## Preview Extract

Chapter 4 Data and the Nature of Measurement 4.1 Measurement 1) A variable is A) anything that varies a specific amount. B) any characteristic that can take more than one value. C) used only in well controlled experimental research. D) always manipulated by researchers. Answer: B Rationale: A variable, by definition, is any characteristic that can take more than one value. This definition encompasses a broad range of characteristics, making option B the correct choice. 2) The level of measurement of the dependent variable affects the A) statistical procedures. B) observational procedures. C) observational analysis. D) quasi-experimental observational procedures. Answer: A Rationale: The level of measurement of a variable affects the statistical procedures that can be applied to it. For instance, different statistical tests are used for nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio level variables. 3) To measure a variable means A) to control for external validity. B) to increase its reliability. C) assign numbers to it. D) match it with another variable. Answer: C Rationale: Measurement involves assigning numbers to variables to represent their characteristics or attributes. This numerical representation enables quantification and analysis of the variable. 4) The major task in measurement is to A) make sure variables are arranged in the proper order. B) make sure the proper measurement is taken. C) represent the research variables numerically. D) make sure all participants are counted. Answer: C Rationale: The primary task in measurement is to represent research variables numerically, allowing for quantitative analysis and comparison. 5) Psychologists are limited in the type of mathematical operations they can perform on the data chiefly because A) they do not have adequate training in mathematics. B) the characteristics of the variables may not match the characteristics of the real number system. C) computers are not yet sophisticated enough to do the necessary calculations. D) they often don't think it is necessary to assign numbers to the data since the data speak for themselves. Answer: B Rationale: Psychologists are limited in mathematical operations due to the characteristics of the variables, which may not always align with the properties of the real number system. 6) The concept of "equal intervals" implies that A) numbers have an inherent order from smaller to larger. B) each number has a particular meaning. C) the difference between units is the same anywhere on the scale. D) an IQ of 120 is twice as high as an IQ of 60. Answer: C Rationale: "Equal intervals" mean that the difference between any two consecutive points on the scale is the same. This ensures uniformity of measurement across the scale. 7) The fact that 600 is larger than 500 illustrates the mathematical property of A) magnitude. B) identity. C) equal intervals. D) magnanimity. Answer: A Rationale: The concept of magnitude refers to the property of numbers where one number can be greater or lesser than another. In this case, 600 being greater than 500 demonstrates magnitude. 8) The fact that the difference between 5 and 7 is the same as the difference between 52 and 54 illustrates the mathematical property of A) symmetry. B) equal intervals. C) magnitude. D) identity. Answer: B Rationale: This illustrates the property of equal intervals, where the difference between any two points on the scale is consistent. 9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the abstract number system? A) identity B) orderliness C) equal intervals D) a true zero Answer: B Rationale: Orderliness is not a characteristic of the abstract number system. While numbers do have an inherent order, it's not a defining characteristic of the system itself. 10) The four characteristics of the abstract number system are identity, magnitude, a true zero, and A) reversibility. B) transitivity. C) additivity. D) equal intervals. Answer: D Rationale: The abstract number system includes characteristics such as identity, magnitude, a true zero, and equal intervals, which are fundamental properties of numbers and their operations. 11) In which of the following examples is the number system most closely matched to the variables? A) preference rankings of Dr. Pepper, root beer, and ginger ale B) the range of scores on an IQ test C) the total number of outbursts of autistic children D) ratings of job satisfaction Answer: C Rationale: The total number of outbursts of autistic children is a discrete variable that can be quantified using whole numbers, making it most closely matched to the integer-based real number system. 12) Measurement of a variable is affected by A) the variable's characteristics and the binary number system. B) extraneous variables and the concrete number system. C) extraneous variables and the imaginary number system. D) the variable's characteristics and the abstract number system. Answer: D Rationale: The measurement of a variable is influenced by both its inherent characteristics and the chosen scale of measurement. The abstract number system refers to the mathematical properties associated with variables, making it a suitable choice for understanding how the variable is measured. 13) A dependent variable of the number of correct responses on a test would A) not match the real number system. B) partially match the real number system. C) not be applicable to the real number system. D) provide a good match to the real number system. Answer: D Rationale: The number of correct responses on a test typically aligns well with the real number system as it involves counting discrete units, making it applicable and closely matched to the real number system. 14) When a dependent variable, such as number of correct responses, provides a good match with the real number system, A) all of the mathematical operations can be performed on the data. B) only the operations of addition and subtraction can be performed on the data. C) only the positive operations of addition and multiplication can be performed on the data. D) the variable shows a magnitude in the opposite direction of the real number system. Answer: A Rationale: When a variable aligns well with the real number system, all mathematical operations, including addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division, can be performed on the data accurately and meaningfully. 15) When dependent variables are well matched with the real number system, A) more powerful statistical tests can be used to analyze the data. B) less powerful statistical tests must be used to analyze the data. C) statistical tests become meaningless. D) interpretation of the results becomes more difficult. Answer: A Rationale: Well-matched dependent variables allow for the application of more sophisticated statistical tests, as the data can be accurately and precisely manipulated within the framework of the real number system, leading to more powerful analyses. 16) In order to select the appropriate statistical test, it is critical that the researcher A) be able to identify the level of measurement of the dependent variable. B) be able to predict the results in advance. C) be familiar with the most sophisticated statistical packages. D) have all the data collected before deciding. Answer: A Rationale: Identifying the level of measurement of the dependent variable is crucial for selecting the appropriate statistical test because different types of data (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio) require different analytical approaches. 17) The Mars weather satellite discussed in this chapter A) succeeded. B) failed. C) has yet to be launched. D) is on its way to Mars. Answer: B Rationale: The question refers to a specific context where the Mars weather satellite discussed in the chapter failed, indicating a failure outcome. 18) The Mars Orbiter Satellite A) failed because of a mix-up of measurement. B) failed because of insufficient fuel. C) succeeded because of good measurement. D) succeeded in spite of poor measurement. Answer: A Rationale: The failure of the Mars Orbiter Satellite was attributed to a mix-up of measurement, indicating an error or miscalculation in the measurement process rather than other factors like fuel or the quality of measurement. 4.2 Scales of measurement 1) According to Stevens' (1946) classification, the four scales of measurement are A) general, interval, modal, and ratio. B) nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio. C) frequency, weight, volume, and ratio. D) frequency, pitch, tone, and amplitude. Answer: B Rationale: Stevens' classification identifies four scales of measurement: nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio, which are widely used in research and statistical analysis. 2) The scale of measurement that is called the naming scale is the A) nominal scale. B) ordinal scale. C) interval scale. D) ratio scale. Answer: A Rationale: The nominal scale is often referred to as the naming scale because it involves categorizing or naming variables without any inherent order or numerical value. 3) The differences between values or categories in nominal scales are A) quantitative. B) qualitative. C) at equal intervals. D) not equal, but are ordered. Answer: B Rationale: Nominal scales categorize data into distinct groups or labels without any inherent order or ranking. The differences between these categories are qualitative in nature, as they represent distinct attributes or characteristics without any quantitative value or meaning. 4) Nominal scales have which property (properties) of the real number system? A) identity B) magnitude C) equal intervals D) both A and B Answer: A Rationale: Nominal scales possess the property of identity, meaning that they identify and classify objects or individuals into distinct categories. However, they do not possess the property of magnitude, which is the property that allows numbers to be ordered or ranked. 5) The data produced by nominal scales are called A) grouped frequency data. B) score data. C) ordered data. D) categorical data. Answer: D Rationale: Data produced by nominal scales represent categories or labels and do not have inherent numerical values. Therefore, they are referred to as categorical data, as they classify observations into distinct groups. 