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This Document Contains Chapters 33 to 34 Chapter 33: Animal Nutrition 33.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In a well-fed human eating a Western diet, the richest source of stored chemical energy in the body is A) fat in adipose tissue. B) glucose in the blood. C) protein in muscle cells. D) glycogen in muscle cells. E) calcium phosphate in bone. Answer: A 2) Animals that migrate great distances would obtain the greatest energetic benefit of storing chemical energy as A) proteins. B) minerals. C) carbohydrates. D) amino acids. E) fats. Answer: E 3) Certain nutrients are considered "essential" in the diets of some animals because A) only those animals use those nutrients. B) the nutrients are subunits of important polymers. C) these animals are not able to synthesize these nutrients. D) the nutrients are necessary coenzymes. E) only certain foods contain them. Answer: C 4) To maintain adequate nutrition, animals require dietary access to certain amino acids. An amino acid that is referred to as "nonessential" would be best described as one that A) can be made by the animal's body from other substances. B) is not used by the animal in biosynthesis. C) must be ingested in the diet. D) is not readily absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract. E) is not found in many proteins. Answer: A 5) Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin? A) blood clotting and vitamin C B) normal vision and vitamin A C) synthesis of cell membranes and vitamin D D) protection of skin from cancer and vitamin E E) production of white blood cells and vitamin K Answer: B 6) The fat-soluble vitamins include A) vitamin A. B) vitamin B12. C) vitamin C. D) iodine. E) calcium. Answer: A 7) A general rule relating the capacity of a specific animal's digestive system to provide adequate access to substrates for biosynthesis of cellular components, as well as fuel molecules needed for ATP production, is that the animal should have access to A) a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. B) a diet low in lipids and high in protein. C) a low-calorie diet with a large intake of fluids, especially water. D) a diet that matches the "food pyramid" for the species. E) a diet that maximizes vitamins and minerals. Answer: D 8) Excessive iron absorption and accumulation to toxic levels is associated with A) excessive blood volume. B) a liver abnormality that results in a decreased number of red blood cells. C) various forms of inherited or acquired anemia. D) the genetic disorder known as hemochromatosis. E) menstruation and menopause. Answer: D 9) Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol, whereas protein digestion yields amino acids; both digestive processes A) are catalyzed by the same enzyme. B) are excludible intracellular processes in most organisms. C) add a water molecule to break bonds (hydrolysis). D) require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH. E) require ATP as an energy source. Answer: C 10) Ingested dietary substances must cross cell membranes to be used by the body, a process known as A) ingestion. B) digestion. C) hydrolysis. D) absorption. E) elimination. Answer: D 11) In marine sponges, intracellular digestion of peptides is usually immediately preceded by A) hydrolysis. B) endocytosis. C) absorption. D) elimination. E) secretion. Answer: B 12) The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates A) secretion. B) absorption. C) elimination. D) filtration E) temperature regulation. Answer: B 13) An advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity is that the complete system A) excludes the need for extracellular digestion. B) allows for specialized regions with specialized functions. C) allows digestive enzymes to be more specific. D) allows extensive branching. E) facilitates intracellular digestion. Answer: B 14) Earthworms, grasshoppers, and birds all have a A) gastric cecae. B) larynx. C) crop. D) pharynx. E) epiglottis. Answer: C 15) Because the foods eaten by animals are often composed largely of macromolecules, this requires the animals to have mechanisms for A) elimination. B) dehydration synthesis. C) enzymatic hydrolysis. D) regurgitation. E) demineralization. Answer: C 16) In the digestive system, peristalsis is A) a process of fat emulsification in the small intestine. B) voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation. C) the transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vessel. D) a common cause of loss of appetite, fatigue, and dehydration. E) smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus. Answer: E 17) After ingestion by humans, the first category of macromolecules to be chemically digested by enzymes in the mouth is A) proteins. B) carbohydrates. C) cholesterol and other lipids. D) nucleic acids. E) minerals. Answer: B 18) Salivary amylase digests A) protein. B) starches. C) monosaccharides. D) glucose. E) maltose. Answer: B 19) Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the A) small intestine. B) stomach. C) pancreas. D) liver. E) mouth. Answer: B 20) Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that A) is manufactured by the pancreas. B) helps stabilize fat-water emulsions. C) splits maltose into monosaccharides. D) begins the hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach. E) is denatured and rendered inactive in solutions with low pH. Answer: D 21) Upon activation by stomach acidity, the secretions of the parietal cells A) initiate the digestion of protein in the stomach. B) initiate the mechanical digestion of lipids in the stomach. C) initiate the chemical digestion of lipids in the stomach. D) include pepsinogen. E) delay digestion until the food arrives in the small intestine. Answer: A 22) The bile salts A) are enzymes. B) are manufactured by the pancreas. C) emulsify fats in the duodenum. D) increase the efficiency of pepsin action. E) are normally an ingredient of gastric juice. Answer: C 23) Complex nutrients are digested and then absorbed into the lymph or bloodstream as A) disaccharides. B) polymers. C) monomers. D) enzymes. E) peptides. Answer: C 24) An enzyme with high activity in an acidic environment is A) amylase. B) pepsin. C) gastrin. D) trypsin. E) sucrose. Answer: B 25) The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that the A) processing of fats does not require any digestive enzymes, whereas the processing of carbohydrates does. B) fat absorption occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small intestine. C) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not. D) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood. E) fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption. Answer: D 26) For a nondiabetic person, the glucose concentration in this part of the vasculature varies more than in any other part. A) abdominal artery B) coronary arteries C) pulmonary veins D) hepatic portal vessel E) jugular vein Answer: D 27) Glandular secretions that are released initially as inactive precursors of digestive enzymes are the A) protein-digesting enzymes. B) fat-solubilizing bile salts. C) acid-neutralizing bicarbonate. D) carbohydrate-digesting enzymes. E) hormones such as gastrin. Answer: A 28) Because adult lampreys attach onto the surface of large fish for long periods of time to feed on body fluids, they can accomplish nutritional balance without need for a A) liver. B) pancreas. C) intestine. D) stomach. E) gallbladder. Answer: D 29) Constipation can result from the consumption of a substance that A) contains plenty of fiber. B) promotes water reabsorption in the large intestine. C) speeds up movement of material in the large intestine. D) decreases water reabsorption in the small intestine. E) stimulates peristalsis. Answer: B 30) Historically inaccurate diagnosis of acid reflux disorders and gastric ulcers has been improved by A) pH monitoring. B) X-ray technology. C) the diagnosis and treatment of H. pylori infection. D) colonoscopy. E) sonography. Answer: C 31) A hiatal hernia that disrupts the functional relationship between the smooth muscle in the esophagus and that in the stomach would be most likely to increase the frequency of A) gastric reflux. B) premature entry of food into the duodenum. C) excess secretion of pepsinogen. D) increased stomach pH. E) retention of food in the stomach. Answer: A 32) The cells that secrete the acidic components of stomach juices are A) the chief cells of the stomach. B) the parietal cells of the stomach. C) not needed for the transformation of pepsinogen to pepsin. D) in the lumen of the stomach. E) adding secretions along the esophagus. Answer: D 33) Stomach cells are moderately well adapted to the acidity and protein-digesting activities in the stomach by having A) a sufficient colony of H. pylori. B) a thick, mucous secretion and active mitosis of epithelial cells. C) a high level of secretion by chief cells. D) a high level of secretion from parietal cells. E) secretions enter the stomach from the pancreas. Answer: B 34) The molar teeth of herbivorous mammals are especially effective at A) cutting. B) ripping. C) grinding. D) splitting. E) piercing. Answer: C 35) A group of animals among which a relatively long cecum is likely to be found is the A) carnivores. B) herbivores. C) autotrophs. D) heterotrophs. E) omnivores. Answer: B 36) Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because A) they are autotrophic. B) cattle, like rabbits, re-ingest their feces. C) they manufacture all 15 amino acids out of sugars in the liver. D) cattle saliva has enzymes capable of digesting cellulose. E) they have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs. Answer: E 37) Analysis of jawbones from the skeletal remains of a vertebrate animal reveal its dietary patterns owing to A) the position of muscle attachment sites. B) the prevalence of specific kinds of teeth. C) the size of the mouth opening. D) the evidence of food molecules still present. E) whether the mouth is the most anterior structure. Answer: B 38) An enlarged cecum is typical of A) rabbits, horses, and herbivorous bears. B) carnivorous animals. C) tubeworms that digest via symbionts. D) humans and other primates. E) tapeworms and other intestinal parasites. Answer: A 39) Coprophagy, the nutrition-boosting ingestion of fecal material, is important for the nutritional balance of A) ruminants such as cows. B) insects and arthropods. C) rabbits and their relatives. D) squirrels and some rodents. E) very large animals, such as elephants. Answer: C 40) When the digestion and absorption