This Document Contains Chapters 39 to 40 Chapter 39: Motor Mechanisms and Behavior 39.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Compared to viewing a distant object, viewing an object held within 5 cm of the eye requires a lens that A) has been flattened, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles. B) has been made more spherical, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles. C) has been flattened, as a result of relaxation of the ciliary muscles. D) has been made more spherical, as a result of relaxation of the ciliary muscles. E) does not change its shape. Answer: B 2) The contraction of skeletal muscles is based on A) actin filaments coiling up to become shorter. B) myosin filaments coiling up to become shorter. C) actin and myosin filaments both coiling up to become shorter. D) actin cross-bridges binding to myosin and transitioning from a high-energy to a low-energy state. E) myosin cross-bridges binding to actin and transitioning from a high-energy to a low-energy state. Answer: E 3) Compared to oxidative skeletal muscle fibers, those classified as glycolytic typically have A) a higher concentration of myoglobin. B) a higher density of mitochondria. C) a darker visual appearance. D) a smaller diameter. E) less resistance to fatigue. Answer: E 4) Myasthenia gravis is a form of muscle paralysis in which A) motor neurons lose their myelination and the ability to rapidly fire action potentials. B) acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by an overactive immune system. C) ATP production becomes uncoupled from mitochondrial electron transport. D) the spinal cord is infected with a virus that attacks muscle stretch receptors. E) troponin molecules become unable to bind calcium ions. Answer: B 5) A skeletal muscle deprived of adequate ATP supplies will A) immediately relax. B) release all actin—myosin bonds. C) enter a state where actin and myosin are unable to separate. D) fire many more action potentials than usual and enter a state of "rigor." E) sequester all free calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: C 6) The calcium ions released into the cytosol during excitation of skeletal muscle bind to A) troponin. B) tropomyosin. C) actin. D) myosin. E) transverse tubules. Answer: A 7) The "motor unit" in vertebrate skeletal muscle refers to A) one actin binding site and its myosin partner. B) one sarcomere and all of its actin and myosin filaments. C) one myofibril and all of its sarcomeres. D) one motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers on which it has synapses. E) an entire muscle. Answer: D 8) The muscles of a recently deceased human can remain in a contracted state, termed rigor mortis, for several hours, due to the lack of A) phosphorylated myosin. B) ATP needed to break actin-myosin bonds. C) calcium ions needed to bind to troponin. D) oxygen supplies needed for myoglobin. E) sodium ions needed to fire action potentials. Answer: B 9) Calcium ions initiate sliding of filaments in skeletal muscles by A) breaking the actin-myosin cross-bridges. B) binding to the troponin complex, which then relocates tropomyosin. C) transmitting action potentials across the neuromuscular junction. D) spreading action potentials through the T tubules. E) reestablishing the resting membrane potential following an action potential. Answer: B 10) Muscle cells are stimulated by neurotransmitters released from the synaptic terminals of A) T tubules. B) motor neuron axons. C) sensory neuron axons. D) motor neuron dendrites. E) sensory neuron dendrites. Answer: B 11) In a relaxed skeletal muscle, actin is not chemically bound to A) myosin. B) troponin. C) tropomyosin. D) Z lines. Answer: A 12) Skeletal muscle contraction begins when calcium ions bind to A) energized cross-bridges. B) myosin. C) actin. D) tropomyosin. E) troponin. Answer: E 13) A skeletal muscle with abnormally low levels of calcium ions would be impaired in A) ATP hydrolysis. B) the initiation of an action potential. C) maintaining its resting membrane potential. D) initiating contraction. E) its ability to sustain glycolysis. Answer: D 14) Which of the following is the correct sequence that describes the excitation and contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber? 1. Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding sites. 2. Calcium is released and binds to the troponin complex. 3. Transverse tubules depolarize the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 4. The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the myosin molecules using energy from ATP. 5. An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane. A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 B) 2 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 4 C) 2 → 3 → 4 → 1 → 5 D) 5 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 4 E) 5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4 Answer: E 15) Sustained muscle contraction without relaxation between successive stimuli is called A) tonus. B) fused tetanus. C) an all-or-none response. D) fatigue. E) a spasm. Answer: B 16) Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle all have A) A bands and I bands. B) transverse tubules. C) gap junctions. D) motor units. E) thick and thin filaments. Answer: E 17) Calcium ions regulate contraction of smooth muscle cells by binding to A) troponin. B) tropomyosin. C) actin. D) myosin. E) calmodulin. Answer: E 18) Action potentials in the heart move from one contractile cell to the next via A) chemical synapses using acetylcholine. B) chemical synapses using norepinephrine. C) electrical synapses using gap junctions. D) myelinated motor neurons. E) nonmyelinated motor neurons. Answer: C 19) The hydrostatic skeleton of the earthworm allows it to move around in its environment by A) walking on its limbs. B) crawling with its feet. C) swimming with its setae. D) using peristaltic contractions of its circular and longitudinal muscles. E) alternating contractions and relaxations of its flagellae. Answer: D 20) A ball-and-socket joint connects the A) radius to the ulna. B) radius to the humerus. C) ulna to the humerus. D) humerus to the scapula. E) radius to the scapula. Answer: D 21) Among these choices, the most energetically efficient locomotion per unit mass is likely A) running by a 50-gram rodent. B) running by a 40-kg ungulate. C) flying by a 100-g bird. D) swimming by a 10-g minnow (bony fish). E) swimming by a 100-kg tuna (bony fish). Answer: E 22) A female cat in heat urinates more often and in many places. Male cats are attracted to the urine deposits. Which of the following is a proximate cause of this increased urination? A) It announces to the males that she is in heat. B) Female cats that did this in the past attracted more males. C) It is a result of hormonal changes associated with her reproductive cycle. D) The female cat learned the behavior from observing other cats. E) All of the options are ultimate causes of behavior. Answer: C 23) A female cat in heat urinates more often and in many places. Male cats congregate near the urine deposits and fight with each other. Which of the following would be an ultimate cause of the male cats' response to the female's urinating behavior? A) The males have learned to recognize the specific odor of the urine of a female in heat. B) When the males smelled the odor, various neurons in their brains were stimulated. C) Responding to the odor means locating reproductively receptive females. D) Male cats' hormones are triggered by the odor released by the female. E) The odor serves as a releaser for the instinctive behavior of the males. Answer: C 24) Which of the following examples describes a behavioral pattern that results from a proximate cause? A) A cat kills a mouse to obtain