6) A researcher measures the variable of living situation as follows: 1= urban; 2 = suburban; 3 = rural. This is an example of a(n) ________ scale. A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: A Rationale: In this example, the numbers assigned to each category merely serve as labels without implying any quantitative order or magnitude. Therefore, it represents a nominal scale where data is categorized without any inherent order. 7) What characteristics or mathematical properties would the variable "gender of the participant" possess? A) identity only B) identity and magnitude C) magnitude only D) identity, magnitude, equal interval, and a true zero Answer: A Rationale: Gender, as a nominal variable, possesses the mathematical property of identity, meaning it serves to identify and classify individuals into distinct categories (e.g., male or female). However, it does not possess magnitude, equal interval, or a true zero, as gender categories cannot be quantitatively ranked or measured. 8) The lowest level of measurement is represented by the ________ scale. A) interval B) ordinal C) ratio D) nominal Answer: D Rationale: Nominal scales represent the lowest level of measurement because they simply categorize data into distinct groups or labels without implying any order or magnitude among the categories. 9) The scale with the least matching to the number system is a ________ scale. A) frequency B) nominal C) interval D) modal Answer: B Rationale: Nominal scales have the least resemblance to the number system because they merely categorize data into distinct labels or groups without implying any quantitative order or magnitude among the categories. 10) Which of the following is NOT an example of an everyday use of a nominal scale? A) telephone numbers B) zip code C) the numbers on a football player's jersey D) the ranking of color preferences when ordering a shirt by mail Answer: D Rationale: Telephone numbers, zip codes, and football player jersey numbers are all examples of nominal scales because they categorize or label items without implying any quantitative order or magnitude. However, the ranking of color preferences implies a quantitative order, making it inconsistent with a nominal scale. 11) The differences between the different values on nominal scales are A) minimal. B) numerical. C) quantitative. D) qualitative. Answer: D Rationale: The differences between values on nominal scales are qualitative, as they represent distinctions or categories without any inherent numerical or quantitative value. 12) The only mathematical property that nominal scales have is the property of A) identity. B) equal intervals. C) magnitude. D) true zero. Answer: A Rationale: Nominal scales only possess the mathematical property of identity, as they serve to identify and classify objects or individuals into distinct categories or labels. They do not possess other properties such as equal intervals, magnitude, or a true zero. 13) Since nominal scales require classification or categorization, researchers can only: Answer: B) tally the frequency data. Rationale: Nominal scales involve categorizing data into distinct groups or categories. Researchers can only tally the frequency of occurrences within each category because nominal scales do not allow for mathematical operations such as multiplication, division, addition, or subtraction. 14) A researcher wishes to find out if there is any relationship between gender and types of crime committed, such as felonies, misdemeanors, and traffic violations. The researcher must take into account that these legal categories represent ________ variables. Answer: D) nominal Rationale: In this context, "gender" and "types of crime committed" are represented by categories such as male/female and felonies/misdemeanors/traffic violations, respectively. These categories are labels without any inherent numerical value, indicating that they are nominal variables. 15) Both nominal and ordinal scales have in common the mathematical property of: Answer: B) identity. Rationale: Both nominal and ordinal scales share the mathematical property of identity, which means that items are merely identified or classified into distinct categories without implying any quantitative relationship or specific order. 16) Ordinal scales have the mathematical properties of identity and: Answer: C) magnitude. Rationale: Ordinal scales not only possess the property of identity but also the property of magnitude, indicating that the categories have a meaningful order or rank. However, ordinal scales do not necessarily have equal intervals or a true zero point. 17) Measurements by ranked categories, such as class rankings or academic grades (A, B, C, D, F), provide examples of: Answer: D) an ordinal scale. Rationale: Class rankings and academic grades represent ordered categories or ranks, indicating the use of an ordinal scale where the data can be arranged in a meaningful order but the intervals between ranks are not necessarily equal. 18) Unlike nominal scales, ordinal scales give us information about: Answer: A) the relative order of magnitude. Rationale: Ordinal scales allow for the determination of the relative order or ranking of items, providing information about which items are higher or lower in the hierarchy. However, they do not provide information about the magnitude of differences between categories or ranks. 19) What kind of scale would be used to measure taste preferences or students' relative standing in class? Answer: B) ordinal Rationale: Taste preferences and students' relative standing in class involve assigning ranks or orders to categories without implying precise numerical differences between them, indicating the use of an ordinal scale. 20) What can we legitimately say about the relationship between the scores of two people on class ranking where person A is ranked fifth and person B is ranked fifteenth? Answer: A) Person A and person B are different on class rank. Rationale: The information provided indicates a difference in class ranking between person A and person B. However, it does not provide information about the specific magnitude of the difference or how many times higher/lower one ranking is compared to the other. 21) What scale of measurement has the properties of identity and magnitude? Answer: D) ordinal Rationale: Ordinal scales possess the properties of identity (items are identified or classified into categories) and magnitude (categories have a meaningful order or rank), making them suitable for assessing relative differences but not precise quantitative relationships. 22) Nominal scales are ________ scales. Answer: C) naming Rationale: Nominal scales are often referred to as naming or labeling scales because they involve categorizing data into distinct names or labels without implying any quantitative order or relationship between categories. They are essential for classifying data but do not allow for mathematical operations or precise ranking. 23) The differences between consecutive values in ordinal scales are A) qualitative only. B) at equal intervals. C) not at equal intervals, but ordered. D) at equal intervals and ordered. Answer: C Rationale: Ordinal scales establish an order or ranking among variables but do not imply equal intervals between them. While the values are ordered, the differences between them are not necessarily consistent or quantifiable. 24) Ordinal scales have which property (properties) of the real number system? A) magnitude B) equal intervals C) a true zero point D) Both A and B Answer: A Rationale: Ordinal scales possess the property of magnitude, as they allow for the arrangement of variables in a meaningful order or ranking. However, they do not exhibit equal intervals or a true zero point, which are characteristics of interval and ratio scales, respectively. 25) A researcher measures students' attitudes towards test-taking in the following way: 1-fun; 2-very fun; 3-extremely fun. This is an example of a(n) ________ scale of measurement. A) ordinal B) nominal C) interval D) ratio Answer: A Rationale: This is an example of an ordinal scale because it establishes an ordered ranking of attitudes towards test-taking without implying equal intervals between the categories. 26) Which of the following represents data arranged on an ordinal scale of measurement? A) ranking of color preferences in a human factors engineering study B) total number of calories consumed on a weight reduction program C) scores on an anxiety inventory D) diagnostic categories such as diabetes, hypertension, and colitis Answer: A Rationale: A ranking of color preferences represents an ordinal scale because it establishes an order or ranking among the preferences without implying equal intervals between them. 27) The order of finish in a race would be an example of A) a nominal scale. B) an ordinal scale. C) an interval scale. D) a ratio scale. Answer: B Rationale: The order of finish in a race represents an ordinal scale because it establishes a meaningful order or ranking of participants without implying equal intervals between their finish times. 28) The scale of measurement that produces ranks is a(n) A) nominal scale. B) ordinal scale. C) interval scale. D) ratio scale. Answer: B Rationale: An ordinal scale produces ranks or an ordered sequence of variables without necessarily implying equal intervals between them. 29) The data produced by ordinal scales are called ________ data. A) nominal B) score C) categorical D) ordered Answer: D Rationale: Data produced by ordinal scales are referred to as ordered data because they establish an order or ranking among variables. 30) The differences between consecutive values in interval scales are A) qualitative only. B) not at equal intervals, but ordered. C) at equal intervals. D) reflective of a true zero point. Answer: C Rationale: Interval scales exhibit equal intervals between consecutive values, allowing for meaningful quantitative comparisons between them. However, they do not possess a true zero point. 31) Which of the following is NOT a property of interval scales? A) identity B) magnitude C) a true zero point D) None of the above Answer: C Rationale: Interval scales lack a true zero point, unlike ratio scales. They do possess properties of identity and magnitude, allowing for meaningful comparisons and arithmetic operations between values. 