: The absolute threshold is the minimum amount of physical energy (tones) needed to produce a sensory experience (detecting the sound). 6) A superhero in a comic book boasts that his senses are so well developed that he can see a candle flame at night at a distance of 30 miles, hear the tick of a watch at 20 feet, detect the presence of one teaspoon of sugar in 20 gallons of water, and smell one drop of perfume that has been sprayed in an area equivalent to a three-room apartment. Which one of these claims is extraordinary? A) seeing the flame from a candle at a distance of thirty miles. B) hearing the tick of a watch at a distance of twenty feet. C) tasting the presence of a teaspoon of sugar in 20 gallons of water. D) smelling the perfume in an area the size of a three-room apartment. Answer: C Rationale: The approximate threshold for taste is one teaspoon of sugar in two gallons of water. Ordinary humans can accomplish the other feats. 7) What is the operational definition of the absolute threshold? A) the stimulus level at which a sensory signal is detected. B) the stimulus level at which a sensory signal is presented. C) the stimulus level at which a sensory signal is detected half the time. D) the stimulus level at which a sensory signal is detected all of the time. Answer: C Rationale: Absolute threshold is the minimum amount of physical energy needed to produce a reliable sensory experience, operationally defined as the stimulus level at which a sensory signal is detected half the time. 8) Eve had forgotten that she had put on earrings until Adam said that he liked them. What was the likely source of Eve’s lack of awareness? A) sensory adaptation. B) a response bias. C) the difference threshold. D) Weber’s law. Answer: A Rationale: Sensory adaption is the diminishing response of our sensory systems to prolonged sensory input (such as touch/pressure). 9) A researcher is testing a man for his visual absolute threshold. The researcher presents a dim light and asks the man if he detected it. The young man wants to please the researcher, so he says "yes" every time a stimulus is presented. What approach should be taken to address this situation? A) have a research assistant present the stimuli. B) present no stimulus at all on some trials. C) present a very bright stimulus on some trials. D) identify the trials where demand characteristics are believed to be at play. Answer: B Rationale: This allows evaluation of both the sensory process and the decision process. If the perceiver has a high number of false alarms when there is no stimulus present, he has frequently said yes when the researcher asks if he perceived a stimulus. This indicates that it is his decision process influencing his answers, not simply the stimulus or sensory process. 10) Which topic of discussion would most likely include the words "payoff matrix," "hits" and "false alarms"? A) gate-control theory. B) signal detection theory. C) accommodation. D) nociceptive pain. Answer: B Rationale: The matrix shows the possible outcomes when a subject is asked if a target stimulus occurred on a given trial. Hits and false alarms are possible outcomes. 11) On each trial, observers respond by saying "yes" if they think a signal was present and "no" if they think it was not present. If a stimulus is not presented, but the observer believes it was presented, what type of response is being made? A) hit. B) miss. C) false alarm. D) response bias. Answer: C Rationale: When an individual says “yes” even though no signal was present, that counts as a “false alarm.” False alarms are part of the matrix of possible outcomes when a subject is asked whether or not a target stimulus is present. They demonstrate that people’s responses reflect both the observer’s sensitivity to the strength of the stimulus and a subsequent decision process. 12) A researcher is collecting data in an auditory signal detection task. One participant is making many more correct rejections than false alarms and many more misses than hits. Why would this outcome most likely occur? A) The participant is a yea sayer. B) The cost of false alarms is low. C) The participant's hearing is very acute. D) The participant is a nay sayer. Answer: D Rationale: A nay sayer is someone who chronically says no, demonstrating response bias, the systematic tendency for an observer to respond in a particular way unrelated to the sensory features of the stimulus. Because the participant so often says “no,” he is likely to produce more correct rejections (saying “no” when the stimulus is absent) than false alarms (saying “yes” when the stimulus is absent). He is also likely to have more misses (saying “no” when the stimulus is present) than hits (saying “yes” when the stimulus is present). 13) Why are psychologists who study sensory processes most likely to use signal detection theory? A) It allows for the detection of experimenter expectancy effects. B) It separates sensory processes from response bias. C) It determines why an individual would be a "nay sayer." D) It determines the single, true absolute threshold. Answer: B Rationale: Response bias refers to the tendency of an individual to respond in a particular way that is unrelated to the sensory features of the stimulus. Signal detection theory allows study of both the sensory process itself and the decision process that may be influenced by response bias. 14) After repeatedly tasting a new potato chip and then an old style chip, a test subject finally states that all potato chips taste the same. Which measurement has most likely been determined? A) difference threshold. B) absolute threshold. C) accommodation. D) response bias. Answer: A Rationale: A difference threshold is the smallest physical difference between two stimuli that can still be recognized as a stimulus. To measure the difference threshold, pairs of stimuli are used. Participants are asked whether they think there is a difference or not 15) What is the operational definition of a difference threshold? A) The point at which two stimuli are recognized as different 25% of the time. B) The point at which two stimuli are recognized as different half of the time. C) The point at which two stimuli are recognized as different all of the time. D) Sthe mallest quantity of physical energy that can be detected. Answer: B Rationale: The difference threshold is the smallest physical difference between two stimuli that can still be recognized as a difference, operationally defined as the point at which the stimuli are recognized as different half the time. 16) A consultant is trying to convince a manufacturer that changing the taste of their drink product slightly will not be detected as much as if they were in the perfume business where clients would detect a similar slight change in odour. Based on Weber's research with different sense dimensions, is the consultant's claim accurate and if so, why? A) Yes, because Weber's constant for odour is greater than Weber's constant for taste. B) Yes, because a person will be more sensitive to changes in odours than changes in taste. C) No, because a person will be more sensitive to changes in taste than changes in odour. D) No, because people are equally sensitive to changes in taste and odour. Answer: B Rationale: Weber's work tells us that we can differentiate two odours more precisely than we can two tastes. (People can detect smaller differences in odour than in taste.) 17) Which example is most like the sensory process of transduction? A) The use of solar panels to run washing machines. B) The increasing sensitivity of other senses when one sense is lost. C) The tendency of plants to turn their leaves toward the sun. D) The development of an adolescent into an adult. Answer: A Rationale: Transduction is the process of conversion of one form of physical energy to another form of energy. 18) Which sequence best reflects the route that light energy takes as it moves through the eye from the outside world? A) cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, vitreous humour, retina. B) anterior chamber, pupil, cornea, vitreous humour, retina. C) pupil, vitreous humour, cornea, anterior chamber, retina. D) anterior chamber, cornea, pupil, retina, vitreous humour. Answer: A Rationale: Light first enters the cornea, then passes through the anterior chamber, then through the pupil, vitreous humour inside the eye, and finally strikes the retina at the back of the eyeball. 19) An elderly man jokes that his arms have gotten too short to be able to read the morning newspaper without his glasses. What is the most likely source of his vision problem? A) the decreased ability to accommodate. B) flattening of the cornea. C) the inability of the lens to thicken properly. D) ciliary muscles that are too strong. Answer: C Rationale: As people age, the lens becomes more amber tinted, opaque, and flattened, and it loses its elasticity. When this happens the lens loses its ability to thicken enough for near vision. The near point, the closest point at which people can focus clearly, gets progressively farther away. 20) Under which conditions do rods operate best? A) Bright light B) Moderate light C) Coloured light D) Near darkness Answer: D Rationale: Rods are best for night vision, while cones are specialized for bright, colourful, daytime vision. 21) Which description best explains the process of dark adaptation? A) improved sensitivity of rods over time. B) improved sensitivity of cones over time. C) improved sensitivity of amacrine cells over time. D) improved sensitivity of bipolar cells over time. Answer: A Rationale: Dark adaptation is the gradual improvement of the eyes' sensitivity after the level of illumination changes from bright to near darkness. As time passes in the dark, rods become more sensitive than cones and are able to respond to the lower level of light. 22) What is the fovea? A) the location of the blind spot. B) an area in the retina where rods are particularly dense. C) the location of amacrine cells. D) an area in the retina where vision is sharpest. Answer: D Rationale: The fovea is a small region in the center of the retina that contains nothing but densely packed cones. We move our eyes so that images fall on our fovea. 23) At night, when one looks at a star directly, the image of the star hits the fovea of the retina and it is difficult to see it clearly. Why does this phenomenon occur? A) The fovea is densely packed with rods. B) The fovea is rod-free. C) The fovea is adjacent to the blind spot. D) The cells in the fovea are hyperpolarized. Answer: B Rationale: Rods are the receptor cells on the retina that work best in near darkness. 24) How do the cells of the retina process visual information? A) bipolar cells and ganglion cells spread the signal within the retina, and horizontal and amacrine cells send the signal to the brain. B) horizontal and amacrine cells spread the signal within the retina, and bipolar cells send the signal to the brain. C) horizontal cells send the signal to the brain, and amacrine cells spread the signal across the retina. D) ganglion cells send the signal to the brain, and horizontal and amacrine cells spread the signal across the retina. Answer: D Rationale: The axons of the ganglion cells make up the optic nerve, which carries visual information out of the eye to the brain. The horizontal and amacrine cells integrate information across the retina. Horizontal cells connect receptors to each other. Amacrine cells link bipolar cells to other bipolar cells and ganglion cells to other ganglion cells. Neither the horizontal nor the amacrine cells send signals to the brain. 25) Where in the brain do the optic nerves from each eye first come together? A) thalamus B) corpus collosum C) optic tract D) optic chiasma Answer: D Rationale: The optic nerve from each eye come together at the optic chiasma, and then half of the fibres from each retina remain on the side of the body from which they originated. 26) It is common practice to treat amblyopia, or ‘lazy eye’, in children by patching up the healthy eye. According to the research of Murphy and colleagues, which advice about the procedure is appropriate? A) It is recommended because it allows the amblyopic eye to ‘catch up’ to the healthy eye. B) It is recommended because the healthy eye is overpowering the amblyopic eye. C) It is not recommended because the healthy eye loses some visual acuity after wearing the patch. D) It is not recommended because the amblyopic eye doesn’t improve after the procedure. Answer: C Rationale: Murphy and colleagues found that kittens with a patch on their good eye did experience some restoration of their visual acuity to the amblyopic eye, but their healthy eye lost some visual acuity. 27) Which of the following terms does not belong with the others? A) frequency B) hue C) saturation D) brightness Answer: A Rationale: Experiences of colour are explained by hue, saturation, and brightness. Frequency is a term related to hearing and describes the number of cycles a sine wave completes in a given amount of time. 28) Which colour has an intermediate amount of saturation? A) white. B) beige. C) yellow. D) gray. Answer: B Rationale: Saturation captures the purity of colour sensation. Undiluted colours have the most saturation. Muted, muddy and pastel colours have intermediate saturation. Grays have zero saturation. 29) When combining wavelengths in an additive colour mixture, what will mixing complementary colours do? A) create the sensation of white light. B) produce a negative afterimage. C) be perceived as black. D) produce different effects, depending on the colours that are mixed. Answer: A Rationale: Complementary colours are wavelengths that appear directly across from each other on the colour wheel. When mixed, complementary colours create the sensation of white light. 30) Near the end of a negative afterimage demonstration, the audience looked at a blank white screen, but responded that they had seen a red and white Canadian flag. What colour was the original flag that they were likely required to view at the onset of the demonstration? A) green and black B) blue and white C) red and white D) blue and green Answer: A Rationale: The green, black, and yellow flag gives the audience a negative afterimage that is the opposite of the original colours. When we stare at any colour long enough to partially fatigue our photoreceptors, looking at a white surface allows us to see the complements of the original colours. 31) When a child combines the yellow and blue crayon colours in her drawing, the resulting colour is green. Why is this so? A) Because in an additive colour mixture, combining these two colours yields green. B) When yellow and blue are combined, the yellow absorbs the yellow, and the blue absorbs the blue, leaving green as the only remaining colour. C) The only wavelengths that are not absorbed look green. D) Because of an afterimage created by the particular addition of these two colours. Answer: C Rationale: When yellow and blue crayon are combined, yellow absorbs blue and blue absorbs yellow, leaving unabsorbed only the wavelengths that look green. Both the yellow and blue crayons allow some wavelengths that look green to escape; these are the wavelengths that are not absorbed. 32) Which type of colour blindness is the most common? A) black and white B) blue and yellow C) red and green D) blue and green Answer: C Rationale: Red-green colour blindness is the most popular type of colour blindness. It is usually caused by a defect associated with a gene on the X chromosome. It is more common in males since males only have a single X chromosome, whereas a female would need to have these defective gene on both of her X chromosomes. 33) Sir Thomas Young proposed the existence of only three colour receptors. How did he explain the sensation of so many other colours? A) He could not explain the sensation of other colours, although many years later another scientist did. B) All other colours are additive or subtractive combinations of the colours he identified. C) The brain "learns" to sense other colours, but only after experience with the first three. D) All other colours were afterimages of the three colours he identified. Answer: B Rationale: The primary sensations produced by three different receptors in the eye were red, green, and blue. Additive or subtractive combinations of these colours produced all other colours. His theory was later refined and came to be known as the Young-Helmholtz Trichromatic Theory. It explained colour sensations and colour blindness but it did not explain afterimages or why colour-blind people always fail to distinguish pairs of colours. 34) Why was the opponent-process theory preferred over the trichromatic theory of colour vision? A) It explained the existence of complementary afterimages. B) It supported the greater prevalence of colour blindness in males. C) It clarified why yellow/blue colour blindness is less common. D) It indicated why some people see no colour at all. Answer: A Rationale: Ewald Hering theorized that colours produced complementary afterimages because one element of the system became fatigued from overstimulation and thus increased the relative contribution of its opponent element. 35) Which statement best characterizes the trichromatic theory of colour vision? A) There are three types of rods, each sensitive to red, blue, and green. B) There are three types of cones, each sensitive to red, blue, and green. C) There are three types of retinal ganglion cells, each of which is capable of responding to red, blue, or green, but not their afterimages. D) There are sections of the visual cortex which respond most directly to each of the colours red, blue, and green. Answer: B Rationale: Although the three types of cones each respond to a range of wavelengths, they are each most sensitive to light at a particular wavelength. 