nutrition. B) A male sheep fights with another male because it helps to improve its social position. C) A female bird lays its eggs because the amount of daylight is decreasing slightly each day. D) A goose squats and freezes motionless to escape a predator. E) A cockroach runs into a crack in the wall and avoids being stepped on. Answer: C 25) The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment, but behavior is ultimately shaped by A) hormones. B) evolution. C) sexuality. D) pheromones. E) the nervous system. Answer: B 26) Animal communication involves what type of sensory information? A) visual B) auditory C) olfactory D) tactile E) visual, auditory, olfactory, and tactile Answer: E 27) What type of signal is long-lasting and works at night? A) olfactory B) visual C) auditory D) tactile E) electrical Answer: A 28) What type of signal is brief and can work among obstructions at night? A) olfactory B) visual C) auditory D) tactile E) magnetic Answer: C 29) What type of signal is fast and requires daylight with no obstructions? A) olfactory B) visual C) auditory D) tactile E) electrical Answer: B 30) A chemical produced by an animal that serves as a communication to another animal of the same species is called a(n) A) sign stimulus. B) inducer. C) pheromone. D) imprinter. E) agonistic promoter. Answer: C 31) Research has shown that nocturnal animals navigate using A) olfactory cues. B) the North Star. C) the moon. D) landmarks. E) gravity. Answer: B 32) Circannual rhythms in birds are influenced by A) periods of food availability. B) reproductive readiness. C) periods of daylight and darkness. D) magnetic fields. E) lunar cycles. Answer: C 33) Upon returning to its hive, a European honeybee communicates to other worker bees the presence of a nearby food source it has discovered by A) vibrating its wings at varying frequencies. B) performing a round dance. C) performing a waggle dance. D) visual cues. E) All options are correct. Answer: B 34) Karl von Frisch demonstrated that European honeybees communicate the location of a distant food source by A) performing a short, straight run during a waggle dance. B) performing a long, straight run during a waggle dance. C) performing a round dance with fast rotations. D) emanating minute amounts of stimulus pheromone. E) varying wing vibration frequency. Answer: B 35) Animals use pheromones to communicate A) reproductive readiness. B) species recognition. C) gender recognition. D) danger. E) All options are correct. Answer: E 36) Displays of nocturnal mammals are usually A) visual and auditory. B) tactile and visual. C) olfactory and auditory. D) visual and olfactory. E) tactile and auditory. Answer: C 37) A cage containing male mosquitoes has a small earphone placed on top, through which the sound of a female mosquito is played. All the males immediately fly to the earphone and go through all of the steps of copulation. What is the best explanation for this behavior? A) The males learned to associate the sound with females. B) Copulation is a fixed action pattern, and the female flight sound is a sign stimulus that initiates it. C) The sound from the earphone irritated the male mosquitoes, causing them to attempt to sting it. D) The reproductive drive is so strong that when males are deprived of females, they will attempt to mate with anything that has even the slightest female characteristic. E) Through classical conditioning, the male mosquitoes have associated the inappropriate stimulus from the earphone with the normal response of copulation. Answer: B 38) A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red coloring. What animal behavior idea is manifested by this observation? A) sign stimulus B) cognition C) imprinting D) classical conditioning E) operant conditioning Answer: A 39) Parental protective behavior in turkeys is triggered by the cheeping sound of young chicks. What term best applies to this behavior? A) sign stimulus B) cognition C) imprinting D) classical conditioning E) operant conditioning Answer: A 40) A type of learning that can occur only during a brief period of early life and results in a behavior that is difficult to modify through later experiences is called A) insight. B) imprinting. C) habituation. D) operant conditioning. E) trial-and-error learning. Answer: B 41) A salmon returns to its home stream to spawn. What term best applies to this behavior? A) sign stimulus B) cognition C) imprinting D) classical conditioning E) operant conditioning Answer: C 42) Scientists have tried raising endangered whooping cranes in captivity by using sandhill cranes as foster parents. This strategy is no longer used because A) fostered whooping crane chicks did not develop the necessary cues for migration. B) the fostered whooping cranes' critical period was variable such that different chicks imprinted on different "mothers." C) sandhill crane parents rejected their fostered whooping crane chicks soon after incubation. D) none of the fostered whooping cranes formed a mating pair-bond with another whooping crane. E) sandhill crane parents did not properly incubate whooping crane eggs. Answer: D Listed below are several examples of types of animal behavior. Match the letter of the correct term (A-E) to each example in the following questions. A. operant conditioning B. agonistic behavior C. innate behavior D. imprinting E. altruistic behavior 43) A human baby performs a sucking behavior perfectly when it is put in the presence of the nipple of its mother's breast. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C 44) A mother goat can recognize its own kid by smell. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D 45) Upon observing a golden eagle flying overhead, a sentry prairie dog gives a warning call to other foraging members of the prairie dog community. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E 46) You discover a rare new bird species, but you are unable to observe its mating behavior. You see that the male is large and ornamental compared with the female. On this basis, you can probably conclude that the species is A) polygamous. B) monogamous. C) polyandrous. D) promiscuous. E) agonistic. Answer: A 47) The evolution of mating systems is most likely affected by A) population density. B) territoriality. C) certainty of paternity. D) sexual dimorphism. E) None of the options is correct. Answer: D 48) The mating system in which females are more ornamented than males is A) monogamy. B) promiscuity. C) polygamy. D) polygyny. E) polyandry. Answer: E 49) What is the fitness benefit of polygamy in birds that rear young that are precocious (develop and mature rapidly)? A) Females will copulate with many males to ensure that all of their eggs are fertilized. B) Females don't have to decide on one mate, and can copulate with as many males as they deem worthy to share their genes with in reproduction. C) Fit males don't have to help feed and rear young and can spend this time seeking out and mating with many females. D) Females don't have to spend time rearing young and can mate and rear additional broods during a breeding season. E) Both males and females spend little time with courtship and brood-rearing, and don't tax their own physiology, so they can breed again in subsequent breeding seasons. Answer: C 50) Which of the following statements is true about the certainty of paternity? A) Young or eggs laid by a female are likely to contain the same genes as another female's eggs in a population of birds. B) The certainty of paternity is high in most species with internal fertilization because the acts of mating and birth are separated by time. C) Males that guard females they have mated with are certain of their paternity. D) The certainty of paternity is low when egg laying and mating occur