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Chapter 2: American Federalism Multiple-Choice Questions 1. A constitutional arrangement in which power is distributed between a central government and states is known as ________. A. unitary system B. federalism C. confederation D. bureaucracy E. socialism Answer: B Rationale: Federalism is the correct answer because it refers to the division of power between a central authority (the national government) and regional entities (the states or provinces). In a federal system, both levels of government have their own spheres of authority and autonomy, as outlined in the constitution. 2. A ________ divides governmental powers between the national government and state governments, giving clearly defined functions to each. A. unitary system B. local ordinance C. confederation D. legislature E. constitution Answer: E Rationale: The correct answer is E, constitution. A constitution is a foundational document that outlines the powers and responsibilities of the national government and state governments in a federal system. It establishes the framework for the division of powers and provides clarity on the functions of each level of government. 3. ________ is defined as a strict separation of powers between the national and state governments in which each layer has its own responsibilities, and reigns supreme within its constitutional realm. A. Dual federalism B. Cooperative federalism C. Competitive federalism D. Permissive federalism E. Coercive federalism Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A, dual federalism. Dual federalism, also known as "layer cake federalism," emphasizes the distinct and separate spheres of authority between the national and state governments, with each level exercising its powers independently within its constitutional realm. 4. ________, which was dominant from the 1930s through the 1970s, is defined as a flexible relationship between the national and state governments in which both work together on a variety of issues and programs. A. Dual federalism B. Cooperative federalism C. Competitive federalism D. Permissive federalism E. Coercive federalism Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B, cooperative federalism. Cooperative federalism, also known as "marble cake federalism," involves a more collaborative relationship between the national and state governments, where they cooperate and share responsibilities in addressing various policy issues and programs. 5. ________ is defined as a way to improve government performance by encouraging state and local governments to contend against each other for residents, businesses, investment, and national funding. A. Dual federalism B. Cooperative federalism C. Competitive federalism D. Permissive federalism E. Coercive federalism Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C, competitive federalism. Competitive federalism involves fostering competition among states and local governments to enhance efficiency and innovation in governance. It incentivizes jurisdictions to attract residents, businesses, and investment by offering favourable policies and services. 6. Which of the following statements about American federalism is true? A. Constitutionally, the federal system of the United States consists of only the national government and the 50 states. B. Dual federalism is also known as “marble-cake” federalism. C. New federalism is defined as a strong national government that only allows the states to act when it decides to do so. D. Permissive federalism is sometimes characterized as part of the devolution revolution. E. Federalism is a constitutional arrangement that concentrates power in a central government. Answer: A Rationale: The correct statement is A. American federalism consists of the national government and the 50 states, with each level of government possessing its own powers and responsibilities as outlined in the Constitution. Option B is incorrect because dual federalism is known as "layer cake" federalism, not "marble-cake" federalism. Option C is incorrect because it describes permissive federalism, not new federalism. Option D is correct, describing permissive federalism's association with the devolution revolution. Option E is incorrect because federalism distributes power between the central government and subnational entities. 7. ________ is defined as a strong national government that only allows the states to act when it decides to do so. A. Dual federalism B. Cooperative federalism C. Competitive federalism D. Permissive federalism E. Coercive federalism Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D, permissive federalism. Permissive federalism refers to a system in which the national government permits or allows the states to act within certain areas or under specific conditions but retains significant authority and control over policymaking and implementation. 8. ________ is defined as a strong national government that exerts tight control of the states through orders or mandates—typically without accompanying financial resources. A. Dual federalism B. Cooperative federalism C. Competitive federalism D. Permissive federalism E. Coercive federalism Answer: E Rationale: The correct answer is E, coercive federalism. Coercive federalism involves the national government exerting influence or control over the states through mandates, regulations, or directives, often without providing adequate funding or resources to support compliance. 9. ________ is defined as a recent effort to reduce the national government‘s power by returning, or devolving responsibilities to the states. It is sometimes characterized as part of the devolution revolution. A. Dual federalism B. Cooperative federalism C. New federalism D. Permissive federalism E. Coercive federalism Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C, new federalism. New federalism refers to a political philosophy and policy approach that advocates for reducing the scope and authority of the national government by devolving powers and responsibilities to the states. It emerged as a response to the perceived overreach of the federal government during the mid-20th century and gained prominence during the Reagan administration. 10. Coercive federalism is sometimes called ________ federalism, which focuses on the national government‘s strong voice in shaping what states do. A. dual B. centralized C. competitive D. permissive E. cooperative Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B, centralized federalism. Centralized federalism emphasizes the concentration of authority and decision-making power in the national government, which exerts significant control over state actions and policies. Coercive federalism, as a form of centralized federalism, emphasizes the imposition of federal mandates or directives on states without providing them with sufficient autonomy or resources. 11. A constitutional arrangement that concentrates power in a central government is known as a(n) ________ system. A. federal B. bureaucratic C. competitive D. unitary E. anarchic Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D, unitary. A unitary system centralizes power in the national or central government, with subnational entities such as states or provinces deriving their authority from the central government. 12. If the constitution of a country vests all governmental power in the central government, then it is most likely to follow a(n) ________ system of governance. A. unitary B. federal C. technocratic D. anarchic E. republican Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A, unitary. In a unitary system, all governmental powers are concentrated in the hands of the central government, with subnational entities having limited or delegated powers. 