32) Of the following scales, which is the only one to have all of the mathematical properties of the others? A) ratio scale B) nominal scale C) ordinal scale D) interval scale Answer: A Rationale: Ratio scales are the only scales to possess all the mathematical properties of the others, including identity, magnitude, equal intervals, and a true zero point. They allow for meaningful arithmetic operations and comparisons. 33) Both ordinal and interval scales have in common the mathematical properties of: A) identity and equal intervals. B) identity and a true zero. C) identity and magnitude. D) magnitude and equal intervals. Answer: C Rationale: Both ordinal and interval scales share the property of identity, meaning that each value in the scale represents a unique category or point on the scale. Additionally, they both possess the property of magnitude, indicating that the values can be ordered or ranked. However, interval scales do not have a true zero point, which is a property of ratio scales. 34) What type of data will be produced if the variable measured is "golf ability"? A) ordered data B) nominal data C) score data D) It would depend on how the variable is operationally defined. Answer: D Rationale: The type of data produced depends on how "golf ability" is operationally defined. It could be ordinal if categorized into skill levels, nominal if simply classifying players, or score data if measured quantitatively. 35) Think about the properties of the different scales of measurement. Which scale do you think researchers would try to use most? A) ordinal B) nominal C) ratio D) interval Answer: C Rationale: Ratio scales offer the most flexibility and precision in measurement as they possess all the properties of identity, magnitude, equal intervals, and a true zero point. Therefore, researchers would likely prefer to use ratio scales whenever possible. 36) The data produced by interval scales are called: A) interval data. B) ordered data. C) categorical data. D) score data. Answer: D Rationale: Interval scales produce score data because they measure the magnitude of differences between values, but they lack a true zero point. 37) SAT scores are an example of which type of scale of measurement? A) interval B) ratio C) nominal D) ordinal Answer: A Rationale: SAT scores are measured on an interval scale because they have equal intervals between scores, but the scale does not have a true zero point. 38) Which mathematical operations can be performed on data from interval scales with meaningful results? A) multiplication and division B) addition and subtraction C) rank ordering D) Both B and C Answer: D Rationale: Addition and subtraction can be performed on interval scale data because the intervals between values are consistent. Rank ordering is also possible as the values can be ordered, but multiplication and division are not meaningful because there is no true zero. 39) Which scale of measurement provides the best match with the real number system? A) ordinal B) nominal C) ratio D) interval Answer: C Rationale: Ratio scales best match the real number system as they possess all the properties of identity, magnitude, equal intervals, and a true zero point. 40) Which property (properties) of the real number system do ratio scales NOT have? A) magnitude B) a true zero point C) equal intervals D) None of the above Answer: D Rationale: Ratio scales possess all the properties of the real number system, including magnitude, a true zero point, and equal intervals. 41) Which of the following represents data measured on an interval scale? A) ranking of contestants in an essay contest B) scores on an inventory of attitudes toward the head-injured C) categorizing participants according to their sexual preference D) reaction time of air traffic controllers on a signal detection task Answer: B Rationale: Scores on an inventory of attitudes toward the head-injured represent data measured on an interval scale because they have equal intervals between scores, but there is no true zero point. 42) A standard IQ test is constructed on a(n) ________ scale. A) interval B) ratio C) nominal D) ordinal Answer: A Rationale: A standard IQ test is constructed on an interval scale because it measures intelligence with equal intervals between scores, but lacks a true zero point. 43) The best match to the real number system is provided by A) interval scales. B) nominal scales. C) ratio scales. D) ordinal scales. Answer: C Rationale: Ratio scales provide the most comprehensive level of measurement, including a true zero point and equal intervals between units. This aligns closely with the properties of the real number system. 44) The highest level of measurement is represented by the ________ scale. A) interval B) ordinal C) ratio D) nominal Answer: C Rationale: The highest level of measurement is represented by the ratio scale, which possesses a true zero point and equal intervals between units, allowing for the most precise mathematical operations. 45) Which type of measurement scale is the only one to have a true zero point? A) nominal scale B) ratio scale C) ordinal scale D) interval scale Answer: B Rationale: The ratio scale is the only type of measurement scale to have a true zero point, making it the most precise scale for mathematical operations such as multiplication and division. 46) The data produced by ratio scales are called ________ data. A) ratio B) nominal C) ordered D) score Answer: D Rationale: Data produced by ratio scales are referred to as "score" data. This type of data includes a true zero point and equal intervals, allowing for precise numerical comparisons. 47) Which of the following mathematical operations can be carried out with data from ratio scales? A) multiplication and division B) addition and subtraction C) rank ordering D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: Data from ratio scales permit all mathematical operations, including multiplication, division, addition, and subtraction, due to the presence of a true zero point and equal intervals. 48) A researcher wants to measure the number of stressful behaviors students display before a test. Which type of scale of measurement would be most appropriate? A) nominal B) ordinal C) ratio D) interval Answer: C Rationale: To measure the number of stressful behaviors with precision and to conduct mathematical operations such as counting and averaging, a ratio scale, which includes a true zero point, is most appropriate. 49) Having a scale with a true zero point and equal intervals allows what kind of mathematical operation? A) dividing one value by another to yield a legitimate and meaningful value B) addition C) subtraction D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: A scale with a true zero point and equal intervals allows all mathematical operations— division, multiplication, addition, and subtraction—to be carried out with legitimacy and meaning. 50) All of the possible mathematical operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division) can be carried out on data from what type of scale? A) nominal B) interval C) ratio D) ordinal Answer: C Rationale: Data from ratio scales permit all possible mathematical operations—addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division—due to the presence of a true zero point and equal intervals between units. 51) When using an interval scale, which types of mathematical operations are appropriate? A) all mathematical operations B) addition and subtraction C) division and multiplication D) addition and multiplication Answer: B Rationale: Interval scales allow addition and subtraction operations due to the equal intervals between units, but they do not possess a true zero point, limiting the applicability of multiplication and division. 52) In order to determine that a person who walks 50 units of distance is walking twice as far as someone who walks 25 units of distance, what type of measurement scale must be employed? A) nominal B) interval C) ordinal D) ratio Answer: D Rationale: To compare distances in a meaningful way and perform operations like multiplication, a ratio scale, which includes a true zero point and equal intervals, must be employed. 53) Score data can be based on which two of the following scales of measurement? A) interval and ordinal B) ordinal and ratio C) ordinal and nominal D) interval and ratio Answer: D Rationale: Score data typically involves numerical values where the differences between values are meaningful, as seen in interval and ratio scales of measurement. Interval scales have equal intervals between points, while ratio scales additionally feature a true zero point. 54) The category called "score data" is comprised of data from A) nominal scales. B) interval and ratio scales. C) ordinal scales. D) nominal and interval scales. Answer: B Rationale: Score data, by definition, involves measurements that have meaningful numerical values where the differences between values are significant. This applies to data from interval and ratio scales, where the numerical values represent quantitative differences. 55) The differences between consecutive values in ratio scales are A) qualitative only. B) not equal, but ordered. C) at equal intervals. D) reflective of a true zero point. Answer: C Rationale: Ratio scales exhibit differences between consecutive values that are at equal intervals. This means that the numerical distance between any two points on the scale is consistent and meaningful. 56) If the capacity of short-term memory is operationally defined as the number of single digits that can be remembered by a participant, the type of data produced will be A) ordered data. B) nominal data. C) score data. D) none of the above Answer: C Rationale: Operationalizing short-term memory capacity in terms of the number of digits recalled produces score data because it involves numerical values representing the quantitative measure of memory capacity. 