together, as in external fertilization. E) Paternal behavior exists because it has been reinforced over generations by natural selection. Answer: E 51) Imagine that you are designing an experiment aimed at determining whether the initiation of migratory behavior is largely under genetic control. Of the following options, the best way to proceed is to A) observe genetically distinct populations in the field and see if they have different migratory habits. B) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Do this in the laboratory and see if offspring display parental migratory behavior. C) bring animals into the laboratory and determine the conditions under which they become restless and attempt to migrate. D) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Rear the offspring in the absence of their parents and observe the migratory behavior of offspring. E) All of the options are equally productive ways to approach the question. Answer: D 52) What probably explains why coastal and inland garter snakes react differently to banana slug prey? A) Ancestors of coastal snakes that could eat the abundant banana slugs had increased fitness. No such selection occurred inland, where banana slugs were absent. B) Banana slugs are camouflaged, and inland snakes, which have poorer vision than coastal snakes, are less able to see them. C) Garter snakes learn about prey from other garter snakes. Inland garter snakes have fewer types of prey because they are less social. D) Inland banana slugs are distasteful, so inland snakes learn to avoid them. Coastal banana slugs are palatable to garter snakes. E) Garter snakes learn to eat what their mothers eat. Coastal snake mothers happened to prefer slugs. Answer: A 53) Which of the following statements about the evolution of behavior is correct? A) Natural selection will favor behavior that enhances survival and reproduction. B) An animal may show behavior that minimizes reproductive fitness. C) If a behavior is less than optimal, it will eventually become optimal through natural selection. D) Innate behaviors can never be altered by natural selection. E) All of the statements are correct. Answer: A 54) Pair-bonding in a population of prairie voles can be prevented by A) the ensuing confusion caused by introducing meadow voles. B) administering a drug that inhibits the brain receptor for vasopressin in the CNS of males. C) administering a drug that turns on ADH receptor sites in male voles. D) dying the coat color from brown to blond in either male or female prairie voles. E) allowing the population size to reach critically low levels. Answer: B 55) How do altruistic behaviors arise through natural selection? A) By its actions, the altruist increases the likelihood that some of its genes will be passed on to the next generation. B) The altruist is appreciated by other members of the population because their survivability has been enhanced by virtue of the altruist’s risky behavior. C) Animals that perform altruistic acts are allowed by their population to breed more, thereby passing on their behavior genes to future generations. D) Altruistic behaviors lower stress in populations, which increases the survivability of all the members of the population. E) All of the options are correct. Answer: A 56) Which of the following does not have a coefficient of relatedness of 0.5? A) a father to his daughter B) a mother to her son C) an uncle to his nephew D) a brother to his brother E) a sister to her brother Answer: C 57) Animals that help other animals of the same species A) have excess energy reserves. B) are bigger and stronger than the other animals. C) are usually related to the other animals. D) are always male. E) have defective genes controlling their behavior. Answer: C 58) The presence of altruistic behavior is most likely due to kin selection, a theory maintaining that A) aggression between sexes promotes the survival of the fittest individuals. B) genes enhance the survival of copies of themselves by directing organisms to assist others who share those genes. C) companionship is advantageous to animals because in the future they can help each other. D) critical thinking abilities are normal traits for animals and they have arisen, like other traits, through natural selection. E) natural selection has generally favored the evolution of exaggerated aggressive and submissive behaviors to resolve conflict without grave harm to participants. Answer: B 59) In Belding's ground squirrels, it is mostly the females that behave altruistically by sounding alarm calls. What is the likely reason for this distinction? A) Males have smaller vocal cords and are less likely to make sounds. B) Females invest more in foraging and food stores, so they are more defensive. C) Females settle in the area in which they were born, so the alarm is warning kin. D) The sex ratio is biased. E) Males forage in areas separate from females; therefore, alarm calls are useless. Answer: C 39.2 Art Questions Figure 39.1 1) The structure pictured in Figure 39.1 is found in A) skeletal muscles and smooth muscles. B) cardiac muscles and skeletal muscles. C) smooth muscles and cardiac muscles. D) smooth muscles, skeletal muscles, and cardiac muscles. E) smooth muscles. Answer: B 2) Myosin filaments without actin overlap are in which section of Figure 39.1? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D 3) Which area in Figure 39.1 has only overlapping actin and myosin filaments? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Figure 39.2 4) In the territorial behavior of the stickleback fish, the red belly of one male that elicits attack from another male is functioning as a(n) A) pheromone. B) sign stimulus. C) fixed action pattern. D) search image. E) imprint stimulus. Answer: B Figure 39.3 5) The behavior of most animals is influenced by the periods of daylight and darkness in the environment. Fiddler crabs' courtship behaviors are instead synchronized by the 29 1/2-day cycle of the moon. What is the adaptive significance of using lunar cues? A) The fiddler crab courtship ritual is highly visual, so individuals need the light of the full moon to be able to observe courtship displays. B) Egg maturation in fiddler crab females takes 29 1/2 days. C) By courting at the full and new moon, fiddler crabs link their reproduction to the times of the highest tides that disperse their larvae to safer, deeper waters. D) The algae that larval fiddler crabs consume for energy and metabolism bloom on a monthly cycle, so recently hatched larvae have plenty to eat during a crucial time of their lives. E) It takes about 29 days for a fiddler crab to reach sexual maturity. Answer: C 39.3 Scenario Questions 1) During a field trip, an instructor touched a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. The instructor asked why the moth lifted its wings. One student answered that sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations? A) The first explanation is correct, but the second is incorrect. B) The first explanation refers to proximate causation, whereas the second refers to ultimate causation. C) The first explanation is biological, whereas the second is philosophical. D) The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, whereas the second is not. E) Both explanations are reasonable and simply represent a difference of opinion. Answer: B 2) One way to understand how early environment influences differing behaviors in similar species is through the "cross-fostering" experimental technique. Suppose that the curly-whiskered mud rat differs from the bald mud rat in several ways, including being much more aggressive. How would you set up a cross-fostering experiment to determine if environment plays a role in the curly-whiskered mud rat's aggression? A) You