CH-2 Research is a Process of Inquiry – Research Methods: A Process of Inquiry : Exam Guide

Chapter 2 Research is a Process of Inquiry 2.1 The Scientific Process 1) Which of the following is NOT true about the basic assumptions of science? A) We often do not know if the assumptions we make are true. B) The scientist treats the assumption as if it were true in order to proceed with further investigation. C) Some assumptions are shared by all scientists regardless of their discipline. D) There is now evidence to prove the truth of these assumptions. Answer: D Rationale: The correct statement is D. Basic assumptions in science are foundational principles or starting points that are accepted without requiring proof. They guide scientific inquiry, but they are not proven truths; instead, they are treated as if they are true for the sake of further investigation. Option D contradicts this characteristic, making it the incorrect statement. 2) A scientific idea or statement that is tentatively accepted as being true is called A) an assumption. B) a corollary. C) an axiom. D) a paradigm. Answer: A Rationale: An assumption is a statement taken to be true without proof for the purpose of further investigation. It serves as a foundational principle guiding scientific inquiry, but it is not necessarily proven to be true. Options B, C, and D represent different concepts in science but do not specifically refer to a tentative idea or statement accepted as true. 3) Research is scientific if A) it is carried out by a well-trained research scientist. B) it involves both empirical and rational processes. C) it uses models and constructs to generate ideas. D) the purpose is to understand the universe around us. Answer: B Rationale: Scientific research involves both empirical processes, which rely on observation and experimentation, and rational processes, which involve logical reasoning and theoretical frameworks. This choice encompasses the dual nature of scientific inquiry, distinguishing it from mere speculation or opinion. 4) In scientific research, facts are A) the knowledge gained through empirical observation. B) the behavior of the researcher. C) the opinion of the researcher. D) nonexistent; everything is open to interpretation. Answer: A Rationale: Facts in scientific research refer to the knowledge acquired through empirical observation and experimentation. They represent objective observations or empirical evidence that can be independently verified. Options B, C, and D do not accurately characterize the nature of facts in scientific research. 5) The empirical process of using sense data to recognize and note factual events is termed A) hypothesis testing. B) sensory perception. C) observation. D) cognition. Answer: C Rationale: Observation in the scientific context refers to the empirical process of using sensory data to recognize and note factual events or phenomena. It involves systematically gathering information through direct sensory experience or instrumentation. Options A, B, and D represent different cognitive processes but do not specifically describe the act of observing in empirical research. 6) The most basic unit in psychological research is A) computer hardware. B) computer software. C) observed facts. D) statistical analysis. Answer: C Rationale: The fundamental unit in psychological research is observed facts or empirical data. Psychological research often involves the systematic observation and recording of behaviors, thoughts, emotions, or other psychological phenomena. Options A, B, and D represent different components or methods commonly used in psychological research but do not constitute the basic unit of analysis. 7) Before 1974, systematic desensitization was used in work with A) children only. B) adults only. C) prison inmates only. D) All of the above Answer: B Rationale: Systematic desensitization, a therapeutic technique for treating phobias and anxiety disorders, was used in work with adults before 1974. This choice accurately reflects the historical application of systematic desensitization in therapeutic settings, primarily with adult clients. 8) An inference A) often assumes that an observed behavior is the result of some unseen process. B) will be accurate if the behavioral observations on which the inference is based are accurate. C) follows directly from a given set of observations. D) is indistinguishable from the facts on which the inference is based. Answer: A Rationale: An inference involves drawing conclusions or making predictions based on observed behaviors or phenomena, often assuming that these behaviors are the result of underlying processes that may not be directly observable. Option A captures the characteristic of inference-making in scientific research, distinguishing it from direct observations or facts. 9) Inferences are A) one of many types of facts. B) scientifically valid. C) largely drawn from empirical observations. D) anything that cannot be replicated. Answer: C Rationale: Inferences in scientific research are conclusions or interpretations drawn from empirical observations or data. They involve reasoning from observed facts to make predictions or explanations about underlying phenomena. Option C accurately describes the empirical basis of inferences in scientific inquiry. 10) Most facts in psychology are A) gained from nonverbal communication. B) associated with small and large muscle activity. C) behaviors. D) tested only in strict laboratory conditions. Answer: C Rationale: In psychology, facts primarily pertain to observable behaviors, thoughts, emotions, or other psychological phenomena. Psychological research often involves the systematic observation and measurement of these behaviors to establish empirical facts. Option C accurately reflects the nature of facts in psychology as observable behaviors. 11) Which of the following represents the major category of facts in psychology? A) behavior of organisms B) human behavior C) motives and learned responses D) psychological theories Answer: A Rationale: The major category of facts in psychology primarily concerns the observable behavior of organisms. This encompasses actions, reactions, and responses that can be directly observed and measured, making it a fundamental aspect of psychological research. 12) Which of the following would NOT be a fact? A) a person's score on a test B) the response of a participant to an anxiety-producing situation C) a person's memory D) the time it takes a participant to complete a difficult task Answer: C Rationale: A person's memory is not directly observable; rather, it is an internal process. Facts in psychology typically involve observable behaviors or measurable outcomes, such as test scores, responses to situations, or task completion times. 13) The major category of fact that is observed in psychology is A) the behavior of groups. B) the behavior of organisms. C) abnormal behavior. D) perceptual behavior. Answer: B Rationale: The major category of fact observed in psychology pertains to the behavior of individual organisms. This includes observable actions, reactions, and responses exhibited by individuals in various situations. 14) Since internal conditions are NOT observable, they must be A) invented. B) made external. C) inferred. D) nonexistent. Answer: C Rationale: Internal conditions in psychology, such as thoughts, feelings, and motivations, are not directly observable. Therefore, they are inferred based on observable behaviors and other external indicators rather than being directly observed. 15) The main facts observed in psychology are A) organismic facts. B) inferred facts. C) universal facts. D) behavioral facts. Answer: D Rationale: The main facts observed in psychology are behavioral facts, which involve the observable actions, reactions, and responses of individuals. These facts are directly measurable and form the basis of empirical research in psychology. 16) Inferences are largely drawn from A) experience. B) empirical observations. C) hypotheses. D) textbooks. Answer: B Rationale: Inferences in psychology are largely drawn from empirical observations, which involve systematically gathering data through observation and experimentation. These observations serve as the basis for making reasoned conclusions or inferences about underlying psychological processes. 17) Constructs are to inference as facts are to A) models. B) behavior. C) observation. D) science. Answer: C Rationale: Constructs in psychology are theoretical concepts or variables that are not directly observable but are inferred from observable behaviors or phenomena. Similarly, inferences are conclusions drawn from observations, while facts are directly observable phenomena. 18) Events such as personality, intelligence, stress, and memory are A) avoided in scientific inquiry. B) rational ideas constructed by the researcher. C) accepted as true. D) facts from which scientific inferences can be drawn. Answer: B Rationale: Events such as personality, intelligence, stress, and memory are constructs in psychology. They are theoretical concepts or variables that are inferred from observable behaviors or phenomena, rather than being directly observable facts. 19) The study of memory, emotion, and intelligence is an example of A) non-empirical research. B) the study of observable facts. C) the study of non-observable variables. D) a study of specific behavioral events. Answer: C Rationale: The study of memory, emotion, and intelligence involves examining non-observable variables or constructs in psychology. These variables are inferred from observable behaviors or phenomena and are not directly measurable. 20) Emotions such as anger, sadness, and happiness are examples of A) observable events. B) constructs. C) facts. D) dependent variables. Answer: B Rationale: Emotions such as anger, sadness, and happiness are constructs in psychology. They are theoretical concepts that represent internal states or experiences and are inferred from observable behaviors or expressions rather than being directly observable facts. 21) Which of the following is NOT a construct? A) intelligence B) gravity C) the ego D) age Answer: D Rationale: Age is not a construct but rather a measurable and objective characteristic, unlike the other options which are abstract concepts or psychological constructs. 22) A construct A) is an idea created by the researcher. B) is often designed to explain and/or predict behavior. C) is often used by the researcher as if it were actually true. D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: Constructs are conceptualized by researchers, utilized to understand and predict phenomena, and often treated as if they represent real entities or properties, hence all options are correct. 