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This Document Contains Chapters 35 to 36 Chapter 35: The Immune System 35.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Innate immunity A) is activated immediately upon infection. B) depends on a newly infected animal's previous exposure to the same pathogen. C) is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens. D) is found only in vertebrate animals. E) utilizes highly specific antigen receptors on B cells. Answer: A 2) Acidity in human sweat is an example of A) cell-mediated immune response. B) antibody activation. C) acquired immunity. D) adaptive immunity. E) innate immunity. Answer: E 3) A fruit fly, internally infected by a potentially pathogenic fungus, is protected by A) its plasma cells. B) its immunoglobulins. C) its antibodies. D) its antimicrobial peptides. E) its B cells. Answer: D 4) Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate immunity include all of the following except A) neutrophils. B) macrophages. C) dendritic cells. D) natural killer cells. Answer: D 5) An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site of an infection is A) an interferon. B) lymphatic fluid. C) histamine. D) mucus. E) sodium ions. Answer: C 6) A systemic inflammatory response that is often life threatening is A) mild fever. B) aches and dull pain. C) septic shock. D) high blood pressure. E) increased white blood cell count. Answer: C 7) The eyes and the respiratory tract are both protected against infections by A) the mucous membranes that cover their surface. B) the secretion of complement proteins. C) the release of slightly alkaline secretions. D) the secretion of lysozyme onto their surfaces. E) interferons produced by immune cells. Answer: D 8) Salmonella bacterial poisoning can be initiated when A) the microbe survives the acidic environment of the stomach and resists lysosomal degradation in macrophages. B) the chemotactic messengers released by the microbe do not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection. C) there is a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and fight these microbes. D) the microbes release chemical messengers that make them resistant to phagocytosis. E) The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduces the pH of the stomach sufficiently so that ingested microbes are not destroyed. Answer: A 9) The complement system is A) a set of proteins involved in innate but not acquired immunity. B) a set of proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells. C) a group of proteins that includes interferons and interleukins. D) a group of antimicrobial proteins that act together in a cascade fashion. E) a set of proteins that act individually to attack and lyse microbes. Answer: D 10) Cave art by early humans recognized the existence of the major signs of inflammation. The most inclusive set of symptoms of inflammation that might appear in such early human art is A) heat, pain, and redness. B) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue. C) swelling and pain. D) antibody-producing cells. E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain. Answer: E 11) The cells and signaling molecules that initiate inflammatory responses are A) the phagocytes and the lysozymes. B) the phagocytes and the chemokines. C) the dendritic cells and the interferons. D) the mast cells and the histamines. E) the lymphocytes and the interferons. Answer: D 12) Inflammatory responses typically include A) clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection. B) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area. C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma. D) release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area. E) inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow. Answer: B 13) Bacteria entering the body through a small cut in the skin A) inactivate the erythrocytes. B) stimulate apoptosis of nearby body cells. C) stimulate release of interferons. D) stimulate natural killer cell activity. E) activate a group of proteins called complement. Answer: E 14) An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity activity in its intestine that likely includes A) complement. B) lysozyme. C) mucus. D) neutrophils. E) dendritic cells. Answer: B 15) In some insects, such as Drosophila, fungal cell wall elements can activate the protein Toll, which A) acts as a receptor that, when activated, signals synthesis of antimicrobial peptides. B) functions directly to attack the fungi presented to it. C) produces antimicrobial peptides by interaction with chitin. D) secretes special recognition signal molecules that identify specific pathogens. E) causes some hemocytes to phagocytize the pathogens. Answer: A 16) Mammals have Toll-like receptors (TLRs) that can recognize a kind of macromolecule that is absent from vertebrates but present in/on certain groups of pathogens, including viral A) lipopolysaccharides. B) double-stranded DNA. C) double-stranded RNA. D) glycoproteins. E) phospholipids. Answer: C 17) Histamines trigger dilation of nearby blood vessels as well as an increase in their permeability, producing A) redness and heat only. B) swelling only. C) pain. D) redness, heat, and swelling. E) all of the signs of a major infection. Answer: D 18) Septic shock, a systemic response including high fever and low blood pressure, is a response to A) certain bacterial infections. B) specific forms of viruses. C) the presence of natural killer cells. D) a fever of >103°F in adults. E) increased production of neutrophils. Answer: A 19) Infection by a bacterium that has elements on its surface that enhance its resistance to lysozyme will likely result in A) destruction of the bacterium by NK cells. B) successful reproduction of the bacterium and continued progression of the disease. C) removal of the bacterium by dendritic cells and its concentration in lymph nodes. D) the infected individual's humoral immunity becoming the only route of infection response. E) lymphocytes migrating from the thymus to attack the bacterium. Answer: B 20) Adaptive immunity depends on A) traits common to groups of pathogens. B) pathogen-specific recognition. C) maternal provision of antibodies to offspring. D) plants being exposed to new pathogens. E) having exhausted all options for innate immunity responses. Answer: B 21) Bacterial infection in a previously uninfected house cat would most quickly activate its A) Toll-like receptors that bind to lipopolysaccharides. B) memory cells to produce antibodies. C) plasma cells to produce antigens. D) cytotoxic T cells. E) humoral immune responses. Answer: A 22) An epitope is A) part of the interferons that penetrate foreign cells. B) a protein protruding from the surface of B cells. C) two structurally similar antibodies dissolved in the blood plasma. D) that part of an antigen that actually binds to an antigen receptor. E) a mirror image of an antigen. Answer: D 23) B cells have antigen receptors that bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. T cells have antigen receptors that A) are active only in lymph nodes. B) bind only to antigens present on the surface of the invading/foreign cells. C) bind only to freely dissolved antigens in the plasma. D) bind to antigen fragments presented on major his to compatability complexes by host cells. E) bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. Answer: D 24) Within a differentiated B cell, the rearrangement of DNA sequences between variable regions and joining regions is accomplished by A) polyadenylase. B) RNA polymerase. C) reverse