would cross curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats and hand-rear the offspring to see if any grew up to be aggressive. B) You would place newborn curly-whiskered mud rats with bald mud rat parents, place newborn bald mud rats with curly-whiskered mud rat parents, and let some mud rats of both species be raised by their own species. Then you would compare the outcomes. C) You would remove the offspring of curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats from their parents, raise them in the same environment, and then compare the outcomes. D) You would see if curly-whiskered mud rats bred true for aggression. E) You would replace normal newborn mud rats with deformed newborn mud rats to see if it triggered an altruistic response. Answer: B 3) Fred and Joe, two unrelated, mature male gorillas, encounter one another. Fred is courting a female. Fred grunts as Joe comes near. As Joe continues to advance, Fred begins drumming (pounding his chest) and bares his teeth. Joe then rolls on the ground on his back, gets up, and quickly leaves. This behavioral pattern is repeated several times during the mating season. Choose the most specific behavior described by this example. A) agonistic behavior B) territorial behavior C) learned behavior D) social behavior E) fixed action pattern Answer: A 39.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) During the contraction of a vertebrate skeletal muscle fiber, calcium ions A) break cross-bridges by acting as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP. B) bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the myosin binding sites on actin are exposed. C) transmit action potentials from the motor neuron to the muscle fiber. D) spread action potentials through the T tubules. E) re-establish the polarization of the plasma membrane following an action potential. Answer: B 2) Which of the following is true of innate behaviors? A) Their expression is only weakly influenced by genes. B) They occur with or without environmental stimuli. C) They are limited to invertebrate animals. D) They are expressed in most individuals in a population. E) They occur in invertebrates and some vertebrates but not mammals. Answer: D 3) According to Hamilton's rule, A) natural selection does not favor altruistic behavior that causes the death of the altruist. B) natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the recipient, corrected for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist. C) natural selection is more likely to favor altruistic behavior that benefits an offspring than altruistic behavior that benefits a sibling. D) the effects of kin selection are larger than the effects of direct natural selection on individuals. E) altruism is always reciprocal. Answer: B 4) The binding of calcium to the troponin complex A) activates myosin kinase, causing phosphorylation of myosin heads. B) disrupts cross-bridges, allowing filaments to slide past each other. C) allows tropomyosin to bind actin. D) opens ion channels, allowing sodium to rush into the muscle cells. E) causes tropomyosin to shift position, exposing myosin bind sites on actin. Answer: E 5) Curare, a substance that blocks the acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle, will cause A) rapid muscle twitches. B) sustained muscle contraction (tetanus). C) muscle relaxation. D) specific disruption of blood pressure and digestive functions. E) no effect in the absence of acetylcholinesterase. Answer: C 6) Although many chimpanzees live in environments containing oil palm nuts, members of only a few populations use stones to crack open the nuts. The likely explanation is that A) the behavioral difference is caused by genetic differences between populations. B) members of different populations have different nutritional requirements. C) the cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations. D) members of different populations differ in learning ability. E) members of different populations differ in manual dexterity. Answer: C 7) Which of the following is not required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural selection? A) In each individual, the form of the behavior is determined entirely by genes. B) The behavior varies among individuals. C) An individual’s reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is performed. D) Some component of the behavior is genetically inherited. E) An individual’s genotype influences its behavioral phenotype. Answer: A Chapter 40: Population Ecology and the Distribution of Organisms 40.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Trees are rare in the savanna biome because of A) insufficient annual precipitation. B) acidic soils. C) extreme winter temperatures. D) large variations in seasonal rainfall. E) permafrost. Answer: C 2) Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution? A) Average annual temperature and precipitation are sufficient to predict which biome will be found in an area. B) Seasonal fluctuation of temperature is not a limiting factor in biome distribution if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means. C) Not only is the average climate important in determining biome distribution, but so is the pattern of climatic variation. D) Temperate forests and grasslands are different biomes because they receive a different quality and quantity of sunlight, even though they have essentially the same annual temperature and precipitation. E) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biome patterns. Answer: C 3) In the ecological development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others? A) the species of colonizing animals B) prevailing temperature C) prevailing rainfall D) mineral nutrient availability E) soil structure Answer: A 4) The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes? A) savanna B) temperate broadleaf forest C) temperate grassland D) tropical rain forest E) northern coniferous forest Answer: E 5) Trees are not usually found in the tundra biome because of A) insufficient annual precipitation. B) acidic soils. C) extreme winter temperatures. D) over browsing by musk ox and caribou. E) permafrost. Answer: E 6) Which of the following levels of ecological organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive? A) community, ecosystem, individual, population B) ecosystem, community, population, individual C) population, ecosystem, individual, community D) individual, population, community, ecosystem E) individual, community, population, ecosystem Answer: B 7) Which of the following choices includes all of the others in creating global terrestrial climates? A) differential heating of Earth's surface B) ocean currents C) global wind patterns D) evaporation of water from ocean surfaces E) Earth's rotation on its axis Answer: A 8) Why is the climate drier on the leeward side of mountain ranges that are subjected to prevailing winds? A) Deserts create dry conditions on the leeward side of mountain ranges. B) The sun illuminates the leeward side of mountain ranges at a more direct angle, converting to heat energy, which evaporates most of the water present. C) Pushed by the prevailing winds on the windward side, air is forced to rise, cool, condense, and drop its precipitation, leaving drier air to descend the leeward side. D) Air masses pushed by the prevailing winds are stopped by mountain ranges and the moisture is used up in the stagnant air masses on the leeward side. E) More organisms live on the sheltered, leeward side of mountain ranges where their utilization of water lowers the amount available when compared to the windward side. Answer: C 9) What would be the effect on climate in the temperate latitudes if Earth were to slow its rate of rotation from a 24-hour period of