57) Which of the following operational definitions of variables would have the properties of identity, magnitude, equal intervals, and a true zero? A) IQ as measured by a standard IQ test B) driving speed measured in miles per hour C) political affiliation (classified as Democrat, Republican, or other) D) a person's body temperature measured on a Celsius scale Answer: B Rationale: Driving speed measured in miles per hour exhibits identity (each value represents a unique speed), magnitude (speed can be compared quantitatively), equal intervals (the difference between each unit is consistent), and a true zero point (0 mph represents the absence of speed). 58) All mathematical operations are possible with what level of measurement? A) ratio B) interval C) ordinal D) nominal Answer: A Rationale: Ratio level of measurement allows for all mathematical operations because it possesses a true zero point and equal intervals between values, enabling meaningful arithmetic operations. 4.3 Measuring and Manipulating Variables 1) Measurement error A) will distort the scores. B) can affect both the reliability and the validity of the measures. C) may be the result of a social-desirability response set. D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: Measurement error can distort scores, affect reliability and validity, and be influenced by factors such as social desirability bias. 2) Measurement error can be responsible for all of the following EXCEPT A) distorting the participant's scores. B) attenuating the observed strength of a relationship between variables. C) giving the impression that two variables are unrelated when they are indeed related. D) incorrectly assigning variables to the wrong scale of measurement. Answer: D Rationale: Measurement error can distort scores, weaken observed relationships between variables, and mask true associations but does not involve incorrectly assigning variables to the wrong scale of measurement, which would be a different type of error. 3) One group of students takes the SATs in a quiet room, while another group takes the SATs in a loud, hot room. It is NOT possible to compare scores of the two groups due to A) the type of measurement scale. B) systematic measurement error. C) the type of test the SATs exemplify. D) comparison error. Answer: B Rationale: Systematic measurement error introduced by differences in testing conditions (e.g., noise, temperature) can confound score comparisons between groups, making it difficult to attribute differences solely to differences in ability or performance. 4) Assume that scores on an independent variable are distorted so that they no longer accurately reflect reality. This is called A) reality error. B) distortion error. C) measurement error. D) All of the above. Answer: C Rationale: When scores on a variable are inaccurately represented, it's referred to as measurement error, which can distort the interpretation of results and affect the reliability and validity of the data. 5) A researcher measures some participants on a measure that required concentration in a loud and distracting environment and others in a quiet environment. The researcher does not find the predicted relationship between performance on this measure and IQ. If you assume that such a relationship exists in reality, the failure to find it in this study may be due to A) measurement error. B) reality error. C) comparison error. D) scale of measurement error. Answer: A Rationale: Measurement error refers to inaccuracies or inconsistencies in the measurement process. In this scenario, the failure to find the predicted relationship between performance and IQ could be attributed to errors in how the measure of concentration was assessed in the loud and distracting environment compared to the quiet environment. This could include issues such as imprecise measurement tools, variability in environmental conditions, or errors in data collection procedures. 6) A source of measurement error is A) response-set definitional biases. B) response-set biases. C) operational definition biases. D) social undesirability. Answer: B Rationale: Response-set biases occur when respondents answer questions in a way that is influenced by factors such as the order of questions, the format of the questions, or their desire to provide socially acceptable responses. These biases can introduce errors into the data by skewing responses away from accurate representations of the participants' true attitudes or behaviors. 7) What is the best way to reduce measurement error? A) Develop and apply a good operational definition. B) Use a ratio scale of measurement. C) Keep the number of participants equal in all groups. D) Conduct research at the experimental level. Answer: A Rationale: Developing and applying a clear operational definition helps to ensure that the concepts being measured are clearly defined and consistently applied across participants and conditions. This reduces ambiguity and minimizes the potential for measurement error by providing a standardized framework for data collection and interpretation. 8) A researcher studies stealing in college students. Research assistants do face-to-face interviews with participants. This study would appear susceptible to what source of measurement error? A) operational definition biases B) scale attenuation effects C) social desirability D) It would not appear to be susceptible to any source of measurement error. Answer: C Rationale: Social desirability bias is likely to be a significant source of measurement error in this study. Participants may be inclined to underreport instances of stealing or provide socially acceptable responses during face-to-face interviews, leading to inaccuracies in the data collected. 9) The best ways to minimize measurement error are developing a well thought out ________ and diligently using it in research. A) operational definition of the measurement procedure B) practical definition of the measurement procedure C) statistical measure D) operational definition of the statistical procedure Answer: A Rationale: Developing a clear operational definition of the measurement procedure ensures that the concepts being studied are defined precisely and consistently. Diligently applying this operational definition in research helps to minimize ambiguity and variability in data collection, thereby reducing the potential for measurement error. 10) One of the most common and powerful response-set biases is A) random responding. B) social desirability. C) social justice. D) prejudice. Answer: B Rationale: Social desirability bias occurs when respondents provide answers that they perceive as socially acceptable or favorable, rather than responding truthfully. This bias can significantly impact the validity of research findings by skewing responses away from accurate representations of participants' true attitudes or behaviors. 11) Response-set biases are important sources of A) racial prejudice. B) mathematical errors. C) measurement error. D) attitudinal rigidity. Answer: C Rationale: Response-set biases can introduce errors into research data by influencing how participants respond to questions, leading to inaccuracies in the measurement of variables of interest. These biases can impact the validity and reliability of study findings by distorting the true relationship between variables. 12) The best way of minimizing measurement error is to A) develop and use an excellent operational definition of the measurement procedures. B) check the data at least twice before entering it. C) be sure to employ the appropriate statistical test. D) give participants enough time to complete the research tasks. Answer: A Rationale: Developing and using an excellent operational definition of the measurement procedures helps to ensure that concepts are clearly defined and consistently applied in data collection. This minimizes ambiguity and variability, reducing the potential for measurement error to occur. 13) In a questionnaire designed to investigate the social phenomenon of gossip, a respondent who answered that he or she never gossiped would most likely be engaging in the responseset bias of A) social desirability. B) measurement error. C) memory loss. D) repression. Answer: A Rationale: The respondent answering that they never gossip is likely influenced by social desirability bias, as they may provide answers that align with societal expectations rather than reflecting their true behavior. This bias can lead to inaccuracies in the data collected about the prevalence of gossip. 14) One of the best ways to minimize measurement error is to A) develop well thought-out operational definitions. B) use several measures. C) use several raters. D) choose the appropriate research question. Answer: A Rationale: Developing well thought-out operational definitions helps to ensure that concepts are precisely and consistently defined in research. This minimizes ambiguity and variability in data collection, reducing the potential for measurement error to occur and enhancing the validity and reliability of study findings. 15) Carefully defined operational definitions will assure that the measure is A) both valid and reliable. B) valid, but not necessarily reliable. C) reliable, but not necessarily valid. D) None of the above Answer: D Rationale: Operational definitions alone do not guarantee validity or reliability. While they are crucial for ensuring clarity and consistency in measurement, validity and reliability are additional properties that need to be separately assessed through empirical testing. 16) An operational definition is a definition of the A) operating principles. B) procedures used to operate any instruments. C) statistical operations to be used in analyzing the data. D) procedures used to measure or manipulate a variable. Answer: D Rationale: An operational definition specifies how a variable will be measured or manipulated in a study, providing clear guidelines for researchers to follow in their procedures. 17) When research assistants went to measure participants' height, they found the units of measurement (inches or centimeters) had not been specified by the researcher. This is an example of A) measurement error. B) measurement confusion. C) an incomplete operational definition. D) an incomplete practical definition. Answer: C Rationale: An operational definition should include all necessary details for measurement, including the units of measurement, to ensure consistency and accuracy. 