36) Which contemporary version of colour vision was supported by Leo Hurvich and Dorothea Jameson? A) there are four types of colour cones in the retina, rather than three. B) ganglion cells combine outputs of cone types in an opponent-process manner. C) colour cones are equally responsive to all wavelengths of light. D) people who are colour-blind possess an inhibitory system, but lack an excitatory system. Answer: B Rationale: Ganglion cells combine the output of the three cone types while the two members of each colour pair work in opposition by means of neural inhibition. Some ganglion cells, for instance, receive excitatory input from lights that appear red and inhibitory input from lights that appear green. Other cells do the opposite, forming the basis of the red-green opponent process system. 37) How is the pitch of a sound wave determined? A) By intensity B) By amplitude C) By frequency D) By height Answer: C Rationale: Pitch is the highness or lowness of a sound determined by the sound's frequency. High frequencies are experienced as high pitch and low frequencies as low pitch. Sound waves with large amplitudes are experienced as loud and those with small amplitudes as soft. 38) A member of a rock band has become concerned with whether or not the band's music is contributing to deafness among members of the audience. Which factor should be of most concern? A) the frequency of sine waves B) the pitch of the music C) the number of decibels D) if harmonics are present in the music Answer: C Rationale: Sounds louder than 90 decibels can produce hearing loss depending on how long a person is exposed to them. 39) Which noise level is closest to the level at which sound can initially be expected to cause hearing loss? A) 65 decibels B) 90 decibels C) 115 decibels D) 140 decibels Answer: B Rationale: Sounds louder than about 90 dB can produce hearing loss, depending on how long a person is exposed to them. 40) When listening to a piece of classical music, which dimension of sound allows a musician to discriminate among the various instruments that are being played? A) timbre. B) amplitude. C) loudness. D) pitch. Answer: A Rationale: The timbre of a sound reflects the components of its complex sound wave. Timbre is what sets different sounds apart. 41) Why does a tuning fork produce a pure tone? A) It creates multiple sine waves. B) It creates a single sine wave. C) It creates one frequency and many amplitudes. D) It creates all possible frequencies. Answer: B Rationale: Only a small number of physical stimuli produce pure tones consisting of a single sine wave. A pure tone such as the tuning fork has only one frequency and one amplitude. Most sounds in the world are not pure, but are rather complex waves with a combination of frequencies and amplitudes. 42) Why is radio static perceived as noise? A) It is composed of simple structures of fundamental frequencies and harmonics. B) It contains multiple amplitudes. C) It has a fundamental frequency. D) It contains many audible frequencies. Answer: D Rationale: The static contains energy at all audible frequencies; we perceive it as having no pitch because it has no fundamental frequency. 43) There is an interactive exhibit on the senses at a science fair. For the sense of hearing, there is a gigantic ear through which viewers can walk. What is the order in which patrons will encounter the structures listed below, as they move through the ear? A) tympanic membrane, middle ear, auditory nerve, pinna, cochlea B) cochlea, middle ear, pinna, tympanic membrane, auditory nerve C) auditory nerve, tympanic membrane, pinna, cochlea, middle ear D) pinna, tympanic membrane, middle ear, cochlea, auditory nerve Answer: D Rationale: Sounds enter the pinna, encounter the tympanic membrane, which transmits vibrations into the middle ear which amplifies the vibrations for the cochlea, which then transmits signals to the auditory nerve. 44) What are the hammer, anvil, and stirrup? A) small bones in the middle ear. B) structures on the basilar membrane. C) fluid-filled chambers in the cochlea. D) components of the tympanic membrane. Answer: A Rationale: The hammer, anvil and stirrup are three small bones in the middle ear that transmit and concentrate the vibrations from the eardrum to the cochlea. 45) What happens immediately after the stirrup vibrates against the oval window? A) nerve impulses leave the cochlea. B) fluid in the cochlea causes the basilar membrane to move. C) the tympanic membrane begins to vibrate. D) the hammer and the anvil begin to move. Answer: B Rationale: The cochlea is a fluid-filled coiled tube that has the basilar membrane running down the middle along its length. When the stirrup vibrates against the oval window, the fluid in the cochlea causes the basilar membrane to move in a wavelike motion. 46) Vision is to the rods and cones as hearing is to the A) tympanic membrane B) oval window C) hair cells on the basilar membrane D) cochlea Answer: C Rationale: Just as the rods and cones are receptor cells for vision, the tiny hair cells are the receptor cells for the auditory system. As they bend, they stimulate nerve endings, transforming mechanical vibrations of the basilar membrane into neural activity. 47) Which statement about conduction deafness is accurate? A) It is the most serious form of hearing impairment. B) It may result from malfunctioning bones in the middle ear. C) It refers to a defect in the neural mechanisms. D) It can be successfully treated with a cochlear implant. Answer: B Rationale: Conduction deafness is a problem with the conduction of the air vibrations to the cochlea. If the condition is caused by improper functioning of the bones in the middle ear, it can sometimes be corrected through microsurgery by insertion of an artificial anvil or stirrup. 48) A man returns from the doctor after having been informed that he is suffering from nerve deafness. Should he be concerned? A) No, because this form of deafness can be managed well through the use of a hearing aid. B) No, because this type of deafness can easily be cured by microsurgery. C) Yes, because it means that his middle ear has sustained damage. D) Yes, because it is a serious type of deafness that is not easily treated. Answer: D Rationale: Nerve deafness signals a defect in neural mechanisms that create nerve impulses in the ear or relay them to the auditory nerve. Damage to the auditory cortex can also cause nerve damage. 49) According to the place theory of pitch perception, what happens when one is presented with a high-frequency tone? A) A greater number of action potentials reach the auditory nerve. B) The bones of the middle ear move at a faster rate. C) The movement of the basilar membrane is greatest at the end of the cochlea (farthest away from the oval and round windows). D) The movement of the basilar membrane is greatest at the base of the cochlea (closest to the oval and round windows). Answer: D Rationale: Different frequencies produce their greatest movement at particular locations along the basilar membrane. The wave motion for high frequency sounds is greatest at the base of the cochlea where the oval and round windows are located. 50) Which theory of pitch relies on the rate of vibration in the basilar membrane, does not depend on where in the basilar membrane the vibrations take place, and equates rate of firing with a neural code for pitch? A) place theory. B) frequency theory. C) gate-control theory. D) opponent-process theory. Answer: B Rationale: The frequency theory predicts that a sound wave with a frequency of 100 Hz will cause the basilar membrane to vibrate 100 times a second. This theory also predicts that the vibrations of the basilar membrane will cause neurons to fire at the same rate; the rate of firing is the neural code for pitch. 51) What type of sound detection is best explained by the "volley principle"? A) high-amplitude B) low-amplitude C) high-frequency D) low-frequency Answer: C Rationale: The frequency theory couldn't explain perception of high frequencies, since one neuron can't fire more than 1000 times per second. The volley principle overcomes this by saying that several neurons in a combined action fire at a frequency that matches the high frequency sound stimulus. 52) What has research on the perception of pitch revealed? A) frequency theory works best for frequencies above 5,000 Hz. B) place theory works best for frequencies below 1,000 Hz. C) both place and frequency theories work between 1,000 and 5,000 Hz. D) neither place nor frequency theory work between 1,000 and 5,000 Hz. Answer: C Rationale: The frequency theory accounts well for coding frequencies below 5000 Hz. At higher frequencies, neurons cannot fire quickly and precisely enough to code an accurate signal. Place theory accounts well for pitch at frequencies above 1000 Hz. Below 1000 Hz there is no adequate way for the basilar membrane to produce a distinctive signal because it is vibrating so broadly. Between 1000 and 5000 Hz, both place and frequency theories explain mechanisms that can operate to produce perception of pitch. 53) Hearing is to hair cells as the sense of smell is to A) olfactory cilia B) olfactory bulbs C) papillae D) saccules Answer: A Rationale: Olfaction (smell) begins when odourant molecules interact with receptor proteins on the membranes of olfactory cilia. At least 40 nerve endings must be stimulated before we can smell the substance. These nerve impulses convey odour information to the olfactory bulb. The hair cells are the receptor cells for the auditory system. As they bend, they stimulate nerve endings, transforming mechanical vibrations into neural activity. 54) Tim has suffered an injury to his olfactory bulb. How will Tim’s behaviour most likely be affected? A) He will not be able to taste food. B) He will not be able to verbalize. C) He will not be able to smell. D) He will not be able to discriminate differences in sound. Answer: C Rationale: The olfactory bulb receives olfactory information from the olfactoria cilia, and is located just below the frontal lobes of the cortex. 55) What are pheromones? A) chemicals found in the brains of some birds that enable them to detect gravitational fields. B) chemical substances used by some species to communicate with each other. C) medications given to people suffering from chronic pain. D) special receptors on the bodies of some fish that enable them to detect distortions in electrical fields. Answer: B Rationale: Pheromones are chemical substances used within a given species to signal sexual receptivity, danger, territorial boundaries, and food sources. 56) What are the basic taste qualities? A) simple, complex, and interactive. B) temperature, texture, and chemical composition. C) bland, savoury, spicy, rancid, and tart. D) sweet, sour, bitter, saline, and umami. Answer: D Rationale: The four primary taste qualities are sweet, sour, bitter, and saline (salty). Recently, a fifth has been added called umami, which is the flavour of monosodium glutamate. 57) A man is suing a local restaurant because he claims that the food that he was served contained spices that permanently damaged his taste receptors. Does this lawsuit have merit? A) Yes. The taste buds may have been damaged, and are irreplaceable. B) Yes. This is a common reaction to eating spicy foods. C) No. The taste buds get replaced every few days, so he is likely to regain his sense of taste. D) No. The taste buds are durable and are rarely damaged. Answer: C Rationale: The taste receptors are replaced about every ten days. The taste system is the sensory system that is most resistant to damage; it is rare for someone to suffer a permanent or total taste loss. 58) When do Meissner corpuscles respond best? A) when the skin experiences steady pressure B) when the skin is touched by something warm C) when the skin rubs against another object D) when the skin is exposed to a sharp object Answer: C Rationale: The Meissner corpuscles respond best when something rubs against the skin, and the Merkel disks are most active when a small object exerts steady pressure against the skin. 59) Which statement most accurately describes the mechanism that allows us to sense warmth and coolness? A) There are only receptors for warmth which work like a thermometer. B) There are only receptors for coolness which work like a thermometer. C) The brain integrates separate warm and cool signals. D) Meissner corpuscles sense warmth and Merkel disks sense coolness; inputs from these receivers are directly "felt" by the brain. Answer: C Rationale: We have separate receptors for warmth and coolness. Our brains integrate separate signals from cold fibers and warm fibers to monitor changes in environmental temperature. 60) Motion sickness occurs when signals from the vestibular system are in conflict with signals from which other system? A) kinesthetic B) auditory C) olfactory D) visual Answer: D Rationale: The vestibular system tells us how our body is oriented in the world with respect to gravity. Most people who lose their vestibular sense compensate by using their visual system. Motion sickness occurs when signals from the vestibular system and the visual system conflict. When someone is motion sick, the visual system signals a stationary object while the vestibular system signals movement. 61) Where are the kinesthetic receptors located? A) In the taste buds. B) In the nose. C) In the fluid-filled sacs and canals in the inner ear. D) In the joints, muscles, and tendons. Answer: D Rationale: The kinesthetic sense provides constant sensory feedback about what the body is doing during motor activities. There are two sources of sensory information: Receptors in the joints respond to pressure and pressure changes that accompany different positions of the limbs and movements of the joints. Receptors in muscles and tendons respond to changes in tension that come with muscle lengthening and shortening. 62) A child has discovered that he can type with his eyes closeD) He even realizes when he has made an error before he sees his mistake. What is the likely source of this new-found ability? A) the semicircular canals. B) the saccule and utricle. C) the kinesthetic sense. D) the vestibular system. Answer: C Rationale: The kinesthetic sense provides constant sensory feedback about what the body is doing during motor activities. Kinesthesia helps the brain know where your fingers are in relation to one another. 63) What have scientists discovered about pain mechanisms? A) there is one set of receptors that responds to all forms of pain-producing stimuli. B) the location and intensity of pain is identified by mechanisms in the spinal cord. C) pain signals are sent to the central nervous system via two pathways. D) pain signals are first sent to the brain via the reticular formation. Answer: C Rationale: Peripheral nerve fibres send pain signals to the central nervous system by two pathways: a fast-conducting set of nerve fibres that are covered with myelin, and a slower, smaller nerve fibres without any myelin coating. 64) Which statement about Melzack’s gate-control theory is accurate? A) The gate is permanently closed in people who are paralyzed. B) Not all pain signals are allowed through the gate. C) Individuals have no control over whether the gate is opened or closed. D) Individuals have full control over whether the gate is opened or closed. Answer: B Rationale: Cells in the spinal cord act as neurological gates, interrupting and blocking some pain signals and letting others through. Receptors in the skin and the brain send messages to the spinal cord to open or close those gates. 65) What does Ronald Melzack's neuromatrix theory of pain suggest? A) pain radiates out from the central axis of the body and downward from the head. B) some people do not experience pain. C) people often experience pain with little or no physical cause. D) every painful experience has emotional as well as physical consequences. Answer: C Rationale: In these cases, the experience of pain originates wholly in the brain. What we perceive may be different or even independent from what we sense. 66) Which statement about supertasters is based on research? A) men are more likely to be supertasters than are women. B) supertasters are likely to have fewer pain receptors on their tongues. C) supertasters have more taste buds than nontasters. D) there is no genetic component to supertasting abiity. Answer: C Rationale: If there are more taste buds there will be more pain receptors. Supertasters are more likely to get a pain response that is stronger than the response of the taste receptors when there are chemicals in the food that produce strong reactions. 67) A medical student hopes to be a surgeon. Observing an operation, she focuses her attention on the way her teacher is holding the scalpel and the angle between the blade and the skin. What type of attentional focus is being described? A) goal-directed selection. B) stimulus-driven capture. C) invariant perception. D) unconscious inference. Answer: A Rationale: This process of attention reflects the choices we make about objects to which we choose to attend. It is a function of our own goals. In this case, the goal is attention to the teacher's exact use of the scalpel. 