rotation to a 48-hour period of rotation? A) Seasons would be longer and more distinct (colder winters and warmer summers). B) There often would be a smaller range between daytime high and nighttime low temperatures. C) Large-scale weather events such as tornadoes and hurricanes would no longer be a part of regional climates. D) Winter seasons in both the northern and southern hemispheres would have more abundant and frequent precipitation events. E) There often would be a larger range between daytime high and nighttime low temperatures. Answer: E 10) Palm trees and subtropical plants are commonplace in Land's End, England, whose latitude is the equivalent of Labrador in coastal Canada, where the local flora is subarctic. Which statement best explains why this apparent anomaly exists between North America and Europe? A) Labrador does not get enough rainfall to support the subtropical flora found in Land's End. B) Regions such as Labrador are actually colder than England because colder arctic air is pulled down to eastern North America and not to England. C) Rainfall fluctuates greatly in England; rainfall is consistently high in Labrador. D) Labrador is too windy to support tall plants, such as palm trees. E) Labrador receives sunlight of lower duration and intensity than does Land's End. Answer: B 11) In mountainous areas of western North America, north-facing slopes would be expected to A) receive more sunlight than similar southern exposures. B) be warmer and drier than comparable southern-exposed slopes. C) consistently be steeper than southern exposures. D) support biological communities similar to those found at lower elevations on similar south-facing slopes. E) support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations on similar south-facing slopes. Answer: E 12) Deserts typically occur in a band around 30 degrees north and south latitude because A) descending air masses originating from the tropics tend to be dry. B) trade winds have little moisture. C) moisture-laden air is heavier than dry air and is not carried to these latitudes. D) ascending air from these regions tends to be moist, removing available water and creating a desert. E) these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth. Answer: A 13) Which of the following events might you predict to occur if the tilt of Earth's axis relative to its plane of orbit was increased to 33 1/2 degrees? A) Summers and winters in the United States would likely become warmer and colder, respectively. B) Winters and summers in Australia would likely become less distinct seasons. C) Seasonal variation at the equator might decrease. D) Both northern and southern hemispheres would experience summer and winter at the same time. E) Both poles would experience massive ice melts. Answer: A 14) Imagine some cosmic catastrophe jolts Earth so that its axis is perpendicular to the orbital plane between Earth and the sun. The most obvious effect of this change would be A) the elimination of tides. B) an increase in the length of night. C) an increase in the length of a year. D) a decrease in temperature at the equator. E) the elimination of seasonal variation. Answer: E 15) The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is that A) there is more ice at the poles. B) sunlight strikes the poles at a lower angle. C) the poles are farther from the sun. D) the polar atmosphere is thinner and contains fewer greenhouse gases. E) the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun. Answer: B 16) Which of the following environmental features might influence microclimates? A) forest canopy B) freshly plowed field C) log on the forest floor D) large boulder E) All of the options are correct. Answer: E 17) Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are caused by A) rising, warm, moist air masses that cool and release precipitation as they rise and then, at high altitude, cool and sink back to the surface as dry air masses after moving north or south of the tropics. B) air masses that are dried and heated over continental areas that rise, cool aloft, and descend over oceanic areas followed by a return flow of moist air from ocean to land, delivering high amounts of precipitation to coastal areas. C) polar, cool, moist high-pressure air masses from the poles that move along the surface, releasing precipitation along the way to the equator where they are heated and dried. D) the revolution of Earth around the sun. E) mountain ranges that deflect air masses containing variable amounts of moisture. Answer: A 18) Air masses formed over the Pacific Ocean are moved by prevailing westerlies where they encounter extensive north-south mountain ranges, such as the Sierra Nevadas and the Cascades. Which statement best describes the outcome of this encounter between a landform and an air mass? A) The cool, moist Pacific air heats up as it rises, releasing its precipitation as it passes the tops of the mountains, and this warm, now dry air cools as it descends on the leeward side of the range. B) The warm, moist Pacific air rises and cools, releasing precipitation as it moves up the windward side of the range, and this cool, now dry air mass heats up as it descends on the leeward side of the range. C) The cool, dry Pacific air heats up and picks up moisture from evaporation of the snowcapped peaks of the mountain range, releasing this moisture as precipitation when the air cools while descending on the leeward side of the range. D) These air masses are blocked by the mountain ranges, producing high annual amounts of precipitation on the windward sides of these mountain ranges. E) These air masses remain essentially unchanged in moisture content and temperature as they pass over these mountain ranges. Answer: B 19) Coral reefs can be found on the southeast coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southwest coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this? A) sunlight intensity B) precipitation C) day length D) ocean currents E) salinity Answer: D 20) What is the limiting factor for the growth of trees in the tundra? A) low precipitation B) lack of sunlight C) insufficient minerals in bedrock D) pH of soils E) permafrost Answer: E 21) In which of the following terrestrial biome pairs are both dependent upon periodic burning? A) tundra and coniferous forest B) chaparral and savanna C) desert and savanna D) tropical forest and temperate broadleaf forest E) grassland and tundra Answer: B 22) Fire suppression by humans A) will always result in an increase in species diversity in a given biome. B) can change the species composition within biological communities. C) will result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of forest products for human use. D) is necessary for the protection of threatened and endangered forest species. E) is a management goal of conservation biologists to maintain the healthy condition of forest communities. Answer: B 23) Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems? A) The likelihood of a wildfire occurring in a given ecosystem is highly predictable over the short term. B) Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires. C) The suppression of forest fires by man has prevented certain communities, such as grasslands, from reaching their climax stage. D) Chaparral communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn. E) Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented. Answer: B 24) Imagine that a deep temperate zone lake did not "turn over" during the spring and fall seasons. Based on the physical and biological properties of limnetic ecosystems, what would be the difference from normal seasonal turnover? A) The lake would be uniformly cold during the winter and summer. B) The lake would fail to freeze over in winter. C) An