18) An operational definition of a variable A) defines the variable in lay terms and is understandable to everyone. B) defines how the variable will be measured or manipulated. C) has nothing to do with the activities of the researcher, since the researcher should be blind. D) is the same as the dictionary definition. Answer: B Rationale: An operational definition specifically outlines how a variable will be measured or manipulated within the context of a particular study, focusing on the procedures involved. 19) As mentioned in the text, one purpose of having a good operational definition is to make A) replication of research possible. B) research more interesting and popular. C) research acceptable. D) research more popular. Answer: A Rationale: A clear operational definition facilitates replication by providing explicit instructions on how to measure or manipulate variables, ensuring consistency across different studies. 20) In the example in the book on the study of autistic children, the independent variable was A) disruptive behavior. B) relaxation. C) violent behavior. D) autistic behavior. Answer: B Rationale: In the example of relaxation training for autistic children, relaxation is the independent variable because it is the variable being manipulated by the researcher to observe its effects on the participants. 21) Replication of research is made possible chiefly by A) research grants. B) the researcher's fervor. C) good operational definitions of the variables. D) sophisticated statistical procedures. Answer: C Rationale: Good operational definitions ensure that researchers can precisely replicate the procedures of a study, thereby enhancing the reliability and validity of the research findings. 22) In the example mentioned in the text of relaxation training for autistic children, the operational definition for the independent variable was A) the children's scores on an autism inventory. B) the set of explicit relaxation procedures followed by the researcher. C) the measurement of parameters of relaxation. D) the level of disruptive behavior prior to the manipulation. Answer: B Rationale: The operational definition of the independent variable in the example involves specifying the exact procedures of relaxation training implemented by the researcher. 23) A good operational definition of a research variable A) specifies the type of statistical analysis to be employed. B) defines a variable on a consensual basis. C) defines the procedure so precisely that another researcher could easily perform the same procedure by following the description. D) defines the variable in terms of its frequency, duration, and intensity. Answer: C Rationale: A good operational definition provides clear and detailed instructions on how to measure or manipulate a variable, allowing other researchers to replicate the procedures accurately. 24) Which of the following would be a good operational definition for the manipulated independent variable of "level of anxiety"? A) a person's score on a well validated measure of anxiety B) a person's self-report of how anxious he or she was in a given situation C) the characteristics of the situation each person was placed in as part of the study (e.g., a performance task in which the researcher has rigged the task so that some participants almost always succeed and others almost always fail, regardless of their actual performance) D) the performance of participants on the task described in (C) above Answer: C Rationale: Option C provides a good operational definition by specifying the exact conditions under which anxiety is manipulated, allowing for consistent replication of the study's procedures. 25) Which of the following are not part of operational definitions? A) instructions to participants B) statistical analyses C) questionnaires used to measure the variable D) units of measurement Answer: B Rationale: Operational definitions refer to the specific procedures or operations used to measure or manipulate a variable. Instructions to participants (A), questionnaires (C), and units of measurement (D) are all integral parts of operational definitions because they help define how the variable is measured or manipulated. Statistical analyses (B), however, are not part of operational definitions; they involve the interpretation and manipulation of data obtained from operational definitions but are not themselves part of the definition of the variable. 26) Feelings such as sadness, stress, and fear can be studied by A) operationally defining a set of procedures for manipulating those feelings. B) practically defining a set of procedures for manipulating those feelings. C) operationally defining a set of procedures for directly observing those feelings. D) They cannot be studied effectively. Answer: A Rationale: Operationally defining procedures for manipulating feelings allows researchers to study them effectively. By specifying procedures for inducing or eliciting these feelings, researchers can observe their effects on behavior or physiological responses, providing insights into the nature of emotions. 27) Operational definitions must be A) very specific and detailed. B) conceptual and not cluttered with detail. C) easy to use and not require external equipment. D) very scientific and factual. Answer: A Rationale: Operational definitions need to be specific and detailed to ensure consistency and clarity in how variables are measured or manipulated. This specificity helps other researchers replicate the study and ensures that the operationalization accurately reflects the intended construct. 28) Which of the following variables would be most difficult to operationally define? A) anxiety B) intelligence C) theory D) athletic ability Answer: C Rationale: Theory (C) would be the most difficult to operationally define because it is an abstract concept that encompasses multiple variables and relationships. Anxiety (A), intelligence (B), and athletic ability (D) can be operationally defined with specific measures or tasks, but theory requires a more complex and multifaceted definition. 29) Developing an operational definition involves combining A) past research and statistical output. B) statistical output and arbitrary decisions. C) information from past research and procedural output. D) information from past research and arbitrary decisions. Answer: D Rationale: Developing an operational definition typically involves synthesizing information from past research with the researcher's judgments and decisions. While past research provides insights into how variables have been conceptualized and measured, researchers often need to make subjective decisions about how best to operationalize a variable in their specific study context. 30) Developing a good operational definition depends on A) making arbitrary decisions about how best to measure a variable. B) a combination of a knowledge of past research and making some arbitrary decisions. C) a knowledge of past research wisdom. D) sheer luck in picking the right definition. Answer: B Rationale: Developing a good operational definition requires a combination of understanding past research findings and making informed decisions about how to measure or manipulate variables in a specific study context. While some decisions may involve subjectivity, they should be informed by relevant research and theoretical considerations rather than being entirely arbitrary. 31) Operational definitions should take into account A) theory. B) past research. C) the demands of the study. D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: Operational definitions should consider theoretical frameworks, findings from past research, and the specific requirements or constraints of the study. By incorporating these factors, researchers can ensure that their operationalizations are conceptually meaningful, empirically supported, and relevant to the research questions being addressed. 4.4 Evaluating Measures 1) In order to carry out independent ratings, A) raters must be blind to the participants' behavior. B) the measures must be at the ratio scale of measurement. C) raters must be blind to the ratings of other raters. D) the study must be at the experimental level of constraint. Answer: C Rationale: Independent ratings require raters to be blind to the ratings provided by other raters to prevent bias or influence from their judgments. This ensures that each rater's assessment is based solely on their own observations or criteria rather than being influenced by the judgments of others. 2) The reproducibility of a measure is referred to as A) the reliability of the measure. B) the validity of the measure. C) the veracity of the measure. D) the verisimilitude of the measure. Answer: A Rationale: The reproducibility of a measure refers to its reliability, which reflects the consistency or stability of the measurements obtained using that measure. Reliability is essential for ensuring that the results of a study can be replicated or trusted across different settings or occasions. 3) The type of reliability that involves two observers is A) test-retest. B) internal consistency. C) interrater. D) internal raters. Answer: C Rationale: Interrater reliability assesses the consistency of ratings or judgments made by different observers or raters. It measures the extent to which different observers agree when assessing the same behavior, characteristic, or phenomenon. 4) When two independent raters make ratings that agree with one another, the measure used is said to demonstrate A) test-retest reliability. B) interrater reliability. C) split-half reliability. D) internal consistency reliability. Answer: B Rationale: Interrater reliability refers to the consistency of ratings or judgments made by different individuals. When two or more raters agree on their assessments, it indicates that the measure is reliable across different observers, suggesting that the measure is consistent and dependable. 5) Reliability of a measure refers to A) whether it is an accurate reflection of the characteristic in the participants. B) the reproducibility factor. C) the reproducibility of an accurate reflection of the characteristic. D) whether researchers can depend on it. Answer: B Rationale: Reliability refers to the consistency or repeatability of measurements. It indicates the extent to which the same results can be obtained if the measurement is repeated under identical conditions. Therefore, it relates to the reproducibility or consistency of measurements. 