23) Which of the following are examples of inferred constructs? A) electricity and gravity B) heart beats and blood pressure C) nonverbal gestures D) disruptive behavior Answer: A Rationale: Inferred constructs are abstract concepts that are not directly observable but are inferred from observable phenomena. Electricity and gravity are examples of such constructs as they cannot be directly observed but are inferred from observable effects. 24) A construct is A) an observation. B) a fact observed independently. C) an idea held by the researcher. D) an experimental manipulation. Answer: C Rationale: Constructs are ideas or concepts developed by researchers to explain or understand observed events or phenomena, differentiating them from direct observations or experimental manipulations. 25) Ideas constructed by researchers on the basis of observed events are called A) phantasms. B) observations. C) hypotheses. D) constructs. Answer: D Rationale: Constructs are conceptualizations developed by researchers based on observed events or phenomena to help explain or understand them. 26) Ideas constructed by the researcher and used analogically (i.e., as if they existed) are termed A) existential ideas. B) ontological ideas. C) constructs. D) phenomena. Answer: C Rationale: Constructs are conceptualized ideas created by researchers to explain or understand phenomena and are often treated as if they were real or existed. 27) Reification means A) confusing empirical observations with fact. B) confusing a construct for a fact. C) confusing reality and logic. D) believing that there is an afterlife. Answer: B Rationale: Reification refers to the error of treating a construct as if it were a concrete fact rather than a conceptual abstraction. 28) Many of the therapists who use psychoanalytic techniques have been accused of actually believing that there is an ego, superego, and an id. If this accusation were true, they would have committed a logical error known as A) reification of a construct. B) construct validity. C) construct confusion. D) None of the above Answer: A Rationale: Treating abstract psychological constructs (ego, superego, id) as concrete entities represents the logical error of reification, blurring the line between conceptual abstractions and tangible realities. 29) Constructs are used A) only in poor research. B) as if they are reality. C) only in deductive models. D) only in inductive models. Answer: B Rationale: Constructs are commonly employed in research to understand and explain phenomena, often treated as if they represent actual entities or properties, regardless of the research quality or approach. 30) The logical error of confusing a construct for a fact is called A) petitio principii. B) reification. C) post hoc ergo propter hoc. D) begging the question. Answer: B Rationale: Confusing a construct for a concrete fact rather than recognizing it as an abstract concept represents the logical error known as reification. 31) Mistaking the name of a phenomenon for the explanation of the phenomenon is called a A) Barnum statement. B) nominal fallacy. C) similarity-uniqueness paradox. D) evaluative bias. Answer: B Rationale: The nominal fallacy occurs when one mistakes the name of a phenomenon for an explanation of the phenomenon itself. It involves attributing understanding or explanation to a mere label or name without actually providing any substantive explanation. 32) To see a statement as being either true of false is known as A) an evaluative language bias. B) a similarity paradox. C) an all-or-none bias. D) a nominal fallacy. Answer: C Rationale: Seeing a statement as either true or false is referred to as an all-or-none bias. This perspective doesn't allow for shades of gray or ambiguity; it dichotomizes statements into being either wholly true or wholly false. 33) Inductive reasoning relies on A) rationalization. B) making empirical observations. C) premises-conclusion arguments. D) making predictions. Answer: B Rationale: Inductive reasoning relies on making empirical observations or gathering evidence to draw conclusions. It involves generalizing from specific observations to make broader generalizations or predictions. 34) Which of the following is an example of inductive thinking? A) reasoning that a man will be able to hit a golf ball further than a woman because men generally have greater muscle development than women B) assuming that the sun will rise tomorrow morning because we know that the earth will continue to rotate and the sun will not burn out for billions of years C) assuming that there is something that we name intelligence because we notice that problem solving measures show differences between people that seem to be consistent over time D) None of the above Answer: C Rationale: Option C represents inductive thinking because it involves inferring a general concept (intelligence) from specific observations (differences in problem-solving abilities among people). 35) Which of the following is an example of deductive thinking? A) figuring out who was the killer in a Perry Mason story by carefully considering all of the clues B) predicting what a friend would do in a particular situation based on your thorough knowledge of how this friend reacts C) developing a theory of planetary motion by observing the movement of planets in the night sky D) None of the above Answer: B Rationale: Option B represents deductive thinking because it involves making predictions based on general principles (knowledge of how the friend reacts) applied to specific situations. 36) When we are reasoning from the specific to the general, we are using ________ reasoning. In contrast, when we are reasoning from the general to the specific, we are using ________ reasoning. A) theoretical; predictive B) deductive; inductive C) inductive; deductive D) predictive; theoretical Answer: C Rationale: Inductive reasoning moves from specific observations to broader generalizations, while deductive reasoning moves from general principles to specific conclusions or predictions. 37) Predicting that an apple, if dropped, will fall to the ground is an example of A) deduction. B) induction. C) rationalization. D) observation. Answer: A Rationale: Predicting that an apple will fall to the ground when dropped is an example of deductive reasoning because it involves applying general principles (such as the law of gravity) to make specific predictions about the behavior of the apple. 38) Reasoning from the particular to the general is called A) deductive thinking. B) inductive reasoning. C) conductive reasoning. D) predicate logic. Answer: B Rationale: Reasoning from the particular to the general, where conclusions are drawn based on observed patterns or evidence, is known as inductive reasoning. 39) If a researcher begins with an empirical observation and infers constructs on the basis of that observation, he or she is engaging in A) deductive reasoning. B) hasty generalization. C) inductive reasoning. D) modal logic. Answer: C Rationale: Inductive reasoning involves inferring general principles or constructs from specific observations or empirical evidence, as described in this scenario. 40) If a researcher uses inferred constructs as a basis on which to make a prediction about new and specific observations, he or she is engaging in A) guessing. B) inductive reasoning. C) the fallacy of the slippery slope. D) deductive reasoning. Answer: D Rationale: Deductive reasoning involves using general principles or constructs to make predictions or draw conclusions about specific observations, as described in this scenario. 41) Reasoning from the general to the specific is termed A) deductive reasoning. B) inductive reasoning. C) telescopic reasoning. D) rational reasoning. Answer: A Rationale: Deductive reasoning involves drawing specific conclusions from general principles or premises. It starts with a general statement and deduces specific implications or predictions. 42) Science is characterized by A) a combination of induction and deduction. B) deduction. C) induction. D) a separation of induction and deduction. Answer: A Rationale: Science utilizes both inductive reasoning (drawing general conclusions from specific observations) and deductive reasoning (making specific predictions based on general principles), demonstrating a combination of induction and deduction in its methodology. 43) The essence of science is A) not important in psychological research. B) a process involving inductive and deductive logic. C) trial and error. D) a process involving tenacity and deductive logic. Answer: B Rationale: The essence of science lies in its systematic application of both inductive and deductive logic. It involves formulating hypotheses based on observations (inductive logic) and testing these hypotheses through experimentation or observation (deductive logic). 44) The essence of science is A) its commitment to separation of church and state. B) its high ideals. C) its process of systematic thinking. D) the development of maxims. Answer: C Rationale: The essence of science lies in its process of systematic thinking, which involves formulating hypotheses, testing them through experimentation or observation, analyzing data, and revising theories based on evidence. 2.2 Models and Theories in Science 1) A formalized set of concepts that organizes observations and helps predict and explain phenomena is termed A) a maxim. B) an axiom. C) a hypothesis. D) a theory. Answer: D Rationale: A theory is a formalized set of concepts that organizes observations and helps predict and explain phenomena based on empirical evidence. It is more comprehensive and explanatory than a hypothesis. 2) A good theory is based on A) a hunch. B) solid empirical evidence. C) syllogistic reasoning. D) loose association of ideas. Answer: B Rationale: A good theory is grounded in solid empirical evidence, obtained through systematic observation and experimentation, rather than relying on mere hunches or loose associations of ideas. 3) Theoretical thinking A) is the best way to obtain truth. B) always involves the use of complex constructs and statistical concepts. C) is a tool to help us understand the world. D) always depends on the data available. Answer: C Rationale: Theoretical thinking is a tool to help us understand the world by organizing observations, formulating hypotheses, and developing theories. It is not necessarily the best way to obtain truth but serves as a framework for interpreting data and generating new knowledge. 4) What can be studied scientifically? A) only natural events B) only areas of previous study C) almost anything D) only inferred events Answer: C Rationale: Science can study a wide range of phenomena, not limited to natural events or areas of previous study. Almost anything can be studied scientifically through systematic observation, experimentation, and analysis. 