algal bloom would result every spring. D) The lake would suffer a nutrient depletion in its surface layers. E) The pH of the lake would become increasingly alkaline. Answer: D 25) Which marine zone has the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)? A) pelagic B) abyssal C) neritic D) continental shelf E) intertidal Answer: B 26) If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earth's surface by 70% for one year, which of the following marine communities most likely would be least affected? A) deep-sea vent B) coral reef C) intertidal D) pelagic E) estuary Answer: A 27) Which statement describes how climate might change if Earth was 75% land and 25% water? A) Terrestrial ecosystems would likely experience more precipitation. B) Earth's daytime temperatures would be higher and nighttime temperatures lower. C) Summers would be longer and winters shorter at midlatitude locations. D) Earth would experience an unprecedented global warming. E) More terrestrial microclimates would be created because of daily fluctuations in climate. Answer: B 28) Which of the following examples of an ecological effect leading to an evolutionary effect is most correct? A) When seeds are not plentiful, trees produce more seeds. B) A few organisms of a larger population survive a drought and then these survivors emigrate to less arid environments. C) A few individuals with denser fur survive the coldest days of an ice age, and the reproducing survivors of the ice age all have dense fur. D) Fish that swim the fastest in running water catch the most prey and more easily escape predation. E) The insects that spend the most time exposed to sunlight have the most mutations. Answer: C 29) Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities? A) precipitation, wind B) nutrient availability, soil pH C) predation, competition D) temperature, water E) light intensity, seasonality Answer: C 30) A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2,800 m in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places, an ecologist should A) conclude that lower elevations are limiting to the survival of this species. B) study the anatomy and physiology of this species. C) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude. D) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals that may support their growth. E) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for a year. Answer: C 31) Studying species transplants is a way that ecologists A) determine the abundance of a species in a specified area. B) determine the distribution of a species in a specified area. C) develop mathematical models for distribution and abundance of organisms. D) determine if dispersal is a key factor in limiting distribution of organisms. E) consolidate a landscape region into a single ecosystem. Answer: D 32) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics? I. inhabiting the same general area II. belonging to the same species III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) II and III only E) I, II, and III Answer: C 33) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing? A) density B) dispersion C) carrying capacity D) cohorts E) range Answer: A 34) Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with A) chance. B) patterns of high humidity. C) the random distribution of seeds. D) competitive interaction between individuals of the same population. E) the concentration of nutrients within the population's range. Answer: D 35) Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion? A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories B) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams C) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest trees D) moths, in a city at night E) lake trout, which seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen Answer: A 36) To construct a reproductive table for a sexual species, one needs to A) assess sperm viability for the males in the population. B) keep track of all of the offspring of a cohort. C) keep track of the females in a cohort. D) keep track of all of the offspring of the females in a cohort. E) analyze the ratio of deaths to births in a cohort. Answer: C 37) Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied? A) counting the number of prairie dog burrows per hectare B) counting the number of times a 1-kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall C) counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare D) counting the number of moss plants in 1-m2 quadrats E) counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations. Answer: D 38) Long-term studies of Belding's ground squirrels show that immigrants move nearly 2 km from where they are born and become 1-8% of the males and 0.7-6% of the females in other populations. On an evolutionary scale, why is this significant? A) These immigrants make up for the deaths of individuals, keeping the other populations' size stable. B) Young reproductive males tend to stay in their home population and are not driven out by other territorial males. C) These immigrants provide a source of genetic diversity for the other populations. D) Those individuals that emigrate to these new populations are looking for less crowded conditions with more resources. E) Gradually, the populations of ground squirrels will move from a clumped to a uniform population pattern of dispersion. Answer: C 39) Which of the following sets of measurements would best describe a population’s physical structure and vital statistics? A) density, dispersion, and demographics B) gene frequency over time and the ratio of reproductive to nonreproductive individuals C) annual precipitation averages and mean annual temperatures D) minimum and maximum amounts of precipitation and annual temperature extremes E) ratio of predators and the number of immigrants and emigrants Answer: A 40) Which of the following scenarios would provide the most legitimate data on population density? A) Count the number of nests of a particular species of songbird and multiply this by a factor that extrapolates these data to actual animals. B) Count the number of pine trees in several randomly selected 10-m by 10-m plots and extrapolate this number to the fraction of the study area these plots represent. C) Use the mark-and-recapture method to estimate the size of the population. D) Calculate the difference between all of the immigrants and emigrants to see if the population is growing or shrinking. E) Add the number of births and subtract the individuals that die to see if the population's density is increasing or decreasing. Answer: B 41) Which of the following is the best natural example of uniform distribution? A) bees collecting pollen in a wildflower meadow B) snails in an intertidal zone at low tide C) territorial songbirds in a mature forest during mating season D) mushrooms growing on the floor of an old-growth forest E) a cultivated cornfield in the Midwest Answer: C 42) Which of the following choices would most likely promote random distribution? A) territorial species B) species that secrete chemicals to attract or inhibit other individuals C) flocking and schooling behaviors D) spacing during the breeding season E) homogeneous chemical and physical factors in the environment Answer: E 43) Which of the following best defines a cohort? A) a group of individuals that inhabits a small isolated region within the range for the species B) all of the individuals that are annually added to a population by birth and immigration C) the reproductive males and females within the population D) a group of the individuals from the same age group, from birth until they are all dead E) the number of individuals that annually die or emigrate out of a population Answer: D 44) Why do some invertebrates, such as