13. ________ refers to a constitutional arrangement in which sovereign nations or states, through a constitutional compact, create a central government but carefully limit its power and do not give it direct authority over individuals. A. Extradition B. Privatization C. Confederation D. National supremacy E. Federalism Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C, confederation. In a confederation, sovereign states or nations establish a central government with limited powers, primarily to address common concerns or provide collective security, while retaining significant autonomy and sovereignty. 14. Which of the following statements is true about the advantages of federalism? A. The division of power makes it easy for voters to hold elected officials accountable. B. Dividing power between the center and the states makes it far easier for the government to respond quickly to national problems. C. By emphasizing uniformity, federalism helps boost cohesiveness in the society. D. Variation in policies reduces redundancies, inefficiencies, and inequalities. E. Federalism provides training and creates opportunities for future national leaders. Answer: E Rationale: The correct answer is E. Federalism does provide training and opportunities for future national leaders because individuals can gain experience and leadership skills at the state or local level before pursuing national office. Options A, B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the advantages of federalism. 15. Which of the following statements is true about the disadvantages of federalism? A. Federalism does not protect citizens from tyranny. B. Federalism limits opportunities for future national leaders. C. Federalism discourages experimentation. D. Federalism promotes variation in policies that creates inefficiencies and inequalities. E. Federalism widens the gap between the government and the people. Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D. Federalism's promotion of policy variation among states can indeed lead to inefficiencies and inequalities due to disparities in resources, priorities, and implementation. Options A, B, C, and E do not accurately represent the disadvantages of federalism. 16. Which of the following statements about the constitutional framework of the U.S. federal system is true? A. Apart from the powers delegated to it by the Constitution, the national government has numerous inherent powers. B. Within the scope of its operations, the state government is supreme. C. The state governments have all of the powers delegated to the central government. D. Some powers are specifically denied to both the national and state governments. E. The constitutional framework of the U.S federal system is extremely complicated and ambiguous. Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D. The U.S. Constitution explicitly denies certain powers to both the national and state governments through mechanisms such as the Bill of Rights and other constitutional provisions. Options A, B, C, and E are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the constitutional framework of the U.S. federal system. 17. Powers given explicitly to the national government and listed in the Constitution are known as ________. A. implied powers B. delegated powers C. inherent powers D. reserve powers E. concurrent powers Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B, delegated powers. Delegated powers are those specifically granted to the national government by the Constitution, including powers enumerated in Article I, Section 8, and other constitutional provisions. 18. ________ are powers inferred from the express powers that allow Congress to carry out its functions. A. Implied powers B. Delegated powers C. Inherent powers D. Concurrent powers E. Reserve powers Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A, implied powers. Implied powers are not explicitly stated in the Constitution but are derived from the necessary and proper clause (Article I, Section 8, Clause 18) and enable Congress to execute its enumerated powers effectively. 19. In foreign affairs, the national government has ________ powers. The national government has the same authority to deal with other nations as if it were the central government in a unitary system. A. implied B. delegated C. inherent D. reserve E. concurrent Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C, inherent powers. Inherent powers are those that are not explicitly listed in the Constitution but are considered essential for the national government to conduct foreign affairs and defend the nation's interests on the global stage. 20. The ________ clause in the Constitution (Article I, Section 8, Clause 3) sets forth the implied powers of Congress. A. necessary and proper B. supremacy C. commerce D. full faith and credit E. extradition Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A, necessary and proper clause. Also known as the elastic clause, it grants Congress the authority to pass laws that are necessary and proper for executing its enumerated powers, thereby establishing Congress's implied powers. 21. The constitutional basis for the implied powers of Congress is the ________ clause. A. extradition B. supremacy C. commerce D. full faith and credit E. necessary and proper Answer: E Rationale: The correct answer is E, necessary and proper. The necessary and proper clause, also known as the elastic clause, grants Congress the authority to pass laws that are necessary and proper for executing its enumerated powers, thereby establishing Congress's implied powers. 22. Which of the following is true with regard to the supremacy clause? A. It refers to the clause in the Constitution that gives Congress the power to regulate all business activities that cross state lines or affect more than one state or other nations B. Contained in Article VI of the Constitution, the clause gives national laws the absolute power even when states have enacted a competing law. C. Contained in Article I of the Constitution, the clause sets forth the implied powers of Congress. D. It refers to the clause that states that Congress has the right to make all laws essential to carry out all powers the Constitution vests in the national government. E. Contained in Article IV of the Constitution, the clause requires each state to recognize the civil judgments rendered by the courts of the other states and to accept their public records and acts as valid. Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B. The supremacy clause, found in Article VI of the Constitution, establishes that the Constitution, federal laws, and treaties are the supreme law of the land, prevailing over conflicting state laws. 23. Which of the following is true with regard to the commerce clause? A. Contained in Article I of the Constitution, the clause sets forth the implied powers of Congress. B. It refers to the clause that states that Congress has the right to make all laws essential to carry out all powers the Constitution vests in the national government. C. It refers to the clause in the Constitution that requires each state to recognize the civil judgments rendered by the courts of the other states and to accept their public records and acts as valid. D. It refers to the clause in the Constitution that gives Congress the power to regulate all business activities that cross state lines or affect more than one state or other nations. E. Contained in Article VI of the Constitution, the clause gives national laws the absolute power even when states have enacted a competing law. Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D. The commerce clause, found in Article I, Section 8, Clause 3 of the Constitution, grants Congress the authority to regulate commerce among the states and with foreign nations, encompassing business activities that cross state lines or affect interstate commerce. 24. The landmark ruling of ________ in 1824, affirmed the broad authority of Congress over interstate commerce. A. McCulloch v. Maryland B. Wesberry v. Sanders C. Thornburg v. Gingles D. Gibbons v. Ogden E. Reynolds v. Sims Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D, Gibbons v. Ogden. This Supreme Court case clarified Congress's power to regulate interstate commerce under the commerce clause of the Constitution, affirming the broad authority of Congress over interstate commerce. 