5) Theory-building relies on A) integration of what is known about the phenomena in question. B) guesses and hunches. C) deductive logic. D) a thorough knowledge of mathematical models. Answer: A Rationale: Theory-building relies on the integration of existing knowledge about the phenomena in question, combining empirical evidence with logical reasoning to develop comprehensive explanations and predictions. 6) A theoretical approach to flying would involve A) imitating bird behavior. B) using existing knowledge and ideas. C) risk-taking behavior. D) the use of tenacity. Answer: B Rationale: A theoretical approach to flying would involve using existing knowledge and ideas about aerodynamics, propulsion, and engineering principles to develop theories and technologies for achieving flight. 7) Before the Wright brothers, there had been A) successful glides starting with George Cayley. B) no other work done on flight. C) no successful glides or powered flights. D) successful glides starting with Otto Lilienthal. Answer: D Rationale: Before the Wright brothers, Otto Lilienthal had conducted successful glides, contributing significant advancements to the understanding of aerodynamics and flight principles. 8) The Wright brothers studied the work of all of the following in the development of their aircraft EXCEPT A) Burt Rutan. B) Otto Lilienthal. C) Octave Chanute. D) George Cayley. Answer: A Rationale: The Wright brothers studied the works of Otto Lilienthal, Octave Chanute, and George Cayley in the development of their aircraft. While Burt Rutan is a notable aerospace engineer, his work came much later and wasn't directly influential on the Wright brothers. 9) Samuel Langley A) was not successful in attempts at unpiloted powered flight. B) successfully flew a piloted powered airplane before the Wright brothers. C) was never successful in attempts at powered flight. D) successfully flew an unpiloted powered aircraft before the Wright brothers' flight. Answer: D Rationale: Samuel Langley successfully flew an unpiloted powered aircraft, known as the Aerodrome, before the Wright brothers' historic flight at Kitty Hawk in 1903. However, Langley's attempts at piloted flight were not successful. 10) The history of scientific and technological advances that led to the Wright brothers' success began with A) John Blanchard. B) Leonardo da Vinci. C) Benjamin Franklin. D) George Cayley. Answer: B Rationale: Leonardo da Vinci made significant contributions to understanding flight through his sketches and studies of birds and flying machines, laying the foundation for later advancements in aviation. 11) The first person (people) to make controlled, heavier-than-air-flights was (were) A) Octave Chanute. B) George Cayley. C) Otto Lilienthal. D) the Wright brothers. Answer: C Rationale: Otto Lilienthal was the first person to make controlled, heavier-than-air flights. His glider experiments greatly influenced the Wright brothers' understanding of aerodynamics. 12) The airplane was invented by A) Wilbur and Orville Wright. B) Chanute and Lilienthal. C) Langley. D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: The airplane was invented by multiple individuals and through various contributions, including the Wright brothers, Octave Chanute, Otto Lilienthal, and Samuel Langley. Each played a role in the development of aviation technology. 13) The airplane was invented by the Wright brothers as a result of A) their clever mechanical skills. B) a burst of Yankee ingenuity. C) systematic scientific study and experimentation. D) mechanical skill and a sudden stroke of genius. Answer: C Rationale: The Wright brothers' invention of the airplane was primarily the result of systematic scientific study and experimentation. Their methodical approach to understanding aerodynamics and testing various designs led to their successful powered flight. 14) Skinner's theories A) were typically extended only as far as his data would allow. B) were not constrained by his data. C) expanded beyond his data. D) ignored the data. Answer: A Rationale: Skinner's theories were typically extended only as far as his data would allow, reflecting his empirical approach to behaviorism and experimental psychology. 15) Meehl's theories A) stay within the bounds of what is known. B) expand on what is known. C) are primarily functional. D) are primarily inductive. Answer: B Rationale: Meehl's theories often expand on what is known, incorporating new findings and insights to further develop psychological theories and understanding. 16) The inductive theorist A) follows his/her hunches. B) prefers to go well beyond the data. C) follows the data wherever they may lead. D) considers constructs to be of major importance. Answer: C Rationale: The inductive theorist follows the data wherever they may lead, using empirical observations to develop theories and explanations. 17) The deductive theorist A) begins with empirical observations and builds to abstract explanations. B) is not concerned with prediction or explanation. C) is not interested in making empirical observations. D) makes deductions based on guiding constructs. Answer: D Rationale: The deductive theorist makes deductions based on guiding constructs, starting from abstract principles and deriving specific predictions or explanations. 18) Which type of psychological theory does Skinner's work epitomize? A) deductive theory B) inductive theory C) functional theory D) model Answer: B Rationale: Skinner's work epitomizes an inductive theory. Inductive theories are based on observations and experiments, where general principles are derived from specific instances or examples. Skinner's behaviorist approach involved observing and analyzing behavior to formulate general principles of learning, making his work align with the inductive approach. 19) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a model? A) Models are simplified representations of a phenomenon and have point-to-point correspondence with some of the characteristics of that phenomenon. B) Models provide a convenient, manageable and compact representation of the larger complex, and mostly unknown reality. C) Models are complete linear representations that can be used to statistically analyze data. D) Manipulating models help us organize information, to illustrate relationships among parts, and to create new ideas and predict new observations. Answer: C Rationale: Characteristic C is not true regarding models. Models are not necessarily complete linear representations, as they often simplify complex phenomena and may not capture all aspects of reality. They are more conceptual and illustrative rather than being complete and linear. 20) Most psychological theories are A) inductive theories. B) based on rational and deductive thinking. C) functional theories involving deduction. D) functional theories based on induction and deduction. Answer: D Rationale: Most psychological theories involve both induction (deriving general principles from specific observations) and deduction (applying general principles to specific instances). Therefore, they can be categorized as functional theories based on both induction and deduction. 21) The term model has come to mean in science A) an accurate representation of the true state of nature. B) a mathematical representation of reality. C) a miniature representation of reality. D) a more complex version of simple phenomena. Answer: C Rationale: In science, the term "model" typically refers to a simplified representation of reality that captures essential aspects of a phenomenon. This representation is often used to understand, predict, or explain the behavior of the real system it represents. 22) Models are useful because A) they represent reality. B) they help us to understand something that can be complex. C) they help us to organize knowledge. D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: Models are useful because they aid in understanding complex phenomena, organizing knowledge, and providing simplified representations of reality. They are valuable tools in scientific inquiry and problem-solving. 23) In science, conceptual models ________ reality. A) duplicate B) nullify C) challenge D) represent Answer: D Rationale: In science, conceptual models represent reality by capturing essential features of a system or phenomenon. While they may not perfectly replicate reality, they provide a useful framework for understanding and explaining natural phenomena. 24) Which of the following is true about models in science? A) A model must be true in order to be scientifically useful. B) A model is always an incomplete representation of reality. C) Only true or accurate models will produce accurate predictions. D) None of the above are true. Answer: B Rationale: Models in science are typically incomplete representations of reality. They simplify complex systems and may not capture all aspects of the phenomenon they represent. Despite their incompleteness, models can still be scientifically useful for understanding and making predictions. 25) A model A) represents reality. B) is reality. C) necessarily distorts reality. D) can never represent reality. Answer: A Rationale: A model represents reality by capturing essential elements or characteristics of a phenomenon. While it may not encompass all aspects of reality and may involve simplifications, it serves as a useful tool for understanding and explaining real-world phenomena. 26) Which of the following is characteristic of models? A) Models represent an expanded version of the reality being represented. B) Models are incomplete, tentative, and analogical. C) Models are accurate and complete. D) Models cannot be constructed to deal with religious thinking. Answer: B Rationale: Characteristic B is true regarding models. Models are often incomplete, tentative, and analogical representations of reality. They capture essential features of a phenomenon but may not encompass all aspects, and they are subject to refinement and revision based on new evidence or understanding. 27) A model usually does NOT perform well in A) representing all of reality. B) theory construction. C) organizing existing information. D) predicting new observations or explaining phenomena. Answer: A Rationale: Models usually do not perform well in representing all of reality because they are simplified representations that may not capture every detail of the phenomenon they represent. However, they can still be effective in theory construction, organizing information, and predicting new observations or explaining phenomena to a certain extent. 28) Science uses both A) rationalism and tenacity. B) tenacity and intuition. C) empiricism and tenacity. D) rationalism and empiricism. Answer: D Rationale: Science integrates both rationalism (using reason and logic) and empiricism (relying on observation and experimentation) in its methodology. Rationalism helps in forming hypotheses and theories, while empiricism tests these hypotheses through observation and experimentation, making option D the correct choice. 