of organic carbohydrates results in more energy-rich molecules than are immediately required by an animal, the excess is A) eliminated in the feces. B) stored as starch in the liver. C) stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles. D) oxidized and converted to ATP. E) hydrolyzed and converted to ADP. Answer: C 41) Hypoglycemia, or low levels of glucose in the blood of a healthy human, is "corrected" A) by an increase in the secretion of insulin. B) by an increase in the secretion of glucagon. C) by an increase in the secretion of both insulin and glucagon. D) by a decrease in the secretion of both insulin and glucagon. E) by an increase in the secretion of thyroid hormones. Answer: B 42) A fasting animal whose energy needs exceed those provided in its diet draws on its stored resources in which order? A) fat, then glycogen, then protein B) glycogen, then protein, then fat C) liver glycogen, then muscle glycogen, then fat D) muscle glycogen, then fat, then liver glycogen E) fat, then protein, then glycogen Answer: C 43) Obesity in humans is most clearly linked to A) type 1 diabetes and prostate cancer. B) type 1 diabetes and breast cancer. C) type 2 diabetes and muscle hypertrophy. D) type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. E) type 2 diabetes and decreased appetite. Answer: D 44) Standard metabolic rate (SMR) and basal metabolic rate (BMR) are A) used differently: SMR is measured during exercise, whereas BMR is measured at rest. B) used to compare metabolic rate between hibernating and no hibernating states. C) both measured across a wide range of temperatures for a given species. D) both standard measurements of fat metabolism in mammals. E) both measured in animals in a resting and fasting state. Answer: E 45) Independent of whether an organism is an endotherm or ectoderm, the least reliable indicator of an animal's metabolic rate is the amount of A) food eaten in one day. B) heat generated in one day. C) oxygen used in mitochondria in one day. D) carbon dioxide produced in one day. E) water consumed in one day. Answer: E 46) After eating a carbohydrate-rich meal, the mammalian pancreas increases its secretion of A) ecdysteroid. B) glucagon. C) thyroxine. D) oxytocin. E) insulin. Answer: E 47) When the beta cells of the pancreas release insulin into the blood, A) the blood glucose levels rise to a set point and stimulate glucagon release. B) the skeletal muscles and the adipose cells take up glucose at a faster rate. C) the liver catabolizes glycogen. D) the alpha cells of the pancreas release glucose into the blood. E) the kidneys begin gluconeogenesis. Answer: B 33.2 Art Questions Use the following table showing the contents of a multivitamin supplement and its percentage of recommended daily values (% DV) to answer the following questions. Figure 33.1 1) The most likely reason that some of the vitamins and minerals in this supplement are found at less than 100% is A) that it would be chemically impossible to add more. B) these vitamins and minerals are too large in size to reach 100%. C) it is too easy to overdose on minerals such as phosphorus and calcium. D) it is dangerous to overdose on fat-soluble vitamins such as A and K. E) these supplements are meant for those who have been deprived of healthy foods. Answer: D 2) A mineral that is especially important for preventing anemia is A) zinc. B) iron. C) iodine. D) molybdenum. E) folic acid. Answer: B 3) Folic acid supplements are especially important for pregnant women because A) folic acid supplies vitamins that only pregnant women can use. B) the folic acid is stored in adipose tissue by pregnant women, so supplements are needed to make more available in the circulation. C) the fetus makes high levels of folic acid. D) folic acid deprivation is associated with neural tube abnormalities in a fetus. E) folic acid deprivation is a cause of heart abnormalities in a newborn. Answer: D Figure 33.2 4) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. The agents that help emulsify fats are produced in location A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 8. E) 9. Answer: E 5) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. The highest rate of nutrient absorption occurs at location(s) A) 3 only. B) 4 only. C) 1 and 4. D) 3 and 4. E) 1, 3, and 4. Answer: B 6) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. Most of the digestion of fats occurs in section(s) A) 3 only. B) 4 only. C) 1 and 4. D) 3 and 4. E) 1, 3, and 4. Answer: B 33.3 Scenario Questions Use the following information to answer the question below. Mouse mutations can affect an animal's appetite and eating habits. The ob gene codes for a satiety factor, the hormone leptin. The db gene product, the leptin receptor, is required to respond to the satiety factor. 1) Leptin is a product of adipose cells. Therefore, a very obese mouse would be expected to have A) increased gene expression of ob and decreased expression of db. B) increased gene expression of db and decreased expression of ob. C) decreased transcription of both ob and db. D) mutation of ob or db. Answer: D 2) Imagine that you are a biologist who is attempting to get an accurate measure of an animal's basal metabolic rate. The best time to measure the metabolic rate is when the animal A) is resting and has not eaten its first meal of the day. B) is resting and has just completed its first meal of the day. C) has recently eaten a sugar-free meal. D) has not consumed any water for at least 48 hours. E) has just completed 30 minutes of vigorous exercise. Answer: A 33.