25. ________ refers to the requirement the national government imposes as a condition for receiving federal funds. A. Federal mandate B. Pro bono C. Federal grant D. Term limit E. Federal bond Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A, federal mandate. Federal mandates are requirements imposed by the national government as conditions for states or localities to receive federal funding or grants. 26. Congress frequently requires states to provide specific programs—for example, services to indigent mothers, and clean air and water. These requirements are called ________. A. codicils B. term limits C. federal mandates D. project grants E. injunctions Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C, federal mandates. Federal mandates are directives or requirements imposed by Congress on states or local governments as a condition for receiving federal funds, often related to specific programs or services. 27. All powers not specifically delegated to the national government by the Constitution are known as ________ powers. These powers can be found in the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution. A. implied B. delegated C. inherent D. reserve E. concurrent Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D, reserve powers. Reserve powers, as outlined in the Tenth Amendment, are those not expressly granted to the national government or prohibited to the states, thereby reserved for the states or the people. 28. The reserve power can be found in the ________ to the Constitution. A. Fifth Amendment B. Tenth Amendment C. Seventh Amendment D. Fourth Amendment E. Eleventh Amendment Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B, Tenth Amendment. The Tenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution explicitly reserves powers not delegated to the national government nor prohibited to the states, thereby affirming the principle of federalism. 29. Only the states have the powers to create schools and local governments. These powers exemplify ________. A. concurrent powers B. reserve powers C. implied powers D. inherent powers E. powers to maintain national security Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B, reserve powers. Reserve powers, as specified in the Tenth Amendment, are those not granted to the national government and reserved for the states or the people, such as the authority to establish schools and local governments. 30. Concurrent powers refer to ________. A. powers not specifically delegated to the national government by the Constitution B. powers given exclusively to the national government and listed in the Constitution C. powers inferred from the express powers that allow Congress to carry out its functions D. powers that the Constitution gives to both the national and state governments E. powers that the Constitution exclusively gives to the national government for the protection of national security Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D. Concurrent powers are those powers shared by both the national and state governments, as outlined in the U.S. Constitution, including the power to tax, regulate commerce, and establish courts. 31. Which of the following exemplifies concurrent power? A. the power to coin money B. the power to impose and collect taxes C. the power to oversee elementary education D. the power to regulate interstate commerce E. the power to wage war Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B. Concurrent powers are those shared by both the national and state governments, and the power to impose and collect taxes is an example of such a power. 32. Which of the following statements is true about the constitutional limits and obligations? A. The Constitution prohibits state governments to oversee primary and elementary education. B. The Constitution authorizes states to keep troops or ships of war in time of peace. C. The Constitution mandates state governments to levy taxes on imports. D. The Constitution authorizes state governments to make treaties with foreign governments. E. The Constitution prohibits state governments to engage in war and tax foreign ships. Answer: E Rationale: The correct answer is E. The Constitution reserves the power to declare war and regulate foreign commerce to the federal government, thus prohibiting states from engaging in war and taxing foreign ships. 33. In ________, the Court held that states were not required to conduct instant national background checks prior to selling a handgun. A. McCulloch v. Maryland B. United States v. Morrison C. Printz v. United States D. Gibbons v. Ogden E. Baxter v. Montana Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C, Printz v. United States. In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that certain provisions of the Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act, requiring state and local law enforcement officers to perform background checks on handgun purchasers, violated the Tenth Amendment. 34. Which of the following is true with regard to the full faith and credit clause? A. It refers to the clause in the Constitution that sets forth the implied powers of Congress. B. It refers to the clause in the Constitution that states that Congress has the right to make all laws essential to carry out all powers the Constitution vests in the national government. C. It refers to the clause in the Constitution requiring each state to recognize the civil judgments rendered by the courts of the other states and to accept their acts as valid. D. It refers to the clause in the Constitution that gives Congress the power to regulate all business activities that cross state lines or affect more than one state or other nations. E. It refers to the clause contained in Article VI of the Constitution that gives national laws the absolute power even when states have enacted a competing law. Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C. The full faith and credit clause, found in Article IV, Section 1 of the Constitution, requires states to recognize the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of other states. 35. The legal process whereby an alleged criminal offender is surrendered by the officials of one state to officials of the state in which the crime is alleged to have been committed is called ________. A. pre-emption B. malapportionment C. pro bono D. gerrymandering E. extradition Answer: E Rationale: The correct answer is E. Extradition is the legal process through which an individual charged with a crime in one state is surrendered to the authorities of another state where the alleged crime was committed. 36. Interstate compact refers to ________. A. an agreement among two or more states B. the legal process related to extradition C. an agreement between a state and a foreign government D. the constitutional right of a state to oversee elementary education E. the power implicitly reserved for a state. Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A. An interstate compact is a legally binding agreement or contract between two or more states, often used to address shared concerns or manage resources across state lines. 