29) Scientists investigate the world by A) traveling extensively. B) scaling down reality. C) always using complex technology. D) always using scientific statistical procedures. Answer: B Rationale: Scientists often investigate the world by scaling down reality, which means simplifying complex phenomena into manageable models or experiments. This allows them to control variables and make observations in a controlled environment, supporting option B. 30) Models must be true (i.e., accurately represent nature) A) to have scientific validity. B) to be valuable in future research. C) to satisfy publication requirements. D) None of the above Answer: D Rationale: Models in science are simplifications or representations of reality that help us understand and predict natural phenomena. While they strive for accuracy, they are not expected to be true in the sense of perfectly representing nature. Instead, they are valuable if they provide insight or utility in understanding the world, making option D the correct choice. 31) The classical model of memory is a good example of A) a genetic model. B) a behavioral structure. C) an abstract model. D) both A and C. Answer: C Rationale: The classical model of memory is an abstract model that describes the processes of encoding, storage, and retrieval of information in memory. It is not directly tied to genetics or specific behavioral structures, supporting option C. 32) Why is a model of human memory useful? A) It explains the unexplainable. B) It gives the researcher accurate factual information about the structure of the brain. C) It is a perfect model for studying memory. D) It makes accurate predictions about the relationships of behavior to observational events. Answer: D Rationale: A model of human memory is useful because it helps make accurate predictions about the relationships between behavior and observable events related to memory. While no model is perfect, a useful model provides insights and predictions that guide further research, supporting option D. 33) In order to be useful, a conceptual model must A) be real and true. B) have a tripartite structure, as does the classical model of human memory. C) make accurate predictions about relationships between observable events. D) not be tied to any observational base. Answer: C Rationale: A conceptual model must make accurate predictions about relationships between observable events to be useful in guiding scientific inquiry. This capability allows researchers to test the model's predictions against real-world data, supporting option C. 34) Theories are A) either right or wrong. B) evaluated on the basis of being right or wrong. C) not open to verification. D) always tentative statements. Answer: D Rationale: Theories in science are tentative statements that are subject to evaluation, testing, and refinement based on empirical evidence. They are not simply right or wrong but are continuously assessed and revised in light of new data or observations, supporting option D. 35) A theory is often judged on the basis of A) whether it is right or wrong. B) how often it is used and by whom. C) how useful it is in organizing the data. D) how sophisticated it is. Answer: C Rationale: The merit of a theory is often judged based on how useful it is in organizing and explaining empirical data. A theory's utility in explaining observed phenomena and making predictions is crucial for its acceptance and adoption within the scientific community, supporting option C. 2.3 A Model of the Research Process 1) Which comes first in the scientific inquiry process? A) data collection B) empirical observation C) creating and asking a question D) designing the study Answer: C Rationale: In the scientific inquiry process, creating and asking a question typically come first. This step involves identifying a research problem or question based on observation, curiosity, or existing knowledge, supporting option C. 2) The first phase of research is usually A) the idea-generating phase. B) the data-analysis phase. C) the observation phase. D) the problem-definition phase. Answer: A Rationale: The first phase of research typically involves generating ideas or hypotheses about potential research questions or problems. This phase precedes the collection and analysis of data, supporting option A. 3) According to the conceptual model of the research process presented in your textbook, which of the following is NOT a phase of research? A) the communication phase B) the interpretation phase C) the procedures design phase D) the a priori phase Answer: D Rationale: The a priori phase is not typically recognized as a distinct phase in the research process. The other options (communication phase, interpretation phase, procedures design phase) are all commonly acknowledged phases within the research process, involving activities such as communicating results, interpreting data, and designing research procedures. 4) In the idea-generating phase of a research project, premature criticism would most likely serve to A) sharpen and enhance a good research idea. B) interrupt and choke an emerging good idea. C) assist in designing adequate procedures. D) encourage and stimulate the research team. Answer: B Rationale: Premature criticism during the idea-generating phase can stifle creativity and inhibit the development of potentially promising research ideas, thus interrupting and choking an emerging good idea rather than enhancing it. 5) Which of the following gives the correct order of phases in scientific inquiry? A) defining, observing, analyzing, and communicating B) observing, defining, analyzing, and communicating C) communicating, observing, analyzing, and defining D) defining, observing, communicating, and analyzing Answer: A Rationale: The correct order of phases in scientific inquiry typically begins with defining the problem, followed by observing phenomena, analyzing data, and finally communicating the results. Option A presents this sequence in the correct order. 6) In the process of research, which of the following phases would come first? A) idea-generation B) problem-definition C) observation D) data-analysis Answer: B Rationale: Problem-definition typically comes before other phases in the research process as it involves identifying and clarifying the research question or problem to be addressed, laying the foundation for subsequent phases such as idea-generation, observation, and data-analysis. 7) Psychological research generally is developed from A) the work of early Greek philosophers. B) unsystematic hunches. C) the work of Pythagoras. D) previous psychological research. Answer: D Rationale: Psychological research is typically built upon the findings and methodologies of previous studies, advancing knowledge through systematic investigation and building upon existing theoretical frameworks and empirical evidence. 8) The idea-generating phase of a research project is usually followed most closely by A) the data-analysis phase. B) the communication phase. C) the problem-definition phase. D) the procedures design phase. Answer: C Rationale: After the idea-generating phase, the next logical step in the research process is usually to define the research problem more clearly, setting the stage for subsequent phases such as designing research procedures, collecting data, and analyzing results. 9) The initial phases of a research study would usually begin with A) observation. B) defining the problem. C) a detailed cost/benefit analysis. D) communicating your ideas to others. Answer: B Rationale: Defining the problem typically marks the beginning of a research study, as it involves identifying and articulating the specific question or issue that the research aims to address, laying the groundwork for subsequent phases such as idea-generation, observation, and datacollection. 10) Defining a problem is A) a rational process. B) unstructured, that is, a hit or miss process. C) not limiting and often unstructured. D) relatively unimportant in the research process. Answer: A Rationale: Defining a problem in the research process involves a rational and systematic approach to identifying and clarifying the research question or issue to be investigated, providing a clear direction for subsequent phases of the research. 11) In the procedures-design phase, we are first concerned with A) which instruments to use. B) humane treatment of participants. C) which observations are to be made. D) ethical considerations. Answer: C Rationale: In the procedures-design phase, the first concern is typically to determine which observations are to be made, outlining the specific procedures and methods that will be employed to collect data and address the research question. 12) In the problem-definition phase of a study, questions that we pose are important because A) they control the rest of the research procedure. B) they limit absolutely the parameters of the research. C) they make demands on scientists to only consider rational ideas. D) None of the above Answer: A Rationale: Questions posed during the problem-definition phase play a crucial role in guiding and shaping the entire research process, providing a framework within which subsequent phases such as idea-generation, data-collection, and analysis take place. These questions help to define the scope and direction of the research inquiry. 13) If you had an idea for a research project, the initial process would involve A) the honing and manipulating of questions. B) determining what observations need to be made. C) deciding under what conditions data should be gathered. D) considering ethical issues and data analysis strategies. Answer: A Rationale: The initial process of developing a research project involves honing and manipulating questions. This step helps researchers refine their focus, identify the specific objectives of the study, and establish clear research questions to guide the investigation. 14) Assuming that the research question has been determined, a study of abused children would next need to focus on A) the feelings and legal rights of parents. B) ethical considerations. C) whether the researcher liked children. D) how to remove abused children from home. Answer: B Rationale: After determining the research question, a study of abused children would next need to focus on ethical considerations. This involves assessing potential risks to participants, ensuring informed consent, maintaining confidentiality, and adhering to ethical guidelines throughout the research process. 