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The mammalian trachea and esophagus both connect to the A) large intestine. B) stomach. C) pharynx. D) rectum. E) gastrovascular cavity. Answer: C 2) Which of the following organs is incorrectly paired with its function? A) stomach—protein digestion B) oral cavity—starch digestion C) large intestine—bile production D) small intestine—nutrient absorption E) pancreas—enzyme production Answer: C 3) Which of the following is not a major activity of the stomach? A) mechanical digestion B) HCl secretion C) mucus secretion D) nutrient absorption E) enzyme secretion Answer: D 4) Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol, whereas protein digestion yields amino acids; both digestive processes A) are catalyzed by the same enzyme. B) occur inside cells in most animals. C) add a water molecule to break bonds. D) require a low pH resulting from HCl production. E) consume ATP. Answer: C 5) After surgical removal of an infected gallbladder, a person must be especially careful to restrict dietary intake of A) starch. B) protein. C) sugar. D) fat. E) water. Answer: D 6) If you were to jog 1 km a few hours after lunch, which stored fuel would you probably tap? A) muscle proteins B) muscle and liver glycogen C) fat stored in the liver D) fat stored in adipose tissue E) blood proteins Answer: B Chapter 34: Circulation and Gas Exchange 34.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Gas exchange in the aquatic salamander known as the axolotl is correctly described as A) active transport to move oxygen into the salamander from the water. B) carrier-mediated transport to move oxygen into the salamander from the water. C) facilitated diffusion of carbon dioxide from the salamander into the water. D) simple diffusion of oxygen into the salamander from the water. E) active transport of carbon dioxide from the salamander into the water. Answer: D 2) Circulatory systems compensate for A) temperature differences between the lungs and the active tissue. B) the slow rate at which diffusion occurs over large distances. C) the problem of communication systems involving only the nervous system. D) the need to cushion animals from trauma. E) the need fetal organisms have for maintaining an optimal body temperature. Answer: B 3) The fluid that moves around in the circulatory system of a typical arthropod is A) the digestive juices. B) the intracellular fluid. C) the blood plasma. D) the cytosol. E) the interstitial fluid. Answer: E 4) The circulatory system of bony fishes, rays, and sharks is similar to A) that of birds, with a four-chambered heart. B) the portal systems of mammals, where two capillary beds occur sequentially, without passage of blood through a pumping chamber. C) that of reptiles, with one pumping chamber driving blood flow to a gas-exchange organ, and a different pumping chamber driving blood to the rest of the circulation. D) that of sponges, where gas exchange in all cells occurs directly with the external environment. E) that of humans, where there are four pumping chambers to drive blood flow. Answer: B 5) A significant increase in the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of a human's lungs will cause A) an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide moving from the blood to the lungs. B) an increase in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood. C) a decrease in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood. D) an increase of pressure that would cause the capillary beds to burst. E) a decrease in the amount of work needed for effective ventilation of the lungs. Answer: C 6) Organisms with a circulating body fluid that is distinct from the fluid that directly surrounds the body's cells are likely to have A) an open circulatory system. B) a closed circulatory system. C) a gastrovascular cavity. D) branched tracheae. E) hemolymph. Answer: B 7) In which of the following organisms does blood flow from the pulmocutaneous circulation to the heart before circulating through the rest of the body? A) annelids B) molluscs C) fishes D) frogs E) insects Answer: D 8) The only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart are the A) amphibians. B) birds. C) fishes. D) mammals. E) reptiles. Answer: C 9) To adjust blood pressure independently in the capillaries of the gas-exchange surface and in the capillaries of the general body circulation, an organism would need a(n) A) open circulatory system. B) hemocoel. C) lymphatic system. D) two-chambered heart. E) four-chambered heart. Answer: E 10) Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta? A) systole of the left atrium B) diastole of the right ventricle C) systole of the left ventricle D) diastole of the right atrium E) diastole of the left atrium Answer: C 11) A human red blood cell in an artery of the left arm is on its way to deliver oxygen to a cell in the thumb. To travel from the artery in the arm to the left ventricle, this red blood cell must pass through A) one capillary bed. B) two capillary