lobsters, show a "stair-step" survivorship curve? A) Many invertebrates mate and produce offspring on multiyear cycles. B) Within a species of invertebrates, younger individuals have a higher survivorship than older individuals. C) Many invertebrates molt in order to grow, and they are vulnerable to predation during their "soft shell" stage. D) Many invertebrate species have population cycles that go up and down according to the frequency of sunspots. E) The number of fertilized eggs that mature to become females in many species of invertebrates is based on ambient temperature. Answer: C 45) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1,000 individuals in one year. A) 120 individuals added B) 40 individuals added C) 20 individuals added D) 400 individuals added E) 20 individuals lost Answer: B 46) Exponential growth of a population is represented by dN/dt = A) . B) rmax N. C) rN (K + N). D) rN . E) rN . Answer: B 47) Starting from a single individual, what is the size of a population of bacteria that reproduce by binary fission every 20 minutes at the end of a 2-hour time period? (Assume unlimited resources and no mortality.) A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 64 E) 128 Answer: D 48) Which of the following is the equation for zero population growth (ZPG)? A) b = m or r = 0 B) dN/dt = rN C) dN/dt = rmax N (K - N)/K D) dN/dt = rmax N E) dN/dt = 1.0N Answer: A 49) In July 2008, the United States had a population of approximately 302,000,000 people. How many Americans were there in July 2009, if the estimated 2008 growth rate was 0.88%? A) 2,700,000 B) 5,500,000 C) 303,000,000 D) 304,700,000 E) 2,710,800,000 Answer: D 50) In 2008, the population of New Zealand was approximately 4,275,000 people. If the birth rate was 14 births for every 1,000 people, approximately how many births occurred in New Zealand in 2008? A) 6,000 B) 42,275 C) 60,000 D) 140,000 E) 600,000 Answer: C 51) Consider two forests: one is an undisturbed old-growth forest, whereas the other has recently been logged. In which forest are species likely to experience exponential growth, and why? A) Old growth, because the stable conditions would favor exponential growth of all species in the forest. B) Old growth, because each of the species is well established and can produce many offspring. C) Logged, because the disturbed forest affords more resources for increased specific populations to grow. D) Logged, because the various populations are stimulated to a higher reproductive potential. E) Exponential growth is equally probable in old-growth and logged forests. Answer: C 52) Logistic growth of a population is represented by dN/dt = A) . B) rmax N. C) rmax N (K + N). D) rmax N . E) rmax N . Answer: D 53) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation? A) The growth rate will not change. B) The growth rate will approach zero. C) The population will show an Allee effect. D) The population will increase exponentially. E) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase. Answer: B 54) In models of logistic population growth, A) the population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K. B) new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at the beginning of the population's growth. C) new individuals are added to the population as N approaches K. D) only density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth. E) carrying capacity is never reached. Answer: A 55) Carrying capacity is A) seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the ocean. B) the maximum population size that a particular environment can support. C) fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time. D) determined by density and dispersion data. E) the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources. Answer: B 56) Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic population growth? A) increased birth rate B) removal of predators C) decreased death rate D) competition for resources E) favorable climatic conditions Answer: D 57) Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations increase, for example, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population, dN/dt = rN , which of the factors accounts for the effect of the moose population? A) r B) N C) rN D) K E) dt Answer: D 58) Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live. B) producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization. C) the emigration of individuals when they are no longer reproductively capable or committing suicide. D) increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode with a corresponding decrease in parental care. E) high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care. Answer: E 59) The three basic variables that make up the life history of an organism are A) life expectancy, birth rate, and death rate. B) number of reproductive females in the population, age structure of the population, and life expectancy. C) age when reproduction begins, how often reproduction occurs, and how many offspring are produced per reproductive episode. D) how often reproduction occurs, life expectancy of females in the population, and number of offspring per reproductive episode. E) the number of reproductive females in the population, how often reproduction occurs, and death rate. Answer: C 60) Which of the following pairs of reproductive strategies is consistent with energetic trade-off and reproductive success? A) Pioneer species of plants produce many very small, highly airborne seeds, whereas large elephants that are very good parents produce many offspring. B) Female rabbits that suffer high predation rates may produce several litters per breeding season, and coconuts produce few fruits, but most survive when they encounter proper growing conditions. C) Species that have to broadcast to distant habitats tend to produce seeds with heavy protective seed coats, and animals that are caring parents produce fewer offspring with lower infant mortality. D) Free-living insects lay thousands of eggs and provide no parental care, whereas flowers take good care of their seeds until they are ready to germinate. E) Some mammals will not reproduce when environmental resources are low so they can survive until conditions get better, and plants that produce many small seeds are likely found in stable environments. Answer: B 61) Pacific salmon and annual plants are excellent examples of A) cohort disintegration. B) dispersion. C) the Allee effect. D) iteroparous reproduction. E) semelparous reproduction. Answer: E 62) Which of the following is characteristic of K-selected populations? A) offspring with good chances of survival B) many offspring per reproductive episode C) small offspring D) a high intrinsic rate of increase E) early parental reproduction Answer: A 63) Which variables define the ecological life history of a species? A) the age at which reproduction begins, frequency of reproduction, and the number of offspring for each reproductive episode B) the ratio of females to males, the length of the breeding season, and the number of offspring for each reproductive episode C) the number of offspring produced over a lifetime by a breeding pair and the survivability of the offspring D) timing breeding sessions with optimal environmental conditions and the number of offspring produced during each breeding session E) the amount of parental care given after birth, the number of reproductive episodes per year, and the number of years females are capable of producing viable offspring Answer: A 64) Which pattern of reproduction is correctly paired with a species? A) iteroparity—Pacific salmon B) iteroparity—elephant C) semelparity—oak tree D) semelparity—rabbit E) semelparity—polar bear Answer: B 65) In which of the following situations would you expect