transcriptase. D) epitopase. E) recombinase. Answer: E 25) Clonal selection of B cells activated by antigen exposure leads to production of A) large numbers of neutrophils. B) large quantities of the antigen initially recognized. C) vast numbers of B cells with random antigen-recognition receptors. D) long-lived erythrocytes that can later secrete antibodies for the antigen. E) short-lived plasma cells that secrete antibodies for the antigen. Answer: E 26) Antigens are A) proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump. B) proteins embedded in B cell membranes. C) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains. D) foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies. E) proteins released during an inflammatory response. Answer: D 27) A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely A) lack class I MHC molecules on cell surfaces. B) lack humoral immunity. C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors. D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells. E) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies. Answer: D 28) Clonal selection implies that A) brothers and sisters have similar immune responses. B) antigens increase mitosis in specific lymphocytes. C) only certain cells can produce interferon. D) a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors. E) the body selects which antigens it will respond to. Answer: B 29) Clonal selection is an explanation for how A) a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells. B) V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged. C) an antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies. D) HIV can disrupt the immune system. E) macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells. Answer: C 30) The MHC is important in a T cell's ability to A) distinguish self from nonself. B) recognize specific parasitic pathogens. C) identify specific bacterial pathogens. D) identify specific viruses. E) recognize differences among types of cancer. Answer: A 31) An immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule, of whatever class, with regions symbolized as C or V, H or L, has a light chain made up of A) one C region and one V region. B) three C regions and one V region. C) one H region and one L region. D) three H regions and one L region. E) two C regions and two V regions. Answer: A 32) The ability of one person to produce over a million different antibody molecules does not require over a million different genes; rather, this wide range of antibody production is due to A) alternative splicing of exons after transcription. B) increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules. C) DNA rearrangements. D) rearrangements of cytosolic proteins in the thymus cells. E) crossing over between the light and heavy chains of each antibody molecule during meiosis I. Answer: C 33) Immunological memory accounts for A) the human body's ability to distinguish self from nonself. B) the observation that some strains of the pathogen that causes dengue fever cause worse disease than others. C) the ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via cytokines. D) the ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could safely care for those newly diseased. E) the ability of the immune system to present antigen fragments in association with MHC antigens. Answer: D 34) The function of antibodies is to A) inject toxins into living pathogens. B) secrete cytokines that attract macrophages to infection sites. C) release perforins to disrupt infected cells. D) act as Toll-like receptors. E) mark pathogenic cells for destruction. Answer: E 35) Jenner's successful use of cowpox virus as a vaccine against the smallpox virus is due to the fact that A) the immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens. B) the cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox. C) cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties. D) there are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses. E) cowpox and smallpox are caused by the same virus. Answer: D 36) For the successful development of a vaccine to be used against a pathogen, it is necessary that A) the surface antigens of the pathogen do not change. B) a rearrangement of the B cell receptor antibodies takes place. C) all of the surface antigens on the pathogen be identified. D) the pathogen has only one epitope. E) the MHC molecules are heterozygous. Answer: A 37) The switch of one B cell from producing one class of antibody to another antibody class that is responsive to the same antigen is due to A) mutation in the genes of that B cell, induced by exposure to the antigen. B) the rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of responsive B cells. C) a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune response. D) a patient's reaction to the first kind of antibody made by the plasma cells. E) the rearrangement of immunoglobulin heavy-chain C-region DNA. Answer: E 38) The number of MHC protein combinations possible in a given population is enormous. However, an individual in that diverse population has a far more limited array of MHC molecules because A) the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of ways. B) MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II. C) each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only inherits two for each gene. D) once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories. E) once a T cell has matured in the thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories. Answer: C 39) Antihistamine treatment reduces A) blood vessel dilation. B) phagocytosis of antigens. C) MHC presentation by macrophages. D) the secondary immune response. E) clonal selection by antigens. Answer: A 40) A key part of the humoral immune response is A) the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells. B) the production of antibodies by plasma cells. C) perforation of infected host cells by perforin. D) the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens. E) the initiation of programmed cell death in infected host cells. Answer: B 41) The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to A) antibodies. B) antigens. C) natural killer cells. D) double-stranded RNA. E) immunoglobulins. Answer: B 42) Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of A) memory cells. B) macrophages. C) stem cells. D) B cells. E) T cells. Answer: A 43) A patient who can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but not against viral infections, probably has a disorder in his A) B cells. B) plasma cells. C) natural killer cells. D) T cells. E) macrophages. Answer: D 44) The activation of helper T cells is likely A) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell. B) when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines. C) when natural killer (NK) cells come in contact with a tumor cell. D) in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test. E) when B cells respond to T-independent antigens. Answer: A 45) This type of immunity is present only when a newborn infant is being fed by actively nursing its mother and ends when nursing ends. A) innate immunity B) active immunity C) passive immunity D) cell-mediated immunity E) adaptive immunity Answer: C 46) Yearly vaccination of humans for influenza viruses is necessary because A) of an increase in immunodeficiency diseases. B) flu can generate anaphylactic shock. C) surviving the flu one year exhausts the immune system to no responsiveness the second year. D) rapid mutation in flu viruses alters the surface proteins in infected host cells. E) flu leads to