6) A researcher is concerned about whether his eye color measurement device will be consistent in its measure of eye color. The researcher is concerned about A) validity. B) reliability. C) internal consistency. D) scale attenuation effects and validity. Answer: B Rationale: The researcher's concern about the consistency of the eye color measurement device indicates a focus on reliability. Reliability pertains to the consistency or stability of measurements over time and across different conditions. 7) In a study of the credibility of eyewitness testimony, at least two independent raters view videotapes and make ratings. What is the purpose of comparing these ratings? A) to increase the internal validity B) to aid in making operational definitions C) to establish test-retest reliability D) to establish interrater reliability Answer: D Rationale: Comparing the ratings made by independent raters helps establish interrater reliability, which assesses the consistency or agreement among different raters. This is crucial for ensuring the credibility and consistency of the ratings made in the study. 8) Which of the following is NOT a type of reliability? A) test-retest B) interrater C) internal consistency D) effective range Answer: D Rationale: Effective range refers to the range of values within which a measurement device can provide accurate and reliable results. It is not a type of reliability; rather, it pertains to the limitations of the measurement instrument. 9) Reliability is usually quantified by using A) test-retest coefficients. B) correlation coefficients. C) standard deviations. D) reliability deviations. Answer: B Rationale: Reliability is commonly quantified using correlation coefficients, which measure the degree of association or relationship between repeated measurements. Higher correlation coefficients indicate greater reliability. 10) All of the following contribute to reliability EXCEPT A) the precision and clarity of the operational definition. B) the number of independent observations on which the score is based. C) the validity of the measure. D) the precision with which the procedures outlined in the operational definition are followed. Answer: C Rationale: While validity is essential for ensuring that a measure accurately assesses the construct of interest, it is not directly related to reliability. Reliability focuses on the consistency or stability of measurements, whereas validity concerns the accuracy of the measure in assessing the intended construct. 11) Which of the following could seriously affect research results? A) scale attenuation effects B) effective range of a scale C) reliability D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: All the options listed (scale attenuation effects, effective range of a scale, and reliability) could seriously affect research results by introducing biases, limitations, or inaccuracies in measurement, thereby impacting the validity and reliability of the findings. 12) Factors contributing to reliability include all of the following EXCEPT A) the precision and clarity of the operational definition of the construct. B) the care and precision with which we carry out the measures and follow procedures of the operational definition. C) the attention we pay to making sure we have a large number of participants. D) the number of independent observations on which to base the score. Answer: C Rationale: While having a large number of participants can enhance the statistical power of a study and improve generalizability, it is not directly related to reliability. Reliability focuses on the consistency and stability of measurements, which are influenced by factors such as the precision of measurement procedures and the clarity of operational definitions. 13) The procedure used most often to quantify degrees of validity and reliability is A) a chi-square test. B) an analysis of variance (ANOVA). C) a correlation coefficient. D) the multivariate analysis coefficient. Answer: C Rationale: Correlation coefficients are commonly used to quantify the degree of association between variables, including the relationship between repeated measurements for assessing reliability and the relationship between a measure and a criterion for assessing validity. Correlation coefficients provide a numerical index of the strength and direction of these relationships, making them widely used for quantifying validity and reliability. 14) Which of the following errors will reduce the validity of a measure of the weight of a person without reducing the reliability of the measure? A) The scale is not properly adjusted so that it always gives a reading that is six pounds too low. B) Participants are weighed wearing whatever clothes they happen to be wearing when they walk into the laboratory. C) Two different scales, each properly calibrated to give accurate readings, are used. D) All of the above Answer: A Rationale: Option A describes a systematic error in measurement where the scale consistently underestimates weight. While this error affects the validity of the measure (since it's not measuring what it's supposed to), it doesn't necessarily affect the reliability because it consistently produces the same result each time (even though it's consistently incorrect). 15) The type of reliability based on comparing two measurements of the variable at different times is A) interrater. B) inter-measurement. C) test-retest. D) internal consistency. Answer: C Rationale: Test-retest reliability involves administering the same test to the same group of individuals at two different points in time to assess the consistency of the scores over time. It specifically focuses on the reliability of the measurement instrument across time. 16) Which type of reliability would provide an index of the stability of a variable? A) interrater reliability B) test-retest reliability C) inter-subject stability D) internal consistency reliability Answer: B Rationale: Test-retest reliability assesses the consistency or stability of measurements over time by comparing scores obtained from the same individuals at two different points in time. Therefore, it provides an index of the stability of a variable. 17) If a measure remains consistent over time, the measure is said to demonstrate A) time validity. B) internal consistency reliability. C) test-retest reliability. D) interrater reliability. Answer: C Rationale: Test-retest reliability assesses the consistency of measurements over time, indicating that the measure remains consistent across different time points, thus demonstrating test-retest reliability. 18) Internal consistency reliability is high when A) each of the items or observations correlate with each other. B) each of the items or observations do not correlate with each other. C) measurements at different times correlate with each other. D) measurements at different times do not correlate with each other. Answer: A Rationale: Internal consistency reliability measures the extent to which different items within a single measure are correlated with each other. High internal consistency reliability indicates that the items are measuring the same underlying construct, as they correlate with each other. 19) Internal consistency reliability will generally be higher when A) fewer observations make up an individual score. B) more observations make up an individual score. C) one observation makes up an individual score. D) None of the above Answer: B Rationale: Internal consistency reliability tends to be higher when there are more observations (items) making up an individual score. This is because having more items increases the likelihood that they are all measuring the same underlying construct, thus resulting in higher internal consistency reliability. 20) A researcher wants to develop a measure of test anxiety with high internal consistency reliability. It would be best for her to have the measure consist of A) one item. B) ten items. C) twenty items. D) Item number is not important to internal consistency reliability. Answer: C Rationale: Internal consistency reliability is enhanced by including more items in a measure, as long as all items are measuring the same construct. Therefore, having the measure consist of twenty items would likely result in higher internal consistency reliability compared to fewer items. 21) Which of the following would be expected to have the highest internal consistency reliability? A) a 100-item comprehensive final B) a 100-item test covering several chapters C) a 100-item quiz covering one topic D) an essay test comprised of two essays Answer: C Rationale: Internal consistency reliability is typically higher when items within a measure are more homogeneous and focused on a single topic. Therefore, the 100-item quiz covering one topic would be expected to have the highest internal consistency reliability among the options provided. 22) In the development of a new measure of job satisfaction, the researchers give the measures twice to the same participants at 6-month intervals in order to establish A) test-retest reliability. B) interrater reliability. C) a correlation coefficient. D) social desirability. Answer: A Rationale: Test-retest reliability involves administering the same measure to the same group of individuals at two different points in time to assess the stability of scores over time. Therefore, giving the measure twice to the same participants at 6-month intervals aims to establish test-retest reliability. 23) Which of the following operational definitions of a variable would suffer from an effective range problem? A) a standard IQ test administered to high school seniors in a study of the relationship of intelligence to dating patterns B) a very difficult mathematics reasoning test given to a group of college mathematics majors in a study to determine the effects of high anxiety on test performance C) a standard bathroom scale to measure the weight of chickens in a study to determine how chicken size affects pecking order D) a wristwatch with a second hand to measure the time it takes students to solve 10 anagram problems in a study of the effects of noise on problem-solving speed Answer: C Rationale: The operational definition using a standard bathroom scale for measuring the weight of chickens suffers from an effective range problem because the scale is not appropriate for measuring the weight of chickens, which can vary significantly. This restricted range can lead to inaccurate or imprecise measurements, affecting the validity of the study's findings. 