37. National supremacy refers to ________. A. the legal process whereby an alleged criminal offender is surrendered by the officials of one state to officials of the state in which the crime is alleged to have been committed B. a constitutional doctrine that whenever conflict occurs between the constitutionally authorized actions of the national government and those of a state or local government, the actions of the national government prevail C. a strict separation of powers between the national and state governments in which each layer has its own responsibilities, and reigns supreme within its constitutional realm D. the powers of the national government in foreign affairs that, according to the Supreme Court, do not depend on constitutional grants but rather grow out of the national government‘s obligation to protect the nation from domestic and foreign threats E. a constitutional arrangement in which sovereign nations or states, by compact, create a central government but carefully limit its power and do not give it direct authority over individuals Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B. National supremacy, as established by the supremacy clause in Article VI of the Constitution, dictates that federal law takes precedence over conflicting state or local laws when a conflict arises. 38. In ________ (1819), the Supreme Court had the first of many chances to define the division of power between the national and state governments. A. Reynolds v. Sims B. McCulloch v. Maryland C. Wesberry v. Sanders D. Gibbons v. Ogden E. Thornburg v. Gingles Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B, McCulloch v. Maryland. In this landmark case, the Supreme Court established the principle of national supremacy and upheld the implied powers of Congress under the necessary and proper clause. 39. Preemption is best described as ________. A. the right of a national law or regulation to preclude enforcement of a state or local law or regulation B. an agreement among two or more states that must be approved by Congress C. the legal process whereby an alleged criminal offender is surrendered by the officials of one state to officials of the state in which the crime is alleged to have been committed D. a requirement the national government imposes as a condition for receiving federal funds E. a strict separation of powers between the national and state governments in which each layer has its own responsibilities, and reigns supreme within its constitutional realm Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pre-emption occurs when a valid federal law supersedes or precludes the enforcement of conflicting state or local laws on the same subject matter. 40. ________ occurs when a national law or regulation takes precedence over a state or local law or regulation. A. Extradition B. Failure of the constitutional machinery C. Interstate compact D. Pre-emption E. Confederation Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D. Pre-emption refers to the situation where a federal law or regulation supersedes or overrides any conflicting state or local laws or regulations on the same subject matter. 41. People who favor national action over action at the state and local levels are known as ________. A. recidivists B. centralists C. lobbyists D. trustees E. delegates Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B. Centralists advocate for a strong central or national government and believe that it should play a dominant role in governance, often at the expense of state and local authority. 42. People who favor state or local action rather than national action are known as ________. A. decentralists B. recidivists C. lobbyists D. trustees E. delegates Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A. Decentralists advocate for greater autonomy and authority for state and local governments, preferring that governance decisions be made at those levels rather than at the national level. 43. Which of the following is true of the centralist position? A. The centralist position has been consistently criticized by presidents, Congress, and the Supreme Court. B. Centralists champion the idea of the Constitution as an interstate compact. C. Centralists believe that the national government should not interfere with activities reserved for the states. D. Centralists argue that the national government is a government of all the people, whereas each state speaks for only some of the people. E. Centralists have been particularly supportive of the devolution revolution, which argues for returning responsibilities to the states. Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D. Centralists argue that the national government, being elected by all citizens, represents the entire nation's interests, while individual states only represent a subset of the population. 44. Which of the following is true of the decentralist position? A. Decentralists have been consistently supported by presidents, Congress, and the Supreme Court. B. Decentralists argue that the national government is a government of all the people, whereas each state speaks for only some of the people. C. Decentralists believe that the national government must interfere with activities reserved for the states in order to ensure efficient governance. D. Decentralists insist that state governments are closer to the people and reflect the people‘s wishes more accurately than the national government does. E. Decentralists have not been particularly supportive of the devolution revolution, which argues for returning responsibilities to the states. Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decentralists argue that state governments, being closer to the people, are better suited to understand and address the needs and preferences of their citizens than the distant national government. 45. Decentralists differ from centralists in that ________. A. decentralists believe that the national government should not interfere with activities reserved for the states B. decentralists have traditionally enjoyed the support of the Supreme Court C. decentralists reject the idea of the Constitution as an interstate compact D. decentralists have not been particularly supportive of the devolution revolution E. decentralists favor national action over action at the state and local levels Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A. Decentralists advocate for greater state and local autonomy and believe that the national government should not interfere with matters reserved for state and local control. 46. ________ refers to the effort to slow the growth of the national government by returning many functions to the states. A. Devolution revolution B. Pre-emption C. Pro bono D. Interstate compact E. Extradition Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A. The devolution revolution involves transferring powers and responsibilities from the federal government back to the states, aiming to reduce the size and scope of the national government. 47. National grants serve four purposes, the most important of which is to ________. A. supply state and local governments with revenue B. establish minimum national standards for such things as highways and clean air C. equalize national resources among the states D. attack national problems but minimize the growth of national agencies E. spend national taxes through grants in states where the poor live Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D. National grants are primarily intended to address national problems while minimizing the expansion of national agencies, allowing states to take the lead in implementing solutions. 48. Which of the following statements best describes project grants? A. grants that are distributed to the states based on procedures set out in the granting legislation B. grants offered by national government to support states for specific activities, such as scientific research and homeland security C. grants for specific purposes, such as Medicaid health care for the poor, which are tightly monitored to ensure that the money is spent exactly as directed D. grants made for more generalized governmental functions such as public assistance, health services, child care, or community development E. grants that are generally not restricted to a fixed amount of time and can be spent within flexible guidelines Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B. Project grants are awarded by the national government to support specific activities or projects undertaken by states, such as scientific research or homeland security efforts. 