autoimmune disorders. Answer: D 47) The cell-mediated immunity that destroys virally infected cells involves A) cytotoxic T cells. B) natural killer cells. C) helper T cells. D) macrophages. E) B cells. Answer: A 48) Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and also respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes? A) cytotoxic T cells B) natural killer cells C) helper T cells D) macrophages E) B cells Answer: A 49) Select the pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells. A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs B) body cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface C) self-tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released D) complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines released E) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule—antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell lysis Answer: B 50) Among the last line of defenses against prolonged exposure to an extracellular pathogen is A) lysozyme production. B) phagocytosis by neutrophils. C) antibody production by plasma cells. D) histamine release by basophils. E) lysis by natural killer cells. Answer: C 51) Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen in the correct sequence. I. Pathogen is destroyed. II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies. III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes. IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous. V. Only memory cells remain. A) I → III → II → IV → V B) III → II → I → V → IV C) II → I → IV → III → V D) IV → II → III → I → V E) III → IV → II → I → V Answer: E 52) A cell type that interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways is a A) plasma cell. B) cytotoxic T cell. C) natural killer cell. D) CD8 cell. E) helper T cell. Answer: E 53) A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to A) respond to T-independent antigens. B) lyse tumor cells. C) stimulate a cytotoxic T cell. D) interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex. E) interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex. Answer: E 54) T cells of the immune system include A) CD4, CD8, and plasma cells. B) cytotoxic and helper cells. C) plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells. D) lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells. E) class I MHC, class II MHC, and memory cells. Answer: B 55) B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when A) B cells produce IgE antibodies. B) B cells release cytokines. C) helper T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface. D) helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells. E) helper T cells release cytokines. Answer: E 56) Normal immune responses can be described as polyclonal because A) blood contains many different antibodies and antigens. B) construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells. C) multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell. D) diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen. E) macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in a normal immune response. Answer: D 57) Antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other A) in the way they are produced. B) in their heavy-chain structure. C) in the type of cell that produces them. D) by the antigenic determinants that they recognize. E) by the number of carbohydrate subunits they have. Answer: B 58) When antibodies bind antigens, the clumping of antigens results from A) the multivalence of the antibody having at least two binding regions. B) disulfide bridges between the antigens. C) complement that makes the affected cells sticky. D) bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules. E) denaturation of the antibodies. Answer: A 59) Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by A) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes. B) antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes. C) the release of cytokines by activated B cells. D) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes and antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes only. E) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes, antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes, and the release of cytokines by activated B cells. Answer: D 60) The primary function of humoral immunity is A) to defend against fungi and protozoa. B) to reject transplanted tissues. C) to protect the body against cells that become cancerous. D) to protect the body against extracellular pathogens. E) to defend against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells. Answer: D 61) Naturally acquired passive immunity results from the A) injection of vaccine. B) ingestion of interferon. C) placental transfer of antibodies. D) absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes. E) injection of antibodies. Answer: C 62) In active immunity, but not passive immunity, there is A) acquisition and activation of antibodies. B) proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow. C) the transfer of antibodies from the mother across the placenta. D) the requirement for direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen. E) the requirement of secretion of interleukins from macrophages. Answer: D 63) An individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin would likely benefit from A) vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin. B) injection of antibodies to the toxin. C) injection of interleukin-1. D) injection of interleukin-2. E) injection of interferon. Answer: B 64) A bone marrow transplant may not be appropriate from a given donor (Jane) to a given recipient (Jane's cousin Bob), even though Jane has previously given blood for one of Bob's needed transfusions, because A) even though Jane's blood type is a match to Bob's, her MHC proteins may not be a match. B) a blood type match is less stringent than a match required for transplant because blood is more tolerant of change. C) for each gene, there is only one blood allele but many tissue alleles. D) Jane's class II genes are not expressed in bone marrow. E) Bob's immune response has been made inadequate before he receives the transplant. Answer: A 65) An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because A) MHC molecules of the donor may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue, but bacteria lack MHC molecules. B) the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will not enter into an immune response. C) a response to the graft will involve B cells and a response to the bacterium will not. D) a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells. E) the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient. Answer: A 66) In the human disease known as lupus, there is an immune reaction against a patient's own DNA from broken or dying cells, which categorizes lupus as A) an allergy. B) an immunodeficiency. C) an autoimmune disease. D) an antigenic variation. E) a cancer. Answer: C 67) A patient who undergoes a high level of mast cell degranulation, dilation of blood vessels, and an acute drop in blood pressure is likely suffering from A) an autoimmune disease. B) a typical allergy that can be treated by antihistamines. C) an organ transplant, such as a skin graft. D) the effect of exhaustion on the immune system. E) anaphylactic shock immediately following exposure to an allergen. Answer: E 68) An example of a pathogen that undergoes rapid changes resulting in antigenic variation is A) the influenza virus, which expresses alternative envelope proteins. B) the strep bacteria, which