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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Understanding the causes of mental disorders is important because a. effective treatment is not possible without such an understanding. b. classification of disorders cannot be done without such information. c. such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible. d. disagreements about the causes of psychopathology have long limited the advancements made in the study of abnormal psychology. Answer: c. such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible. 2. Dr. Fox studies the causes of depression. In other words, she looks at factors that play a role in the ___________ of depression. a. etiology b. epidemiology c. prevalence d. resiliency Answer: a. etiology 3. Etiology is a. a condition that tends to maintain maladaptive behavior. b. the causal pattern of a disorder. c. a predisposition toward developing a disorder. d. a condition that makes it less likely a person will experience the negative consequences of stress. Answer: b. the causal pattern of a disorder. 4. In order to develop chicken pox, one must be exposed to the virus that causes chicken pox. Note, however, that not everyone who is exposed to the virus is affected. In other words, the virus is a a. risk factor. b. necessary cause. c. sufficient cause. d. contributory cause. Answer: b. necessary cause. 5. While having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, this is not the only factor that can lead to Parkinson's disease. In other words, the presence of the gene is a ________, but not a ________. a. risk factor; sufficient cause b. sufficient cause; necessary cause c. necessary cause; risk factor d. contributory cause; sufficient cause Answer: b. sufficient cause; necessary cause 6. If having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, the presence of the gene can be described as a a. risk factor. b. necessary cause. c. sufficient cause. d. contributory cause. Answer: c. sufficient cause. 7. Suppose that the presence of a particular gene is a necessary cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. The gene is also a sufficient cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. b. There are other things besides this gene that can cause schizophrenia. c. Most people with schizophrenia will have that gene. d. A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic. Answer: d. A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic. 8. Childhood abuse is commonly seen in those who develop dissociative disorders later in life. Childhood abuse would best be described as a a. necessary contributory cause. b. proximal contributory cause. c. reinforcing contributory cause. d. distal contributory cause. Answer: d. distal contributory cause. 9. Karen was sexually abused by her father at the age of 5. She developed a severe separation anxiety reaction whenever her mother tried to leave. As an adult, Karen developed a dissociative disorder due to the same abuse. This is an example of how the same factor, in this case abuse, can be a. both a sufficient and a necessary cause. b. both a reinforcing contributory cause and a punishing contributory cause. c. both a primary and a secondary process. d. both a proximal and a distal causal factor. Answer: d. both a proximal and a distal causal factor. 10. A couple is in counseling. She states that she drinks because he rejects her. He states that he rejects her because she drinks. It appears that in this example of bidirectionality a. the drinking is probably the actual predisposing cause for the problems in this marriage. b. the rejection is probably the actual predisposing cause for the problems in this marriage. c. the drinking and rejection influence and maintain each other. d. the drinking and rejection are caused by another third variable unknown to the couple. Answer: c. the drinking and rejection influence and maintain each other. 11. A diathesis can best be described as a a. proximal necessary cause. b. sufficient cause. c. contributory cause. d. proximal causal factor. Answer: c. contributory cause. 12. A predisposition toward developing a disorder a. necessarily is biological. b. is called a diathesis. c. increases the likelihood of developing any given disorder by 50%. d. necessarily is a psycho-social stressor. Answer: b. is called a diathesis. 13. In the diathesis-stress model, a stressor is a. a distal, sufficient cause of a mental disorder. b. a necessary or contributory cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms. c. a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms. d. a biological vulnerability. Answer: c. a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms. 14. In the diathesis-stress model, a diathesis is a. a distal necessary or contributory cause of a mental disorder. b. a sufficient cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms. c. a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms. d. a biological vulnerability that virtually guarantees the development of the disorder. Answer: a. a distal necessary or contributory cause of a mental disorder. 15. Suppose that low self-esteem is a diathesis for developing depression later in life. This means that a. people who currently are depressed will have low self-esteem. b. low self-esteem is a proximal trigger for depression. c. people with low self-esteem have a predisposition for developing depression. d. the psychological processes associated with low self-esteem will always trigger depression. Answer: c. people with low self-esteem have a predisposition for developing depression. 16. The loss of a parent may be a. a stressor. b. a diathesis. c. a diathesis and/or a stressor. d. Neither a diathesis nor a stressor. Answer: c. a diathesis and/or a stressor. 17. The additive model of the diathesis stress theory proposes that a. people with a very high level of a diathesis may need a very large amount of stress to develop the disorder. b. people with a very high level of a diathesis may need only a small amount of stress to develop the disorder. c. someone with no diathesis will never develop the disorder. d. someone with no genes for the disorder will never develop the disorder. Answer: b. people with a very high level of a diathesis may need only a small amount of stress to develop the disorder. 18. A protective factor is a. an influence that modifies a person’s response to environmental stressors. b. an influence that modifies a person’s response to genetic problems. c. a distal causal factor for a mental disorder. d. a biological makeup that makes people more resistant to stress. Answer: a. an influence that modifies a person’s response to environmental stressors. 