24) The effective range of a measure helps in determining a measure's A) length. B) cost. C) test-retest reliability. D) appropriateness for a particular group of participants. Answer: D Rationale: The effective range of a measure refers to the range of scores over which the measure is valid and sensitive. This directly relates to its appropriateness for a particular group of participants. If a measure's effective range does not cover the range of scores expected within a specific group, it may not be suitable for assessing them accurately. 25) Scale attenuation effects result from A) the range of a scale being too wide. B) participant scores bunching at the top end of a scale. C) participant scores bunching at the low end of a scale. D) the restricted range of a scale. Answer: D Rationale: Scale attenuation effects occur when the range of scores on a scale is restricted, which reduces the variability of scores. This can lead to an underestimation of relationships between variables and may limit the scale's effectiveness in capturing nuances within the data. 26) Suppose everyone taking this test received 100%. This would exemplify A) a minor miracle at least. B) a reliable test. C) scale attenuation effects. D) a floor effect. Answer: C Rationale: If everyone scores the maximum value on a test, it suggests that the scale used may have a limited range, resulting in scale attenuation effects. This means the scale is not sensitive enough to differentiate between individuals, which is indicative of a measurement problem rather than a successful outcome. 27) Internal consistency reliability is used when scores for participants are based on A) several observations made by several observers. B) several observations. C) different measures over several times by several observers. D) one score only. Answer: B Rationale: Internal consistency reliability measures the extent to which items on a test are correlated with one another. It is used when participants provide multiple responses (observations) on the same measure, indicating consistency within the test itself rather than across different measures or observers. 28) The use of a measurement scale with a restricted range can result in A) statistical squeeze. B) truncated statistical measures. C) enhanced reliability. D) scale attenuation effects. Answer: D Rationale: A measurement scale with a restricted range can lead to scale attenuation effects, where the variability in scores is limited. This can distort statistical analyses and reduce the scale's ability to accurately capture differences or relationships between variables. 29) Scale attenuation effects are a problem that A) cannot generally be reduced in experimental research. B) occurs only when the dependent variable is a measure of a physical property. C) is related to the effective range of a measure. D) can be solved by increasing sample size. Answer: C Rationale: Scale attenuation effects occur when the range of scores on a measure is limited, impacting the sensitivity and validity of the measurement. Increasing sample size does not address this issue; rather, it's crucial to consider the effective range of the measure to mitigate scale attenuation effects. 30) Internal consistency reliability refers to A) the participant's private versus public attitudes. B) a type of interrater reliability. C) the comparison of one test version with another. D) the extent to which multiple observations that form a single test score are intercorrelated. Answer: D Rationale: Internal consistency reliability assesses the degree of correlation among items within a single test or measure. It evaluates how consistently different items measure the same construct, indicating the reliability of the test as a whole in measuring the intended trait or characteristic. 31) In general, the more observations made to obtain a person's score, A) the greater the reliability of that score. B) the more attenuated the score's reliability. C) the more attenuated the validity of that score. D) the greater the construct validity of that score. Answer: A Rationale: The more observations made to obtain a person's score, the greater the reliability because multiple observations tend to average out random errors, leading to a more stable and consistent measurement of the construct being assessed. 32) To enhance reliability in measuring a behavioral construct, A) it is better to have fewer observations of behavior. B) it is better to have several observations of behavior. C) it makes no difference how many observations are made. D) it makes no difference how precise the operational definition is. Answer: B Rationale: Having several observations of behavior enhances reliability by providing a more comprehensive and representative sample of the behavior being measured. This helps to reduce random variability and increases the consistency of the measurement. 33) Scale attenuation effects A) increase the range of scores. B) do not affect the range of scores. C) improve the validity of scores. D) restrict the range of possible scores. Answer: D Rationale: Scale attenuation effects refer to situations where the range of possible scores on a measure is limited or restricted due to various factors such as item difficulty or response biases. This limitation restricts the variability in scores, thereby reducing the range of possible scores. 34) In designing a questionnaire to measure attitudes toward education of recently arrived immigrants, an important measurement issue to take into account is A) interrater reliability. B) the effective range of the scale. C) the placebo effect. D) the religion of the immigrants. Answer: B Rationale: The effective range of the scale is crucial to consider when designing a questionnaire to ensure that the scale adequately captures the attitudes being measured. If the scale's range is not appropriate, it may not fully capture the variability in attitudes among the target population. 35) A researcher is designing a study on the effects of TV on the IQs of 9-12 year old children. The IQ test he is using was designed to measure IQs in adults. This is an example of a(n) ________ problem. A) internal consistency reliability B) construct validity C) test-retest reliability D) effective range Answer: D Rationale: The mismatch between the measure (adult IQ test) and the population (9-12 year old children) indicates an issue with the effective range of the measure. It is not suitable for measuring IQs in children within the specified age range. 36) If a researcher was weighing white mice and used an ordinary bathroom scale, this measure would be expected to show A) floor effects. B) ceiling effects. C) both good reliability and good validity. D) good validity but poor reliability. Answer: A Rationale: Using an ordinary bathroom scale to weigh white mice is likely to result in floor effects because the scale may not be sensitive enough to accurately measure the small weight differences among the mice. 37) Suppose that this exam was so difficult that everyone scored low. In this case, the exam would be showing A) a ceiling effect. B) a floor effect. C) high internal consistency reliability. D) None of the above Answer: B Rationale: When everyone scores low on an exam, it indicates that the measure is showing a floor effect. This means that the measure is not sensitive enough to differentiate between low levels of the construct being measured. 38) A ceiling effect occurs when A) participants are very unmotivated during research. B) a measure does not have sufficient range on the high end. C) a measure does not have sufficient range on the low end. D) a measure has too much range on the high end. Answer: B Rationale: A ceiling effect occurs when a measure fails to capture variability at the upper end of the scale, often because the measure's range is insufficient to accommodate high scores. 39) A floor effect occurs when a measure A) does not have sufficient range on the high end. B) does not have sufficient range on the low end. C) has too much range on the high end. D) has too much range on the low end. Answer: B Rationale: A floor effect occurs when a measure fails to capture variability at the lower end of the scale, often because the measure's range is insufficient to accommodate low scores. 40) A professor makes an exam extremely easy. This exam would be susceptible to a(n) A) floor effect. B) social desirability effect. C) ceiling effect. D) acquiescence effect. Answer: C Rationale: Making an exam extremely easy increases the likelihood of everyone achieving high scores, which indicates a ceiling effect. A ceiling effect occurs when the measure cannot adequately capture variability at the upper end of the scale. 41) Ceiling effects and floor effects are types of A) scale attenuation effects. B) measurement error. C) pretests and posttests. D) researcher bias. Answer: A Rationale: Ceiling effects and floor effects are examples of scale attenuation effects because they limit the range of scores that can be obtained on a measure, thereby attenuating the scale's sensitivity to differences in the construct being measured. 42) The validity of a measure refers to A) the consistency with which it measures a variable. B) whether it accurately reflects the true amount of the variable participants have. C) whether it accurately reflects the manipulated amount of the variable the participants have. D) All of the above Answer: B Rationale: Validity refers to the extent to which a measure accurately assesses the construct it intends to measure. This includes whether the measure accurately reflects the true amount of the variable participants possess, thus option B is correct. Options A and C refer to reliability and experimental manipulation, respectively, which are related but distinct concepts from validity. 