68) On a warm summer day, a student is sitting in the shade of a tree reading a novel when the tapping of a woodpecker on a nearby tree is momentarily distracting. This shift in attention is an example of which component of attention? A) shadowing B) dichotic viewing C) goal-directed selection D) stimulus-driven capture Answer: D Rationale: This occurs when a stimulus (something in the environment) automatically captures your attention independent of your goals as the perceiver. The woodpecker grabbed your attention even when you were not focused on it. 69) In an experiment on attention described in the textbook, researchers attempted to create visual displays that would put goal-directed selection and stimulus-driven capture into competition. What did the findings suggest? A) the perceptual system of humans is organized so that changes in the environment are readily habituated. B) goal-directed selection is sufficiently powerful to consistently withstand the effects of stimulus-driven capture. C) in some circumstances, stimulus-driven capture wins out over goal-directed selection. D) it is not possible to design a task in which stimulus-driven capture and goal-directed selection compete directly. Answer: C Rationale: When directed to the contents of the grey circle, and a distractor red circle appeared, participants' attention was drawn to the red circle, even though it was irrelevant to the task. 70) Which term best explains why the clouds typically appear to be closer than the sky? A) colour afterimages. B) change blindness. C) figure/ground perception D) the law of proximity. Answer: C Rationale: A figure is seen as an object-like region in the foreground, and the ground is seen as the backdrop against which the figure stands out. 71) James has a pocket full of pennies and nickels that spill all over the floor. When James looks at the scattered pile, he notices that he automatically groups the two types of coins according to colour. Which grouping principle is being described? A) similarity B) proximity C) figure-ground D) continuity Answer: A Rationale: The law of similarity states that people group together the most similar elements, such as colour. 72) Most of the crowd at the Grey Cup game is wearing the blue colours of the home team and a much smaller number is wearing the red colours of the away team. Which Gestalt law best illustrates the way in which these colours seem to automatically group themselves together? A) proximity. B) common fate. C) similarity. D) effect. Answer: C Rationale: We group together the most similar elements. In this case we group people wearing blue with others who are wearing blue. We do the same for those wearing red. 73) A student in a geometry class watches as the teacher hastily draws various geometric shapes on the blackboard. Which term best captures the student's ability to see the incomplete figures as complete? A) closure. B) figure and ground. C) temporal integration. D) continuation. Answer: A Rationale: We tend to fill in small gaps so that we experience objects as wholes. 74) From her seat in the top row of the stadium, the football fan had a great view of the halftime entertainment. As she watched, two large groups of band members were marching toward, then through one another, in opposite directions. Which Gestalt law allows her to keep track of each separate group? A) proximity. B) similarity. C) closure. D) common fate. Answer: D Rationale: One band is walking in one direction. The other is walking in the opposite direction. Even though they mix together as they pass, we tend to group objects together that appear to be moving in the same direction. That's why we do not lose track of which band is which. 75) Research suggests that our moment-to-moment visual impressions of the world do not preserve precise details. What is one reason for this less-than-perfect representation? A) the world itself is generally a stable source of information. B) temporal integration is employed when it is not needed. C) spatial integration is used when temporal integration is needed. D) the visual system has evolved to register only certain details. Answer: A Rationale: It is unnecessary to commit to memory information that remains steadily available in the external environment. 76) The fans love the new scoreboard at the ballpark. Every time a batter hits a home run, flashing lights on the scoreboard make it look as though an imaginary ball is leaving the field. Which term best explains this illusion? A) the Ponzo illusion. B) the law of proximity. C) relative motion parallax. D) the phi phenomenon. Answer: D Rationale: The phi phenomenon occurs when two stationary spots of light in different positions in the visual field are alternately turned off and on at a rate of about four to five times a second. The stationary lights going on and off in succession are perceived as a single moving light. 77) A child is driving a bumper car in an amusement park. At the last instant he swerves to avoid a crash with another car. Which cue allows the child to sense how quickly another car is approaching? A) The speed of the air molecules impacting on his face. B) The rate at which his retinal image of the other car expands. C) The peripheral cue associated with motion parallax. D) The increasing intensity of the sound made by the other car. Answer: B Rationale: The size of the retinal image changes as the cars approach one another. The rate at which the image expands gives the child the sense of how fast the other car is approaching. 78) What must occur for retinal disparity and convergence cues to be of any value? A) people must keep one eye closed. B) people must have two working eyes. C) the head must be moved slowly back and forth. D) objects must be farther than ten feet away. Answer: B Rationale: Binocular depth cues include retinal disparity and convergence. These cues involve comparison of the visual information that arrives at two eyes. The two eyes together provide compelling information about depth. 79) Which part of the visual system is most clearly linked to the depth cue of convergence? A) optic disk. B) conjunctiva. C) eye muscles. D) optic chiasma. Answer: C Rationale: Convergence is the degree to which the eyes turn inward to fixate on an object. The brain uses information from the eye muscles to make judgments about depth. 80) Taking his first train ride, a child is amazed at how quickly the fence posts along the tracks are whizzing by, but the farm in the distance hardly seems to move. Which term best describes this phenomenon? A) motion parallax. B) retinal disparity. C) convergence. D) interposition. Answer: A Rationale: Motion parallax provides information about depth because, as we move, the relative distances of objects determine the amount and direction of their relative motion in your retinal image of the scene. Objects farther away will appear much more stationary than those close to us. 81) At first, a golfer is having a difficult time deciding whether a large mound is in front of or behind a distant hole. Since the mound partially blocks a flag that indicates the location of the hole, he concludes that the hole is farther away than the mound. Which term best reflects this pictorial cue? A) retinal disparity. B) interposition. C) linear perspective. D) texture gradient. Answer: B Rationale: Interposition or occlusion arises when an opaque object blocks out part of a second object, providing depth information indicating that the occluded object is farther away than the occluding object. Occluding surfaces block out light, creating shadows that can also be a source of information about depth. 82) What visual cue is at the source of the Ponzo illusion? A) apparent motion. B) retinal disparity. C) converging lines. D) texture gradients. Answer: C Rationale: The upper line looks longer because you interpret the converging sides as parallel lines converging into the distance. An object farther away would have to be longer than a nearer one for both to produce retinal images of the same size. 83) An art student admires the way an artist has used texture gradients in a painting to give the appearance of depth. If the student were to attempt to duplicate this technique, what would the student need to do? A) increase the density of texture as the scene recedes in depth. B) decrease the density of texture as the scene recedes in depth. C) apply less shading as the scene recedes in depth. D) paint parallel lines that appear to converge in the distance. Answer: A Rationale: The units that make up the texture become smaller as they recede into the distance, and the visual system interprets this increasing density of texture as greater distance in threedimensional space. 84) A girl is speeding down a path on her new scooter. Although her sensory systems are rapidly recording a wide variety of stimulus changes, she still sees the world as stable and unchanging. Which term best reflects this phenomenon? A) stimulus-driven capture. B) relative motion parallax. C) perceptual constancy. D) the phi phenomenon. Answer: C Rationale: We perceive the properties of the distal stimulus, which are usually constant, rather than the proximal stimuli, which change every time the head or eyes move. The critical task of perception is to discover invariant properties of the environment despite the variations in your retinal impressions of them. 85) As Sara leaves the classroom, she sees Molly at the end of the hall. Although Sara’s retinal image of Molly is much smaller than it would be if Molly were standing right next to Sara, Sara does not notice anything unusual about Molly’s height. Which term best characterizes this scenario? A) size constancy. B) perceptual ambiguity. C) change blindness. D) recognition by compounds. Answer: A Rationale: The size of the retinal image depends on the actual size of your friend and your friend's distance from your eye. Information about distance is available from many different depth cues, which combines with retinal information to give you a perception of your friend that corresponds to his/her actual size. Size constancy is this ability to perceive the true size of an object despite variations in the retinal image. 86) What does the "Ames room" illusion demonstrate? A) perceived distance affects perceived size. B) interposition cues are stronger than convergence cues. C) perceptual constancies require binocular perception. D) impossible objects do not exist. Answer: A Rationale: The perceptual system can infer size by using prior knowledge and the characteristic size of similarly shaped objects. When we are fooled about distance, we may also be fooled about size. The reason for the Ames room illusion is that we perceive the room to be rectangular, with the two back corners equally distant from us. Thus the child's size is perceived as being consistent with the size of the images on the retina in both cases. The child is not at the same distance because though the room looks rectangular, it is actually nonrectangular surfaces in odd angles of depth and height. 87) How do hallucinations differ from illusions? A) Hallucinations are common to others. B) Hallucinations do not involve distortions. C) Hallucinations show that percept and reality are the same. D) Hallucinations are due to unusual physical or mental states. Answer: D Rationale: Illusions are shared by most people in the same situation because of shared physiology in the sensory systems and similar experiences of the world. Hallucinations are non-shared perceptual distortions experienced as a result of unusual mental or physical states. 88) What is another term for bottom-up processing? A) data-driven processing B) conceptually-driven processing C) perceptually-driven processing D) schema-driven processing Answer: A Rationale: Bottom-up processing is also called data-driven processing because the sensory data from the environment is sent up to the brain for analysis. Top-down processing is also called conceptually-driven because higher mental functioning influences how you understand objects and events. 89) Frank, who was an experienced teacher, had few problems reading the student's sloppy answer because he had asked this question before and knew in advance what the student was likely to write. What type of processing is being described? A) top-down. B) bottom-up. C) data-driven. D) sensory-driven. Answer: A Rationale: The teacher is using conceptual information based on past experience that comes from higher mental processes and affects interpretation of sensory input. 90) Researchers have evaluated drivers’ ability to focus their attention on both their cell phone calls and the driving environment. Which conclusion has received the most support? A) drivers’ attention is not significantly distracted from the driving environment by cell phone use. B) cell phone conversations divert drivers’ attention from the driving environment. C) cell phone use while driving distracts drivers but has minimal behavioural consequences. D) a full range of driving skills is typically maintained when drivers talk on their cell phones. Answer: B Rationale: When we carry out two tasks such as talking on the cell phone and attending to the driving environment, two different areas of the brain are involved. This might lead us to believe that we are able to attend to both tasks equally. To demonstrate why this may not be the case, researchers used fMRI scans. When just driving, participants showed much activity in their parietal lobes related to spatial processing. When a language task (cell phone use) was added, sufficient demands were put on the brain that parietal activity fell significantly and the spatial task (driving) was left with inadequate resources. 91) What is phonemic restoration dependent upon? A) conscious processes only. B) bottom-up processes only. C) top-down and bottom-up processes. D) unconscious mechanisms that are primarily top-down. Answer: C Rationale: Bottom-up processes provide information about the speech we hear, giving us a range of possibilities for what has been said to us. Phonemic restoration occurs when people use topdown processes to fill in missing phonemes. In top-down processing, the context helps select the most likely word. 92) Rod thinks that he recognizes a woman in the grocery store, but he can't quite seem to place her. Later, when Rod sees her in a familiar setting of a restaurant where she is a waitress, he makes the connection. What is Rod’s perceptual identification dependent upon? A) nature and nurture. B) context and expectations. C) bottom-up processing. D) personality and motivation. Answer: B Rationale: There are many occasions when bottom up processes leave us with more than one hypothesis about the identity of stimuli in the world. In these cases, top-down processes make use of contexts and expectations to identify the stimuli (i.e. a person we cannot identify in one context but can in another one where we have seen her before). 93) A woman who is a new mother is also a deep sleeper. Yet, when her newborn son cries in the middle of the night, she awakens quickly. Which concept best explains this mother’s response? A) dichotic listening. B) apparent motion. C) the law of proximity. D) a perceptual set. Answer: D Rationale: A set is a temporary readiness to perceive or react to a stimulus in a particular way. We combine bottom up and top down processing to achieve the basic goal of perception: to experience what is out there in a way that optimally serves our needs in adapting to our social and physical environments. A perceptual set is a readiness to detect a particular stimulus in a particular context. A new mother is perceptually set to hear the cries of her child. 94) Researchers have frequently documented the effects of context and expectation on percpetion by studying set. What are the three types of sets? A) perceptual, objective, subjective B) component recognition, perceptual, mental C) Perceptual, mental, and motor D) component recognition, percpetual, motor Answer: C Rationale: Set is a temporary readiness to perceive or react to a stimulus in a particular way. Motor set allows us to make quick, prepared responses. Mental set is a readiness to deal with situations in ways determined by learned rules, expectations, instructions, or habitual tendencies. Perceptual set is a readiness to detect a particular stimulus in a particular context. 95) Gustav Fechner coined the term psychophysics, which refers to the study of the relationship between the intensity of a physical stimulus and the magnitude of an individual's sensory experience. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Gustav Fechner, a German psychologist, indeed coined the term "psychophysics" to describe the scientific study of the relationship between physical stimuli and the psychological sensations and perceptions they evoke. 96) The absolute threshold is operationally defined as the stimulus level at which a sensory signal is detected 100% of the time. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The absolute threshold is operationally defined as the stimulus level at which a sensory signal is detected 50% of the time, not 100%. It represents the minimum intensity of a stimulus required to detect its presence accurately. 97) In a signal detection study, an observer who is a yea sayer will give a high number of hits, but will also have a high number of false alarms. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: A yea-sayer in a signal detection study tends to respond "yes" or detect signals frequently, resulting in a high number of hits (correct detections) but also a high number of false alarms (incorrect detections). This behavior is characteristic of a liberal response bias. 98) The transformation of one form of energy, such as light, to another form, such as neural impulses, is called sensory adaptation. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The process described here is not sensory adaptation but rather transduction. Sensory adaptation refers to a decrease in sensitivity to a constant level of stimulation over time, while transduction is the conversion of one form of energy into another, such as light into neural impulses by the visual system. 