Chapter 10
Development Processes
True/False Questions
1) Information systems and business processes are the same thing.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Information systems and business processes are related concepts but not the same thing.
While information systems support business processes by processing data and facilitating
communication, business processes involve a series of structured activities designed to
achieve specific business objectives. Information systems are a part of, but not synonymous
with, business processes.
2) There are activities in business processes that do not involve an information system.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Business processes can involve manual activities, human interactions, and physical
workflows that do not necessarily rely on information systems. Not all aspects of a business
process may require digital technology or automation.
3) Business processes must include one or more information systems.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While information systems often play a crucial role in supporting and optimizing business
processes, not all business processes necessarily require information systems. Some processes
may be entirely manual or rely on non-digital tools and methods.
4) The actors or participants in the business process are the users of the information systems.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The actors or participants in a business process include all individuals, roles, or entities
involved in carrying out the activities and tasks within the process. While users of
information systems may be part of this group, other stakeholders such as customers,
suppliers, and partners may also play roles in a business process.
5) The term application is a combination of hardware, software, and data components that
accomplishes a set of requirements.
Answer: True
Rationale:
An application is a software program or suite of programs designed to perform specific
functions or tasks to meet user requirements. It typically comprises software, hardware
components, and data resources necessary to execute its functions effectively.
6) Business processes, information systems, and applications have the same characteristics
and components.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While business processes, information systems, and applications may share some
characteristics and components, they are distinct concepts with unique attributes. Business
processes involve activities, roles, data flows, and resources, while information systems
encompass hardware, software, data, people, and procedures. Applications are specific
software tools or programs used within information systems to perform tasks or functions.
7) Not all information systems have applications or software components.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Information systems typically include software components or applications that enable them
to process, store, retrieve, and manipulate data to support business operations. While some
information systems may have minimal software components, such as embedded systems or
specialized hardware, the majority rely on software applications to function effectively.
8) Every business process needs relate to an information system.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While many business processes benefit from the support of information systems to enhance
efficiency, accuracy, and automation, not every business process necessarily relies on or
relates to an information system. Some processes may be entirely manual or performed using
non-digital methods, depending on the nature of the task and the organization's operational
requirements.
9) The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is a process that can be used to develop both
information systems and applications.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is a structured approach used to develop,
implement, and maintain information systems and applications. It consists of several phases,
including planning, analysis, design, implementation, and maintenance, which are applicable
to both information systems and application development projects.
10) A business process is a network of activities, repositories, roles, resources, and data flows
that interact to accomplish a business function.
Answer: True
Rationale:
A business process is a series of interconnected activities, tasks, or steps performed by
people, systems, or both, to achieve a specific business goal or objective. It involves the flow
of information, materials, and resources across various stages to deliver value to customers or
stakeholders.
11) In business processes, resources are collections of procedures.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Resources in a business process refer to the assets, tools, materials, or personnel required to
perform activities within the process. They are not collections of procedures but rather
tangible or intangible elements necessary for executing tasks.
12) In a business process, roles are collections of related tasks that receive inputs and produce
outputs.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Roles in a business process represent the responsibilities, duties, or functions assigned to
individuals or entities within the process. They define the authority, accountability, and
permissions associated with specific tasks or activities, rather than being collections of tasks
themselves.
13) A data flow is the movement of data from one activity or another, or from an activity to a
repository, or the reverse.
Answer: True
Rationale:
A data flow in a business process refers to the transfer or transmission of data from one point
to another within the process or between different components such as activities, repositories,
or external systems. It captures the movement and exchange of information required for the
execution of tasks.
14) In a business process, only a single resource is assigned to a role.
Answer: False
Rationale:
In a business process, multiple resources may be assigned to a single role, especially in
scenarios where tasks require collaboration or teamwork. Roles often involve individuals
with different skills, expertise, or responsibilities working together to accomplish common
objectives.
15) The most obvious reason for changing a process is that it has efficiency or effectiveness
problems.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Efficiency or effectiveness problems, such as bottlenecks, delays, errors, or inefficiencies, are
common triggers for process improvement initiatives. Identifying areas where processes can
be optimized or streamlined to enhance performance is a key aspect of business process
management.
16) Business process management is a non-cyclic process for systematically creating,
assessing, and altering business processes.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Business process management (BPM) is a cyclical and iterative approach to managing and
improving business processes over time. It involves continuous cycles of modeling,
analyzing, optimizing, implementing, and monitoring processes to achieve organizational
goals and objectives.
17) The BPM cycle begins by creating a model of the existing business processes.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The BPM cycle typically starts with the documentation and modeling of existing business
processes, known as the "as-is" state. This step involves mapping out the sequence of
activities, roles, resources, and data flows that constitute the current process landscape.
18) An as-is model documents the desired outcome of a business process.
Answer: False
Rationale:
An as-is model represents the current state of a business process, documenting how activities
are currently performed, the roles involved, and the flow of data within the process. It does
not depict the desired outcome but rather serves as a baseline for understanding existing
processes before any changes are made.
19) Implementing the new or changed process is the third activity in BPM.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Implementation of new or modified processes is a crucial step in the BPM cycle. Once
process improvements have been identified and designed, they must be effectively
implemented within the organization to realize the intended benefits and improvements in
performance.