19. Ryan, age 8, was cut from the school soccer team. After the initial disappointment, he became a boy scout, which he really enjoyed. Now as an adult, when he did not get into graduate school, rather than become depressed, Ryan found a job in his field that he enjoys, and plans to try again later. This is an example of a. a necessary and sufficient cause. b. the diathesis-stress theory. c. the interactive model of the diathesis-stress theory. d. the steeling or inoculation effect of some stressful experiences. Answer: d. the steeling or inoculation effect of some stressful experiences. 20. According to the text, which of the following has not been identified as a potential protective factor? a. Exposure to moderate stressors b. High intelligence c. An introverted personality d. A warm and supportive parent Answer: c. An introverted personality 21. When psychologists say that a person shows resilience, it means a. the person has not been faced with significant stressors. b. that regardless of the stresses the person faces, he or she will feel no emotional distress. c. the person can successfully adapt and survive in threatening circumstances. d. recovering from traumatic events without the need for psychological protective factors. Answer: c. the person can successfully adapt and survive in threatening circumstances. 22. Which of the following is an example of the phenomena that the term resilience has been used to describe? a. Julie dreams of becoming a successful lawyer but never finished college. b. After failing French the first time, Carl did not earn a passing grade when he took the course for a second time. c. After his father died, Julio had a hard time maintaining responsibilities at work. d. Following the events of September 11th, the children of PS100 in New York City were able to resume their studies and finish the school year without incident. Answer: d. Following the events of September 11th, the children of PS100 in New York City were able to resume their studies and finish the school year without incident. 23. Resilient children a. show resilience in all domains. b. may still experience emotional distress. c. usually have survived chronic maltreatment. d. are increasingly rare. Answer: b. may still experience emotional distress. 24. What is the primary focus of the field of developmental psychopathology? a. Understanding how critical incidents in childhood affect people as adults. b. To understand what is within the range of normal development so as to have a better understanding of what is abnormal. c. To discover and improve the environmental factors that can contribute to a child later developing a mental illness. d. Understanding how disorders develop over time. Answer: b. To understand what is within the range of normal development so as to have a better understanding of what is abnormal. 25. Which of the following most accurately describes the notion of different viewpoints of abnormal behavior? a. Each viewpoint accurately describes the causes and symptoms of 2-3 different disorders. b. Each viewpoint offers its own explanation of abnormal behavior. c. All viewpoints are equally valid. d. Only the biological viewpoint has been studied experimentally. Answer: b. Each viewpoint offers its own explanation of abnormal behavior. 26. Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression? a. Intense psychotherapy b. A prolonged vacation c. A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs d. Family therapy and a change in her work environment Answer: c. A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs 27. The disorders first recognized as having biological bases are best characterized as disorders that a. involved significant damage to brain tissue. b. were characterized by neurochemical imbalances. c. did not cause neurological damage. d. resulted from contact with other animal species. Answer: a. involved significant damage to brain tissue. 28. Which of the following is true? a. Most mental disorders are caused only by psychological factors. b. Most mental disorders have a simple biological explanation. c. Most mental disorders are caused by neurological damage. d. Most mental disorders are not caused by neurological damage. Answer: d. Most mental disorders are not caused by neurological damage. 29. The site of communication between two neurons is the a. synapse. b. neurotransmitter. c. nucleus. d. vesicle. Answer: a. synapse. 30. Which statement about neural communication is accurate? a. All neurotransmitters increase the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will transmit a message. b. The reason neural messages are transmitted from cell to cell is because they physically touch each other. c. The part of the neuron that receives messages is called the synapse. d. Neurotransmitters released into the synapse determine whether messages are sent from one neuron to another. Answer: d. Neurotransmitters released into the synapse determine whether messages are sent from one neuron to another. 31. Neurotransmitters released into the synapse may be reuptaken into the axon endings from which they originated. One name for this process is: a. retracing. b. deactivation. c. recapture. d. inhibitory transmission. Answer: b. deactivation. 32. Suppose the reuptake of a specific neurotransmitter were deficient and the deactivation enzymes associated with the neurotransmitter were also deficient. What effect would this have? a. There would be more of the neurotransmitter in the synapse. b. There would be less of the neurotransmitter in the synapse. c. Since the two deficiencies would balance each other out, there would be no change in the levels of the neurotransmitter. d. The neurons would become especially sensitive to the neurotransmitter. Answer: a. There would be more of the neurotransmitter in the synapse. 33. Reuptake of neurotransmitters is a. the process by which neurotransmitters are repeatedly released into the synapse. b. the process by which neurotransmitters are reabsorbed by the axon. c. the process by which neurotransmitters stimulate the post-synaptic neuron to fire. d. the process by which neurotransmitters are connected to hormones. Answer: b. the process by which neurotransmitters are reabsorbed by the axon. 34. Norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, and GABA are all a. hormones that affect behavior. b. catecholamines that inhibit nerve impulses. c. neurotransmitters that are involved in psychopathology. d. forms of neurotransmitters called amino acids that can cause brain damage. Answer: c. neurotransmitters that are involved in psychopathology. 