99) If you hold a pencil at arm's length and slowly move it closer to your face, the ciliary muscles change the thickness of the lens of the eye to permit variable focusing on the pencil. This process is known as convergence. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The process described here is accommodation, not convergence. Convergence refers to the coordinated movement of the eyes to focus on near objects, while accommodation involves the adjustment of the curvature of the lens to focus on objects at different distances. 100) Amacrine cells integrate information across the retina, linking bipolar cells to other bipolar cells and ganglion cells to other ganglion cells. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Amacrine cells are indeed responsible for integrating information across the retina by linking bipolar cells to other bipolar cells and ganglion cells to other ganglion cells. They play a crucial role in processing visual information within the retina. 101) David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel won a Nobel Prize for their studies of receptive fields of cells in the visual cortex. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel were awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1981 for their groundbreaking research on the receptive fields of visual cortex cells, which significantly advanced our understanding of how the brain processes visual information. 102) Pastel colours have intermediate amounts of saturation. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Pastel colors are characterized by their reduced saturation, resulting in softer, more muted tones compared to their more saturated counterparts. They typically have a gentle, light appearance due to their intermediate level of saturation. 103) According to Hering's opponent-process theory, all colour experiences arise from two underlying systems, each of which includes two opponent elements A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: According to Hering's opponent-process theory, color vision is based on three pairs of opponent elements: red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white. These pairs of colors are thought to be processed in opposition to each other in the visual system, resulting in the perception of various colors. 104) The loudness of a sound is dependent primarily on the frequency of the sound wave. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The loudness of a sound is primarily determined by the amplitude or intensity of the sound wave, not its frequency. Frequency, measured in Hertz (Hz), corresponds to the pitch of the sound, while amplitude, measured in decibels (dB), correlates with loudness. Higher amplitudes produce louder sounds, regardless of the frequency. 105) The cochlea, the primary organ of hearing, is located in the basilar membrane. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: The cochlea is the primary organ of hearing in the inner ear, but it is not located within the basilar membrane. Instead, the cochlea is a spiral-shaped structure filled with fluid and contains the hair cells responsible for translating sound vibrations into neural signals. The basilar membrane is a component of the cochlea, and it plays a crucial role in separating frequencies of incoming sounds. 106) Pheromones are most closely associated with the sense of taste. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Pheromones are chemical substances secreted by animals to influence the behavior or physiology of other members of the same species. They are primarily associated with the sense of smell (olfaction), not taste. 107) In recent years, researchers have found receptors for a fifth basic taste quality, umami, which is the flavour of monosodium glutamate. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Umami, often described as a savory or meaty taste, is associated with the amino acid glutamate and has been recognized as the fifth basic taste quality. Researchers have identified specific receptors on the tongue that respond to umami substances like monosodium glutamate (MSG), providing evidence for its existence as a distinct taste sensation. 108) Meissner corpuscles and Merkel disks are most likely to be found in the brain. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Meissner corpuscles and Merkel disks are types of tactile receptors located in the skin, particularly in areas sensitive to touch, such as the fingertips and lips. These receptors are responsible for detecting sensations of light touch, pressure, and texture, but they are not found in the brain. 109) The gate-control theory of pain suggests that cells in the spinal cord interrupt and block some pain signals and let others get through to the brain. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: The gate-control theory of pain proposes that there are "gates" in the spinal cord that can either block or allow pain signals to pass through to the brain. According to this theory, nonpainful input, such as touch or pressure, can close the "gate" and inhibit the transmission of pain signals, while other factors, like anxiety or stress, can open the gate and increase the perception of pain. 110) The law of closure states that people tend to fill in small gaps in order to experience objects as wholes. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: The law of closure is a Gestalt principle of perceptual organization that suggests that individuals tend to perceive incomplete or fragmented stimuli as whole objects by mentally filling in the missing parts. This principle contributes to our ability to perceive meaningful and coherent forms in our environment. 111) Retinal disparity and convergence are two pictorial cues to depth. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Retinal disparity and convergence are not pictorial cues; rather, they are binocular cues to depth perception. Retinal disparity refers to the slight difference in the images projected onto each retina, providing information about the relative distance of objects. Convergence refers to the inward movement of the eyes when focusing on nearby objects, also providing depth information. 112) Bottom-up processing refers to perceptual analysis in which information from an individual's past experience, knowledge, expectations, motivations, and background influence the way a perceived object is interpreted and classified. A) True B) False Answer: False Rationale: Bottom-up processing involves the analysis of raw sensory information to form perceptions, without drawing on past experiences or expectations. It starts with the basic features of stimuli and builds up to more complex perceptions. Top-down processing, on the other hand, involves using prior knowledge, expectations, and context to interpret incoming sensory information. 113) Ambiguity is an important concept in understanding perception because it shows that a single image at the sensory level can result in multiple interpretations at the perceptual and identification levels. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: Ambiguity refers to situations in which sensory information can be interpreted in multiple ways, leading to different perceptions or understandings of the same stimulus. This concept highlights the role of interpretation and context in perception, demonstrating that a single sensory input can give rise to various perceptual interpretations. 114) A perceptual set is a readiness to detect a particular stimulus in a given context. For example, a new mother is perceptually set to hear the cries of her child. A) True B) False Answer: True Rationale: A perceptual set refers to a predisposition or readiness to perceive certain stimuli in a particular way, based on expectations, experiences, or context. In the example provided, a new mother may be perceptually set to quickly detect and respond to the cries of her child due to heightened sensitivity and attention directed towards infant-related stimuli. 115) __________ refers to the stage in which your brain integrates evidence from your senses with prior knowledge of the world to form an internal representation of an external stimulus. Answer: Perceptual organization Rationale: Perceptual organization is the process by which the brain organizes and interprets sensory information from the environment. It involves integrating sensory input with prior knowledge, expectations, and context to create a coherent and meaningful perception of the world around us. 116) Psychologists who study sensation and perception distinguish between the __________ stimulus, which is the physical object in the world, and the __________ stimulus, which is the optical image on the retina. Answer: distal; proximal Rationale: In sensation and perception, the distal stimulus refers to the actual object or event in the external world that reflects or emits energy, which impinges on sensory receptors. The proximal stimulus, on the other hand, is the pattern of stimulation on the sensory receptors, such as the image formed on the retina for vision. 117) __________ theory is a systematic approach to the problem of response bias that allows an experimenter to identify and separate the roles of sensory stimuli and the individual's decision process. Answer: Signal detection Rationale: Signal detection theory is a framework used in psychology to analyze and quantify the ability to discern between important sensory information (signal) and background noise (noise). It considers both sensitivity (how well a person can detect a signal) and response bias (tendencies to say "yes" or "no" even when uncertain), allowing researchers to distinguish between sensory processes and decision-making processes in perceptual tasks. 118) The JND between stimuli is a constant fraction of the intensity of the standard stimulus. This defines __________ Law. Answer: Weber's Rationale: Weber's Law, proposed by Ernst Weber in the 19th century, states that the just noticeable difference (JND) between two stimuli is proportional to the magnitude of the stimuli. Specifically, it suggests that the JND is a constant fraction or proportion of the intensity of the standard stimulus. 119) The __________ is the area of the retina that contains densely packed cones and forms the point of sharpest vision. Answer: fovea Rationale: The fovea is a small, central pit in the retina of the eye where visual acuity is highest. It contains densely packed cones, which are responsible for color vision and detailed central vision, making it the point of sharpest vision in the eye. 120) When you are listening to musical instruments, the dimension of auditory sensation known as __________ reflects the complex components of a sound wave, allowing you to distinguish the sound of a guitar from the sound of a violin. Answer: timbre Rationale: Timbre refers to the quality or color of a sound that allows us to distinguish between different musical instruments or voices, even when they are playing the same note at the same volume. It is determined by the complex components of a sound wave, including its harmonics and overtones. 121) The __________ sense tells you how your body is oriented in the world with respect to gravity, and the __________ sense provides constant sensory feedback about what the body is doing during motor activities. Answer: vestibular; kinesthetic Rationale: The vestibular sense, mediated by the vestibular system in the inner ear, provides information about the body's orientation and balance in relation to gravity, including sensations of movement and spatial orientation. The kinesthetic sense, also known as proprioception, involves sensory feedback from receptors in muscles, tendons, and joints, providing information about the position and movement of body parts during motor activities. 122) People tend to group together objects that appear to be moving in the same direction. This finding by the Gestalt psychologists is known as the law of __________. Answer: common fate Rationale: The law of common fate, proposed by Gestalt psychologists, states that objects that appear to be moving in the same direction are perceived as belonging together. This principle contributes to our perception of visual coherence and organization in scenes containing moving objects. 123) The __________ phenomenon is a movement illusion in which one or more stationary lights going on and off in succession are perceived as a single moving light. Answer: phi Rationale: The phi phenomenon is a perceptual illusion in which the rapid succession of stationary visual stimuli, such as lights turning on and off in sequence, creates the perception of continuous motion. This phenomenon is a fundamental aspect of motion perception and is often used in the creation of visual displays and animations. 124) Sources of information about depth that depend on only one eye are called __________. Answer: monocular depth cues Rationale: Monocular depth cues are visual cues to depth and distance that can be perceived with one eye alone. These cues include linear perspective, texture gradient, interposition, relative size, aerial perspective, motion parallax, and accommodation, among others. They provide important information for depth perception in everyday visual experiences. 125) Why is it important for us to understand both sensation and perception? How does this relate to bottom-up and top-down processing? Answer: Perception is the overall process of apprehending objects and events in the environment. Sensation is the process by which stimulation of sensory receptors produces impulses that represent internal or external experiences. Bottom-up processing is data driven, starting with sensory information from the environment. Top-down processing involves higher mental functions and affects perception. 126) Psychophysicists provide a set of procedures to facilitate the study of the relationship between physical events and psychological experiences. What have psychophysicists learned about sensory thresholds? Include a short discussion of signal detection theory. How do theorists combine bottom-up and top-down influences to show how percepts are given meaning? Discuss response bias. Answer: Include a definition of psychophysics, absolute thresholds, and sensory adaptation. Describe signal detection theory, including a discussion of response bias. Define top-down and bottom-up processes and explain their influence on detection of signals. Signal detection theory provides a way to evaluate sensory processes and decision processes at once. Explain the significance of this. Explain difference thresholds. 127) Explain Weber's Law. What is a difference threshold? Answer: Define absolute threshold and difference threshold. Weber's Law states that the amount of stimulus needed in order for us to perceive a difference in level of the stimulus is proportional to the original stimulus. If the original input of light was very bright, for instance, much more additional light will need to be added for us to perceive a difference than if the original light was dim. 128) How can you see this question? Now that you know all about the visual system, a question such as this is simple! Trace the process of vision from the moment light energy hits the retina until the time the signal reaches the visual cortex in the brain. Include a short description of the concept of receptive fields and the work of David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel that won them the Nobel Prize. Answer: The pathway includes the pupil, the lens, and the retina. On this path accommodation occurs. Mention the ciliary muscles and focusing. Describe the lens and what happens to it as it ages. Include photoreceptors, fovea, blind spot, and optic nerve. Discuss receptive fields and the discovery that different cells at different levels of the visual system respond most strongly to different patterns of visual stimulation. 129) How is sound created? What are the psychological dimensions of sound? Briefly explain the physiology of hearing. How is the auditory system able to carry out sound localization? Answer: Include the four basic energy transformations that take place in order for us to hear, describing the parts of the ear that are involved in each. Define pitch, loudness, and timbre and give reasons why each is important to hearing. Sound localization refers to being able to locate objects in space. Discuss how this occurs. 130) Explain the gate-control theory of pain. How can it explain the perception of pain that is not proportional to the incoming painful stimulus? Answer: The gate-control theory proposes that certain cells in the spinal cord act as gates to interrupt and block some pain signals while sending others to the brain. It can explain why rubbing a bumped shin can help reduce the pain sensation, why when you’re not attending to a painful stimulus it doesn’t hurt as much, phantom limb pain, and why individuals who are under chronic stress or are depressed feel body pain despite no physical injury. 131) In their early theories, the Gestalt psychologists argued that what you perceive depends on laws of organization, or simple rules by which you perceive shapes and forms. Describe these “simple” rules, then show how the perceptual constancies also contribute to our view of the world as invariant, constant and stable, even though we are sometimes fooled by ambiguity and illusions. Answer: Describe the law of proximity, the law of good continuation, the law of common fate, and the law of closure. Define perceptual constancy. Include size, shape, and lightness constancy. Discuss why illusions are studied. 