15) What is the difference between an idea and a hypothesis? A) An idea is more precise and detailed. B) They are not different. C) A hypothesis is more precise and detailed. D) A lay person has ideas; the scientist has hypotheses. Answer: C Rationale: The difference between an idea and a hypothesis is that a hypothesis is more precise and detailed than a general idea. A hypothesis is a specific, testable prediction about the relationship between variables, while an idea is a broader concept or notion that may inspire hypotheses or research questions. 16) According to Linus Pauling, getting ideas for research is not a problem because A) one has only to rely on previous research. B) all ideas are valid for future research. C) ideas are abundant; you just have to exclude the bad ones. D) no single idea is unique, just an amalgam of other work. Answer: C Rationale: Linus Pauling suggests that getting ideas for research is not a problem because ideas are abundant; however, researchers must discern and exclude the bad ones. This emphasizes the importance of critical thinking and selective decision-making in the research process. 17) In which of the following phases of research does the researcher primarily use deductive reasoning? A) problem-definition phase B) procedures design phase C) data-analysis phase D) interpretation phase Answer: A Rationale: The researcher primarily uses deductive reasoning in the problem-definition phase of research. Deductive reasoning involves starting with a general theory or hypothesis and deriving specific predictions or hypotheses to test through empirical observation and experimentation. 18) In what phase of research is the empirical component of science most clearly visible? A) procedures design phase B) observation phase C) interpretation phase D) communication phase Answer: B Rationale: The empirical component of science is most clearly visible in the observation phase of research. This is when researchers collect data through direct observation or measurement, providing empirical evidence to support or refute hypotheses and theories. 19) The consideration of ethical concerns typically takes place during A) the idea-generating phase. B) the observation phase. C) the interpretation phase. D) the procedures-design phase. Answer: D Rationale: The consideration of ethical concerns typically takes place during the procedures-design phase of research. This phase involves planning the methods and procedures for data collection, including how participants will be recruited, treated, and protected throughout the study. 20) One is most apt to make use of the research literature in the A) idea-generation phase of research. B) problem-definition phase of research. C) data-analysis phase of research. D) interpretation phase of research. Answer: B Rationale: One is most apt to make use of the research literature in the problem-definition phase of research. This involves reviewing existing literature to identify gaps in knowledge, refine research questions, and develop hypotheses or theoretical frameworks for the study. 21) In which of the following phases of research is the researcher actually in contact with the participants under study? A) problem-definition phase B) procedures design phase C) observation phase D) communication phase Answer: C Rationale: The researcher is actually in contact with the participants under study during the observation phase of research. This is when data is collected through direct interaction with participants, such as through surveys, interviews, or experiments. 22) The data-analysis phase of a research project is preceded most closely by A) the observation phase. B) the interpretation phase. C) the idea-generating phase. D) the communication phase. Answer: A Rationale: The data-analysis phase of a research project is preceded most closely by the observation phase. Data must first be collected before it can be analyzed to test hypotheses or answer research questions. 23) Obtaining the data in a psychological research project takes place during the A) data-analysis phase. B) observation phase. C) interpretation phase. D) communication phase. Answer: B Rationale: Obtaining the data in a psychological research project takes place during the observation phase. This is when researchers collect data through direct observation, experimentation, or other methods of data collection. 24) At what phase of research would the Psychological Abstracts most likely be used? A) problem-definition B) observation C) data-analysis D) interpretation Answer: A Rationale: Psychological Abstracts are typically used during the problem-definition phase of research to review existing literature, identify gaps, and refine research questions. 25) Statistical procedures that help determine the statistical significance of the observations are performed during A) the interpretation phase. B) the statistical phase. C) the communication phase. D) the data-analysis phase. Answer: D Rationale: Statistical procedures for determining statistical significance are conducted during the dataanalysis phase to assess the reliability and significance of research findings. 26) Relating the findings of a research project to other concepts and findings in the field takes place during A) the interpretation phase. B) the communication phase. C) the relational phase. D) the data-analysis phase. Answer: A Rationale: During the interpretation phase, researchers relate their findings to existing knowledge in the field, drawing connections and providing insights into the broader implications of their research. 27) In terms of statistical data analysis, it is most important that a scientist has A) enough numerical data. B) an appropriate statistical procedure for the question being asked. C) an appropriate statistical procedure in line with current trends. D) an understanding of statistical computer techniques. Answer: B Rationale: Having an appropriate statistical procedure aligned with the research question is crucial for accurate data analysis and interpretation, ensuring that the results are valid and reliable. 28) In which of the following phases of research does the researcher primarily use inductive reasoning? A) idea-generating phase B) problem-definition phase C) data-analysis phase D) interpretation phase Answer: D Rationale: The interpretation phase of research involves using inductive reasoning to analyze data, identify patterns, and draw conclusions based on observed evidence. 29) In which of the following phases of research is the public aspect of science most obvious? A) idea-generating phase B) observation phase C) interpretation phase D) communication phase Answer: D Rationale: The communication phase of research involves sharing findings with the public, making it the phase where the public aspect of science is most apparent through presentations, publications, and dissemination of research outcomes. 30) Considerable doubt can be placed on research findings if the findings A) emerge in a cross-cultural context. B) cannot be duplicated exactly. C) cannot be replicated. D) are published in a language other than English or German. Answer: C Rationale: If research findings cannot be replicated by other researchers, it raises doubts about the reliability and validity of the original study's results, undermining confidence in its conclusions. 31) A disadvantage of publishing written reports is that A) they are difficult to locate. B) only a few people read them. C) it often takes a year or more to get them published. D) others can steal your ideas. Answer: C Rationale: One disadvantage of publishing written reports is the time-consuming nature of the publication process, often taking a year or more from submission to publication, which may delay the dissemination of research findings. 32) Oral and poster presentations at scientific meetings offer advantages over books and journals in that A) they are a more immediate and interactive forum in which to present research findings. B) they help save money on books and journals. C) they are easier to understand than journal articles. D) the information presented is generally more accurate. Answer: A Rationale: Oral and poster presentations provide a more immediate and interactive platform for presenting research findings compared to books and journals, allowing for direct engagement with the audience and immediate feedback. 33) Scientific communication is important because it A) prevents replication of previously studied areas. B) allows scientists to retire early. C) informs the general public about the importance of scientific method. D) allows for replication and evaluation by peers. Answer: D Rationale: Scientific communication facilitates replication and evaluation by peers, ensuring the validity and reliability of research findings, thus contributing to the advancement of scientific knowledge. 34) The most formal methods of communicating research are A) going to conferences and presenting papers. B) books and scientific journals. C) interactive and oral communication. D) direct communication and lab work. Answer: B Rationale: Books and scientific journals are considered the most formal means of communicating research findings due to their rigorous peer-review process, standardized formats, and wide distribution within the academic community. 35) What methods would be more effective in the speedy communication of research findings? A) publication in books and journals B) interactive communication informally among colleagues C) attending conferences and giving speeches D) taking courses at the invisible college Answer: B Rationale: Interactive communication informally among colleagues allows for rapid dissemination of research findings, enabling immediate feedback, discussion, and potential collaboration, which can expedite the advancement of knowledge. 36) The "invisible college" refers to A) research reports that have gone unnoticed. B) the informal communication that takes place between research colleagues. C) the fact that the disadvantaged and handicapped can now get a college education. D) advanced placement science courses in high school. Answer: B Rationale: The "invisible college" refers to the informal network of communication and collaboration among research colleagues, facilitating the exchange of ideas, sharing of findings, and fostering intellectual growth within the scientific community. 37) The "invisible college" helps to A) promote scientific study of psychic events and phenomena. B) protect researchers from malpractice suits. C) connect scientists into a communication network. D) connect scientists into a large computer network. Answer: C Rationale: The "invisible college" serves to connect scientists into a communication network, enabling the sharing of knowledge, collaboration on research projects, and the advancement of scientific inquiry through informal channels of communication. 