can be communicated from patient to patient with high efficiency. C) human papilloma virus, which can remain latent for several years. D) the causative agent of the autoimmune disease known as rheumatoid arthritis. E) multiple sclerosis, which attacks the myelinated cells of the nervous system. Answer: A 69) The ability of some viruses to remain inactive (latent) for a period of time is exemplified by A) influenza, a particular strain of which returns every 10-20 years. B) herpes simplex viruses (oral or genital) whose reproduction is triggered by physiological or emotional stress in the host. C) Kaposi's sarcoma, which causes a skin cancer in people with AIDS, but rarely in those not infected by HIV. D) the virus that causes a form of the common cold, which recurs in patients many times in their lives. E) myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease that blocks muscle contraction from time to time. Answer: B 70) Preventing the appearance of the symptoms of an allergy attack would be the likely result of A) blocking the attachment of the IgE antibodies to the mast cells. B) blocking the antigenic determinants of the IgM antibodies. C) reducing the number of helper T cells in the body. D) reducing the number of cytotoxic cells. E) reducing the number of natural killer cells. Answer: A 71) A patient complaining of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing after being given a flower bouquet as a birthday gift should first be treated with A) a vaccine. B) complement. C) sterile pollen. D) antihistamines. E) monoclonal antibodies. Answer: D 35.2 Art Questions Mutant fruit flies that make only one antimicrobial peptide were tested for survival after infection with Neurospora crassa fungi or with Micrococcus luteus bacteria, and the results are shown in Figures 35.1 and 35.2. Figure 35.1 Figure 35.2 1) The results shown in the graphs in Figures 35.1 and 35.2 support the hypothesis that A) adding the defensin gene to such mutants protects them from fungal infection. B) adding the drosomycin gene to such mutants protects them from fungal infection. C) wild-type flies with the full set of genes for antimicrobial peptides are highly susceptible to these infective agents. D) the presence of any single antimicrobial peptide protects against both infective agents. E) even the wild-type flies rarely, if ever, survive for 5 days. Answer: B All cells have protein markers on their membranes, and the Rh antigen is found in the membranes of red blood cells. If a person possesses the Rh antigen on his or her red blood cells, it is indicated with a + sign. If a person does not possess the Rh antigen, it is indicated with a — sign. A, B, and O refer to the ABO blood groups. Figure 35.3 2) Study the table in Figure 35.3. The mother could exhibit an anti-Rh factor reaction to the developing fetus in A) Case 1 only. B) Case 3 only. C) Cases 1 and 2 only. D) Cases 1, 2, and 3. E) It cannot be determined from the data given. Answer: A 3) Study the table in Figure 35.3. Giving the mother anti-Rh antibodies before delivering her baby would be a wise precaution in A) Case 1 only. B) Case 3 only. C) Cases 1 and 2 only. D) Cases 1, 2, and 3. E) It cannot be determined from the data given. Answer: A Figure 35.4 4) According to the graph in Figure 35.4, naive B cells will produce effector cells A) between 0 and 7 days. B) between 7 and 14 days. C) between 28 and 35 days. D) between 0 and 7 days and between 7 and 14 days. E) between 0 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days. Answer: B 35.3 Scenario Questions Use the following information to answer the next few questions. An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected when she was a child, at which time she had merely experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This time, although infected, she does not get sick. 1) Her immune system's recognition of the second infection involves the A) helper T cells. B) memory B cells. C) plasma cells. D) cytotoxic T cells. E) natural killer cells. Answer: D 2) The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected cells along with A) complement. B) antibodies. C) class I MHC molecules. D) class II MHC molecules. E) dendritic cells. Answer: C 35.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of these is not part of insect immunity? A) activation of microbe-killing chemicals B) activation of natural killer cells C) phagocytosis by hemocytes D) production of antimicrobial peptides E) a protective exoskeleton Answer: B 2) An epitope associates with which part of an antigen receptor or antibody? A) the disulfide bridge B) the heavy-chain constant regions only C) variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined D) the light-chain constant regions only E) the tail Answer: C 3) Which statement best describes the difference in responses of effector B cells (plasma cells) and cytotoxic T cells? A) B cells confer active immunity; cytotoxic T cells confer passive immunity. B) B cells kill pathogens directly; cytotoxic T cells kill host cells. C) B cells secrete antibodies against a pathogen; cytotoxic T cells kill pathogen-infected host cells. D) B cells carry out the cell-mediated response; cytotoxic T cells carry out the humoral response. E) B cells respond the first time a pathogen is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times. Answer: C 4) Which of the following statements is not true? A) An antibody has more than one antigen-binding site. B) An antigen can have different epitopes. C) A pathogen makes more than one antigen. D) A lymphocyte has receptors for multiple different antigens. E) A liver cell makes one class of MHC molecule. Answer: D 5) Which of the following should be the same in identical twins? A) the set of antibodies produced B) the set of MHC molecules produced C) the set of T cell antigen receptors produced D) the susceptibility to a particular virus E) the set of immune cells eliminated as self-reactive Answer: B 6) Vaccination increases the number of A) different receptors that recognize a pathogen. B) lymphocytes with receptors that can bind to the pathogen. C) epitopes that the immune system can recognize. D) macrophages specific for a pathogen. E) MHC molecules that can present an antigen. Answer: B 7) Which of the following would not help a virus avoid triggering an adaptive immune response? A) having frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins B) infecting cells that produce very few MHC molecules C) producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses D) infecting and killing helper T cells E) building the viral shell from host proteins Answer: B Chapter 36: Reproduction and Development 36.