35. Cortisol is a hormone that a. is released by the hypothalamus and travels to the pituitary gland, causing it to respond. b. the pituitary gland releases to stimulate the adrenal gland. c. the adrenal gland produces that mobilizes the body to deal with stress. d. reduces the reuptake of the monamine neurotransmitters. Answer: c. the adrenal gland produces that mobilizes the body to deal with stress. 36. Which of the following statements is true? a. Most behavioral disorders are determined exclusively by genes. b. Genes play a role in most mental disorders. c. Genes do not affect biochemical processes. d. The genes that will be expressed in an individual are not affected by experience. Answer: b. Genes play a role in most mental disorders. 37. What do genes consist of? a. Trisomes b. Chromosomes c. DNA d. Proteins Answer: c. DNA 38. Down syndrome has been linked to a. a chemical imbalance. b. a gene on the X chromosome. c. possessing an extra X chromosome. d. possessing an extra chromosome in chromosome 21. Answer: d. possessing an extra chromosome in chromosome 21. 39. Normal human cells have a. twenty-two chromosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes. b. twenty-one trisomy chromosome pairs, one autosomal pair and one pair of sex chromosomes. c. twenty-one chromosome pairs and two trisomy chromosome pairs. d. twenty-three chromosome pairs. Answer: a. twenty-two chromosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes. 40. When examining heredity, mental disorders are almost always a. influenced by one particular gene. b. influenced by multiple genes. c. influenced by recessive genes. d. not influenced by genes. Answer: b. influenced by multiple genes. 41. Mental disorders are almost always influenced by multiple genes. This means they are a. easy to discover. b. chemical circuits. c. polygenic. d. probands. Answer: c. polygenic. 42. The genetic influences that determine behavior may never be fully understood due to a. the ease of research to differentiate between the effects of the environment and the effects of genes. b. the likelihood that most behaviors are determined by the interaction of many genes and the environment. c. the tendency to rely upon twin studies in genetic research. d. our significant understanding of how genes impact brain chemistry. Answer: b. the likelihood that most behaviors are determined by the interaction of many genes and the environment. 43. Genes a. determine how a person will behave. b. cause people to develop mental disorders. c. determine what characteristics a person will have. d. determine the range of characteristics a person has. Answer: d. determine the range of characteristics a person has. 44. Ian was predisposed to being very aggressive with his peers in school, who responded by rejecting him. Later in life Ian began to associate with other aggressive youth and to participate in a variety of delinquent behaviors. This is an example of a. phenotypic vulnerability to aggression. b. a phenotypic diathesis. c. polygenic expression. d. the way the genotype may shape the phenotype. Answer: d. the way the genotype may shape the phenotype. 45. Attractive children and unattractive babies tend to be treated differently. In other words, an infant's physical phenotype may alter how others respond to him or her. What type of genotype-environment correlation is this an example of? a. Active b. Evocative c. Passive d. Persuasive Answer: b. Evocative 46. Andrea and her parents are shy and quiet. Her parents never take Andrea to any activities where there are many people. They buy her books and crafts that she can do by herself. This shows a. an evocative effect of genotype on environment. b. a passive effect of genotype on environment. c. an active effect of genotype on environment. d. a lack of genotype-environment correlation. Answer: a. an evocative effect of genotype on environment. 47. Highly coordinated children are picked out at an early age by coaches and given special opportunities to excel at sports. Extraverted children seek out social situations and become unusually comfortable with strangers. Both of these phenomena illustrate a. the power of the phenotype over the genotype. b. genotype-environment correlations. c. the polygenic effect of chromosomes on behavior. d. how the environment shapes one's genetic endowment. Answer: b. genotype-environment correlations. 48. Which method for studying genetic influences fails to control for the possible effect of sharing a common environment? a. Family history or pedigree method b. Adoption method c. Association studies d. Linkage analysis Answer: a. Family history or pedigree method 49. If trait is highly heritable, it would be expected that a. the concordance rate for dizygotic twins and monozygotic twins would be comparable. b. the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for monozygotic twins. c. the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for dizygotic twins. d. the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be close to 100%. Answer: c. the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for dizygotic twins. 50. If fraternal (or dizygotic) twins are more likely to be concordant for a trait than other siblings, can it be concluded that the higher concordance rate is due to the greater degree of genetic relatedness? a. Yes. b. Yes, but only if the siblings studied are of the same sex and age. c. No, because the greater similarity can be attributed to environmental influence. d. No, because fraternal twins are no more genetically alike than other siblings. Answer: d. No, because fraternal twins are no more genetically alike than other siblings. 51. Which of the following is NOT a common method for studying genetic influences? a. The study of specific gene defects b. Twin studies c. Adoption studies d. Family history (pedigree) studies Answer: a. The study of specific gene defects 52. Why is it particularly useful to study identical twins who were raised in different environments? a. Differences in brain function can easily be identified. b. Concordance rates tend to be higher. c. It is possible that the genetics of twins who have been separated have changed in ways to explain any differences found. d. It is possible that high concordance rates between identical twins reared together is due to their being treated more similarly than nonidentical twins. Answer: d. It is possible that high concordance rates between identical twins reared together is due to being treated more similarly than nonidentical twins. 