49. Formula grants refer to the ________. A. grants offered by national government to support states for specific activities, such as scientific research and homeland security B. grants made for more generalized governmental functions such as public assistance and health services C. grants for specific purposes that are tightly monitored to ensure that the money is spent exactly as directed D. grants that are generally not restricted to a fixed amount of time and can be spent freely E. grants that are distributed to the states based on procedures set out in the granting legislation Answer: E Rationale: The correct answer is E. Formula grants are allocated to states based on predetermined formulas established by legislation, rather than being awarded for specific projects or activities. 50. ________ grants for specific purposes, such as Medicaid health care for the poor, are tightly monitored to ensure that the money is spent exactly as directed. A. Project B. Pro bono C. Categorical D. Block E. Reserve Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C. Categorical grants are awarded for specific purposes and come with strict guidelines and monitoring to ensure that funds are used as intended, such as Medicaid for healthcare for the poor. 51. Which of the following statements about block grants is true? A. Block grants are for specific purposes that are tightly monitored to ensure that the money is spent exactly as directed. B. Block grants are offered by national government to support states for specific activities, such as scientific research and homeland security. C. By definition, the blocks of funding are provided with numerous requirements attached. D. States have no flexibility in deciding how to spend block grant dollars. E. Block grants are limited to specific amounts set by the national government. Answer: E Rationale: The correct answer is E. Block grants provide states with a fixed amount of money to spend within broad policy areas, allowing states more flexibility in deciding how to allocate the funds to address local needs. 52. ________ is both a categorical and formula grant. A. National research grants from the National Science Foundation B. The National School Lunch Program C. The Community Development Block Grant program D. The Federal Aviation Administration‘s Airport Improvement Program E. National research grants from the National Institutes of Health Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B. The National School Lunch Program is both a categorical grant, as it targets specific groups or areas, and a formula grant, as it provides funding based on a predetermined formula related to the number of eligible children. 53. The Community Development Block Grant (CDBG) program is ________. A. both a categorical and formula grant B. both a block and formula grant C. a project grant D. a block grant only E. a formula grant only Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B. The Community Development Block Grant program combines elements of both block grants, providing fixed amounts of money for broad policy areas, and formula grants, allocating funds based on predetermined formulas. 54. Which of the following statements about national grants is true? A. To supply state and local governments with revenue is the most important purpose of national grants. B. The purpose of national grants is to maximize the growth of national agencies. C. National grants establish maximum national standards for such things as highways and clean air. D. The four types of national grants are always combined within a single program area. E. The national government often mixes and matches the grant types to accomplish its goals. Answer: E Rationale: The correct answer is E. National grants are often mixed and matched to achieve specific policy objectives, and they serve various purposes beyond simply supplying revenue to state and local governments. 55. The ________ is both a block and project grant. A. National research grants from the National Science Foundation B. The National School Lunch Program C. The Community Development Block Grant program D. The Federal Aviation Administration‘s Airport Improvement Program E. National research grants from the National Institutes of Health Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D. The Federal Aviation Administration's Airport Improvement Program provides funding to airports (block grant aspect) for specific projects such as runway repairs or terminal construction (project grant aspect). 56. In the context of national grants, Democrats tend to favor ________. A. fewer strings and less national supervision B. more detailed, federally supervised spending C. broad, discretionary block grants D. delegation of spending discretion to the local governments E. delegation of spending discretion to the state governments Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B. Democrats often advocate for more detailed federal oversight and spending requirements to ensure that federal funds are used as intended. 57. In the context of national grants, Republicans have consistently ________. A. favored fewer strings, less national supervision B. favored more detailed, federally supervised spending C. favored more national supervision D. favored low state control E. criticized state governments for their inefficiency in spending block grants Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A. Republicans generally prefer granting more autonomy to states and local governments, advocating for fewer federal regulations and restrictions on how funds are used. 58. The ________ of 1995 was championed by then-House Republican Speaker Newt Gingrich as part of the GOP‘s Contract with America. The act was considered part of what commentators called the “Newt Federalism.” A. American Recovery and Reinvestment Act B. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act C. Elementary and Secondary Education Act D. Affordable Care Act E. No Child Left Behind Act Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B. The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 aimed to reduce the number of unfunded federal mandates imposed on state and local governments, aligning with the principles of devolution championed by Newt Gingrich. 59. Which of the following statements about the growth of national government is true? A. Throughout the past two centuries, power has accrued to the national government. B. The national government cannot supervise relationships between multinational corporations and their thousands of worldwide employees. C. With the changing politics of federalism, Congress is being pressured to increase the size and scope of national programs. D. State governments cannot supervise the relationships between small merchants and their few employees. E. The national budget can become a positive subject for Congress if it grows too large. Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A. Over the past two centuries, the national government has gradually accrued more power relative to state governments, particularly following events like the Civil War and the New Deal. 60. After the civil rights revolution of the 1960s, segregationists ________. A. criticized the local government B. emphasized the dangers of decentralization C. argued that the protection of civil rights was a proper function of the national government D. continued to champion the rights of racial and religious minorities E. feared that national officials would work for racial integration Answer: E Rationale: The correct answer is E. Segregationists feared that national officials would work to enforce racial integration, which they opposed, leading them to emphasize the importance of decentralization and states' rights. True-False Questions 1. A constitution divides governmental powers between the national government and state governments, giving clearly defined functions to each. Answer: True Rationale: This statement accurately reflects the concept of federalism, where powers are distributed between the national and state governments, with each having its own set of responsibilities and functions as outlined in the constitution. 