38) The phases of research A) generally proceed in the sequence described in the text. B) always proceed in the sequence described in the text. C) never overlap in their sequencing. D) could be performed in random order and yield the same results. Answer: A Rationale: The phases of research typically follow a sequential process, including formulating hypotheses, conducting experiments or studies, analyzing data, and drawing conclusions, although there may be some overlap or iteration between these stages. 39) What is the invisible college? A) an organization promoting secret study B) a college dedicated to the scientific study of cybergenics C) an informal network allowing the discussion of ideas and research D) a network of professors dedicated to furthering study of the natural science Answer: C Rationale: The invisible college refers to an informal network allowing the discussion of ideas and research among colleagues in the scientific community, facilitating collaboration, knowledge sharing, and intellectual growth. 40) Empiricism is the center of A) all research. B) natural science research primarily. C) psychological research primarily. D) the universe. Answer: A Rationale: Empiricism, which emphasizes the importance of observation and evidence in the formation of knowledge, serves as the foundation for all research endeavors across various disciplines, including natural science, psychology, and beyond. 41) Which of the following approaches is the most demanding? A) empiricism B) intuition C) rationalism D) science Answer: D Rationale: Science, characterized by its systematic and rigorous approach to inquiry, is the most demanding approach among the options listed as it requires adherence to empirical evidence, logical reasoning, and methodological rigor in the pursuit of knowledge. 42) A major function of low-constraint research is A) to test inductive causal inferences. B) to establish a general proposition. C) to test causal hypotheses. D) to generate ideas. Answer: D Rationale: Low-constraint research primarily serves the function of generating ideas by exploring new phenomena, identifying patterns, and generating hypotheses, without imposing strict constraints or hypotheses at the outset. 43) Flexibility in research is synonymous with A) precise and highly controlled research. B) low-constraint research. C) scientifically invalid research. D) better research. Answer: B Rationale: Flexibility in research is synonymous with low-constraint research, which allows for exploration and adaptation in response to emerging findings, changing conditions, or unexpected results, fostering creativity and innovation in the research process. A) rules B) constraints C) precision D) rationales Answer: B Rationale: In the context of research methodology, constraints refer to the degree to which the researcher imposes controls on various aspects of the research process. Constraints help ensure the reliability and validity of the research findings by reducing potential sources of bias and error. 45) Low-constraint research is particularly relevant if a scientist is A) doing research in previously studied areas. B) breaking new ground in research. C) interested in predictive theories. D) All of the above Answer: B Rationale: Low-constraint research is more suitable when a scientist is breaking new ground in research because it allows for exploration and discovery without imposing excessive controls or preconceived notions that may limit the investigation of novel phenomena. 46) If a researcher is interested in learning about the social interactions of elderly nursing home residents, the best place to start is at the A) naturalistic observation level of constraint. B) differential level of constraint. C) case-study method level of constraint. D) experimental level of constraint. Answer: A Rationale: Naturalistic observation, with its minimal interference in the natural environment, is the most appropriate level of constraint for studying social interactions among elderly nursing home residents. This approach allows researchers to observe behavior as it naturally occurs without imposing artificial conditions. 47) The degree to which the researcher imposes controls on any part of the research process is A) the level of compromise. B) the noise level. C) the acceptable level of contamination. D) the level of constraint. Answer: D Rationale: The level of constraint refers to the extent to which a researcher imposes controls on any aspect of the research process. It encompasses the degree of regulation or limitation applied to variables, methods, and conditions within a study. 48) Levels of constraint A) do not affect the nature of the research study. B) are the same from study to study. C) are imposed by the researcher. D) are different in the study of natural events and psychological events. Answer: C Rationale: Levels of constraint are determined by the researcher and vary depending on the research question, objectives, and methodology. Researchers decide the appropriate level of constraint based on the nature of the phenomenon being studied and the goals of the research. 49) Of the following levels of research, which one represents the highest level of constraint? A) correlational research B) case-study research C) naturalistic observation D) differential research Answer: D Rationale: Differential research involves manipulating variables and controlling conditions to establish cause-and-effect relationships, thus representing the highest level of constraint among the options listed. 50) Of the following levels of research, which one represents the lowest level of constraint? A) experimental research B) naturalistic observation C) case-study research D) differential research Answer: B Rationale: Naturalistic observation involves observing behavior in its natural setting without interference or manipulation by the researcher, making it the lowest level of constraint among the options listed. 51) "Only high-constraint models of research can be scientific." Your textbook authors would argue that this statement is A) false B) true C) true in scientific disciplines other than the natural sciences. D) false in the social sciences, but true in the natural sciences. Answer: A Rationale: The statement is false according to the textbook authors, as they would argue that both highconstraint and low-constraint models of research can be scientific, depending on the research question, objectives, and methodology employed. 52) The use of the appropriate level of constraint is best determined by A) the nature of the question being asked. B) consulting an outside agency. C) a priori decisions of the project director. D) the realization that high-constraint research is the most scientific. Answer: A Rationale: The appropriate level of constraint is best determined by considering the nature of the research question being asked. Different research questions may require varying degrees of constraint, and researchers should select the level of constraint that best aligns with their objectives and the phenomena under investigation. 53) The example given of Jane Goodall's research serves to illustrate A) how she failed to select the appropriate constraint level. B) the appropriateness of her decision to perform low-constraint naturalistic research. C) the fact that it is more difficult to study chimpanzees than humans. D) the difficulties one can encounter when applying for a federal research grant. Answer: B Rationale: Jane Goodall's research on chimpanzees exemplifies the appropriateness of low-constraint naturalistic research, as her observations in the natural habitat of the chimpanzees allowed for rich and insightful discoveries about their behavior and social interactions. 54) All levels of research are considered scientific when they have been A) used by certified psychologists. B) combined with sophisticated data-analytic techniques. C) used in an appropriate way. D) approved by an ethics committee. Answer: C Rationale: The scientific nature of research is not solely determined by the credentials of the researcher or the complexity of data analysis techniques, but rather by the appropriateness and rigor of the methods used to address research questions. 55) The level of constraint used is determined by A) the type of statistical analysis to be used. B) previous research in that area. C) the type of question being asked. D) the natural sciences. Answer: C Rationale: The level of constraint in research is primarily determined by the nature of the question being asked, as different research questions may require varying degrees of control and precision in the research design. 56) "Scientific research must always be precise and controlled." A) This is a true statement. B) This is an untrue statement. C) This is a mostly true statement. D) This is a mostly untrue statement. Answer: B Rationale: While precision and control are essential aspects of scientific research, there may be circumstances where research is exploratory or descriptive, requiring flexibility and less stringent control. 57) Which of the following is an accurate statement? A) High-powered statistical analyses are preferable, even in low-constraint research. B) The researcher must refine the question so it can be answered using the highest constraint level possible. C) All truly important research questions are most appropriately investigated with highconstraint, complicated methods. D) Statistical analyses can appropriately be performed at a different level of constraint than the research itself. Answer: B Rationale: Researchers should refine their research questions to match the appropriate level of constraint needed to address them effectively, rather than imposing unnecessary complexity or constraint. 58) The level of constraint that employs the greatest level of control is A) differential B) experimental C) case study D) correlational Answer: B Rationale: Experimental research involves manipulating variables and controlling extraneous factors to establish cause-and-effect relationships, thus providing the greatest level of control among the options provided. 59) Which of the following describes naturalistic observation? A) flexible B) low-constraint C) high-constraint D) A and B Answer: D Rationale: Naturalistic observation is characterized by its flexibility and lack of intervention by the researcher, making it both flexible and low-constraint in terms of research methodology. 60) Case-study research is of a higher level of constraint than naturalistic observation because A) humans rather than animals are being studied. B) the researcher intervenes with the participant's functioning. C) case-study research is always carried out in a lab. D) Both A and C. Answer: B Rationale: Case-study research typically involves more intervention by the researcher than naturalistic observation, as researchers may interact with participants and manipulate variables to gather detailed information, hence it's considered of higher constraint. 