53. George and Logan are brothers. They live in a small apartment in the city with some other relatives. Their family is extremely poor. Their father is hardest on George, the eldest, and sometimes physically abuses him. Which environmental factor is likely to be more important in the later adjustment of George and Logan? a. Their poverty. b. The overcrowding of their living situation. c. The physical abuse. d. The fact that they live with other family members. Answer: c. The physical abuse. 54. Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence? a. Family economic status b. Divorce c. Death of a parent d. Sibling rivalry Answer: d. Sibling rivalry 55. Which of the following is a misconception about genetics and behavior? a. The influence of genetics on behavior disappears as we get older. b. Just because a disorder runs in families does not mean genetics are the reason. c. Genetic research strategies provide useful tests of the influence of the environment on behavior. d. Genetics influence behavior by making the person more or less susceptible to environmental influences. Answer: a. The influence of genetics on behavior disappears as we get older. 56. Todd and his siblings have parents who are physically abusive to each other. When they fight, they expect Todd to stay quiet and keep the other children under control. They allow the other children to cry and hide, but Todd must stay in the room with them and referee. This is an example of a. a genotype-environment correlation. b. a shared environmental influence. c. a nonshared environmental influence. d. a protective factor. Answer: c. a nonshared environmental influence. 57. Which of the following strives to describe the location of genes responsible for mental disorders? a. Association studies b. Family histories c. Twin studies d. Adoption studies Answer: a. Association studies 58. Suppose that, using linkage analysis, a researcher finds that family members with a high likelihood of developing depression also are very likely to be of below average height. This would mean a. being short is a contributory factor for depression. b. the gene for depression is probably located near the gene for height. c. height and depression are probably caused by the same gene. d. having depression causes people not to grow as tall as they would if they didn't have depression. Answer: b. the gene for depression is probably located near the gene for height. 59. Tracy and Shahid are both 3 months old. Tracy is highly active, easily irritated, and cries easily. Shahid is quiet, adapts easily to change, and seems fearless. These differences illustrate a. the impact of shared environmental influences. b. how physical handicaps can have a genetic origin. c. differences in temperament. d. the fact that personality is more influenced by the environment than by genetics. Answer: c. differences in temperament. 60. A child consistently identified as behaviorally inhibited is most likely to a. be an outgoing adult. b. develop conduct disorder. c. be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder in adulthood. d. have been born prematurely. Answer: c. be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder in adulthood. 61. Which of the following statements about brain dysfunction and psychiatric disorders is correct? a. Identifiable brain damage is often the cause of psychiatric disorders. b. Brain damage may decrease the risk of developing a psychiatric condition. c. Changes in brain function appear to play a role in many psychiatric disorders. d. Brain development can be altered by experience, always leading to changes in the brain that decrease the risk of developing a psychiatric condition. Answer: c. Changes in brain function appear to play a role in many psychiatric disorders. 62. Neural plasticity is a. the process by which neurotransmitters are broken down in the brain. b. the flexibility of the brain—existing neural circuits can change or new ones can be made. c. strong evidence of brain damage, leading to the development of a mental disorder. d. the best indicator of temperament and its effect on the personality development of a child. Answer: b. the flexibility of the brain—existing neural circuits can change or new ones can be made. 63. Biological discoveries a. have lessened the subjectivity of definitions of abnormal. b. demonstrate that the environment plays only a minimal role in the development of psychopathology. c. make it clear that mental disorders are diseases and should be dealt with by the medical profession. d. have led to a recognition of the role that genetic factors and other biological influences play in the development of many disorders. Answer: d. have led to a recognition of the role that genetic factors and other biological influences play in the development of many disorders. 64. According to Freud, a person who does not appropriately resolve each psychosexual stage would be ___________ at that stage. a. defended b. fixated c. repressed d. displaced Answer: b. fixated 65. In psychoanalytic theory, which psychosexual stage centers on castration anxiety? a. Genital b. Oral c. Anal d. Phallic Answer: d. Phallic 66. Which period of psychosexual development occurs when a child becomes preoccupied with the development of skills and activities? a. Genital b. Phallic c. Latency d. Pubertal Answer: c. Latency 67. One important contribution of Freud's theory was that a. he truly understood the role of women in society. b. he heavily utilized experimental evidence to support his theories. c. he applied the same principles to normal and abnormal behavior. d. he increased the focus on positive growth for individuals. Answer: c. he applied the same principles to normal and abnormal behavior. 68. John Bowlby's attachment theory emphasized a. the social environment in forming attachments. b. the quality of parental care in forming attachments. c. the quality of early reinforcers and stimulation in forming attachments. d. the necessity of independence from parental figures in forming attachments. Answer: b. the quality of parental care in forming attachments. 69. Which of the following perspectives focused upon social determinants of behavior? a. The attachment perspective b. The interpersonal perspective c. The humanistic perspective d. The existential perspective Answer: b. The interpersonal perspective 70. Which perspective or viewpoint focuses on intrapsychic conflicts as the cause of psychopathology? a. Biological b. Behavioral c. Psychodynamic d. Sociocultural Answer: c. Psychodynamic 71. Which of the following psychodynamic elements of the personality can be described as impulsive and selfish? a. Ego b. Id c. Superego d. Ideal self Answer: b. Id 72. Freud's view of mental disorders was that they were a result of a. unresolved conflicts between the id, the ego, and the superego. b. genetic abnormalities that influence people's ability to cope with their environment. c. problematic tendencies we develop while dealing with our early interpersonal environments. d. learned maladaptive behaviors that were rewarded with attention. Answer: a. unresolved conflicts between the id, the ego, and the superego. 