132) Describe how we perceive depth. Include binocular cues, motion cues, and pictorial cues. Answer: Depth perception depends on many sources of information about distance. Binocular cues include retinal disparity and convergence. Motion cues include relative motion parallax. Pictorial cues include interposition, size/distance relation, linear perspective, texture, and relative size. Chapter 5: Sensation and Perception 1) The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensations at all in a person is the ____________. A) absolute threshold B) difference threshold C) minimum threshold D) noticeable threshold Answer: A Rationale: The absolute threshold is the minimum amount of stimulation needed for a person to detect a stimulus at least 50% of the time. It represents the point at which a stimulus becomes detectable to the sensory receptors. 2) Which of the following statements is true? A) Only the difference threshold varies from person to person. B) Only the absolute threshold is constant for all people. C) Both the difference threshold and the absolute threshold are constant for all people at all times. D) Both the absolute threshold and the difference threshold vary from person to person over time. Answer: D Rationale: Both the absolute threshold and the difference threshold can vary among individuals and can change over time due to factors such as fatigue, attention, and experience. 3) “Sensation is to _______ as perception is to _______.” A) psychological; physical B) gathering; understanding C) understanding; gathering D) interpreting; detecting Answer: B Rationale: Sensation refers to the process of gathering sensory information from the environment, while perception involves understanding and interpreting that information. 4) Detecting “environmental stimulation” is one way to define ______. A) perception B) feeling C) sensation D) awareness Answer: C Rationale: Sensation involves the detection of environmental stimuli by sensory receptors, which is the initial step in processing sensory information. 5) The process whereby we receive information from the environment through our receptors is _______. A) encoding B) perception C) sensation D) transduction Answer: C Rationale: Sensation involves the process of receiving sensory input from the environment through sensory receptors. 6) Sensation is _______. A) the organization of stimuli to create meaningful patterns B) the stimulation of the senses C) the presence of sensory cell activity in the absence of external stimulation D) the result of activity in the efferent nervous system Answer: B Rationale: Sensation refers to the stimulation of the sensory organs or receptors by external stimuli. 7) The components in the sense organs that respond to energy are called _______. A) sensor cells B) receptor cells C) transducers D) effector cells Answer: B Rationale: Receptor cells in the sense organs are responsible for responding to environmental stimuli and converting them into neural signals. 8) The smallest change in stimulation that can be detected 50 percent of the time is called the __________. A) separation threshold B) difference threshold C) response threshold D) absolute threshold Answer: B Rationale: The difference threshold, also known as the just noticeable difference (JND), is the smallest change in stimulation that can be detected by a person at least 50% of the time. 9) Which of the following is NOT a measure of threshold? A) absolute threshold B) difference threshold C) just noticeable difference D) separation threshold Answer: D Rationale: The separation threshold is not a recognized measure of threshold. The absolute threshold, difference threshold, and just noticeable difference are all measures related to the detection and discrimination of sensory stimuli. 10) When Ann went to her doctor, he gave her a hearing test. During the test, the doctor struck several tuning forks, each of which vibrated at a distinct pitch, and asked her to choose two tones that sounded almost the same in pitch. The doctor was testing Ann’s __________. A) auditory convergence B) refractory threshold C) absolute threshold D) difference threshold Answer: D Rationale: The doctor was testing Ann's difference threshold, also known as the just noticeable difference (JND), which is the smallest change in pitch that Ann could detect between two tones. 11) The point at which a person can detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time it is presented is called the __________. A) absolute threshold B) difference threshold C) range threshold D) noticeable threshold Answer: A Rationale: The absolute threshold is the minimum intensity of a stimulus required for a person to detect it 50% of the time it is presented. 12) The term “just noticeable difference” is loosely synonymous with __________. A) separation threshold B) difference threshold C) response threshold D) absolute threshold Answer: B Rationale: The just noticeable difference (JND) is another term for the difference threshold, which is the smallest change in stimulus intensity that a person can detect. 13) Weber’s law is I/I = K; values for K are .02 for weight, .08 for brightness, and .03 for length. If a line is 30" long, what is the minimum change in length before one would notice a difference between the two? A) 0.9" B) 0.6" C) 0.3" D) none of the above Answer: A Rationale: According to Weber's law, the minimum change in length (ΔL) that would be noticeable is calculated by multiplying the original length (L) by the constant value for length (K), which is 0.03. So, ΔL = 30" * 0.03 = 0.9". 14) According to Weber’s law, how many grams would have to be added to a 150-gram weight to get a just noticeable difference? A) 1 g B) 3 g C) 8.5 g D) 25 g Answer: B Rationale: According to Weber's law, the just noticeable difference (JND) is calculated by multiplying the original weight by the constant value for weight (K), which is 0.02. So, JND = 150 g * 0.02 = 3 g. 15) Dr. Delmar wants to determine how loud a certain noise must be in order for it to be heard from a distance of 17 meters. Her question involves the concept of: A) relative magnitude. B) difference threshold. C) absolute threshold. D) just noticeable difference (JND). Answer: C Rationale: Dr. Delmar's question pertains to the absolute threshold, which is the minimum intensity of a stimulus required for it to be detected 50% of the time. 16) If a researcher wanted to know how loudly a person must speak in order to be heard above the noise of two other simultaneous conversations, the researcher would likely measure the ________. A) difference threshold B) marginal intensity C) relative magnitude D) absolute threshold Answer: A Rationale: In this scenario, the researcher would measure the difference threshold, which is the minimum change in stimulus intensity required for a person to perceive a difference in loudness. 17) Weber’s law states that a just noticeable change in a stimulus magnitude is ________ the original stimulus magnitude. A) proportional to B) equal to C) greater than D) less than Answer: A Rationale: Weber's law states that the just noticeable difference in stimulus magnitude is proportional to the original stimulus magnitude. 18) The relation between the amount of physical energy in a stimulus and the sensory experience of that stimulus is studied by: A) encoding psychology. B) psychophysics. C) sensory physiology. D) transduction psychology. Answer: B Rationale: Psychophysics is the branch of psychology that deals with the relationship between physical stimuli and the sensations and perceptions they evoke. It focuses on quantitatively measuring the relationship between the physical properties of stimuli (such as intensity or amplitude) and the psychological experiences they produce (such as brightness or loudness). Therefore, in this context, the study of the relation between physical energy in a stimulus and sensory experience falls within the domain of psychophysics. 19) Which of the following is NOT a measure of threshold? A) absolute threshold B) difference threshold C) just noticeable difference threshold D) separation threshold Answer: D Rationale: The separation threshold is not a recognized measure of threshold. The absolute threshold, difference threshold, and just noticeable difference threshold are all measures related to the detection and discrimination of sensory stimuli. 20) The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation at all in a person is the _______. A) absolute threshold B) difference threshold C) minimum threshold D) noticeable threshold Answer: A Rationale: The absolute threshold represents the minimum intensity of a stimulus required for a person to detect it at least 50% of the time it is presented. 21) When Ann went to her doctor, he gave her a hearing test. During the test, the doctor struck several tuning forks, each of which was a distinct pitch, and asked her to choose two tones that sounded almost the same in pitch. The doctor was testing Ann’s _______. A) auditory convergence B) refractory threshold C) absolute threshold D) difference threshold Answer: D Rationale: In this scenario, the doctor is testing Ann's ability to detect differences in pitch, which is related to her difference threshold, also known as the just noticeable difference (JND). 22) When Ann went to her doctor, he gave her a hearing test. During the test, the doctor presented tones to Ann through earphones. The tones varied only along the loud-soft dimensions (from very loud to very soft). The doctor was testing Ann’s _______. A) auditory convergence B) refractory threshold C) absolute threshold D) difference threshold Answer: C Rationale: In this scenario, the doctor is testing Ann's ability to detect the presence of a sound, which is related to her absolute threshold, the minimum intensity of a stimulus required for detection. 23) _______ studies the relationship between physical energies and psychological experiences. A) Physiology B) Psychophysics C) Psychometrics D) Psychopathology Answer: B Rationale: Psychophysics is the branch of psychology that specifically focuses on studying the relationship between physical stimuli and the psychological experiences they evoke. It seeks to quantify this relationship, examining how variations in physical energy (such as intensity or amplitude) relate to perceptual experiences (such as brightness or loudness). Therefore, in the context of studying the relationship between physical energies and psychological experiences, psychophysics is the appropriate answer. 24) Professor Zander wants to know how loud a certain noise must be in order to be heard from a distance of 17 metres. This question involves the concept of _______. A) relative magnitude B) difference threshold C) absolute threshold D) inverse discrimination Answer: C Rationale: Professor Zander's question pertains to the absolute threshold, which is the minimum intensity of a stimulus required for detection. 25) The problem of subjects knowing too much about the sequencing of intensities during sensation studies is overcome by the method of _______. A) adjustment B) limits C) constant stimuli D) none of the above Answer: D Rationale: The method of constant stimuli presents stimuli in random order to prevent subjects from predicting the sequence, thereby overcoming the problem of subjects knowing too much about the sequencing of intensities during sensation studies. 26) The wavelength of the light to reach your eyes determines what __________ you see. A) brightness B) hue C) saturation D) fine detail Answer: B Rationale: Hue refers to the color of light determined by its wavelength. 27) The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the __________. A) cornea B) pupil C) lens D) retina Answer: B Rationale: The pupil controls the amount of light entering the eye by dilating or constricting in response to changes in light intensity. 28) The pupil is the __________. A) opening in the centre of the iris B) coloured part of the eye C) white of the eye D) lining in the back of the eyeball Answer: A Rationale: The pupil is the opening in the center of the iris that regulates the amount of light entering the eye. 29) The coloured part of the eye that contains muscles to contract or expand the pupil is the __________. A) lens B) fovea C) iris D) cornea Answer: C Rationale: The iris is the colored part of the eye containing muscles that control the size of the pupil. 30) If you stare for 30 seconds at a red object and then look at a blank sheet of white paper, you will see a greenish image of the object. This phenomenon best supports the: A) Young-Helmholtz opponent-process theory of colour vision. B) Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory of colour vision. C) Hering opponent-process theory of colour vision. D) Hering trichromatic theory of colour vision. Answer: C Rationale: The phenomenon described best supports the Hering opponent-process theory of color vision, which suggests that color vision is based on three pairs of opposing colors: red-green, blueyellow, and black-white. 31) The depressed spot in the retina that occupies the centre of the visual field in which images are focused MOST sharply is called the: A) fovea. B) cornea. C) iris. D) optic nerve. Answer: A Rationale: The fovea is a small depression in the retina where visual acuity is highest and where images are focused most sharply. 32) A young man enters a completely darkened room and lights a candle. Which of the following sequences best represents the candle’s light as it enters his eye? A) cornea B) pupil C) lens D) retina Answer: A Rationale: The light from the candle first enters the eye through the cornea, which is the transparent outer covering of the eye. 33) When John drives his car at night, he finds that he can barely see traffic and street signs if he looks directly at them. He can increase his visual sensitivity by looking at the signs: A) out of the side of his eye, because doing so focuses the image on the blind spot B) out of the side of his eye (using more rods) instead of focusing directly on them (using more cones) C) and squinting, which focuses the available light more precisely D) out of the side of his eye (using more cones) instead of focusing directly on them (using more rods) Answer: B Rationale: Looking at the signs out of the side of his eye utilizes the peripheral vision, which is more sensitive to low light conditions due to the higher concentration of rods, as opposed to cones which are concentrated in the fovea and are less sensitive to low light. 34) The pupil is the: A) opening in the centre of the iris. B) coloured part of the eye. C) white of the eye. D) lining in the back of the eyeball. Answer: A Rationale: The pupil is the opening in the center of the iris through which light enters the eye. 35) Which type of receptor cell is associated with seeing colours? A) ganglia B) bipolar C) rods D) cones Answer: D Rationale: Cones are the receptor cells in the retina that are responsible for color vision. 36) Window pane is to _______ as colour is to iris. A) retina B) cornea C) lens D) fovea Answer: A Rationale: Window pane is related to the retina because it is perceived through vision, while color is related to the iris because the iris determines the amount of light entering the eye, affecting color perception. 37) The lens: A) is the transparent outer membrane of the eye that covers the pupil and iris. B) allows one to focus on objects at different distances. C) allows light initially to enter the eye. D) controls the amount of light entering the eye. Answer: B Rationale: The lens is a transparent, flexible structure that focuses light onto the retina, allowing the eye to focus on objects at different distances. 38) The eyes convert light energy into neural responses that we experience as sight. The conversion of light energy into sight is done by receptor cells in the _______. A) iris B) pupil C) blind spot D) retina Answer: D Rationale: Receptor cells in the retina, such as rods and cones, convert light energy into neural signals that are processed by the brain as visual perception. 39) ________ are receptors that are best for seeing details. A) Cones B) Rods C) Bipolar cells D) Ganglion cells Answer: A Rationale: Cones are responsible for color vision and are most sensitive to details and fine spatial resolution. 40) Lory entered a dark movie theatre from the bright sunlight. Which of the following was occurring in her retinal system? A) a slow shift from cone vision to rod vision B) a rapid shift from cone vision to rod vision C) a slow shift from rod vision to cone vision D) a rapid shift from rod vision to cone vision Answer: A Rationale: When transitioning from bright light to darkness, there is a gradual shift from cone vision (daytime vision) to rod vision (nighttime vision) as the rods become more sensitive to low light conditions. 41) For humans, the ability to _______ is probably the most important sense. A) hear B) taste C) see D) smell Answer: C Rationale: Vision is considered the most important sense for humans as it provides the primary means by which we perceive and interact with our environment. 42) What structure in your eye is most like the film in a camera? A) the retina B) the lens C) the cornea D) the pupil Answer: A Rationale: The retina is most similar to the film in a camera as it receives and processes light, converting it into neural signals that are transmitted to the brain for visual perception. 43) Light enters the eye through the _______. A) cornea B) pupil C) iris D) retina Answer: A Rationale: Light enters the eye through the cornea, the transparent outer covering of the eye. 44) The inner lining on the back of the eyeball that is sensitive to light is called the _______. A) fovea B) retina C) iris D) optic nerve Answer: B Rationale: The retina is the inner lining of the back of the eyeball that contains the photoreceptor cells responsible for detecting light and initiating the process of vision. 