2. Unitary system is a constitutional arrangement in which power is distributed between a central government and states. Answer: False Rationale: A unitary system is characterized by the concentration of power in a central government, with little to no power granted to subnational units such as states or provinces. It does not involve the distribution of power between a central government and states as described in the statement. 3. When one political party loses control of the national government, it ceases to challenge the party in power at the national level. Answer: False Rationale: Political parties typically continue to challenge and oppose the party in power, regardless of whether they control the national government or not. Opposition parties play a crucial role in holding the government accountable and advocating for their own policy agendas. 4. Information about state action spreads quickly from government to government, especially during periods when the national government is relatively slow to respond to pressing issues. Answer: True Rationale: In a federal system like the United States, states often act as laboratories of democracy, implementing various policies and programs. When the national government is slow to respond to certain issues, successful state actions can attract attention and be adopted by other states or even inform national policy discussions. 5. The state governments have all of the powers not delegated to the central government except those denied to them by the Constitution and their state constitutions. Answer: True Rationale: This statement reflects the principle of reserved powers, which states that any powers not specifically granted to the federal government by the Constitution are reserved for the states or the people. However, states are also limited by the Constitution and their own state constitutions. 6. Only the national government has the reserve powers to create schools and local governments. Answer: False Rationale: The creation of schools and local governments is typically within the realm of state powers rather than reserved powers of the national government. States have broad authority over matters of education and local governance, including the establishment and management of schools and local governmental entities. 7. Conducting elections and coining money are examples of powers reserved for state governments. Answer: False Rationale: Conducting elections is generally considered a state responsibility, but coining money is an exclusive power of the federal government. States are prohibited from coining money under the Constitution, as this power is explicitly granted to the national government. 8. The Constitution allows states to tax foreign ships. Answer: False Rationale: The power to regulate commerce, including taxation of foreign entities like ships, is granted exclusively to the federal government by the Constitution. States do not have the authority to tax foreign ships or regulate international commerce. 9. Pre-emption occurs when a national law or regulation takes precedence over a state or local law or regulation. Answer: True Rationale: Pre-emption is a legal doctrine that asserts the supremacy of federal law over conflicting state or local laws. When Congress enacts a law that conflicts with state or local laws on the same subject matter, the federal law pre-empts or overrides those conflicting laws. 10. Decentralists are people who Favor national action over action at the state and local levels. Answer: False Rationale: Decentralists are individuals who advocate for greater decision-making authority at the state and local levels, favouring devolution of power away from the national government. They believe that state and local governments are often better positioned to address the needs of their communities compared to centralized national action. 11. Centralists believe that the national government should not interfere with activities reserved for the states. Answer: False Rationale: Centralists advocate for a stronger role of the national government in governance, including involvement in areas typically reserved for states. They believe in a more centralized approach to governance where the national government plays a significant role in addressing national issues and setting policies. 12. To attack national problems but minimize the growth of national agencies is the most important purpose served by national grants. Answer: True Rationale: National grants are often used to address national problems such as poverty, healthcare, and education while minimizing the expansion of federal agencies. This approach allows for targeted funding to address specific issues without significantly increasing the size and bureaucracy of federal agencies. 13. In order for a state or local government to receive funding through a project grant, the state or local government must apply for the funding. Answer: True Rationale: Project grants typically require state or local governments to submit proposals or applications detailing how they intend to use the funding for specific projects or programs. This ensures that the funding is allocated to projects that meet certain criteria and objectives. 14. In the context of national grants, Democrats “have consistently favored fewer strings, less national supervision, and the delegation of spending discretion to the state and local governments.” Answer: False Rationale: Democrats have historically favored more federal oversight and regulation through national grants, including attaching more strings and conditions to the funding to ensure compliance with federal policies and priorities. 15. State officials generally prefer categorical grants that have fewer restrictions on how the states can spend the funding to block grants that have more restrictions. Answer: False Rationale: State officials often prefer block grants over categorical grants because block grants provide greater flexibility in how the funds are used, allowing states to address their specific needs and priorities. Categorical grants come with more restrictions and are often earmarked for specific purposes, limiting state flexibility. 16. Fewer national dollars do not necessarily mean fewer national controls. Answer: True Rationale: Even with reduced federal funding, the federal government can still exert control through regulatory measures, mandates, or conditional funding requirements. Therefore, a decrease in federal funding does not necessarily translate to a decrease in federal control over state and local governments. 17. The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act requires Congress to evaluate the impact of unfunded mandates and imposes mild constraints on Congress itself. Answer: True Rationale: The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) requires Congress to assess the financial impact of proposed legislation on state, local, and tribal governments before passing it. UMRA also imposes certain procedural requirements on Congress to consider alternatives to unfunded mandates and mitigate their effects. 18. Only state governments can supervise relationships between multinational corporations and their thousands of worldwide employees. Answer: False Rationale: Supervision of relationships between multinational corporations and their employees is primarily a federal responsibility, especially concerning issues such as labor laws, workplace safety, and international trade regulations. State governments may have limited authority in specific areas, but the federal government has broader jurisdiction. 