73. Which of the following did Freud believe played a causal role in the development of most forms of psychopathology? a. Anxiety b. Depression c. Unresolved conflicts between the ego and the superego d. Fixation in the oral stage Answer: a. Anxiety 74. Defense mechanisms a. make a person feel more anxious and have more problems, because they begin to act defensively. b. are strategies the id uses to try to achieve what it desires. c. are conscious, intentional attempts to cope in an effective way with an anxiety producing event. d. help a person feel less anxious, but because they usually work by distorting reality, they are not always adaptive. Answer: d. help a person feel less anxious, but because they usually work by distorting reality, they are not always adaptive. 75. After cheating on her husband and feeling ashamed, Julia accused her husband of feeling ashamed. Such behavior is explained by which of the following defense mechanism? a. Sublimation b. Displacement c. Projection d. Rationalization Answer: c. Projection 76. Newer psychodynamic perspectives a. disregard most elements of Freud's theories. b. emphasize the role of the id. c. do not view the libido as a primary determinant of behavior. d. recognize intrapsychic conflicts as a primary determinant of behavior. Answer: c. do not view the libido as a primary determinant of behavior. 77. The interpersonal perspective a. arose as a reaction against the unscientific methods of psychoanalysis. b. was introduced by Erik Erikson. c. emphasizes social rather than inner determinants of behavior. d. is the most influential humanistic perspective today. Answer: c. emphasizes social rather than inner determinants of behavior. 78. Finding meaning in life and dealing with death form core values in which of the following perspectives? a. Existential b. Humanistic c. Behavioral d. Object-relations Answer: a. Existential 79. The humanistic perspective focuses primarily upon the capacity of the individual to a. confront the dilemma of our deaths. b. be driven by unconscious motives. c. rationally explain our behavior. d. engage in positive self-growth. Answer: d. engage in positive self-growth. 80. One of Freud's major contributions to current perspectives of mental disorders is a. the concept of the Oedipal complex. b. the concept of the unconscious and how it can affect behavior. c. the concept of the Electra complex. d. the understanding of the three structures of personality. Answer: b. the concept of the unconscious and how it can affect behavior. 81. Which of the following is a criticism of traditional psychoanalytic theory? a. Underemphasis on the sex drive b. Overly positive view of women c. Lack of scientific evidence d. Too much focus on symptoms and not enough on underlying causes Answer: c. Lack of scientific evidence 82. Which perspective was initially developed through laboratory research? a. Behavioral b. Biological c. Humanistic d. Psychodynamic Answer: a. Behavioral 83. After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid whenever he sees a dog. In classical conditioning terms, the dog can be described as a(n) a. conditioned response. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned stimulus. Answer: c. conditioned stimulus. 84. After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid whenever he sees a dog. He goes for treatment, where he is gradually exposed to dogs, until he can be in the same room with a dog without feeling any fear. Three weeks later, while walking in his neighborhood, Jose hears a dog barking viciously. For a few weeks after this, his fear returns. This shows a. the treatment had no effect. b. extinction. c. stimulus-stimulus expectancy. d. spontaneous recovery. Answer: d. spontaneous recovery. 85. If a response has been learned through conditioning, it would be appropriate to treat it using the process of a. displacement. b. extinction. c. spontaneous recovery. d. stimulus-stimulus expectancy. Answer: b. extinction. 86. Learning not to do something because you are punished when you do it is an example of a. classical conditioning. b. generalization. c. instrumental conditioning. d. observational learning. Answer: c. instrumental conditioning. 87. Alicia developed a fear of spiders after being bitten by one. However, she has no problems looking at pictures of spiders. This is an example of a. discrimination. b. generalization. c. instrumental conditioning. d. intrapsychic conflict. Answer: a. discrimination. 88. Due to ________, we can learn from the experiences of others. a. classical conditioning b. generalization c. instrumental conditioning d. observational learning Answer: d. observational learning 89. The behavioral perspective has been criticized for a. focusing on symptoms. b. not providing an explanation for how abnormal behavioral responses are acquired. c. viewing basic human nature as good. d. its overemphasis on the use of punishment. Answer: a. focusing on symptoms. 90. Behaviorists suggest maladaptive behavior can be a result of a. extinction. b. lack of generalization of behaviors. c. a poor response-outcome expectancy. d. failure to learn adaptive behaviors. Answer: d. failure to learn adaptive behaviors. 91. From the cognitive-behavioral perspective, an important limitation with the behavioral perspective is the fact that a. behaviorists went too far in attacking the psychoanalytic perspective. b. behaviorists failed to attend to the importance of mental processes. c. behaviorists held an overly stringent view of what constitutes scientific inquiry. d. behaviorists overemphasized the importance of subjective experience. Answer: b. behaviorists failed to attend to the importance of mental processes. 92. Cognitive-behavioral psychologists believe that abnormal behavior a. consists of learned maladaptive response patterns. b. results from distorted thinking and information processing. c. results from neurotic thought processes. d. results from impaired patterns of interpersonal relationships. Answer: b. results from distorted thinking and information processing. 