beds. C) three capillary beds. D) four capillary beds. E) five capillary beds. Answer: B 12) Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in reptiles and mammals? A) left ventricle → aorta → lungs → systemic circulation B) right ventricle → pulmonary vein → pulmocutaneous circulation C) pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary circuit D) vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary circuit E) right atrium → pulmonary artery → left atrium → ventricle Answer: D 13) A patient with a blood pressure of 120/75, a pulse rate of 40 beats/minute, a stroke volume of 70 mL/beat, and a respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute will have a cardiac output of A) 500 mL/minute. B) 1,000 mL/minute. C) 1,750 mL/minute. D) 2,800 mL/minute. E) 4,800 mL/minute. Answer: D 14) Damage to the sinoatrial node in humans A) is a major contributor to heart attacks. B) would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers. C) would have a negative effect on peripheral resistance. D) would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions. E) would have a direct effect on blood pressure monitors in the aorta. Answer: D 15) A stroke volume in the heart of 70 mL/cycle, with a pulse of 72 cycles per minute, results in a cardiac output of A) 5 L/minute. B) 504 mL/minute. C) 0.5 L/minute. D) 50 L/minute. E) 500 L/minute. Answer: A 16) The semilunar valves of the mammalian heart A) are the route by which blood flows from the atria to the ventricles. B) are found only on the right side of the heart. C) are the attachment site where the pulmonary veins empty into the heart. D) prevent backflow of blood in the aorta and pulmonary arteries. E) are at the places where the anterior and posterior venae cavae empty into the heart. Answer: D 17) Heart rate will increase in the presence of increased A) low-density lipoproteins. B) immunoglobulins. C) erythropoietin. D) epinephrine. E) platelets. Answer: D 18) The material present in arterioles that is not present in capillaries is A) fully oxygenated blood. B) plasma in which carbon dioxide has been added. C) a lining of endothelial cells. D) circular smooth muscle cells that can alter the size of the arterioles. E) white blood cells and platelets. Answer: D 19) The set of blood vessels with the slowest velocity of blood flow is A) the arteries. B) the arterioles. C) the metarterioles. D) the capillaries. E) the veins. Answer: D 20) The set of blood vessels with the lowest blood pressure driving flow is A) the arteries. B) the arterioles. C) the metarterioles. D) the capillaries. E) the veins. Answer: E 21) An increased concentration of nitric oxide within a vascular bed is associated with A) vasoconstriction. B) vasodilation. C) narrowing of the arteries. D) a reduction in blood flow in that region. E) a decreased amount of blood in the capillaries of that vascular bed. Answer: B 22) Among the following choices, which organism likely has the highest systolic pressure? A) mouse B) rabbit C) human D) hippopotamus E) giraffe Answer: E 23) Small swollen areas in the neck, groin, and axillary region are associated with A) increased activity of the immune system. B) a broken limb. C) blood sugar that is abnormally high. D) dehydration. E) sodium depletion. Answer: A 24) The velocity of blood flow is the lowest in capillaries because A) the capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells. B) the capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases. C) the diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate. D) the systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the right ventricle. E) the total cross-sectional area of the capillaries is greater than the total cross-sectional area of the arteries or any other part of the circulatory system. Answer: E 25) The blood pressure is lowest in the A) aorta. B) arteries. C) arterioles. D) capillaries. E) vena cava. Answer: E 26) If, during protein starvation, the osmotic pressure on the venous side of capillary beds drops below the hydrostatic pressure, then A) hemoglobin will not release oxygen. B) fluids will tend to accumulate in tissues. C) the pH of the interstitial fluids will increase. D) most carbon dioxide will be bound to hemoglobin and carried away from tissues. E) plasma proteins will escape through the endothelium of the capillaries. Answer: B 27) What will be the long-term effect of blocking the lymphatic vessels associated with a capillary bed? A) more fluid entering the venous capillaries B) an increase in the blood pressure in the capillary bed C) the accumulation of more fluid in the interstitial areas D) fewer proteins leaking out of the blood to enter the interstitial fluid E) the area of the blockage becoming abnormally small Answer: C 28) A species that has a normal resting systolic blood pressure of >260 mm Hg is likely to be A) an animal that is small and compact, without the need to pump blood very far from the heart. B) an animal with abundant lipid storage. C) a species that has very wide-diameter veins. D) an animal that has a very long distance between its heart and its brain. E) an animal that makes frequent, quick motions. Answer: D 29) Large proteins such as albumin remain in capillaries rather than diffusing out, resulting in the A) loss of osmotic pressure