19. The growth of the national economy and the creation of national transportation and communications networks altered people‘s attitudes toward the national government. Answer: True Rationale: The expansion of the national economy and infrastructure, such as transportation and communication networks, has contributed to a greater sense of national identity and connectivity among Americans. This has influenced attitudes toward the national government, with many viewing it as essential for managing national affairs and promoting economic growth. 20. The politics of federalism are changing, and Congress is being pressured to reduce the size and scope of national programs, while dealing with the demands for homeland security. Answer: True Rationale: The politics of federalism have evolved over time, with increasing pressure on Congress to balance national programs with demands for homeland security and address concerns about the size and scope of the federal government. This dynamic reflects changing priorities and challenges in governance. 21. The cost of entitlement programs such as Social Security and Medicare is declining steadily. Answer: False Rationale: The cost of entitlement programs such as Social Security and Medicare is not declining steadily; in fact, it is expected to rise significantly in the coming years due to factors such as an aging population and rising healthcare costs. This presents challenges for budgetary planning and fiscal sustainability. 22. The national government is not necessarily more sympathetic to the claims of minorities than state or city governments are. Answer: True Rationale: While the national government may advocate for the rights of minorities and enact legislation to protect their interests, it does not guarantee that the national government will always be more sympathetic to minority claims than state or city governments. Attitudes and policies toward minorities can vary at different levels of government. 23. Most American citizens do not have strong attachments to the Constitution‘s federal system measured broadly to mean all levels of government. Answer: False Rationale: Many American citizens have strong attachments to the Constitution's federal system, which delineates the powers and responsibilities of the national and state governments. Federalism is a fundamental principle of the U.S. political system, and citizens often value the balance of power between different levels of government. 24. Federalism can be a source of enormous frustration, especially when national and state governments disagree on basic issues such as civil rights and liberties. Answer: True Rationale: Federalism can lead to conflicts and disagreements between national and state governments, particularly on contentious issues such as civil rights and liberties. These disagreements can result in legal battles, policy gridlock, and challenges in achieving consensus on national priorities. 25. Although Americans still trust their state and local governments more than the national government in Washington, D.C., they are increasingly reluctant to give their states and localities a ringing endorsement. Answer: True Rationale: While Americans may generally trust their state and local governments more than the national government, there is growing skepticism and reluctance to give unqualified endorsements to any level of government. Factors such as political polarization, perceptions of government effectiveness, and policy outcomes influence attitudes toward state and local governments. Short Answer Questions 1. Define federalism. Answer: An ideal response would be: Federalism refers to a constitutional arrangement in which power is distributed between a central government and states, which are sometimes called provinces in other nations. The national and state governments exercise direct authority over individuals. 2. Distinguish between dual federalism and cooperative federalism. Answer: An ideal response would be: Dual or “layer-cake” federalism is defined as a strict separation of powers between the national and state governments in which each layer has its own responsibilities, and reigns supreme within its constitutional realm. On the other hand, cooperative or “marble-cake” federalism refers to a flexible relationship between the national and state government in which both work together on a variety of issues and programs. 3. Distinguish between competitive federalism and permissive federalism. Answer: An ideal response would be: Competitive federalism is defined as a way to improve government performance by encouraging state and local governments to compete against each other for residents, businesses, investment, and national funding. Permissive federalism, on the other hand, refers to a strong national government that only allows, or permits the states to act when it decides to do so. 4. Distinguish between coercive federalism and new federalism. Answer: An ideal response would be: Coercive federalism is defined as a strong national government that exerts tight control of the states through orders or mandates—typically without accompanying financial resources. New federalism, on the other hand, is defined as a recent effort to reduce the national government‘s power by returning, or devolving responsibilities to the states. 5. List the different advantages of federalism. Answer: An ideal response would be: The different advantages of federalism are as follows: a) Federalism checks the growth of tyranny. b) Federalism allows unity without uniformity. c) Federalism encourages experimentation. d) Federalism provides training and creates opportunities for future national leaders. e) Federalism keeps government closer to the people. 6. Briefly describe the supremacy clause and the commerce clause. Answer: An ideal response would be: Contained in Article VI of the Constitution, the supremacy clause gives national laws the absolute power even when states have enacted a competing law. The Commerce clause in the Constitution (Article I, Section 8, Clause 1) gives Congress the power to regulate all business activities that cross state lines or affect more than one state or other nations. 7. Define national supremacy. Answer: An ideal response would be: National supremacy is a constitutional doctrine, which states that whenever conflict occurs between the constitutionally authorized actions of the national government and those of a state or local government, the actions of the national government prevail. 8. What is the difference between centralists and decentralists? Answer: An ideal response would be: Centralists are people who favor national action over action at the state and local levels. On the other hand, decentralists are those who favor state or local action rather than national action. 9. List the four purposes served by national grants. Answer: An ideal response would be: National grants serve four purposes, the most important of which is the fourth: a) To supply state and local governments with revenue b) To establish minimum national standards for such things as highways and clean air c) To equalize resources among the states by taking money from people with high incomes through national taxes and spending it, through grants, in states where the poor live d) To attack national problems but minimize the growth of national agencies 10. How are national grants classified? Answer: An ideal response would be: National, or federal, grants can be classified on two separate dimensions: (1) how much discretion the national government uses in making the grant decision and, (2) what kinds of requirements the national government puts on how the funding can be spent. There are four types of national grants to the states: (1) project grants, (2) formula grants, (3) categorical grants, and (4) block grants (sometimes called flexible grants). Essay Questions 1. Evaluate the disadvantages of federalism. Answer: An ideal response would be: The disadvantages of federalism are as follows: a) Dividing power makes it much more difficult for government to respond quickly to national problems: There was a great demand for stronger and more effective homeland security after