61) Of the following types of research, the lowest constraint is employed in A) experimental research. B) the case-study method of observation. C) correlational research. D) naturalistic observation. Answer: D Rationale: Naturalistic observation involves minimal interference or manipulation by the researcher, making it the lowest constraint method among the options provided. 62) Of the following types of research, the highest constraint is employed in A) differential research. B) experimental research. C) correlational research. D) naturalistic research. Answer: B Rationale: Experimental research involves manipulation of variables and strict control over extraneous factors, offering the highest level of constraint among the options provided. 63) If a researcher is interested in getting information on the combat experiences of Vietnam War veterans who suffer from posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the most appropriate research strategy would be A) to begin at the experimental level. B) to use the differential level of constraint. C) to use the case-study method. D) to begin at the naturalistic level. Answer: C Rationale: Case-study method would be most appropriate for investigating the individual experiences of Vietnam War veterans with PTSD, allowing for in-depth examination and understanding of their unique situations and challenges. 64) In correlational research, we are primarily concerned with A) quantifying the relationship between two or more variables. B) the effect of the natural environment on the participant. C) a comparison between two or more groups of participants. D) the randomized assignment of participants. Answer: A Rationale: Correlational research aims to quantify the relationship between two or more variables without intervention or manipulation. It assesses how changes in one variable are associated with changes in another, allowing researchers to examine the degree and direction of the relationship between variables. 65) Correlational research is useful because A) it allows us to predict the value of one variable from knowing the value of another. B) it establishes causal relationships. C) it can be applied to all research situations. D) it does not require constrained procedures for measurement. Answer: A Rationale: Correlational research allows researchers to assess the degree of relationship between variables, enabling predictions about one variable based on the knowledge of another. However, it does not establish causal relationships between variables. 66) In experimental research, participants are assigned A) on the basis of preexisting conditions. B) randomly. C) according to age or IQ. D) non-randomly. Answer: B Rationale: In experimental research, participants are typically assigned to different groups randomly to ensure that each group is equivalent at the outset of the study. Random assignment helps minimize the influence of preexisting differences between participants and increases the likelihood that any observed effects are due to the experimental manipulation. 67) In differential research, a ________ variable defines the groups. A) manipulated independent B) dependent C) confounding D) preexisting Answer: D Rationale: In differential research, groups are defined based on preexisting characteristics or variables, hence the term "differential." These preexisting variables are not manipulated by the researcher but rather serve to distinguish between groups for comparison. 68) In a study of the relationship between scores on the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) and academic performance, a researcher should begin at the A) correlational level. B) experimental level. C) differential level. D) case-study method. Answer: A Rationale: In this scenario, where the researcher is interested in examining the relationship between variables without intervention, starting at the correlational level is appropriate. The Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) scores and academic performance are measured and analyzed for their association without manipulation of variables. 69) Once the constraint level has been determined, A) the research is essentially completed. B) any level of constraint can be used to complete the research. C) the same constraint level must be used consistently throughout the research. D) only the experimental or differential levels can then be used. Answer: C Rationale: Once the constraint level (e.g., correlational, experimental, differential) has been established in a research study, it is crucial to maintain consistency in the level of constraint throughout the study. This consistency ensures that the research design aligns with the research objectives and maintains methodological integrity. 70) The mixing of constraint levels is A) accepted procedure for low-constraint research. B) desirable in naturalistic research. C) not appropriate. D) None of the above Answer: C Rationale: Mixing constraint levels (e.g., combining experimental and correlational designs) can lead to methodological inconsistencies and compromise the validity of research findings. It is generally not appropriate as it can introduce confounding variables and undermine the ability to draw clear conclusions about causal relationships. 71) A researcher comparing adult children of alcoholics and adults with non-drinking parents would be most likely to use A) an experimental design. B) a differential design. C) a naturalistic design. D) a case study design. Answer: B Rationale: Differential research involves comparing groups based on preexisting characteristics or conditions. In this scenario, the researcher is comparing individuals based on whether their parents are alcoholics or non-drinkers, making a differential design most appropriate for studying the differences between these two groups. 72) Differential research A) uses experimental designs to create differences between groups. B) makes comparisons between two or more groups of participants. C) compares the pretest-posttest difference scores of randomly assigned groups. D) None of the above Answer: B Rationale: Differential research involves comparing two or more groups of participants based on preexisting characteristics or conditions. It does not involve experimental manipulation but rather examines naturally occurring differences between groups. 73) Which two levels of constraint involve the direct comparison of two or more groups of participants? A) naturalistic and case-study B) case-study and experimental C) experimental and differential D) correlational and differential Answer: C Rationale: Experimental and differential research designs both involve the direct comparison of two or more groups of participants. In experimental research, groups are compared after experimental manipulation, while in differential research, groups are compared based on preexisting characteristics or conditions. 74) A major difference between differential research and experimental research is A) the statistical tests employed on the data. B) the way participants are assigned to the groups or conditions. C) that, in experimental research, the assignment of participants is based on a preexisting variable. D) that differential research is more difficult to get published. Answer: B Rationale: The major difference between differential research and experimental research lies in the way participants are assigned to groups or conditions. In differential research, participants are assigned based on preexisting variables, whereas in experimental research, participants are typically randomly assigned to groups or conditions to ensure comparability and reduce biases. 75) The most appropriate design for comparing relapse rates for people with depression and people with schizophrenia is most likely to be A) a case-study design. B) a naturalistic design. C) an experimental design. D) a differential design. Answer: D Rationale: A differential design would be most appropriate for comparing relapse rates between people with depression and people with schizophrenia because it allows researchers to examine differences between preexisting groups based on specific variables of interest, such as diagnostic category. 76) When participants are randomly assigned to conditions, we are doing A) case-study research. B) experimental research. C) correlational research. D) differential research. Answer: B Rationale: Random assignment of participants to conditions is a characteristic of experimental research, where researchers manipulate an independent variable to observe its effect on a dependent variable while controlling for other variables through randomization. 77) In a large-scale comparison of the effects of several new medications on depression, the researcher must begin at A) the naturalistic level in order to observe participants in their natural environment. B) a highly constrained experimental level in order to exert the necessary controls. C) a lower constraint level in order to gather as much personal information as possible without exerting too much control. D) the differential level of constraint because depression is a preexisting variable. Answer: B Rationale: In a large-scale comparison of the effects of medications on depression, researchers must begin at a highly constrained experimental level to exert necessary controls over variables such as dosage, timing, and administration methods to accurately assess the effects of the medications while minimizing confounding factors. 78) The danger of "artificiality" of laboratory research is called the A) imprecision problem. B) precision versus relevance problem. C) problem of the excluded factors. D) relevant data problem. Answer: B Rationale: The danger of "artificiality" in laboratory research, where experimental conditions may not accurately reflect real-world situations, is referred to as the precision versus relevance problem. This highlights the tension between controlling variables for precision and maintaining ecological validity for relevance. 79) Research on cell phone use while driving shows that A) all cell phones are safe to use while driving. B) only hands-free cell phones are safe to use while driving. C) any cell phone use interferes with driving. D) cell phone use affects driving about as much as listening to the radio. Answer: C Rationale: Research on cell phone use while driving consistently shows that any cell phone use interferes with driving and increases the risk of accidents, regardless of whether the phone is used hands-free or not. This finding underscores the dangers of distracted driving associated with cell phone use. 2.4 Ethical Principles 1) Frankenstein A) was an early eighteenth-century monster movie. B) is a metaphor for the potential misuse of science. C) is an accurate account of early biological experimentation. D) originated in the early 1950s over concern about atomic power. Answer: B Rationale: "Frankenstein" serves as a metaphor for the potential misuse of science and technology, particularly in creating or altering life forms, highlighting ethical concerns surrounding scientific experimentation and innovation. 