93. A(n) ___________ serves to guide our processing of information and may serve to distort memories. a. attribution. b. conditioned stimulus c. schema d. unconditioned stimulus Answer: c. schema 94. Schemas a. do not really influence how we interpret the world. b. may be a source of psychological vulnerability. c. are always types of biases that color our interpretation of the world. d. are attempts to change other people's behavior. Answer: b. may be a source of psychological vulnerability. 95. The process of assigning causes to things that happen is called a. attribution. b. internal reinforcement. c. schema therapy. d. cognition. Answer: a. attribution. 96. It is a hot day and a child sprays you with a garden hose. You might react with amusement (and even thanks!) or considerable anger. The fact that one event can be interpreted in different ways is central to the ___________ approach to therapy. a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. cognitive d. sociocultural Answer: c. cognitive 97. New perceptions and experiences tend to be worked into our existing schemas, even if the new information must be distorted to fit them. This process is called a. accommodation. b. assimilation. c. appropriation. d. attribution. Answer: b. assimilation. 98. Making a new experience fit existing frameworks is associated with ________; changing our existing frameworks to incorporate a new experience is associated with ________. a. positive attributions; negative attributions b. accommodation; assimilation c. self-efficacy; self-identity d. assimilation; accommodation Answer: d. assimilation; accommodation 99. According to cognitive theorists, a lot of information that contributes to a person's psychopathology a. is processed at a conscious, intentional level. b. is processed at a nonconscious level. c. is not processed at all. d. is processed only when in interpersonal relationships. Answer: b. is processed at a nonconscious level. 100. The effects of early social deprivation a. are explained differently by the various psychosocial perspectives. b. have not been well-established. c. can't be explained by psychosocial theories. d. are not seen when physical needs are adequately met. Answer: a. are explained differently by the various psychosocial perspectives. 101. Lasting negative effects of abuse on psychological functioning are most likely when the abuse occurs in a. early childhood. b. adolescence. c. early adulthood. d. old age. Answer: a. early childhood. 102. Abused infants and toddlers a. tend to develop into resilient adults. b. have a tendency to be passive and to avoid conflict with both peers and authorities. c. are likely to show inconsistent attachment behavior. d. are likely to develop close bonds with same-sex peers. Answer: c. are likely to show inconsistent attachment behavior. 103. According to Bowlby, a. despair is a normal response to separation. b. the display of despair in response to separation is indicative of an insecure attachment. c. frequent parental separation in infancy contributes to the development of resiliency. d. the failure to experience normal parental separations in infancy contributes to an inability to tolerate relationship-related stressors in adulthood. Answer: a. despair is a normal response to separation. 104. Infant characteristics a. do not affect parental behavior. b. only affect parental behavior when psychopathology is present. c. are not influenced by biological factors. d. can influence the quality of attachment relationships. Answer: d. can influence the quality of attachment relationships. 105. Dana's mother suffers from serious depressive episodes. Dana is likely to a. be at risk for depression herself. b. become a happy-go-lucky child because she had to cope with so much. c. act in an aggressive, criminal manner. d. have intense attachments to her mother. Answer: a. be at risk for depression herself. 106. Which parental style is characterized by warmth, control, and communication? a. Authoritarian b. Permissive/indulgent c. Authoritative d. Neglectful-uninvolved Answer: c. Authoritative 107. The four parenting styles described in the text differ along two dimensions, warmth and control. The style associated with the most positive developmental outcome is best described as ___________ in warmth and ___________ in control. a. high; low b. low; low c. high; moderately high d. low; moderately high Answer: c. high; moderately high 108. A lack of social skills, poor school performance, and moodiness have all been associated with which of the following parenting styles? a. Authoritarian b. Permissive/indulgent c. Authoritative d. Neglectful-uninvolved Answer: d. Neglectful-uninvolved 109. Which of the following statements regarding divorce and psychopathology is true? a. A causal relationship has been established between psychopathology and a parental divorce. b. There is a positive correlation between psychopathology and divorce. c. The adverse effects of parental divorce are always temporary. d. While a relationship between parental divorce and psychopathology has been established, there are no data to suggest that divorced persons experience an increased rate of psychopathology. Answer: b. There is a positive correlation between psychopathology and divorce. 110. Why is it difficult to determine the nature of the relationship between divorce and the psychological functioning of family members? a. Cause and effect cannot be determined as preexisting behavioral abnormalities in either the parents or the children may make divorce more likely. b. The findings have been too inconsistent for any conclusions to be drawn. c. While the effects of divorce are negative on children, the effects on the spouses are generally positive. d. Due to modern acceptance of divorce, there has been an ongoing decrease in the negative effects of divorce. As the impact of divorce has been decreasing, the effect of divorce on family functioning has become impossible to detect. Answer: a. Cause and effect cannot be determined as preexisting behavioral abnormalities in either the parents or the children may make divorce more likely. 111. A major factor associated with a child's rejection by peers is a. overly aggressive behavior. b. being too intelligent. c. socioeconomic background. d. a lack of empathy. Answer: a. overly aggressive behavior. 112. An elementary school principal wants to know the best predictors of juvenile delinquency and dropping out of school in high school so she can provide preventive interventions. Your best advice is: a. "Look for kids who are very popular because they are class clowns." b. "Silent, depressed, loners tend to be dropouts because they are often depressed." c. "There is no way to predict juvenile delinquency as early as elementary school." d. "The best predictor is aggression toward peers, which leads to peer rejection." Answer: d. "The best predictor is aggression toward peers, which leads to peer rejection." 