43) Validity is evaluated in terms of: A) the repeatability of a measure. B) the ability of a measure to predict other variables. C) the number of times a variable is measured. D) the clarity of the measure. Answer: B Rationale: Validity refers to the extent to which a measure assesses what it is intended to measure. Option B is correct because it refers to the ability of a measure to predict other variables, which is one of the key aspects of validity. Predictive validity assesses whether a measure can accurately predict future outcomes or behaviors based on the current assessment. 44) A measure CANNOT be ________ unless it is ________. A) valid; reliable B) reliable; valid C) famous; tested D) reliable; appropriate Answer: A Rationale: This question addresses the relationship between reliability and validity. Reliability refers to the consistency or stability of a measure over time, while validity refers to the accuracy of the measure in assessing what it claims to measure. A measure cannot be valid (accurate) if it is not reliable (consistent), but it can be reliable without being valid. 45) A measure can be ________ without being ________. A) valid; reliable B) reliable; valid C) valid; replicable D) subjective; person-specific Answer: B Rationale: This question also examines the relationship between reliability and validity. A measure can be reliable (consistent) without being valid (accurate). For example, a thermometer that consistently measures the wrong temperature would be reliable (it consistently gives the same incorrect readings) but not valid (it does not accurately measure temperature). 46) What is the relationship between the reliability and the validity of a measure? A) A valid measure must have reliability. B) A reliable measure must have validity. C) There is no relationship between the reliability of a measure and the validity of the measure. D) Reliability and validity are different ways of looking at the same concept. Answer: A Rationale: This question emphasizes that validity is dependent on reliability. A measure must be reliable (consistent) in order to be valid (accurate). Without consistency, it is unlikely that the measure can accurately assess the intended construct. 47) The relationship between reliability and validity is that A) validity affects reliability. B) reliability affects validity. C) reliability and validity equally affect each other. D) There is no relationship between the two. Answer: B Rationale: This question highlights the directional relationship between reliability and validity. Reliability (consistency) is a prerequisite for validity (accuracy). If a measure is not consistent (reliable), it is unlikely to accurately assess the intended construct (validity). 48) A researcher decides to measure IQ by the number of questions correct on the test you are now taking. This measure of IQ is A) acceptable. B) of questionable validity. C) of questionable reliability. D) unacceptable due to problems of effective range and scale attenuation effect. Answer: B Rationale: This question assesses the validity of a measure. While counting the number of correct questions might provide some indication of intelligence, it is likely an oversimplified and incomplete measure of IQ. It may not capture the full range of cognitive abilities and could be influenced by factors such as guessing or test-taking strategies, thus making its validity questionable. 49) If a broken clock (i.e., stuck on the same time) is consulted every hour on the hour, it will A) yield a reading that is valid. B) yield a reading that is valid but not reliable. C) yield a highly reliable reading, but one that is not valid. D) help a Type-A personality to relax. Answer: C Rationale: This question examines the concept of reliability versus validity using a broken clock as an example. While the broken clock may consistently show the same time (reliable), the time it displays is not accurate (valid). Therefore, it yields a highly reliable but not valid reading. 50) Researchers strive to obtain ________ in research. A) objectivity B) subjectivity C) both objectivity and subjectivity D) interval or ratio scale data only Answer: A Rationale: Objectivity refers to the ability to observe or measure something without bias or personal interpretation. In research, objectivity is crucial to ensure that findings are not influenced by personal opinions or beliefs. Subjectivity, on the other hand, involves personal interpretation and bias, which can undermine the validity and reliability of research findings. 51) Scientist believe that A) all data are subjective. B) the laws of nature should hold no matter who tests them. C) the laws of nature are relative and thus change with each experiment. D) the only dependable data are score data. Answer: B Rationale: This question addresses the scientific perspective on the nature of data and the laws of nature. Scientists strive for objectivity in their observations and measurements, believing that the laws of nature should hold true regardless of who tests them. This belief forms the basis of scientific inquiry and the pursuit of knowledge through empirical evidence. 52) Good psychological research requires the use of ________ measures. A) subjective B) simplified C) objective D) cumbersome Answer: C Rationale: Psychological research often aims for objectivity in measurement to ensure the reliability and validity of findings. Objective measures are those that can be observed and quantified independently of the observer's biases or opinions. This helps ensure that the results of the research accurately reflect the phenomena under investigation. 53) Statistical procedures help to provide objectivity in the A) interpretation of data. B) measurement process. C) observation process. D) observation process and interpretation of data. Answer: A Rationale: Statistical procedures primarily aid in the interpretation of data by providing objective methods to analyze and draw conclusions from the collected information. While they can assist in other processes like measurement and observation indirectly, their primary role lies in ensuring objectivity in data interpretation. 4.5 Ethical Principles 1) The deliberate falsification of data in science is A) unfortunately all too common. B) unlikely to ever occur because of the built-in safeguards. C) an extremely serious ethical violation. D) would easily be caught in the peer review process. Answer: C Rationale: Deliberate falsification of data is a severe ethical violation because it undermines the integrity of scientific research, deceiving the scientific community and potentially leading to false conclusions and wasted resources. 2) The scientific misconduct of falsifying data A) has occurred with individual researchers, but has never occurred with industry or government agencies. B) has occasionally been practiced by organizations, including government organizations. C) is a widely practiced behavior in scientists who are under "publish or perish" pressure. D) is a legal issue, but not an ethical issue. Answer: B Rationale: Falsifying data is not limited to individual researchers but can also involve organizations, including government agencies, as occasional cases of scientific misconduct. 3) The deliberate falsification of data is an egregious ethical violation because A) there is no way that the misinformation introduced will ever be corrected. B) the scientist involved benefits financially through his or her fraud, thus making it a legal matter. C) the scientist involved will never experience consequences for his or her actions. D) it weakens the integrity of the entire scientific enterprise. Answer: D Rationale: Deliberate falsification of data undermines the integrity of the scientific enterprise by eroding trust in research findings and potentially leading to erroneous conclusions or wasted resources. 4) Researchers have two ethical responsibilities: A) protecting the subjects and assuring honesty. B) getting the data and writing a report. C) using correct statistical analyses and writing the report. D) locating appropriate subjects and testing them. Answer: A Rationale: Researchers have the ethical responsibility to protect the subjects involved in their studies from harm and to maintain honesty in their research practices. 5) The deliberate distortion of facts A) is totally rejected by our society. B) is readily accepted by our society. C) never happens in research reports. D) is common in all science. Answer: B Rationale: While deliberate distortion of facts should be rejected, unfortunately, it can sometimes be accepted or overlooked in society, especially in situations where misinformation serves certain interests. 6) When college students purchase term papers online and submit them as their own, they are A) guilty of plagiarism. B) being honest with their instructor. C) just following the course syllabus. D) probably helping to improve academic standards. Answer: A Rationale: Submitting purchased term papers as one's own work constitutes plagiarism, which is unethical and dishonest. 7) When writing review papers and research reports, A) college students are exempted from ethical standards. B) professionals and college students are subject to ethical standards. C) it is acceptable to fudge data because it is only a term paper. D) students should cut-and-paste extensively from published papers. Answer: B Rationale: Both professionals and college students are subject to ethical standards when writing review papers and research reports, which include requirements for honesty, integrity, and proper citation practices. 8) Students need to be very careful when taking notes from published sources because A) you must never use someone else's ideas. B) the ideas are almost always wrong C) even if it is "accidental" plagiarism, it is still plagiarism. D) you can get sued by the author. Answer: C Rationale: Accidental plagiarism, such as failing to properly attribute ideas taken from published sources, is still considered plagiarism and is ethically unacceptable. Therefore, students need to be cautious when taking notes to avoid unintentional plagiarism. Test Bank for Research Methods: A Process of Inquiry Anthony M. Graziano, Michael L. Raulin 9780205900923, 9780205907694, 9780135705056