45) Light is focused on the retina by the _______. A) cornea B) pupil C) iris D) lens Answer: D Rationale: The lens of the eye focuses light onto the retina by changing its shape to adjust the focal length and bring objects into focus. 46) The depressed spot in the retina that occupies the centre of the visual field in which images are focused MOST sharply is called the _______. A) fovea B) cornea C) iris D) optic nerve Answer: A Rationale: The fovea is a small depression in the retina where visual acuity is highest, and where images are focused most sharply. 47) The shape of the lens adjusts in order to _______. A) protect the eye from too much light B) let in more light when it is dark C) focus on different objects at different distances D) allow time for the eye to adjust to bright light Answer: C Rationale: The shape of the lens adjusts (accommodation) to focus on objects at different distances, allowing for clear vision at various distances. 48) Rods and cones are found in the _______. A) retina B) iris C) optic nerve D) cornea Answer: A Rationale: Rods and cones are photoreceptor cells found in the retina, responsible for detecting light and initiating the process of vision. 49) Rods and cones are connected to ________. A) optic neurons B) bipolar neurons C) interneurons D) efferent neurons Answer: B Rationale: Rods and cones are connected to bipolar neurons in the retina, which relay visual information to ganglion cells before transmitting it to the brain via the optic nerve. 50) The place in the retina where the axons of all the ganglion cells come together to leave the eye is called the _______. A) fovea B) optic chiasma C) blind spot D) optic nerve Answer: C Rationale: The blind spot is the area in the retina where the axons of all the ganglion cells converge to form the optic nerve, which carries visual information to the brain. 51) A dichromat _______. A) sees all colours B) is either red-green or yellow-blue colour blind C) responds only to blue-yellow or red-green D) responds only to black and white Answer: B Rationale: A dichromat is typically color blind in one of two ways: red-green color blindness or yellowblue color blindness. 52) Light receptors that see best at night are the _______. A) foveas B) cones C) shafts D) rods Answer: D Rationale: Rods are the light receptors in the retina that are most sensitive to low light conditions and are responsible for night vision. 53) The eyes detect different colours by using the _______. A) cortex B) cones C) shafts D) rods Answer: B Rationale: Cones, located in the retina, are responsible for detecting different colors and are most active in bright light conditions. 54) The range of electromagnetic wavelengths that we can see is called the: A) visible spectrum. B) acuity range. C) visual field. D) visual angle. Answer: A Rationale: The visible spectrum is the range of electromagnetic wavelengths that are visible to the human eye, which includes the colors of the rainbow. 55) The process by which rods and cones become more sensitive to light in response to lowered levels of illumination is called _______. A) afterimage resolution B) light adaptation C) dark adaptation D) afterimage adaptation Answer: C Rationale: Dark adaptation is the process by which the eyes adjust to low levels of illumination, allowing rods and cones to become more sensitive to light. 56) The aspect of colour that corresponds to names such as red, green, and blue is __________. A) brightness B) hue C) saturation D) fine detail Answer: B Rationale: Hue refers to the attribute of color that allows us to distinguish between different colors such as red, green, and blue. 57) The purity, richness, or vividness of a hue is known as its __________. A) brightness B) saturation C) additive mix D) depth Answer: B Rationale: Saturation refers to the intensity or purity of a color, often described as its richness or vividness. 58) The vividness or richness of a hue is known as its: A) brightness. B) saturation. C) additive mix. D) complement. Answer: B Rationale: Saturation refers to the intensity or richness of a color. 59) Hue, saturation, and brightness are three separate aspects of our experience of: A) sensation. B) acuity. C) colour. D) night vision. Answer: C Rationale: Hue, saturation, and brightness are three components that describe the experience of color perception. 60) The trichromat: A) can see all colours of the spectrum. B) sees only red, green, and white. C) cannot see colour. D) cannot perceive red and green. Answer: A Rationale: Trichromats have three types of cones in their retina, allowing them to perceive the full range of colors in the visible spectrum. 61) The Young-Helmholtz theory of colour vision assumes that: A) colour receptors exist in opposing pairs. B) colour perception is determined by differences in the firing rates of three types of retinal cells. C) there are three different types of cones. D) all of the above Answer: C Rationale: The Young-Helmholtz theory, also known as the trichromatic theory, proposes that there are three different types of cones in the retina, each sensitive to a different wavelength of light, which allows for color vision. 62) The trichromatic receptor theory explains how different colour receptors in the eye combine to produce colour vision. However, this theory does NOT explain: A) negative afterimages. B) how colour receptors respond differently to different colours. C) how many colour receptors the retina must use in order to produce colour vision. D) colour vision. Answer: A Rationale: The trichromatic theory cannot fully explain negative afterimages, which are produced when the eye's photoreceptors become fatigued and respond less to certain colors, resulting in a temporary reversal of colors seen after staring at a stimulus. 63) The wavelength of the light to reach your eyes determines what _______ you see. A) brightness B) hue C) saturation D) fine detail Answer: B Rationale: The hue of light is determined by its wavelength, with different wavelengths corresponding to different colors. 64) Red, green, and blue are _______. A) primary colours B) secondary colours C) additive colours D) complementary colours Answer: A Rationale: Red, green, and blue are primary colors because they can be combined to create a wide range of other colors. 65) The physical stimuli for the sense of hearing are called __________ waves. A) alpha B) infrared C) sound D) sine Answer: C Rationale: Sound waves are the physical stimuli for the sense of hearing, consisting of vibrations in the air that are detected by the ear. 66) The changes in pressure caused when molecules of air or fluid collide with one another and then move apart again are called __________. A) hertz B) sound waves C) decibels D) pitch Answer: B Rationale: Sound waves are the changes in pressure caused by the movement of air molecules, which propagate through a medium such as air or water. 67) The structures in the inner ear that are particularly sensitive to body rotation are the __________. A) vestibular sacs B) saccules C) semicircular canals D) papillae Answer: C Rationale: The semicircular canals in the inner ear are responsible for detecting rotational movements of the head and are particularly sensitive to changes in body rotation. 68) Hertz is a unit of measurement of __________. A) frequency B) amplitude C) loudness D) overtones Answer: A Rationale: Hertz (Hz) is a unit of measurement for frequency, indicating the number of cycles or vibrations per second, commonly used to measure sound frequency. 69) Frequency theory proposes that: A) pitch is determined by the location on the basilar membrane where the message originated. B) pitch is determined by the quality of the sound wave. C) the frequency of the vibrations of the basilar membrane is translated into an equivalent frequency of nerve impulses. D) nerve cells fire in sequence, not individually. Answer: C Rationale: Frequency theory suggests that the pitch of a sound is determined by the frequency of the vibrations of the basilar membrane in the cochlea, which are then translated into corresponding frequencies of nerve impulses. 70) The outer ear is also known as the _______. A) funneloreum B) pinna C) canal D) lobe Answer: B Rationale: The pinna, or auricle, is the visible part of the outer ear that collects sound waves and directs them into the ear canal. 71) The middle ear includes the ______. A) ear canal B) round window C) hammer D) basilar membrane Answer: C Rationale: The middle ear includes the hammer (malleus), anvil (incus), and stirrup (stapes), which are three small bones that transmit vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. 72) The flexible membrane inside the cochlea is called the: A) round window. B) eardrum. C) oval window. D) basilar membrane. Answer: D Rationale: The basilar membrane is a flexible membrane inside the cochlea of the inner ear, which plays a crucial role in transducing sound vibrations into neural signals. 73) The oval window, cochlea, and basilar membrane are all part of the: A) middle ear. B) inner ear. C) external ear. D) auditory chamber. Answer: B Rationale: The oval window, cochlea, and basilar membrane are all structures located within the inner ear, which is responsible for the transduction of sound waves into neural impulses. 74) An increase in the frequency of sound waves will correspond most directly to an increase in _______. A) amplitude B) pitch C) loudness D) decibels Answer: B Rationale: An increase in the frequency of sound waves corresponds to an increase in pitch, or how high or low a sound is perceived. 75) Humans hear sounds ranging from 16 to ______ hertz. A) 100 B) 6000 C) 20 000 D) 1500 Answer: C Rationale: Humans can hear sound frequencies ranging from approximately 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz, with some variation among individuals. 76) As sounds become louder, their ______ increases. A) frequency B) pitch C) amplitude D) hertz Answer: C Rationale: As sounds become louder, their amplitude increases, resulting in a perception of greater loudness. 77) The boundary between the middle ear and inner ear is the: A) basilar membrane. B) cochlea. C) eardrum. D) oval window. Answer: D Rationale: The oval window acts as the boundary between the middle ear and the inner ear, transmitting vibrations from the middle ear to the fluid-filled cochlea. 78) The physical stimuli for the sense of hearing are called _______ waves. A) alpha B) radio C) sound D) beta Answer: C Rationale: Sound waves are the physical stimuli responsible for the sense of hearing, consisting of pressure fluctuations in a medium such as air or water. 79) Frequency determines _______. A) pitch B) amplitude C) timbre D) overtones Answer: A Rationale: Frequency determines the pitch of a sound, with higher frequencies corresponding to higher pitches and lower frequencies corresponding to lower pitches. 80) The height of a sound wave represents its _______. A) pitch B) amplitude C) timbre D) overtones Answer: B Rationale: The height (or intensity) of a sound wave represents its amplitude, which determines the loudness or volume of the sound. 81) Hertz is a unit of measurement of _______. A) frequency B) amplitude C) loudness D) overtones Answer: A Rationale: Hertz (Hz) is a unit used to measure frequency, representing the number of cycles or vibrations per second. 82) Decibels are used to measure _______. A) frequency B) amplitude C) loudness D) overtones Answer: C Rationale: Decibels (dB) are a unit of measurement used to quantify the loudness or intensity of a sound. 83) The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are the _______. A) three components of the eardrum B) three tiny bones in the middle ear C) membranes in the oval window D) three components of the basilar membrane cochlea Answer: B Rationale: The hammer (malleus), anvil (incus), and stirrup (stapes) are the three small bones located in the middle ear, which transmit vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. 84) Hearing begins when sound waves bump against the _______. A) earlobe B) eardrum C) oval window D) round window Answer: B Rationale: Hearing begins when sound waves bump against the eardrum (tympanic membrane), causing it to vibrate and transmit these vibrations to the middle ear. 85) The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are all located in the _______. A) middle ear B) inner ear C) external ear D) oval window Answer: A Rationale: The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are located in the middle ear, where they play a role in transmitting sound vibrations to the inner ear. 86) The audible range of frequencies for human beings is _______ cycles per second. A) 2 to 50 000 B) 120 to 50 000 C) 1 to 10 000 D) 20 to 20 000 Answer: D Rationale: The audible range of frequencies for human beings typically extends from approximately 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. 87) The idea that large fibres in the sensory nerves can prevent impulses from reaching the brain and thus prevent the sensation of pain is part of the __________ theory of pain. A) gate-control B) primary process C) free nerve ending D) volley Answer: A Rationale: The gate-control theory of pain suggests that the spinal cord contains a "gate" that can either block or allow pain signals to pass to the brain, with large sensory fibers able to close the gate and reduce the sensation of pain. 88) The patch of nasal membrane tissue that houses receptor cells for smell is the __________. A) olfactory bulb B) Golgi tendon organ C) olfactory epithelium D) olfactory mucosa Answer: C Rationale: The olfactory epithelium is the patch of nasal membrane tissue containing receptor cells responsible for detecting odor molecules. 89) Axons from the nerve cells in the nose carry messages directly to the __________ of the brain. A) olfactory epithelium B) olfactory bulbs C) papillae D) vomeronasal organ Answer: B Rationale: Axons from nerve cells in the nose carry olfactory information directly to the olfactory bulbs in the brain, where initial processing of smell occurs. 90) The first location to receive smell information in the brain is the __________. A) olfactory bulb B) olfactory epithelium C) thalamus D) vomeronasal organ Answer: A Rationale: The olfactory bulb is the first location in the brain to receive smell information, where signals from the olfactory epithelium are processed before being relayed to other brain regions. 91) The four primary taste sensations are sweet, bitter, sour, and _______. A) neutral B) tart C) acid D) salt Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D) salt. The four primary taste sensations are sweet, bitter, sour, and salty. These tastes are detected by taste buds on the tongue, with each taste associated with specific types of taste receptors. 92) Our sensitivity to different tastes is greatest when food is between the temperatures of 71 degrees and _______ degrees F. A) 100 B) 78 C) 92 D) 89 Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D) 89. Our sensitivity to different tastes is greatest when food is between the temperatures of 71 degrees and 89 degrees Fahrenheit. Extreme temperatures can dull taste perception. 93) Which of the following is NOT one of the five primary taste qualities that humans perceive? A) bitter B) sour C) tart D) salt Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C) tart. The five primary taste qualities that humans perceive are sweet, bitter, sour, salty, and umami. Tartness is not considered one of the primary tastes. 94) Flavor is: A) taste. B) smell. C) a combination of taste and smell. D) a combination of touch and taste. Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C) a combination of taste and smell. Flavor is a perceptual experience resulting from the combination of taste (sensations perceived by taste buds) and smell (sensations perceived by olfactory receptors). 95) Taste buds are contained in the tongue’s _______. A) papillae B) hair cells C) underside D) saccules Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A) papillae. Taste buds are contained within the papillae on the tongue, which are small structures on the surface of the tongue that contain taste receptors. 96) A spook house in a local carnival offered its potential patrons free admission if they would allow themselves to be blindfolded and then to eat raw worms. Although they were actually fed cold spaghetti, most of the customers believed they were swallowing real worms. What is the MOST plausible explanation for this finding? A) The cold spaghetti dulled nerve endings in the taste buds. B) This particular food failed to depolarize adjacent neurons in the tongue. C) Food flavor is really a composite of taste, smell, sight, and texture. D) Sensory receptors in the brain were not activated. Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C) Food flavor is really a composite of taste, smell, sight, and texture. The scenario described involves the influence of factors beyond taste alone. Perception of food involves a combination of sensory inputs, including taste, smell, sight, and texture. 97) The senses that monitor our equilibrium and awareness of body position in space are the __________ senses. A) vestibular B) olfactory C) cutaneous D) kinesthetic Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A) vestibular. The vestibular senses are responsible for monitoring equilibrium and awareness of body position in space. These senses are located in the inner ear. 98) The vestibular sense governs our awareness of __________. A) pressure B) temperature C) equilibrium D) pain Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C) equilibrium. The vestibular sense governs our awareness of equilibrium, including balance and spatial orientation. 