to find the largest number of K-selected individuals? A) a recently abandoned agricultural field in Ohio B) a shifting sand dune community of south Lake Michigan C) an old-growth forest D) South Florida after a hurricane E) a newly emergent volcanic island Answer: C 66) Which of the following is most likely to contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations? A) the removal of toxic waste by decomposers B) intraspecific competition for nutrients C) earthquakes D) floods E) fires Answer: B 67) Why do populations grow more slowly as they approach their carrying capacity? A) Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality. B) Density-independent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality. C) Hormonal changes promote higher death rates in crowded populations. D) Individuals voluntarily stop mating so that overcrowding does not occur. E) The incoming energy decreases in populations experiencing a high rate of increase. Answer: A 68) Which of the following could be a density-independent factor limiting human population growth? A) social pressure for birth control B) earthquakes C) plagues D) famines E) pollution Answer: B 40.2 Art Questions The eight climographs in Figure 40.1 show yearly temperature (line graph and left vertical axis) and precipitation (bar graph and right vertical axis) averages for each month for some locations on Earth. Choose the climograph that best answers the question. Figure 40.1 1) Which climograph shows the climate for location 1? A) A B) C C) E D) G E) H Answer: A 2) Which climograph shows the climate for location 2? A) B B) C C) D D) F E) H Answer: D 3) Which climograph shows the climate for location 3? A) B B) C C) D D) E E) F Answer: C 4) Which climograph shows the climate for location 4? A) A B) B C) C D) E E) G Answer: D 5) Which climograph shows the climate for location 5? A) A B) C C) D D) E E) H Answer: B 6) Which of the following best substantiates why location 3 is an equatorial (tropical) climate? A) It has a monsoon season during the winter months. B) It has consistent monthly averages for rainfall. C) The temperature is high for each monthly average. D) The temperatures reach 100°F during some months. E) The temperatures are lower in June, July, and August. Answer: C Figure 40.2 shows a generalized cross section of the marine environment with various zones labeled with letters. Choose the letter that best answers the question. Figure 40.2 7) Which zone has a condition of constant temperature? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C 8) Which zone produces the most global oxygen? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B 9) Which zone has the lowest biomass per unit of area? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Use the survivorship curves in Figure 40.3 to answer the following questions. Figure 40.3 10) Which curve best describes survivorship in marine molluscs? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E 11) Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A 12) Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D 13) Which curve best describes survivorship in humans who live in developed nations? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A 14) Which statement best explains survivorship curve B? A) It is likely a species that provides little postnatal care, but lots of care for offspring during midlife, as indicated by increased survivorship. B) This curve is likely of a species that produces lots of offspring, only a few of which are expected to survive. C) It is likely a species where no individuals in the cohort die when they are at 60-70% relative age. D) There was a mass emigration of young to middle-aged individuals in this cohort. E) Survivorship can only decrease; therefore, this curve could not happen in nature. Answer: E 15) Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve of single bacterium growing in a flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a 24-hour period? A) B) C) D) E) Answer: C 16) Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth curve of a small population of rodents that has grown to reach a static carrying capacity? A) B) C) D) E) Answer: E 17) Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth over several seasons of a population of snowshoe hares that were introduced to an appropriate habitat also inhabited by predators in northern Canada? A) B) C) D) E) Answer: D 40.3 Scenario Questions Use this description to answer the following question. In areas of permafrost, stands of black spruce are frequently observed in the landscape, whereas other tree species are noticeably absent. Often these stands are referred to as "drunken forests" because many of the black spruce are displaced from their normal vertical alignment. 1) What might be the adaptive significance of these unusual forests growing the way they do in this marginal habitat? A) Needles are adapted to withstand cold arctic temperatures. B) Branches are adapted to absorb more CO2 with this displaced alignment. C) Taproot formation is impossible, so trees developed shallow root beds and easily tilt. D) Trees are tilted so that snow won’t break them or tip them over. E) Trees tip so that they do not compete with each other for sunlight. Answer: C 2) Imagine that you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical accounts that a species of deer used to live there, but they have been extirpated. You decide to reintroduce them. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriately sized founding population, you do so. You then watch the population increase for several generations, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). The graph will likely appear as A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation. B) an "S," increasing with each generation. C) an upside-down "U." D) a "J," increasing with each generation. E) an "S" that ends with a vertical line. Answer: D 40.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate? A) savanna–low temperature, precipitation uniform during the year B) tundra–long summers, mild winters C) temperate broadleaf forest–relatively short growing season, mild winters D) temperate grasslands–relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer E) tropical forests–nearly constant day length and temperature Answer: E 2) A population's carrying capacity A) may change as environmental conditions change. B) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model. C) generally remains constant over time. D) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases. E) can never be exceeded. Answer: A 3) When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes A) in biomes at different latitudes. B) in different depths in the ocean. C) in a community through different seasons. D) in an ecosystem as it evolves over time. E) across the United States from east to west. Answer: A 4) According to the logistic growth equation = r max N A) the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero. B) the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K. C) population growth is zero when N equals K. D) the population grows exponentially when K is small. E) the birth rate (b) approaches zero as N approaches K. Answer: C 5) If the direction of Earth's rotation reversed, the most predictable effect would be A) no more night and day. B) a big change in the length of the year. C) winds blowing from west to east along the equator. D) a loss of seasonal variation at high latitudes. E) the elimination of ocean currents. Answer: C Test Bank for Campbell Biology in Focus Lisa A. Urry, Michael L. Cain, Steven A. Wasserman, Peter V. Minorsky, Robert B. Jackson, Jane B. Reece 9780321813664, 9780321962751, 9780134710679
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