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows A) all types of asexual reproduction. B) all types of sexual reproduction. C) fission. D) fragmentation. E) parthenogenesis. Answer: D 2) One of the evolutionary "enigmas," or unsolved puzzles, of sexual reproduction is that A) sexual reproduction allows for more rapid population growth than does asexual reproduction. B) only half of the offspring from sexually reproducing females are also females. C) asexual reproduction produces offspring of greater genetic variety. D) sexual reproduction is completed more rapidly than asexual reproduction. E) asexual reproduction is better suited to environments with extremely varying conditions. Answer: B 3) An advantage of asexual reproduction is that it A) allows the species to endure long periods of unstable environmental conditions. B) enhances genetic variability in the species. C) enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species. D) produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens. E) allows a species to easily rid itself of harmful mutations. Answer: C 4) Genetic mutations in asexually reproducing organisms lead to more evolutionary change than do genetic mutations in sexually reproducing ones because A) asexually reproducing organisms, but not sexually reproducing organisms, pass all mutations on to their offspring. B) asexually reproducing organisms devote more time and energy to the process of reproduction than do sexually reproducing organisms. C) sexually reproducing organisms can produce more offspring in a given time than can sexually reproducing organisms. D) more genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually than is present in those that reproduce sexually. E) asexually reproducing organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that reproduce sexually. Answer: A 5) Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual reproduction when A) pathogens are rapidly diversifying. B) a species has accumulated numerous deleterious mutations. C) there is some potential for rapid overpopulation. D) a species is expanding into diverse geographic settings. E) a species is in stable and favorable environments. Answer: E 6) Sexual reproduction patterns include the example of A) fragmentation. B) budding. C) hermaphroditism. D) parthenogenesis. E) fission. Answer: C 7) Sexual reproduction A) allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions. B) can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment. C) yields more numerous offspring more rapidly than is possible with asexual reproduction. D) enables males and females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly colonizing habitats. E) guarantees that both parents will provide care for each offspring. Answer: B 8) Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by A) increasing the body temperature. B) providing access to water for external fertilization. C) increasing the ambient temperature to that which is comfortable for sex. D) causing direct effects on gonadal structures. E) causing direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms. Answer: E 9) Evidence that parthenogenic whiptail lizards are derived from sexually reproducing ancestors includes A) the requirement for male-like behaviors in some females before their partners will ovulate. B) the development and then regression of testes prior to sexual maturation. C) the observation that all of the offspring are haploid. D) dependence on favorable weather conditions for ovulation to occur. E) the persistence of a vestigial penis among some of the females. Answer: A 10) Like many other fishes, bluehead wrasses utilize harem mating as they reproduce sexually. However, unlike most fishes A) they are simultaneous hermaphrodites. B) they function without any signaling by steroid hormones. C) they undergo a prolonged diapause during low tide. D) their offspring can be either haploid or diploid. E) large females morph into reproductively competent males. Answer: E 11) Which of the following patterns of reproduction are found only among invertebrate animals? A) sexual and asexual reproduction B) external and internal fertilization C) hermaphroditism and parthenogenesis D) pheromonal and hormonal coordination E) fission and budding Answer: E 12) Animals with reproduction dependent on internal fertilization need not have A) any copulatory organs. B) a receptacle that receives sperm. C) behavioral interaction between males and females. D) internal development of embryos. E) haploid gametes. Answer: D 13) In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than does internal fertilization. However, internal fertilization offers the advantage that A) it is the only way to ensure the survival of the species. B) it requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction. C) the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental investment. D) it permits the most rapid population increase. E) it requires expression of fewer genes and maximizes genetic stability. Answer: C 14) External chemical signals that coordinate potential reproductive partners are called A) hormones. B) pheromones. C) paracrine signals. D) cytokines. E) gametes. Answer: B 15) Among nonmammalian vertebrates, the cloaca is an anatomical structure that functions as a A) specialized sperm-transfer device produced only by males. B) shared pathway for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems. C) region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females. D) source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes. E) gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening. Answer: B 16) Females of many insect species, including honeybee queens, can store gametes shed by their mating partners in A) their nests. B) the abdominal tract. C) the cloaca. D) the uterus. E) the spermatheca. Answer: E 17) An oocyte released from a human ovary enters the oviduct as a result of A) the beating action of the flagellum on the oocyte. B) the force of the follicular ejection directing the oocyte into the oviduct. C) the wavelike beating of cilia lining the oviduct. D) movement of the oocyte through the pulsating uterus into the oviduct. E) peristaltic contraction of ovarian muscles. Answer: C 18) The junction of the upper vagina and the uterus is called the A) fallopian tube. B) clitoris. C) oviduct. D) labia majora. E) cervix. Answer: E 19) Among mammals, the male and female genital structures that consist mostly of erectile tissue include the A) penis and clitoris. B) vas deferens and oviduct. C) testes and ovaries. D) seminiferous tubules and hymen. E) prostate and ovaries. Answer: A 20) Sperm cells are stored within human males in the A) urethra. B) prostate. C) epididymis. D) seminal vesicles. E) bulbourethral gland. Answer: C 21) Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the A) vas deferens. B) urinary bladder. C) seminal vesicle. D) urethra. E) ureter. Answer: D 22) Human sperm cells first arise in the A) prostate gland. B) vas deferens. C) seminiferous tubules. D) epididymis. E) Sertoli cells. Answer: C 23) The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely A) cause sterility because sperm would not be produced. B) cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body. C) greatly reduce the volume of semen. D) enhance the fertilization potency of sperm in the uterus. E) cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity. Answer: C 24) Most of the noncellular fluid in ejaculated human semen is composed of A) the secretions of the seminiferous tubules. B) the secretions of the bulbourethral glands. C) the secretions of the seminal vesicles. D) the secretions of the prostate gland. E) anticoagulant enzymes. Answer: C 25) Increasing the temperature of the human scrotum by 2°C (i.e., near the normal body core temperature) and holding it there would A) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing the production of gonadal steroid hormones. B) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing spermatogenesis. C) reduce the man's sexual interest. D) increase the fertility of the affected man by enhancing the rate of steroidogenesis. E) have no effect on male reproductive processes. Answer: B 26) In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that A) oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity, whereas spermatogenesis begins during embryonic development. B) oogenesis produces four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one