in the capillaries. B) development of an osmotic pressure difference across capillary walls. C) loss of fluid from capillaries. D) increased diffusion of CO2. E) increased diffusion of Hb. Answer: B 30) The diagnosis of hypertension in adults is based on the A) measurement of fatty deposits on the endothelium of arteries. B) measurement of the LDL/HDL ratio in peripheral blood. C) percent of blood volume made up of platelets. D) blood pressure being greater than 140 mm Hg systolic and/or >90 diastolic. E) number of leukocytes per mm3 of blood. Answer: D 31) Dialysis is the process of filtering the blood; it is performed when kidney functionality is below normal. During dialysis, plasma and its proteins are separated from the cells. Dialysis patients, who will have blood withdrawn, dialyzed, and then replaced, are always weighed when they enter the facility and then weighed carefully again before they leave, because A) even small changes in body weight may signify changes in blood volume and therefore blood pressure. B) many people who have dialysis are diabetic and must control their weight carefully. C) dialysis removes blood proteins, and these weigh more than other blood components. D) dialysis is likely to cause edema, and such swelling must be controlled. E) reclining posture during dialysis can cause a tendency for weight gain. Answer: A 32) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels delivering blood to the gut is a likely response when an individual is A) lying down after standing up. B) eating a meal. C) stressed and secreting stress hormones. D) responding to increased blood pressure. E) having an allergy attack with lots of histamine secretion. Answer: C 33) In a healthy human, the typical life span of a red blood cell is A) 24 hours. B) 1 week. C) 1 month. D) 4 months. E) 80 years or more. Answer: D 34) The hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells and the organ where this hormone is synthesized are A) growth hormone and pancreas, respectively. B) erythropoietin and kidney, respectively. C) cortisol and adrenal gland, respectively. D) epinephrine and adrenal gland, respectively. E) acetylcholine and bone marrow, respectively. Answer: B 35) Dissolved proteins in human plasma include which of the following? I. fibrinogen II. hemoglobin III. immunoglobulin A) I only B) II only C) I and III only D) II and III only E) I, II, and III Answer: C 36) The plasma proteins in humans A) maintain the blood's osmotic pressure. B) transport water-soluble lipids. C) carry out gas exchange. D) undergo aerobic metabolism. E) transport oxygen. Answer: A 37) The production of red blood cells is stimulated by A) low-density lipoproteins. B) immunoglobulins. C) erythropoietin. D) epinephrine. E) platelets. Answer: C 38) The meshwork that forms the fabric of a blood clot is A) chymotrypsin. B) fibrin. C) thrombin. D) prothrombin. E) collagen. Answer: B 39) When the air in a testing chamber is specially mixed so that its oxygen content is 10% and its overall air pressure is 400 mm Hg, then PO2 is A) 400 mm Hg. B) 82 mm Hg. C) 40 mm Hg. D) 21 mm Hg. E) 4 mm Hg. Answer: C 40) The sun shining on a tidal pool during a hot day heats the water. As some water evaporates, the pool becomes saltier, causing A) a decrease in its carbon dioxide content. B) a decrease in its oxygen content. C) an increase in its ability to sustain aerobic organisms. D) a decrease in the water's density. E) a decrease in the movement of the water molecules. Answer: B 41) Sponges, cnidarians, and flatworms lack a specialized gas exchange surface because A) they are too large for a circulatory system to operate well. B) they live without need for oxygen. C) they do not produce carbon dioxide. D) countercurrent exchange mechanisms cannot function well in their living conditions. E) nearly all of their cells are in direct contact with the external environment. Answer: E 42) The epiglottis of a human covers the glottis when he or she is A) talking. B) breathing. C) swallowing. D) yawning. E) sleeping. Answer: C 43) In mammals, most gas exchange between the atmosphere and the pulmonary blood occurs in the A) trachea. B) larynx. C) bronchi. D) bronchioles. E) alveoli. Answer: E 44) Gas exchange is more difficult for aquatic animals with gills than for terrestrial animals with lungs because A) water is less dense than air. B) water contains much less O2 than air per unit volume. C) gills have less surface area than lungs. D) gills allow only unidirectional transport. E) gills collapse in air. Answer: B 45) Countercurrent exchange is evident in A) the flow of water across the gills of a fish and that of blood within those gills. B) the flow of blood in the dorsal vessel of an insect and that of air within its tracheae. C) the flow of air within the primary bronchi of a human and that of blood within the pulmonary veins. D) the flow of water across the skin of a frog and that of blood within the ventricle of its heart. E) the flow of fluid out of the arterial end of a capillary and that of fluid back into the venous end of the same capillary. Answer: A 46) Countercurrent exchange in the fish gill helps to maximize A) endocytosis. B) blood pressure. C) diffusion. D) active transport. E) osmosis. Answer: C 47) Air-breathing insects carry out gas exchange