99) Jane jumps out of bed to the sound of the alarm clock. As she reaches her feet, she feels very dizzy for a few seconds. As her system readjusts to her standing, she begins to regain her sense of balance. The source of Jane’s dizziness is probably in the: A) vestibular senses B) skin senses C) olfactory senses D) papillary senses Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A) vestibular senses. Jane's dizziness upon standing is likely due to a temporary disruption in her vestibular senses, which are responsible for balance and spatial orientation, particularly within the inner ear. 100) The vestibular sacs control the body’s sense of: A) gravity and movement. B) body rotation. C) pain. D) pressure. Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A) gravity and movement. The vestibular sacs, located within the inner ear, contribute to the body's sense of gravity and movement, helping to maintain balance and orientation. 101) The vestibular system monitors: A) body orientation and its changes. B) hearing. C) visual acuity. D) temperature sensations. Answer: A Rationale: The vestibular system is responsible for detecting changes in body position and movement, as well as maintaining balance and spatial orientation. It includes structures in the inner ear such as the semicircular canals and otolith organs, which sense rotational and linear acceleration, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is A) body orientation and its changes. 102) The vestibular sense governs our awareness of _______. A) pressure B) temperature C) equilibrium D) pain Answer: C Rationale: The vestibular sense is responsible for our sense of equilibrium and spatial orientation. It helps us maintain balance and stability, detecting movements and changes in position of the head and body. Therefore, the correct answer is C) equilibrium. 103) According to the __________ theory, distinct receptors exist for the sensation of temperature. A) magnitude estimation B) place C) vascular D) specific receptor Answer: D Rationale: The specific receptor theory proposes that different types of receptors in the skin are specialized to detect specific sensations, such as temperature. This theory suggests that there are separate receptors for warmth and cold. Therefore, the correct answer is D) specific receptor. 104) What sensations are detected by the skin? A) pressure, pain, warmth, and cold B) only pain, warmth, and cold C) only pressure, pain, and warmth D) only pressure and pain Answer: A Rationale: The skin contains various types of sensory receptors responsible for detecting pressure, pain, warmth, and cold. These sensations are important for survival and help us interact with our environment. Therefore, the correct answer is A) pressure, pain, warmth, and cold. 105) In the figure above, seeing rows of 0s and rows of Xs illustrates the Gestalt law of ______. A) figure-ground B) similarity C) proximity D) closure Answer: B Rationale: The Gestalt law of similarity states that elements that share common features, such as shape, color, or size, are perceived as belonging together. In this figure, the rows of 0s and rows of Xs are perceived as separate groups based on their similar features, demonstrating the law of similarity. Therefore, the correct answer is B) similarity. 106) _______ tried to analyze sensation and perception separately, and _______ insisted on a unified analysis of sensations and perceptions. A) Structuralists; Gestalt psychologists B) Gestalt psychologists; structuralists C) Functionalists; Gestalt psychologists D) Structuralists; functionalists Answer: A Rationale: Structuralists, such as Wilhelm Wundt, focused on analyzing sensation and perception as separate processes, breaking them down into their basic elements. In contrast, Gestalt psychologists, including Max Wertheimer, emphasized the importance of studying perception as a whole, highlighting how elements are perceived in relation to each other. Therefore, the correct answer is A) Structuralists; Gestalt psychologists. 107) Which Gestalt law of organization must always occur even if other laws of organization are also illustrated? A) figure-ground B) similarity C) proximity D) closure Answer: A Rationale: The Gestalt law of figure-ground is considered fundamental because it governs the organization of visual scenes, ensuring that elements are perceived as either figures (objects of focus) or ground (background). Even when other laws of organization, such as similarity or proximity, are present, figure-ground organization still occurs. Therefore, the correct answer is A) figure-ground. 108) Elements that share common features such as size, shape, or color are viewed as a set. This defines which Gestalt law of organization? A) figure-ground B) similarity C) proximity D) closure Answer: B Rationale: The Gestalt law of similarity states that elements that share common features are perceived as belonging together in a set or group. This can include similarities in size, shape, color, or other attributes. Therefore, the correct answer is B) similarity. 109) Perceiving incomplete objects as complete defines: A) figure-ground. B) similarity. C) proximity. D) closure. Answer: D Rationale: The Gestalt law of closure refers to the tendency to perceive incomplete objects as whole or complete. This occurs when the brain fills in missing parts of a visual scene to create a coherent perception. Therefore, the correct answer is D) closure. 110) Figure-ground is to _______ as dream interpretation is to psychoanalysis. A) structuralism B) functionalism C) Gestalt D) humanism Answer: C Rationale: Figure-ground perception is a concept closely associated with Gestalt psychology, which emphasizes the organization of visual elements into figures (objects of focus) and ground (background). Similarly, dream interpretation is a practice often associated with psychoanalysis, which delves into the unconscious mind and its symbolic representations. Therefore, the correct answer is C) Gestalt. 111) Experiencing MEANINGFUL patterns in the jumble of sensory information received by the brain is _______. A) sensation B) perception C) adaptation D) transduction Answer: B Rationale: Perception involves the interpretation and organization of sensory information to form meaningful patterns or representations of the external world. It goes beyond simple sensation, which is the detection of sensory stimuli by sensory receptors. Therefore, the correct answer is B) perception. 112) Gestalt theorists propose that much of what we see is divided into: A) proximal and distal. B) figure and ground. C) standard and deviant. D) chromatic and monocular. Answer: B Rationale: Gestalt psychologists propose that perception is organized according to certain principles, one of which is the division of visual stimuli into "figure" (objects of focus) and "ground" (background). This concept helps explain how we perceive and make sense of visual scenes. Therefore, the correct answer is B) figure and ground. 113) Gestalt theorists are known for explaining: A) figure-ground reversals. B) the law of similarity. C) the law of proximity. D) all of the above Answer: D Rationale: Gestalt psychologists are known for explaining various principles of perceptual organization, including figure-ground reversals, the law of similarity (similar elements tend to be grouped together), and the law of proximity (objects that are close together tend to be perceived as belonging to the same group). Therefore, the correct answer is D) all of the above. 114) Perceptions differ from sensations in that: A) perceptions depend as much on prior experience as they do on neural cues travelling between receptors and the brain. B) perceptions are purely psychological, whereas sensations are purely neural. C) each sensation is actually a large set of perceptions. D) sensations depend mostly on learning, whereas perceptions are innate processes. Answer: A Rationale: Sensations involve the initial detection of sensory stimuli by sensory receptors and the transmission of neural signals to the brain. Perceptions, on the other hand, involve the interpretation and organization of sensory information, which can be influenced by prior experience, expectations, and cognitive processes. Therefore, the correct answer is A) perceptions depend as much on prior experience as they do on neural cues travelling between receptors and the brain. 115) Which Gestalt law of organization must always occur even if other laws of organization are also illustrated? A) figure-ground B) similarity C) proximity D) closure Answer: A Rationale: The Gestalt law of figure-ground dictates that visual stimuli are organized into a figure (the object of focus) and ground (the background). This principle is fundamental and applies even when other laws of organization, such as similarity or proximity, are also present. Therefore, the correct answer is A) figure-ground. 116) Our tendency to see objects as relatively stable and unchanging despite changing sensory information is called perceptual __________. A) closure B) constancy C) reversibility D) coherency Answer: B Rationale: Perceptual constancy refers to the ability to perceive objects as stable and unchanging in size, shape, color, and other properties, even when sensory information about them changes (such as viewing an object from different angles or under different lighting conditions). Therefore, the correct answer is B) constancy. 117) When we look at a white house, we can recognize it as a white house by day or night and from any angle. This is due to perceptual __________. A) closure B) constancy C) reversibility D) coherency Answer: B Rationale: In this scenario, perceptual constancy allows us to perceive the white house as white regardless of variations in lighting conditions. This stability in our perception helps us recognize objects reliably across different contexts. Therefore, the correct answer is B) constancy. 118) Whether you are standing right next to it or a kilometre away from it, you know a tree is the same size because of________. A) the figure-ground distinction B) the phi phenomenon C) perceptual constancy D) retinal disparity Answer: C Rationale: Perceptual constancy allows us to perceive the size of objects as relatively stable, regardless of changes in viewing distance. This stability in perception helps us recognize objects accurately across different viewing conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is C) perceptual constancy. 119) As an object gets closer, its visual angle becomes _______ and its retinal image gets ________. A) larger; smaller B) smaller; larger C) smaller; smaller D) larger; larger Answer: D Rationale: When an object moves closer to the observer, its visual angle increases, resulting in a larger retinal image. This change in the visual angle affects the size of the retinal image, making it larger. Therefore, the correct answer is D) larger; larger. 120) A contracting pattern of retinal image leads to the perception of an object that is: A) moving toward the observer. B) moving away from the observer. C) getting larger. D) moving toward the observer and getting larger. Answer: B Rationale: When the retinal image of an object contracts, it indicates that the object is moving away from the observer. This contraction of the retinal image is consistent with objects receding in distance. Therefore, the correct answer is B) moving away from the observer. 121) The _______ states that we see an object’s size as constant even if the object’s distance from us changes. A) law of size constancy B) visual angle theory C) retinal image theory D) Ames room theory Answer: A Rationale: The law of size constancy explains how we perceive the size of objects as remaining constant even when their distance from us changes. This allows us to perceive objects as maintaining their size regardless of whether they are near or far away. 122) Which of the following is NOT a perceptual constancy? A) size B) shape C) brightness D) linear perspective Answer: D Rationale: Perceptual constancies refer to our ability to perceive certain characteristics of objects as remaining stable despite changes in sensory input. Size, shape, and brightness constancies all involve perceiving these attributes as remaining constant despite changes in viewing conditions. However, linear perspective is not a perceptual constancy; it refers to the visual phenomenon where parallel lines appear to converge as they recede into the distance. 123) People with normal vision will perceive a pyramid whether they see the object from the side, top, or any other angle as long as the object is, in fact, a pyramid. This is the law of: A) shape constancy. B) size constancy. C) figure-ground. D) visual angle. Answer: A Rationale: The law of shape constancy explains how we perceive the shape of objects as remaining constant despite changes in viewing angle or perspective. This allows us to recognize objects such as a pyramid regardless of the angle from which they are viewed. 124) “Single-eye vision is to _______ as double-eye vision is to _______.” A) kinetic; monocular B) monocular; kinetic C) monocular; binocular D) binocular; monocular Answer: C Rationale: Single-eye vision, or monocular vision, refers to vision using only one eye, whereas doubleeye vision, or binocular vision, involves the use of both eyes. Therefore, the correct pair is C) monocular; binocular. 125) You are seated at a small table talking to a friend opposite you who is drinking coffee. As she lifts the cup off the saucer and raises it to her mouth, the image made on your retina by the bottom of the cup actually changes shape, but you still “see” it as round due to: A) good continuation. B) movement parallax. C) perceptual constancy. D) proximity. Answer: C Rationale: Perceptual constancy allows us to perceive objects as maintaining certain characteristics, such as shape, despite changes in sensory input. In this case, despite changes in the shape of the retinal image, we perceive the cup as round due to shape constancy. 126) The effects of the Ames room are DUE primarily to distortions in: A) aerial perspective. B) distance. C) size. D) texture gradient. Answer: B Rationale: The Ames room is a visual illusion that distorts our perception of the size and shape of objects within it. The primary cause of this illusion is distortions in the perceived distance of objects within the room, leading to misperceptions of size and shape. 127) Our tendency to see objects as relatively stable and unchanging despite changing sensory information is called _______. A) closure B) constancy C) reversibility D) coherency Answer: B Rationale: Perceptual constancy refers to our ability to perceive objects as maintaining certain characteristics, such as size, shape, or color, despite changes in sensory input. This stability in perception allows us to navigate and interact with our environment effectively. 128) When we look at a white house, we can recognize it as a white house by day or by night and from any angle. This is due to perceptual _______. A) closure B) constancy C) reversibility D) coherency Answer: B Rationale: Perceptual constancy allows us to recognize objects as maintaining certain characteristics, such as color, regardless of changes in lighting conditions or viewing angle. In this case, our ability to perceive the white house as white under various conditions is an example of color constancy. 129) Colour, shape, size, and brightness are all types of perceptual _______. A) closure B) constancy C) reversibility D) coherency Answer: B Rationale: Perceptual constancy refers to our ability to perceive certain characteristics of objects as remaining stable despite changes in sensory input. Color, shape, size, and brightness constancies are specific examples of this phenomenon, where we perceive these attributes as remaining consistent even under varying conditions. 130) Size constancy explains why _______. A) objects are perceived as having constant dimensions regardless of distance B) perception of size is inversely related to distance C) closer objects are perceived as smaller than faraway objects D) distance affects perceived size Answer: A Rationale: Size constancy refers to our ability to perceive the size of objects as remaining constant even when their distance from us changes. This allows us to perceive objects as having constant dimensions regardless of their distance, maintaining their perceived size regardless of changes in viewing conditions. 131) Whether you are standing right next to it or a kilometre away from it, you know a tree is the same size because of _______. A) the figure-ground distinction B) the phi phenomenon C) perceptual constancy D) retinal disparity Answer: C Rationale: Perceptual constancy refers to our ability to perceive objects as maintaining their size, shape, color, and brightness despite changes in the sensory information received. In the case of a tree, perceptual constancy allows us to recognize it as the same size regardless of our distance from it. Therefore, the correct answer is C) perceptual constancy. 132) When you stand to the side of a window frame, it casts a trapezoidal (nonrectangular) image on your retina. It still seems rectangular to you, though, because of _______. A) size constancy B) shape constancy C) figure-ground constancy D) the phi phenomenon Answer: B Rationale: Shape constancy allows us to perceive objects as maintaining their shape regardless of the angle from which we view them. In this scenario, even though the window frame casts a trapezoidal image on the retina, our perception of its shape remains rectangular due to shape constancy. Therefore, the correct answer is B) shape constancy. 