113. Studies on the cultural differences in parental tolerance of under- or overcontrolled behavior suggest that a. these different styles can produce different rates of problem behaviors in different cultures. b. parental styles make no difference in rates of different behavior problems – they seem to be primarily genetic. c. parental styles make no difference in rates of different behavior problems – they seem to be independent of culture. d. all cultures feel the same about bringing their children for treatment, regardless of the type of behavior problem. Answer: a. these different styles can produce different rates of problem behaviors in different cultures. 114. Which of the following is NOT a culture-bound syndrome? a. Hikiko-mori b. Zar c. Hoopa d. Koro Answer: c. Hoopa 115. A psychologist who studied the relationship between sociocultural factors and mental disorders would be most likely to study a. parenting style and self-schemas. b. poverty and racial discrimination. c. peer rejection and attributional style. d. assimilation and accommodation. Answer: b. poverty and racial discrimination. 116. Cross-cultural research on stress demonstrates that a. depression is a common response to life challenges in all countries studied. b. stress rarely leads to any evidence of illness in non-Western cultures. c. responses to stress vary cross-culturally. d. culture-specific reactions are not seen to alterations in the environment. Answer: c. responses to stress vary cross-culturally. 117. Which of the following explanations for the relationship between SES and abnormal behavior is supported by the existing data? a. Low SES may cause abnormal behavior. b. Abnormal behavior is more likely to go untreated in those of low SES. c. Recovery from loss of a job may be more difficult for those exhibiting signs of mental illness. d. All of the above. Answer: d. All of the above. 118. Children from lower-SES families a. are more likely to be resilient adults that those from higher-SES families. b. show no signs of ill effects if there is an increase in SES before age 5. c. are not affected by SES status unless persistent employment is the reason for the economic hardships of the family. d. are less likely to show ill effects of SES status if they possess a high IQ and develop healthy attachments to adults and peers. Answer: d. are less likely to show ill effects of SES status if they possess a high IQ and develop healthy attachments to adults and peers. Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1. _____________ are the conditions that guarantee the occurrence of a disorder. Answer: Sufficient causes 2. ______________ are conditions that increase the probability of a disorder but are neither necessary nor sufficient to cause it. Answer: Contributory causes 3. A predisposition toward developing a disorder is termed a __________. Answer: diathesis 4. The site of chemical communication in the brain is the __________. Answer: synapse 5. A __________ is a person's total genetic endowment. Answer: genotype 6. Freud's psychosexual stage that occurs between the ages of 3 and 5 and includes the Oedipal period is the __________ stage. Answer: phallic Short Answer Questions 1. What is the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology? Answer: A person must have both a vulnerability for a disorder and exposure to some type of stressors in order to develop the disorder. 2. How do defense mechanisms contribute to psychopathology? Answer: They reduce anxiety by distorting reality rather than dealing directly with a problem. 3. What is object-relations theory? Answer: Object-relations theory reflects a newer psychodynamic perspective. Object relations theorists focus on how an individual interacts with others (objects) and on the relationships that are experienced. Interactions with others may be both real and imagined, thus we possess internalized objects that may be contradictory and give rise to internal conflicts, as when something is both feared and desired. 4. What is extinction and how might it be used in treating a disorder? Answer: Extinction is the process of lessening the strength of a conditioned response by presenting the conditioned stimulus in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. If, for example, one had developed a fear of a snakes (a phobia) after having been bitten by a snake, the extinction process might consist of exposing the fearful person to a snake (the conditioned stimulus) without any negative event occurring (such as being bitten; the unconditioned stimulus). Such a procedure should, hopefully, serve to extinguish the fear response to the snake. 5. How can attributional style influence the likelihood of developing depression? Answer: We all seek to explain the world, we seek to find reasons for events that happen to us and around us. In other words, we look to attribute occurrences to some cause. If we attribute all of our failures to internal, stable, and global causes, the stage is set for the development of depression. If all that is negative in your life is your fault and it can't be changed, what is there to be happy about? Addressing such irrational thinking is a likely task for a cognitive therapist. 6. Distinguish between assimilation and accommodation. Answer: We all possess schemas, views of ourselves and of the world that filter and organize our experiences. Sometimes we experience events that fit well into our existing schemas or expectations of the world. In such an instance, when we can fit something new into an existing cognitive framework, assimilation has occurred. Sometimes, however, we have to alter our existing schemas. When we are forced to make changes in existing schemas, accommodation has occurred. 7. Why does the selection of a theoretical perspective of mental disorders matter? Answer: The perspective one selects will alter how one views mental disorders. Theoretical perspectives influence how we perceive abnormal behavior, the questions we ask about abnormal behavior, and, most important, how we interpret available data. One set of data may be interpreted very differently by individuals of different theoretical perspectives. 8. How does abuse and maltreatment tend to affect a child's ability to relate to others? Answer: They develop a disorganized and disoriented attachment style, which can generalize to new relationships. 