A) in their specialized external gills. B) in their specialized internal gills. C) in the alveoli of their lungs. D) across the finest branches of the trachea and cell membranes. E) across all parts of their thin cuticular exoskeleton. Answer: D 48) An oil-water mixture works as an insecticidal spray against mosquitoes and other insects because it A) coats their lungs. B) blocks the openings into the tracheal system. C) interferes with gas exchange across the capillaries. D) clogs their bronchi. E) prevents gases from leaving the atmosphere. Answer: B 49) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to a column of 760 mm Hg. Oxygen makes up 21% of the atmosphere by volume. The partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) in such conditions is A) 160 mm Hg. B) 16 mm Hg. C) 120/75. D) 21/760. E) 760/21. Answer: A 50) Some human infants, especially those born prematurely, suffer serious respiratory failure because of A) the sudden change from the uterine environment to the air. B) the overproduction of surfactants. C) the incomplete development of the lung surface. D) lung collapse due to inadequate production of surfactant. E) mutations in the genes involved in lung formation. Answer: D 51) At an atmospheric pressure of 870 mm Hg of 21% oxygen, the partial pressure of oxygen is A) 100 mm Hg. B) 127 mm Hg. C) 151 mm Hg. D) 182 mm Hg. E) 219 mm Hg. Answer: D 52) At sea level, atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg. Oxygen gas is approximately 21% of the total gases in the atmosphere, so the approximate partial pressure of oxygen is A) 0.2 mm Hg. B) 20.0 mm Hg. C) 76.0 mm Hg. D) 160.0 mm Hg. E) 508.0 mm Hg. Answer: D 53) At the summit of a high mountain, the atmospheric pressure is 380 mm Hg. If the atmosphere is still composed of 21% oxygen, then the partial pressure of oxygen at this altitude is A) 0 mm Hg. B) 80 mm Hg. C) 160 mm Hg. D) 380 mm Hg. E) 760 mm Hg. Answer: B 54) Of the following choices, impairment of a mammal's breathing cycle is most likely following neural damage in A) the cerebrum and cerebellum. B) the medulla oblongata and the pons. C) the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex. D) the thalamus and the hypothalamus. E) the frontal lobe and the temporal lobe. Answer: B 55) Air rushes into the lungs of humans during inhalation because A) the rib muscles and diaphragm contract, increasing the lung volume. B) the volume of the alveoli increases as smooth muscles contract. C) gas flows from a region of lower pressure to a region of higher pressure. D) pulmonary muscles contract and pull on the outer surface of the lungs. E) a positive respiratory pressure is created when the diaphragm relaxes. Answer: A 56) The exhalation of air from human lungs is driven by A) a decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity. B) a decrease in the residual volume of the lungs. C) the contraction of the diaphragm. D) the closure of the epiglottis. E) the expansion of the rib cage. Answer: A 57) During most daily activities, the human respiration rate is most closely linked to the blood levels of A) nitric acid. B) nitrogen. C) oxygen. D) carbon dioxide. E) carbon monoxide. Answer: D 58) Breathing is usually regulated by A) erythropoietin levels in the blood. B) the concentration of red blood cells. C) hemoglobin levels in the blood. D) CO2 and O2 concentration and pH-level sensors. E) the lungs and the larynx. Answer: D 59) Carbon dioxide levels in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid affect their pH. This enables the organism to sense a disturbance in gas levels as A) the brain directly measures and monitors carbon dioxide and causes breathing changes accordingly. B) the medulla oblongata, which is in contact with cerebrospinal fluid, monitors pH and uses this measure to control breathing. C) the brain alters the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid to force the animal to retain more or less carbon dioxide. D) stretch receptors in the lungs cause the medulla oblongata to speed up or slow breathing. E) the medulla oblongata is able to control the concentration of bicarbonate ions in the blood. Answer: B 60) To become bound to hemoglobin for transport in a mammal, atmospheric molecules of oxygen must cross A) zero membranes—oxygen binds directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood. B) one membrane—that of the lining in the lungs—and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood. C) two membranes—in and out of the cell lining the lung—and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood. D) four membranes—in and out of the cell lining the lung, in and out of the endothelial cell lining an alveolar capillary—and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood. E) five membranes—in and out of the cell lining the lung, in and out of the endothelial cell lining an alveolar capillary, and into the red blood cell—to bind with hemoglobin. Answer: E 61) An increase from pH 7.2 to pH 7.4 around hemoglobin causes A) hemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules. B) an increase in the affinity of hemoglobin to bind oxygen molecules. C) hemoglobin to denature. D) an increase in the binding of H+ by hemoglobin. E) hemoglobin to more readily give up its oxygen molecules. Answer: B 62) An "internal reservoir" of oxygen in rested muscle is found in oxygen molecules bound to A) hemoglobin. B) bicarbonate ions. C) carbonic acid. D) actin and myosin. E) myoglobin. Answer: E 63) Hemoglobin and hemocyanin A) are both found within blood cells. B) are both red in color. C) are both freely dissolved in the plasma. D) both transport oxygen. E) are both found in mammals. Answer: D 64) The Bohr shift on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is produced by changes in A) the partial pressure of oxygen. B) the partial pressure of carbon monoxide. C) hemoglobin concentration. D) temperature. E) pH. Answer: E 65) Most of the carbon dioxide produced by humans is A) converted to bicarbonate ions by an enzyme in red blood cells. B) bound to hemoglobin. C) transported in the erythrocytes as carbonic acid. D) simply dissolved in the plasma. E) bicarbonate ions bound to hemoglobin. Answer: A 66) Hydrogen ions produced within human red blood cells are prevented from significantly lowering plasma pH because they bind to A) hemoglobin. B) plasma proteins. C) carbon dioxide. D) carbonic acid. E) plasma buffers. Answer: A 67) The hemocyanin of arthropods and molluscs differs from the hemoglobin of mammals in that A) the oxygen dissociation curve for hemocyanin is linear. B) hemocyanin carries appreciably more carbon dioxide. C) hemocyanin has protein coupled to copper rather than iron. D) the protein of hemocyanin is not bound to metal. E) hemocyanin includes cyanic acid. Answer: C 68) In an animal species known for endurance running rather than fast sprinting, you would expect to find A) a slower rate of oxygen consumption so that its breathing will not have to be accelerated. B) a decrease in myoglobin concentration in the muscles. C) a relatively slow heart rate in order to lower oxygen consumption. D) a lower pressure of oxygen in the alveoli. E) a much higher rate of oxygen consumption for its size. Answer: E 34.2 Scenario Questions 1) An anthropologist discovers the fossilized heart of an extinct animal. The evidence indicates that the organism's heart was large, well formed, and had four chambers, with no connection between the right and left sides. A reasonable conclusion supported by these observations is that the A) animal had evolved from birds. B) animal was endothermic and had a high metabolic rate. C) animal was most closely related to alligators and crocodiles. D) animal was likely an invertebrate animal. E) species had little to no need to regulate blood pressure. Answer: B 2) A group of students was designing an experiment to test the effect of smoking on grass frogs. They hypothesized that keeping the frogs in a smoke-filled environment for defined periods would result in the animals developing lung cancer. However, when they searched for previously published information to shore up their hypothesis, they discovered they were quite wrong in their original assessment. Even though they were never going to go ahead with their experiment (so as not to harm frogs needlessly), they knew that a more likely outcome of putting carcinogens in the air would be the development of A) the amphibian equivalent of hypertension. B) skin cancer. C) gill abnormalities in the next generation of tadpoles. D) tracheal tube abnormalities. E) diminished absorption of oxygen. Answer: B 34.3 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of the following respiratory systems is not closely associated with a blood supply? A) the lungs of a vertebrate B) the gills of a fish C) the tracheal system of an insect D) the skin of an earthworm E) the parapodia of a polychaete worm Answer: C 2) Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein drains first into the A) vena cava. B) left atrium. C) right atrium. D) left ventricle. E) right ventricle. Answer: B 3) Pulse is a direct measure of A) blood pressure. B) stroke volume. C) cardiac output. D) heart rate. E) breathing rate. Answer: D 4) When you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes first leads to the urge to breathe? A) rising O2 B) falling O2 C) rising CO2 D) falling CO2 E) rising CO2 and falling O2 Answer: C 5) If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your left toe is exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the following except A) the pulmonary vein. B) an alveolus. C) the tracheA) D) the right atrium. E) the right ventricle. Answer: A 6) Compared with the interstitial fluid that bathes active muscle cells, blood reaching these cells in arteries has a A) higher . B) higher . C) greater bicarbonate concentration. D) lower pH. E) lower osmotic pressure. Answer: A 7) Which of the following would increase the amount of oxygen undergoing net diffusion from the lungs into the blood? A) increasing the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin B) increasing the water vapor content of air in the lungs C) increasing the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood D) decreasing the red blood cell count of the blood E) decreasing the partial pressure of oxygen in the lung Answer: A Test Bank for Campbell Biology in Focus Lisa A. Urry, Michael L. Cain, Steven A. Wasserman, Peter V. Minorsky, Robert B. Jackson, Jane B. Reece 9780321813664, 9780321962751, 9780134710679

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