the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks, and the national government created a new Department of Homeland Security in response. However, the department quickly discovered that there would be great difficulty coordinating its efforts with 50 state governments and thousands of local governments already providing fire, police, transportation, immigration, and other governmental services. b) The division of power makes it difficult for voters to hold elected officials accountable. c) The lack of uniformity can lead to conflict: States often disagree on issues such as health care, school reform, and crime control. In January 2008, for example, California joined 15 other states in suing the national government over a ruling issued by the national Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). For decades, the EPA had allowed California to enact tougher air quality restrictions through higher mileage standards than required by the national Clean Air Act. The Bush administration rejected a similar request for permission to raise mileage standards in 2008, only to be reversed by the Obama administration in 2009. d) Variation in policies creates redundancies, inefficiencies, and inequalities: Labor laws, teacher certification rules, gun ownership laws, and even the licensing requirements for optometrists vary throughout the 50 states, and this is on top of many national regulations. Companies seeking to do business across state lines must learn and abide by many different sets of laws, while individuals in licensed professions must consider whether they face recertification if they choose to relocate to another state. Where national laws do not exist, it is tempting for each state to try to undercut others‘ regulations to get a competitive advantage in such areas as attracting new industry, regulating environmental concerns, or setting basic eligibility standards for welfare or health benefits. 2. Briefly explain the powers of the national government. Answer: An ideal response would be: The Constitution explicitly gives legislative, executive, and judicial powers to the national government. In addition to these delegated or express powers, such as the power to regulate interstate commerce and to appropriate funds, the national government has assumed constitutionally implied powers, such as the power to create banks, which are inferred from delegated powers. The constitutional basis for the implied powers of Congress is the necessary and proper clause. This clause gives Congress the right “to make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested … in the Government of the United States.” In foreign affairs, the national government has inherent powers. The national government has the same authority to deal with other nations as if it were the central government in a unitary system. Such inherent powers do not depend on specific constitutional provisions but exist because of the creation of the national government itself. For example, the government of the United States may acquire territory by purchase or by discovery and occupation, even though no specific clause in the Constitution allows such acquisition. The national and state governments may have their own lists of powers, but the national government relies on four constitutional pillars for its ultimate authority over the states: (1) the supremacy clause, (2) the war power, (3) the commerce clause, and especially (4) the power to tax and spend for the general welfare. 3. Describe the centralist position. Answer: An ideal response would be: The centralist position has been supported by presidents, Congress, and the Supreme Court. Presidents Abraham Lincoln, Theodore Roosevelt, Franklin Roosevelt, and Lyndon Johnson were particularly strong supporters, and the Supreme Court has generally ruled in favor of the centralist position. Centralists reject the idea of the Constitution as an interstate compact. They view it as a supreme law established by the people. The national government is an agent of the people, not of the states, because it was the people who drew up the Constitution and created the national government. They intended that the national political process should define the central government‘s powers and that the national government be denied authority only when the Constitution clearly prohibits it from acting. Centralists argue that the national government is a government of all the people, whereas each state speaks for only some of the people. Although the Tenth Amendment clearly reserves powers for the states, it does not deny the national government the authority to exercise all of its powers to the fullest extent. Moreover, the supremacy of the national government restricts the states because governments representing part of the people cannot be allowed to interfere with a government representing all of them. 4. Briefly describe the four types of national grants. Answer: An ideal response would be: There are four types of national grants to the states: (1) project grants, (2) formula grants, (3) categorical grants, and (4) block grants (sometimes called flexible grants). Project Grants: The national government supports states through project grants for specific activities, such as scientific research, homeland security, and some education programs. Most project grants are awarded through a competitive process following an application process. Project grants are generally restricted to a fixed amount of time and can only be spent within tight guidelines. Formula Grants: Formula grants are distributed to the states based on procedures set out in the granting legislation. The simplest formula is population—each recipient government receives a certain number of dollars for each person who lives in the jurisdiction. More complex formulas might define the target population—for example, the number of people below the poverty line or above the age of 65. Categorical Grants: Categorical grants are made for specific purposes; hence, the term “categorical.” Categorical grants for specific purposes, such as Medicaid health care for the poor, are tightly monitored to ensure that the money is spent exactly as directed. Categorical grants have the most strings attached—state and local governments need to conform to all aspects of the funding legislation in order to receive the national funds. Block Grants: Block grants are made for more generalized governmental functions such as public assistance, health services, child care, or community development. By definition, these blocks of funding are provided with very few requirements attached. 5. What are the implications of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995? Answer: An ideal response would be: The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 was championed by then-House Republican Speaker Newt Gingrich as part of the GOP‘s Contract with America. The act was considered part of what commentators called the “Newt Federalism.” The law requires Congress to evaluate the impact of unfunded mandates and imposes mild constraints on Congress itself. A congressional committee that approves any legislation containing a national mandate must draw attention to the mandate in its report and describe its cost to state and local governments. If the committee intends any mandate to be partially unfunded, it must explain why it is appropriate for state and local governments to pay for it. At least during its first 15 years, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act has been mostly successful in restraining mandates. According to the National Conference of State Legislatures, the national government has enacted only 11 laws since 1995 that impose unfunded mandates. Three of these unfunded mandates involved increases in the minimum wage that apply to all state and local employees. Test Bank for State and Local Government by the People David B. Magleby Paul C. Light, Christine L. Nemacheck 9780205966530, 9780205828401