functional spermatozoon. C) cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis, whereas it is equal in spermatogenesis. D) oogenesis ends at menopause, whereas spermatogenesis is finished before birth. E) spermatogenesis is not completed until after fertilization occurs, but oogenesis is completed by the time a girl is born. Answer: C 27) Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that they A) both have the same number of chromosomes. B) are approximately the same size C) each have a flagellum that provides motility. D) are produced from puberty until death. E) are formed before birth. Answer: A 28) A primary response by the Leydig cells in the testes to the presence of luteinizing hormone is an increase in the synthesis and secretion of A) inhibin. B) testosterone. C) oxytocin. D) prolactin. E) progesterone. Answer: B 29) In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become A) the ovarian endometrium that is shed at the time of the menses. B) a steroid-hormone-synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum. C) the thickened portion of the uterine wall. D) swept into the fallopian tube. E) the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus. Answer: B 30) Testosterone is synthesized primarily by the A) sperm cells. B) hypothalamus. C) Leydig cells. D) anterior pituitary gland. E) seminiferous tubules. Answer: C 31) During human heterosexual (mutual) excitement, vasocongestion occurs A) only in the penis. B) only in the testes. C) only in the clitoris. D) only in the upper vagina. E) in the clitoris, vagina, and penis. Answer: E 32) The moment of orgasm is characterized by A) the ovulation of the oocyte from the ovary. B) the release of sperm from the seminiferous tubules. C) rhythmic contraction of many parts of the reproductive system. D) increased synthesis and release of ovarian steroid hormones. E) increased synthesis and release of testicular steroid hormones. Answer: C 33) At the time of fertilization, the complete maturation of each oogonium has resulted in A) one secondary oocyte. B) two primary oocytes. C) four secondary oocytes. D) four primary oocytes. E) four zygotes. Answer: A 34) A male's "primary" sex characteristics include A) deepening of the voice at puberty. B) embryonic differentiation of the seminal vesicles. C) growth of skeletal muscle. D) elongation of the skeleton prior to puberty. E) onset of growth of facial hair at puberty. Answer: B 35) The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is that A) the endometrium shed by the uterus during the estrous cycle is reabsorbed, whereas the shed endometrium of menstrual cycles is excreted from the body. B) behavioral changes during estrous cycles are much less apparent than those of menstrual cycles. C) season and climate have less pronounced effects on estrous cycles than they do on menstrual cycles. D) copulation normally occurs across the estrous cycle, whereas in menstrual cycles copulation only occurs during the period surrounding ovulation. E) most estrous cycles are of much longer duration compared to menstrual cycles. Answer: A 36) At the end of a nonpregnant ovarian cycle, the breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues is called A) menstruation. B) lactation. C) fertilization. D) menopause. E) ovulation. Answer: A 37) In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human ovarian cycle are A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal. B) follicular → luteal → secretory. C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory. D) follicular → ovulation → luteal. E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation. Answer: D 38) In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human uterine cycle are A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal. B) follicular → luteal → secretory. C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory. D) follicular → ovulation → luteal. E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation. Answer: C 39) An inactivating mutation in the progesterone receptor gene would likely result in A) the absence of secondary sex characteristics. B) the absence of pituitary gonadotropin hormones. C) the inability of the uterus to support pregnancy. D) enlarged and hyperactive uterine endometrium. E) the absence of mammary gland development. Answer: C 40) A reproductive hormone that is secreted directly from a structure in the brain is A) testosterone. B) estradiol. C) progesterone. D) follicle-stimulating hormone. E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Answer: E 41) The primary function of the corpus luteum is to A) nourish and protect the egg cell. B) produce prolactin in the alveoli. C) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred. D) stimulate the development of the mammary glands. E) support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters. Answer: C 42) For the 10 days following ovulation in a nonpregnant menstrual cycle, the main source of progesterone is the A) adrenal cortex. B) anterior pituitary. C) corpus luteum. D) developing follicle. E) placenta. Answer: C 43) Ovulation is the follicular response to a burst of secretion of A) LH. B) progesterone. C) inhibin. D) prolactin. E) estradiol. Answer: A 44) Prior to ovulation, the primary steroid hormone secreted by the growing follicle is A) LH. B) FSH. C) inhibin. D) GnRH. E) estradiol. Answer: E 45) The hypothalamic hormone that stimulates hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary gland is A) LH. B) FSH. C) inhibin. D) GnRH. E) estradiol. Answer: D 46) The hormone progesterone is produced in the A) pituitary and acts directly on the ovary. B) uterus and acts directly on the pituitary. C) ovary and acts directly on the uterus. D) pituitary and acts directly on the uterus. Answer: C 47) Menopause is characterized by A) reduced synthesis of ovarian steroids despite high levels of gonadotropin hormones. B) a decline in production of the gonadotropin hormones by the anterior pituitary gland. C) wearing away of the uterine endometrium. D) an increase in the blood supply to the ovaries. E) a halt in the synthesis of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the brain. Answer: A 48) The hypothalamic hormone that triggers the secretion of FSH is A) luteinizing hormone (LH). B) estradiol. C) progesterone. D) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Answer: E 49) The secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary gland is reduced by A) inhibin. B) luteinizing hormone. C) oxytocin. D) prolactin. E) vasopressin. Answer: A 50) A contraceptive pill that continuously inhibits the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus will A) increase the production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries. B) initiate ovulation. C) reduce the secretion of gonadotropins from the anterior pituitary gland. D) stimulate the secretion of LH and FSH from the posterior pituitary gland. E) increase the flow phase of the menstrual cycle. Answer: C 51) For normal human fertilization to occur A) many ova must be released. B) the uterus must be enlarged. C) only one sperm need penetrate one egg. D) secretion of pituitary FSH and LH must decrease. E) the secondary oocyte must implant in the uterus. Answer: C 52) Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the A) ovary. B) uterus. C) vagina. D) oviduct. E) cervix. Answer: D 53) What embryo-produced hormone maintains progesterone and estrogen secretion by the corpus luteum through the first trimester of pregnancy? A) luteinizing hormone (LH) B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) C) progesterone D) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Answer: D 54) Labor contractions can be increased by the medical use of a synthetic drug that mimics the action of A) inhibin. B) luteinizing hormone. C) oxytocin. D) prolactin. E) vasopressin. Answer: C 55) In excreted urine, a reliable "marker" that a pregnancy has initiated is A) progesterone. B) estrogen. C) follicle-stimulating hormone. D) chorionic gonadotropin. E) hypothalamic-releasing hormones. Answer: D 56) Among these contraception methods, the highest risk of accidental pregnancy accompanies A) the use of a diaphragm. B) the use of a condom. C) the practice of coitus interruptus. D) a verified vasectomy. E) the practice of the "rhythm method." Answer: C 57) The use of birth control pills (oral contraceptives) A) reduces the incidence of ovulation. B) prevents fertilization by keeping the sperm and egg physically separated by a mechanical barrier. C) prevents implantation of an embryo. D) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra. E) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus. Answer: A 58) Two contraceptive methods that are generally irreversible and that block the gametes from moving to a site where fertilization can occur are A) the male condom and the female condom. B) the male condom and oral contraceptives. C) vasectomy and tubal ligation. D) coitus interruptus and the rhythm method. E) the diaphragm and the subcutaneous progesterone implant. Answer: C 59) For lactation to take place, the synthesis of breast milk and its release from the mammary gland, respectively, are caused by A) testosterone and dihydrotestosterone. B) estrogen and progesterone. C) cortisol and testosterone. D) prolactin and oxytocin. E) luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone. Answer: D 60) So-called "combination" birth control pills function in contraception by A) inhibiting the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH. B) irritating the uterine lining so as to prevent implantation. C) causing spontaneous abortions. D) blocking progesterone receptors, so that pregnancy cannot be maintained. E) binding to and inactivating any sperm that enter the oviduct. Answer: A 61) As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of A) differentiation. B) preformation. C) cell division. D) morphogenesis. E) epigenesis. Answer: C 62) Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like A) placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the engine. B) resting during halftime of a basketball game. C) preparing a pie from scratch and baking it in the oven. D) walking to the cafeteria and eating lunch. E) dropping a rock off a cliff and watching it land in the valley below. Answer: A 63) Contact of a sperm with signal molecules in the coat of an egg causes the sperm to undergo A) mitosis. B) depolarization. C) apoptosis. D) vitellogenesis. E) the acrosomal reaction. Answer: E 64) Even in the absence of sperm, metabolic activity in an egg can be artificially activated by A) abnormally high levels of carbonic acid in the cytosol. B) abnormally low levels of extracellular oxygen. C) injection of calcium ions into the cytosol. D) exposure to the low pH of the uterus. E) depletion of its ATP supplies. Answer: C 65) The formation of the fertilization membrane requires an increase in the availability of A) bicarbonate ions. B) calcium ions. C) hydrogen ions. D) potassium ions. E) sodium ions. Answer: B 66) A human zygote undergoes its first cell division A) 5 seconds after fertilization. B) 30 minutes after fertilization. C) 90 minutes after fertilization. D) 4 hours after fertilization. E) 24 hours after fertilization. Answer: E 67) A reproductive difference between sea urchins and humans is A) the sea urchin egg completes meiosis prior to fertilization, but meiosis in humans is completed after fertilization. B) sea urchin eggs are produced by meiosis, but human eggs are produced by mitosis. C) sea urchin eggs and sperm are of equal size, but human eggs are much bigger than human sperm. D) sea urchins, but not humans, have a need to block polyspermy because only in sea urchins can there be more than one source of sperm to fertilize the eggs. E) sea urchin zygotes get their mitochondria from the sperm but human zygotes get their mitochondria from the egg. Answer: A 68) Contact of a sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to undergo a brief A) mitosis. B) membrane depolarization. C) apoptosis. D) vitellogenesis. E) acrosomal reaction. Answer: B 69) During fertilization, the acrosomal contents A) block polyspermy. B) help propel more sperm toward the egg. C) digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg. D) nourish the mitochondria of the sperm. E) trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm. Answer: C 70) The cortical reaction functions directly in the A) formation of a fertilization envelope. B) production of a fast block to polyspermy. C) release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell. D) generation of a nerve-like impulse by the egg cell. E) fusion of egg and sperm nuclei. Answer: A 71) In sea urchins, the "fast block" and the longer-lasting "slow block" to polyspermy, respectively, are A) the acrosomal reaction and the formation of egg white. B) the cortical reaction and the formation of yolk protein. C) the jelly coat of the egg and the vitelline membrane. D) membrane depolarization and the cortical reaction. E) inactivation of the sperm acrosome. Answer: D 72) In an egg cell treated with EDTA, a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions, the A) acrosomal reaction would be blocked. B) fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked. C) fast block to polyspermy would not occur. D) fertilization envelope would not be formed. E) zygote would not contain maternal and paternal chromosomes. Answer: D 73) In mammals, the nuclei resulting from the union of the sperm and the egg are first truly diploid at the end of the A) acrosomal reaction. B) completion of spermatogenesis. C) initial cleavage. D) activation of the egg. E) completion of gastrulation. Answer: C 74) Fertilization normally A) reinstates diploidy. B) follows gastrulation. C) is required for parthenogenesis. D) merges two diploid cells into one haploid cell. E) precedes ovulation. Answer: A 75) During the early part of the cleavage stage in frog development, the rapidly developing cells A) skip the mitosis phase of the cell cycle. B) skip the S phase of the cell cycle. C) skip the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle. D) rapidly increase the volume and mass of the embryo. E) skip the cytokinesis phase of the cell cycle. Answer: C 76) Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of developmental milestones? A) blastula → gastrula → cleavage B) blastula → cleavage → gastrula C) cleavage → gastrula → blastula D) cleavage → blastula → gastrula E) gastrula → blastula → cleavage Answer: D 77) Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ tissue layers during A) determination. B) cleavage. C) fertilization. D) induction. E) gastrulation. Answer: E 78) The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is A) endoderm → ectoderm → mesoderm. B) mesoderm → endoderm → ectoderm. C) ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm. D) ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm. E) endoderm → mesoderm → ectoderm. Answer: C 79) If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then A) cleavage would not occur in the zygote. B) embryonic germ layers would not form. C) fertilization would