9. Distinguish between authoritative and authoritarian parenting. Answer: Authoritative and authoritarian parents both exert control over the lives of their children, but they do so in significantly different ways. The authoritative parent is warm and communicative, discussing disciplinarian actions with their children. The authoritarian parent, on the other hand, is less warm and feels no need to explain or justify his or her actions. While authoritative parenting has been found to be associated with positive outcomes, research on authoritarian parenting has linked such an approach to child-rearing with children who are irritable and moody. 10. What is a culture-bound disorder? Answer: While many disorders are seen in all cultures, such as depression and schizophrenia, some disorders are culture-bound. Culture-bound syndromes, culture specific disorders, are disorders that not seen universally. Koro, for example, is a fear reaction seen in men in some Asian countries. It consists of an extreme fear that the penis will withdraw into the abdomen. 11. What is the relationship between socioeconomic status and the prevalence of abnormal behavior? Answer: There is a negative correlation between socioeconomic status (SES) and abnormal behavior. This means that the lower one's SES, the more likely the presence of a mental disorder. It may be that being of low SES makes mental illness more likely or that mental illness leads to a lower SES. At the same time, this could be a consequence of differential treatment of abnormality according to SES. The homeless individual who is odd may be seen as mentally ill, while a comparable wealthy individual is seen as eccentric. Essay Questions 1. Distinguish between necessary, sufficient, and contributory causes of abnormal behavior. Answer: When discussing the factors that lead to any type of disorder, numerous relationships can be described between factors that lead to the disorder and the disorder itself. A necessary cause is something that is necessary for the development of a disorder; the disorder will not develop unless the necessary cause is present. In the case of necessary causes, exposure is required for the disorder to develop, but exposure does not guarantee the condition will develop. For example, without medical intervention, sex is necessary for conception to occur, but sex does not always lead to pregnancy. In some cases, if a factor is present, the disorder will always develop. Such factors are referred to as sufficient causes. If exposure to a virus, for example, guarantees the development of an illness, that virus is a sufficient cause. Note, however, that a sufficient cause is often not a necessary cause; there may be other factors that may lead to the disorder. Contributory causes are best described as risk factors, those things that make the development of a disorder more likely. Environmental factors, for example, may serve as contributory causes for many types of psychopathology. In summary, necessary causes are required for a disorder to develop but do not guarantee the disorder will develop, sufficient causes guarantee a disorder will develop, and contributory causes increase the chances of a disorder developing. 2. What are protective factors? Give an example. How can protective factors impact a person's later functioning? Answer: They are influences that modify a person's response to environmental stressors. They make it less likely the person will experience the adverse consequences of the stressors. An example of a protective factor is having a warm and caring parent. Protective factors usually, but not always, lead to resilience. The person has the ability to adapt successfully to even stressful circumstances. This can help prevent the development of psychopathology. 3. Describe two of the methods for studying genetic influences. What can they tell us and what are their limitations? Answer: The family history method observes relatives of a person with a disorder to see if the likelihood of having the disorder increases in proportion to the closeness of the biological relationship. This is compared to the likelihood of developing the disorder without any relative with the disorder. This method doesn't control for the effects of the environment. The twin method compares identical and fraternal twins. If identical twins have a higher concordance rate than fraternal, there is evidence that the disorder has a genetic component. However, this may be misleading because it is possible that identical twins are treated more similarly than fraternal twins. The adoption method follows people with a disorder who give their babies up for adoption or examines the biological and adoptive parents of adoptees with disorders. If there is a genetic component, the rates should be higher in the biological parent-child pair than the adoptive parent-adoptive child pair. These are difficult to do unless adoption is open and the biological parents are known. 4. Compare and contrast the humanistic and existential perspectives. Answer: While the humanistic and existential perspectives do share some common elements, there are also ways in which they differ significantly. The humanistic perspective view humans as basically good and focuses on the present. Humanistic therapy focuses on aiding a person in finding his or her means of achieving self-actualization, of being the best that he or she can be. The existential perspective is comparable in recognizing that we are all unique individuals who desire self-fulfillment, but it does not have such a positive view of human nature. Existentialists place more emphasis on irrational tendencies and the external obstacles to self-fulfillment. 5. Charlotte suffers from intense anxiety. How would Freud explain this anxiety? In your answer, describe the different parts of the personality from a Freudian perspective, and how these parts of personality interact to produce anxiety. Answer: Freud suggests that behavior results from interaction of three subsystems in personality: id (source of instinctual drives, pleasure principle), ego (mediator between demands of id and external world), reality principle), and superego (conscience, internalization of societal morals and taboos). Inner (intrapsychic) conflicts arise when these three make incompatible demands on the individual. Freud suggests three types of anxiety: reality, neurotic, and moral anxiety. The ego handles anxiety either rationally or with ego-defense mechanisms. Test Bank for Abnormal Psychology: DSM 5 James N. Butcher, Jill M. Hooley, Susan M. Mineka 9780205965090, 9780205944286

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