2) When do ethical issues apply in psychological research? A) Whenever we are using living organisms. B) Whenever we are using human participants. C) Whenever animals are used in research. D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: Ethical issues apply in psychological research whenever living organisms are involved, whether they are human participants or animals, as researchers have a responsibility to ensure the well-being, rights, and dignity of all subjects involved in their studies. 3) Which of the following best describe the attitude of scientists to ethical issues? A) Scientists have always been ethical. B) Scientists are becoming increasingly more sensitive to ethical issues in their work. C) Ethical issues are no longer a concern for scientists. D) Scientist believes that ethical issues are too strongly emphasized in today's litigious society. Answer: B Rationale: Scientists are becoming increasingly more sensitive to ethical issues in their work, recognizing the importance of ethical considerations in research design, data collection, and publication practices to ensure the integrity, credibility, and social responsibility of scientific inquiry. 4) What role did Hitler and the Nazis play in the development of scientific ethics? A) Hitler's Third Reich actually proposed the first ethical code for scientists in 1937. B) The experiments of Nazi scientists on concentration camp inmates shocked the world's scientists into looking at their own ethical principles. C) The advances in medicine from Nazi experiments provided support for the principle that all research should be judged based on a cost/benefit analysis. D) All of the above Answer: B Rationale: The experiments conducted by Nazi scientists on concentration camp inmates, which were widely condemned for their ethical violations, played a significant role in shocking the scientific community and prompting a reevaluation of ethical principles in research, leading to the development of more rigorous ethical standards and guidelines. 5) The ethical principles of research A) were developed by people other than scientists and then legally mandated for all science. B) are continually discussed and modified as scientists and others become more sensitive to ethical issues. C) have changed little since they were first established in the early 1950s. D) have become more permissive as scientists discovered that the original guidelines were excessively strict. Answer: B Rationale: Ethical principles in research are not static; they evolve over time as societal values change and as the scientific community becomes more aware of ethical considerations. Continuous discussion and modification are necessary to address emerging ethical issues effectively. 6) The American Psychological Association A) developed the first set of ethical guidelines in 1923. B) was one of the last organizations to develop ethical guidelines for research, but is generally recognized as having the most comprehensive set of guidelines. C) decided to adopt the guidelines of the American Medical Association (AMA) because those guidelines were comprehensive and entirely adequate to guide psychological research. D) was one of the first professional organizations to develop ethical guidelines for research. Answer: D Rationale: The American Psychological Association (APA) was indeed one of the pioneers in establishing ethical guidelines for research. It recognized the importance of ensuring ethical standards in psychological research early on. 7) At what phase of research should the ethical researcher most thoroughly look at ethical issues? A) procedures-design phase B) interpretation phase C) observation phase D) communication phase Answer: A Rationale: The procedures-design phase is crucial for addressing ethical issues as this is when the research methods and protocols are established. Identifying and addressing ethical concerns at this stage can help prevent ethical violations during the study. 8) If a researcher detects an ethical problem in the research design, the researcher should A) inform potential research participants about the ethical problem. B) get a legal waiver before conducting the research. C) modify the research plan to avoid the ethical problem. D) get permission from the university or research center to conduct the ethically questionable research. Answer: C Rationale: When an ethical problem is detected in the research design, the researcher should modify the plan to address the issue and ensure that ethical standards are upheld. This proactive approach is essential for conducting responsible research. 9) In the 1950s and 1960s, criticism of the ethics of research methodology grew in the area of A) biomedical research. B) Russian medical research. C) work with animals. D) cigarette testing on beagles in England. Answer: A Rationale: During the 1950s and 1960s, biomedical research faced significant criticism for ethical lapses, such as the use of experimental procedures without participants' informed consent and the exploitation of vulnerable populations. 10) Ethical concerns over possible inhumane treatment of human research participants arose in response to A) the conduct of German researchers during World War II. B) Hiroshima. C) the demands of Amnesty International. D) American involvement in Vietnam and Cambodia. Answer: A Rationale: The conduct of German researchers during World War II, particularly the unethical experiments conducted in concentration camps, led to heightened ethical concerns regarding the treatment of human research participants. 11) The major criticism of biomedical research in the U.S. during the 1950s and 1960s was A) medical safeguards were not being used. B) more surgery was being performed. C) risky new techniques were being used without the participant's permission. D) animals were being used for body parts for human transplantation. Answer: C Rationale: During the 1950s and 1960s, a major criticism of biomedical research in the U.S. was the use of risky new techniques without obtaining informed consent from research participants, leading to ethical violations. 12) The two main issues to think about when considering ethical requirements in research are A) societal need and the rights of the individual participants. B) individual morality and the need for new medicines. C) the needs of wider society and the needs of subgroups within the society. D) the rights of government and the rights of the people. Answer: A Rationale: Ethical considerations in research often revolve around balancing societal needs with the rights and welfare of individual research participants. This balance ensures that research contributes to the greater good while respecting individuals' autonomy and well-being. 13) The American Psychological Association (APA) was one of the first professional organizations to A) ban research on laboratory animals. B) raise its fees. C) develop ethical guidelines for research. D) censure Nazi Germany. Answer: C Rationale: The APA played a pioneering role in developing ethical guidelines for research, demonstrating its commitment to ensuring ethical standards in psychological research. 14) The American Psychological Association's (APA) position on ethical guidelines recognizes that some psychological research may A) violate the participant's constitutional rights. B) cause serious bodily harm to a participant. C) cause a participant's death. D) place a participant at risk for physical or emotional harm. Answer: D Rationale: The APA acknowledges that certain psychological research may pose risks to participants, whether physical or emotional. Recognizing these risks is essential for implementing appropriate safeguards to protect participants' well-being. 15) The American Psychological Association identifies A) research as the sole area to which ethical considerations apply. B) seventeen general principles of ethical behavior. C) five general ethical principles for psychologists. D) high fees as the major ethical issue in clinical treatment. Answer: C Rationale: The American Psychological Association (APA) indeed identifies five general ethical principles for psychologists, which include beneficence and nonmaleficence, fidelity and responsibility, integrity, justice, and respect for people's rights and dignity. 16) The American Psychological Association identifies major general ethical principle for psychologists to be A) high fees for service. B) taking care to do no harm. C) inadequate services for children. D) lack of sensitivity to women's issues. Answer: B Rationale: "Taking care to do no harm" aligns with the principle of nonmaleficence, which is a core ethical principle in psychology. The APA emphasizes the importance of psychologists avoiding actions that may cause harm to their clients. 17) The ethical standard for psychologists A) are meant to apply to all services performed by psychologists. B) go into effect in 2017. C) are meant to apply only to clinical treatment. D) do not include children as research subjects. Answer: A Rationale: Ethical standards for psychologists are designed to apply to all services provided by psychologists, whether in research, clinical practice, teaching, or other professional activities. These standards are intended to guide ethical behavior across various domains of psychology practice. 18) The first ethical principle for psychologists is A) do no harm. B) check your data. C) calculate the mean. D) spare the rod. Answer: A Rationale: "Do no harm" reflects the principle of nonmaleficence, which is foundational in ethical guidelines for psychologists. It underscores the importance of psychologists avoiding actions that may cause harm to their clients or research participants. 19) The ethical standards for psychologists A) include the need for honesty and truthfulness. B) focus primarily on issues of child abuse. C) have been in effect for nearly 250 years. D) are of little real importance in research. Answer: A Rationale: Ethical standards for psychologists do include the need for honesty and truthfulness. These standards are regularly updated and revised by the APA to address contemporary ethical issues and ensure the integrity of psychological practice and research. Test Bank for Research Methods: A Process of Inquiry Anthony M. Graziano, Michael L. Raulin 9780205900923, 9780205907694, 9780135705056