be blocked. D) the blastula would not be formed. E) the blastopore would form above the gray crescent in the animal pole. Answer: B 80) The archenteron of the developing sea urchin eventually develops into the A) reproductive organs. B) blastocoel. C) heart and lungs. D) digestive tract. E) brain and spinal cord. Answer: D 81) The vertebrate ectoderm is the origin of the A) nervous system. B) liver. C) pancreas. D) heart. E) kidneys. Answer: A 82) An open space within the gastrula is the A) ectoderm. B) mesoderm. C) archenteron. D) endoderm. E) neural crest cells. Answer: C 83) At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a A) blastocyst. B) gastrula. C) fetus. D) somite. E) zygote. Answer: A 84) Uterine implantation due to enzymatic digestion of the endometrium is initiated by the A) inner cell mass. B) endoderm. C) chorion. D) mesoderm. E) trophoblast. Answer: E 85) Thalidomide, now banned for use as a sedative in pregnancy, was used in the early 1960s by many women in their first trimester of pregnancy. Some of these women gave birth to children with arm and leg deformities, suggesting that the drug most likely influenced A) early cleavage divisions. B) determination of the polarity of the zygote. C) differentiation of bone tissue. D) morphogenesis. E) organogenesis. Answer: D 86) From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in which of the following sequences? A) gastrulation → organogenesis → cleavage B) ovulation → gastrulation → fertilization C) cleavage → gastrulation → organogenesis D) gastrulation → blastulation → neurulation E) preformation → morphogenesis → neurulation Answer: C 87) Changes in both cell shape and cell position occur extensively during A) gastrulation, but not organogenesis or cleavage. B) organogenesis, but not gastrulation or cleavage. C) cleavage, but not gastrulation or organogenesis. D) gastrulation and organogenesis, but not cleavage. E) gastrulation, organogenesis, and cleavage. Answer: E 88) Select the choice that correctly associates the organ with its embryonic sources. A) anterior pituitary gland—mesoderm and endoderm B) thyroid gland—mesoderm and ectoderm C) adrenal gland—ectoderm and mesoderm D) skin—endoderm and mesoderm E) brain—mesoderm and endoderm Answer: C 89) The first cavity formed during sea urchin development is the A) blastopore. B) mouth. C) blastocoel. D) anus. Answer: C 90) Human trophoblasts A) form the inner cell mass. B) form from ectoderm. C) are the precursors of the mesoderm. D) are of embryonic origin and function in embryo nutrition. E) are of maternal origin and function in embryo gas exchange. Answer: D 91) Assume that successful reproduction in a rare salamander species, wherein all individuals are females, relies on those females having access to sperm from males of another species but that the resulting embryos show no signs of a genetic contribution from the sperm. In this case, the sperm appear to be used only for A) morphogenesis. B) epigenesis. C) egg activation. D) cell differentiation. E) the creation of a diploid cell. Answer: C 36.2 Art Questions Refer to the following figure, which diagrams the reproductive anatomy of the human female, to answer the following questions. Figure 36.1 1) In Figure 36.1, which letter points to the oviduct? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B 2) In Figure 36.1, which letter points to the cervix? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C 3) In Figure 36.1, which letter points to the endometrium? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E 4) In Figure 36.1, which letter points to the corpus luteum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Refer to Figure 36.2, which diagrams the reproductive anatomy of the human male, to answer the following questions. Figure 36.2 5) In Figure 36.2, which letter points to the scrotum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C 6) In Figure 36.2, which letter points to the testis? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A 7) In Figure 36.2, which letter points to the urethra? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E 8) In Figure 36.2, which letter points to the prostate gland? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B 9) In Figure 36.2, which letter points to the vas deferens? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D 36.3 Scenario Question 1) Imagine that a woman is in the final week of her pregnancy. Her doctor gives her an injection of oxytocin. The likely result of this is that the pregnant woman would A) undergo the loss of oxytocin receptors from her uterine smooth muscle cells. B) stop secreting prostaglandins from the placenta. C) undergo vigorous contractions of her uterine muscles. D) increase the synthesis and secretion of progesterone. E) be prevented from beginning lactation. Answer: C 36.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of the following characterizes parthenogenesis? A) An individual may change its sex during its lifetime. B) Specialized groups of cells grow into new individuals. C) An organism is first a male and then a female. D) An egg develops without being fertilized. E) Both mates have male and female reproductive organs. Answer: D 2) The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in A) the formation of a fertilization envelope. B) the production of a fast block to polyspermy. C) the release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm. D) the generation of an electrical impulse by the egg. E) the fusion of egg and sperm nuclei. Answer: A 3) Which of the following is not properly paired? A) seminiferous tubule—cervix B) Sertoli cells—follicle cells C) testosterone—estradiol D) scrotum—labia majora E) vas deferens—oviduct Answer: A 4) Peaks of LH and FSH production occur during A) the menstrual flow phase of the uterine cycle. B) the beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. C) the period just before ovulation. D) the end of the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle. E) the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle. Answer: C 5) During human gestation, rudiments of all organs develop A) in the first trimester. B) in the second trimester. C) in the third trimester. D) while the embryo is in the oviduct. E) during the blastocyst stage. Answer: A 6) Which of the following is a true statement? A) All mammals have menstrual cycles. B) The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles. C) Estrous cycles are more frequent than menstrual cycles. D) Estrous cycles are not controlled by hormones. E) Ovulation occurs before the endometrium thickens in estrous cycles. Answer: B 7) For which is the number the same in males and females? A) interruptions in meiotic divisions B) functional gametes produced by meiosis C) meiotic divisions required to produce each gamete D) gametes produced in a given time period E) different cell types produced by meiosis Answer: C 8) Which statement about human reproduction is false? A) Fertilization occurs in the oviduct. B) Effective hormonal contraceptives are currently available only for females. C) An oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it. D) The earliest stages of spermatogenesis occur closest to the lumen of the seminiferous tubules. E) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis require different temperatures. Answer: D Test Bank for Campbell Biology in Focus Lisa A. Urry, Michael L. Cain, Steven A. Wasserman, Peter V. Minorsky, Robert B. Jackson, Jane B. Reece 9780321813664, 9780321962751, 9780134710679

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