133) People with normal vision will perceive a pyramid whether they see the object from the side, top, or any other angle as long as the object is, in fact, a pyramid. This is the law of _______. A) shape constancy B) size constancy C) figure-ground D) visual angle Answer: A Rationale: The law of shape constancy states that we perceive objects as maintaining their shape despite changes in the angle or perspective from which we view them. Therefore, regardless of the viewing angle, a pyramid will be perceived as a pyramid due to shape constancy. Therefore, the correct answer is A) shape constancy. 134) The law of brightness constancy suggests that our perception of an object is a result of the _______ of the light from the object divided by the light surrounding it. A) sum B) ratio C) amount D) intensity Answer: B Rationale: The law of brightness constancy states that our perception of an object's brightness is influenced by the ratio of the light reflected from the object to the light surrounding it. This helps us perceive objects as having consistent brightness levels despite changes in illumination. Therefore, the correct answer is B) ratio. 135) The distance cue in which objects at greater distances appear to be smoother is __________. A) linear perspective B) aerial perspective C) texture gradient D) motion parallax Answer: C Rationale: Texture gradient is a monocular depth cue where objects appear to be smoother and less detailed as they move farther away. This occurs because the texture of objects becomes less distinct with increased distance, providing a cue for depth perception. Therefore, the correct answer is C) texture gradient. 136) The distance cue in which two parallel lines extend into the distance and seem to come together at one point is called __________. A) linear perspective B) aerial perspective C) shadowing D) motion parallax Answer: A Rationale: Linear perspective is a monocular depth cue where parallel lines appear to converge at a single point in the distance, creating the illusion of depth. This cue is commonly observed in artworks and architectural drawings to create the perception of spatial depth. Therefore, the correct answer is A) linear perspective. 137) While riding on a train, David notices that the trees and telephone poles close to the tracks seem to flash by, while the buildings, trees, and mountains that are farther away seem to move by more slowly. This phenomenon is called _____________. A) aerial perspective B) subliminal motion C) motion parallax D) motion differential Answer: C Rationale: Motion parallax is a monocular depth cue where objects closer to an observer appear to move faster across the visual field than objects farther away. This phenomenon is commonly experienced when observing objects from a moving vehicle, such as a train or car. Therefore, the correct answer is C) motion parallax. 138) “One-eye vision is to _______ as two-eye vision is to ________.” A) kinetic; monocular B) monocular; kinetic C) monocular; binocular D) binocular; monocular Answer: C Rationale: One-eye vision refers to monocular vision, which relies on visual cues perceived by one eye, while two-eye vision refers to binocular vision, which integrates visual cues perceived by both eyes. Therefore, the correct answer is C) monocular; binocular. 139) How blurry-looking an object appears and linear perspective are cues associated with _______ depth perception. A) binocular disparity B) kinesthetic C) monocular D) binocular Answer: C Rationale: Monocular depth cues are visual cues that can be perceived with one eye and help in depth perception. Blurriness of objects due to distance and linear perspective are examples of monocular depth cues. Therefore, the correct answer is C) monocular. 140) Which of the following is an example of a monocular cue? A) far objects looking clear, and near ones looking blurry B) the trees in a forest converging in the distance C) the double image of a finger held in front of one eye D) the appearance of a small light making movements against a dark background Answer: B Rationale: Monocular cues are depth cues that can be perceived with one eye. The convergence of parallel lines, such as the converging tree trunks in a forest when viewed from a distance, is an example of a monocular cue known as linear perspective. Therefore, the correct answer is B) the trees in a forest converging in the distance. 141) Which of the following is NOT a monocular cue? A) clearness B) linear perspective C) retinal disparity D) texture Answer: C Rationale: Monocular cues are depth cues that can be perceived with one eye alone. Clearness, linear perspective, and texture are all examples of monocular cues that help perceive depth or distance. However, retinal disparity requires input from both eyes and is considered a binocular cue rather than a monocular one. 142) When you look out the window of a car that is traveling 100 kilometers per hour, objects at different locations appear to move in different directions and at different speeds. This apparent motion is known as: A) the kinetic depth effect. B) motion parallax. C) movement illusion. D) linear perspective. Answer: B Rationale: Motion parallax refers to the apparent motion of objects at different distances when the observer is in motion. This phenomenon is commonly experienced while traveling, such as looking out the window of a moving car. The perception of nearby objects moving faster than distant objects is a result of motion parallax. 143) When you look out the window of a car that is traveling 100 kilometers per hour, close objects appear: A) to be moving faster than far ones. B) to be moving slower than far ones. C) to be moving at the same speed as far ones. D) to be stationary and the far ones appear to be moving in the opposite direction as the car. Answer: A Rationale: In motion parallax, close objects appear to move faster than far ones when the observer is in motion. This is because the visual angle of nearby objects changes more rapidly compared to distant objects as the observer moves, resulting in the perception of faster motion for closer objects. 144) The distance cue in which two parallel lines extend into the distance and seem to come together at one point is called _______. A) linear perspective B) aerial perspective C) shadowing D) motion parallax Answer: A Rationale: Linear perspective is a monocular depth cue in which parallel lines appear to converge as they extend into the distance. This convergence creates a sense of depth and distance perception in two-dimensional images or scenes. 145) Texture gradient refers to the fact that texture appears to become _______. A) more detailed in the distance B) less detailed in the distance C) more detailed as brightness increases D) less detailed as brightness increases Answer: B Rationale: Texture gradient is a monocular cue where the texture of surfaces appears to become less detailed or finer as distance from the observer increases. This occurs because the individual elements of the texture blend together as distance increases, resulting in a smoother appearance. 146) Shadowing is a cue to _______. A) linear perspective B) width perception C) depth perception D) color perception Answer: C Rationale: Shadowing provides information about the relative depth of objects in a scene by indicating the position of objects in relation to a light source. The presence and direction of shadows help perceive the three-dimensional arrangement of objects, contributing to depth perception. 147) Which of the following choices is NOT a monocular cue that painters can incorporate into their work to convey information about the relative distances of objects? A) superposition B) linear perspective C) aerial perspective D) convergence Answer: D Rationale: Convergence is a binocular cue, not a monocular one. It involves the inward turning of the eyes to focus on nearby objects, providing information about depth perception based on the angle of convergence. Monocular cues such as superposition, linear perspective, and aerial perspective can be utilized by painters to create depth in two-dimensional artworks. 148) The monocular distance cue in which objects closer than the point of visual focus seem to move in the direction opposite to the viewer’s moving head, and objects beyond the viewing point move in the same direction as the viewer’s head is _______. A) retinal disparity B) motion parallax C) subliminal motion D) motion differential Answer: B Rationale: Motion parallax is a monocular depth cue where nearby objects appear to move in the opposite direction of the observer's head movement, while objects farther away appear to move in the same direction. This phenomenon provides information about the relative distances of objects in a scene. 149) While riding on a train, David notices that the trees and telephone poles close to the tracks seem to flash by, while the buildings, trees, and mountains that are farther away seem to move by more slowly. This phenomenon is called ________. A) aerial perspective B) subliminal motion C) motion parallax D) motion differential Answer: C Rationale: Motion parallax is the perception of objects appearing to move at different speeds and directions relative to the observer's movement. It occurs when objects closer to the observer appear to move faster than distant objects, as experienced by David while riding on the train. 150) If perceptual information aiding in depth perception must be drawn simultaneously from both eyes, it is referred to as _______. A) a monocular cue B) a binocular cue C) contralateral input D) a duoretinal image Answer: B Rationale: Binocular cues require input from both eyes to perceive depth or distance accurately. This includes cues such as retinal disparity and binocular convergence, which rely on differences in the images projected onto each retina to provide depth information. Therefore, if depth perception involves input from both eyes, it is considered a binocular cue. 151) The impression of depth can be created or enhanced in visual art by encouraging the person viewing a drawing to assume that converging lines are actually parallel. This artistic ploy uses the depth cue of _______. A) interposition B) elevation C) accommodation D) linear perspective Answer: D Rationale: Linear perspective is a monocular cue used in visual art to create an illusion of depth on a two-dimensional surface. By depicting parallel lines as converging toward a vanishing point, artists can suggest depth and distance in their drawings or paintings, tricking the viewer's brain into perceiving three-dimensional space. 152) A drawing of a gravel road depicts the tiny rocks as becoming smaller and less distinct as one looks “down the lane.” This simulation of depth on a two-dimensional sheet of paper is an example of the _______ cue. A) interposition B) texture gradient C) elevation D) shadowing Answer: B Rationale: Texture gradient is a monocular depth cue where the texture of surfaces appears to become less detailed or finer as distance from the observer increases. In the case of the gravel road drawing, the depiction of tiny rocks becoming smaller and less distinct as the lane recedes suggests depth and distance, utilizing the texture gradient cue. 153) Which of the following is an example of a monocular cue? A) far objects looking clear, and near ones looking blurry B) the trees in a forest converging in the distance C) the double image of a finger held in front of one eye D) the appearance of a small light making movements against a dark background Answer: B Rationale: Monocular cues are depth cues that can be perceived with one eye alone. The convergence of parallel lines, such as the trees in a forest appearing to converge in the distance, is an example of linear perspective, a monocular cue used to depict depth in two-dimensional artworks. 154) Railroad tracks converging in the distance best illustrate which monocular cue? A) texture gradient B) linear perspective C) texture gradient and linear perspective D) clearness and texture gradient Answer: B Rationale: Railroad tracks converging in the distance illustrate linear perspective, a monocular depth cue where parallel lines appear to converge toward a vanishing point in the distance. This convergence creates a sense of depth and distance perception, commonly depicted in artworks to convey spatial relationships. 155) The difference between the separate images each eye receives is known as __________. A) retinal disparity B) convergence C) binocular inversion D) stereoscopic vision Answer: A Rationale: Retinal disparity refers to the slight difference in the images projected onto each retina due to the eyes' separation. This difference in perspective between the two eyes provides binocular depth cues and is essential for stereoscopic vision, which allows for depth perception and depth discrimination. 156) Because the eyes are separated by several centimeters, each eye’s view of an object is different from the other’s. This is called _______ disparity. A) monocular B) ocular C) visual D) binocular Answer: D Rationale: Binocular disparity refers to the difference in the images each eye perceives due to their separation in space. This difference provides important depth information to the brain, contributing to the perception of depth and stereoscopic vision. 157) Which of the following produces binocular disparity? A) the eyes being a few centimeters apart B) right-eye dominance in most people C) astigmatism D) the slightly elliptical shape of the eye Answer: A Rationale: Binocular disparity results from the separation of the eyes in space, with each eye receiving a slightly different visual input. The eyes' distance apart from each other creates the disparity necessary for perceiving depth and distance accurately. 158) When we look at objects fairly close to us, our eyes tend to turn slightly inward toward each other. This process is called _______. A) retinal disparity B) convergence C) binocular inversion D) being cross-eyed Answer: B Rationale: Convergence is the inward turning of the eyes when focusing on nearby objects. This binocular cue helps align the visual axes of both eyes onto a single point of focus, providing depth information and contributing to stereoscopic vision. 159) When objects are 20 or 23 meters away, _______ does not occur. A) convergence B) stereoscopic vision C) motion parallax D) retinal disparity Answer: A Rationale: Convergence is the inward turning of the eyes when focusing on nearby objects. At distances of 20 to 23 meters, convergence becomes minimal because objects are perceived as being relatively far away. Therefore, convergence does not play a significant role in depth perception at such distances. 160) A person who is blind in one eye can use all of the visual cues except _______. A) aerial perspective B) convergence C) shadowing D) motion parallax Answer: B Rationale: Convergence, which involves the inward turning of both eyes to focus on nearby objects, requires input from both eyes. Therefore, a person who is blind in one eye cannot utilize convergence as a depth cue. However, monocular cues such as aerial perspective, shadowing, and motion parallax can still provide depth information with only one functional eye. 161) Which type of information helps with depth perception? A) revision B) dispartic C) binocular D) all of the above Answer: C Rationale: Binocular information, derived from the slightly different views provided by each eye, plays a crucial role in depth perception. This binocular information includes cues such as retinal disparity and binocular convergence, allowing the brain to perceive depth and spatial relationships accurately. 162) Since our eyes are a few centimeters apart, we get a slightly different view from each eye. This is known as: A) binocular disparity. B) visual reference. C) ocular disparity. D) kinetic revision. Answer: A Rationale: Binocular disparity refers to the slight difference in the images perceived by each eye due to their separation in space. This difference provides important depth information to the brain, contributing to depth perception and stereoscopic vision. 163) If a single line is projected onto the same parts of both retinas, the line will be seen clearly in a process called _______. A) redundance B) monocular cooperation C) binocular fusion D) binocular rivalry Answer: C Rationale: Binocular fusion refers to the process by which the brain combines the slightly different images received by each eye into a single, coherent perception. When a single line is projected onto corresponding parts of both retinas, binocular fusion occurs, resulting in the perception of a single clear line. 164) Muller-Lyer, Ponzo, and Zollner are all _________. A) proponents of the unconscious inference theory B) geometrical illusions C) researchers in the field of audiology D) towns in Italy where illusions were first studied Answer: B Rationale: Muller-Lyer, Ponzo, and Zollner are names associated with well-known geometrical illusions. These illusions involve misleading cues in stimuli that distort the perception of size, length, or shape, leading to perceptual errors. 165) An illusion due to misleading cues in stimuli that cause us to create perceptions that are inaccurate or impossible is called a(n) _______ illusion. A) perceptual B) induced C) physical D) stroboscopic Answer: A Rationale: A perceptual illusion occurs when the brain misinterprets sensory information, leading to perceptions that deviate from objective reality. These illusions are caused by misleading cues in stimuli and can result in the creation of inaccurate or impossible perceptions. Test Bank for Psychology and Life Richard J. Gerrig, Philip G. Zimbardo, Serge Desmarais, Tammy Ivanco 9780205037117, 9780205859139
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