20) A set of standard practices called OMG are often used in the assessment stage of the BPM
cycle.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The Object Management Group (OMG) is an international consortium that develops and
maintains standards for various domains, including modeling and business process
management. While BPM practitioners may use OMG standards for modeling and analysis,
they are not specifically associated with the assessment stage of the BPM cycle.
21) Business process management applies only to commercial, profit-making organizations.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Business process management (BPM) is a management approach that can be applied to
organizations across various sectors, including commercial, non-profit, governmental, and
other types of organizations. BPM focuses on optimizing processes to enhance efficiency,
effectiveness, and agility, regardless of the organization's profit motive.
22) BPMN is a standard set of terms and graphical notations for documenting business
processes.
Answer: True
Rationale:
BPMN, or Business Process Model and Notation, is indeed a standardized notation used for
modeling and documenting business processes. It provides a common language and graphical
symbols to represent various elements of a process, making it easier to understand and
communicate process designs.
23) In BPMN, all activities for a given role are shown in that role's swim lane.
Answer: True
Rationale:
BPMN diagrams typically use swim lanes to depict different roles or participants in a
process. Each swim lane represents a specific role, and the activities associated with that role
are placed within the corresponding lane, providing clarity on who is responsible for
performing each task.
24) In a BPMN process diagram, the swim-lane layout is used to simplify process diagrams
and to draw attention to interactions among components of the diagram.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The swim-lane layout in BPMN diagrams helps to organize process activities by roles or
responsibilities, simplifying the visualization of complex processes. It also facilitates the
identification of interactions and handoffs between different participants or departments
within the process.
25) In BPMN, dotted arrows depict the flow or sequence of the activities in a process.
Answer: False
Rationale:
In BPMN, solid arrows, not dotted ones, depict the flow or sequence of activities in a process.
Dotted arrows are typically used to represent message flows or data associations between
different elements of the process.
26) In BPMN, solid arrows depict the flow of messages and data.
Answer: False
Rationale:
In BPMN, solid arrows represent sequence flows, indicating the order in which activities are
performed within the process. Message flows and data associations are typically depicted
using dashed or dotted arrows, distinguishing them from the sequence flow.
27) In BPMN, diamonds represent decisions and usually contain a question that is answered
with yes or no.
Answer: True
Rationale:
In BPMN diagrams, diamond-shaped symbols represent decision points in a process flow.
These decision points typically involve conditions or criteria that determine the path the
process should follow, often depicted as questions with yes/no answers or other Boolean
conditions.
28) Once the as-is model has been documented, that model can then be analyzed for problems
or for improvement opportunities.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The documentation of an as-is model in business process management serves as a baseline for
understanding the current state of processes within an organization. Once documented, the asis model can be analyzed to identify inefficiencies, bottlenecks, or areas for improvement,
laying the groundwork for process optimization initiatives.
29) BPMN cannot be used to document processes for training employees.
Answer: False
Rationale:
BPMN diagrams can indeed be used to document processes for various purposes, including
training employees. By providing a visual representation of process flows, roles, and
activities, BPMN diagrams offer a clear and standardized way to communicate process
procedures and workflows, aiding in employee training and process understanding.
30) The traditional technique for developing information systems is the systems development
life cycle.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is a well-established methodology for
developing information systems and applications. It involves a series of structured phases,
including planning, analysis, design, implementation, and maintenance, aimed at creating
high-quality, efficient, and reliable software solutions.
31) Cost feasibility involves an assessment of the amount of capital that is to be invested in
the project.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Cost feasibility evaluates whether a project is financially viable and assesses the amount of
capital required to develop the system compared to the benefits it will provide. It involves
estimating costs associated with development, implementation, maintenance, and potential
returns on investment.
32) Like cost feasibility, schedule feasibility is difficult to determine.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Schedule feasibility assesses whether the project can be completed within a reasonable
timeframe. Determining an accurate schedule can indeed be challenging due to factors such
as resource availability, project scope, and unforeseen obstacles. It requires careful planning
and consideration of project dependencies and constraints.
33) The process of assessing a project's feasibility occurs during the components design
phase of the SDLC.
Answer: False
Rationale:
The process of assessing a project's feasibility typically occurs early in the systems
development life cycle (SDLC), during the planning phase. Feasibility studies are conducted
to evaluate the viability of the project before significant resources are committed. These
studies help stakeholders make informed decisions about whether to proceed with the project.
34) The four dimensions of feasibility are cost, schedule, technical, and organizational
feasibility.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Cost, schedule, technical, and organizational feasibility are indeed the four primary
dimensions evaluated during a feasibility study. Each dimension assesses different aspects of
the project's viability, including financial, temporal, technical capability, and organizational
compatibility factors.
35) As IS development projects are difficult to budget and schedule, technical and
organizational feasibility is only an approximate, back-of-the-envelope analysis.
Answer: False
Rationale:
While IS development projects can indeed be challenging to budget and schedule accurately,
technical and organizational feasibility assessments are not merely approximate analyses.
They involve rigorous evaluation processes to determine whether the project aligns with
technical capabilities and organizational goals, considering factors such as infrastructure,
resources, culture, and strategic objectives.
36) Technical feasibility refers to whether existing information technology is likely to be able
to meet the needs of a new system.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Technical feasibility assesses whether the proposed system can be implemented using
existing or readily available technology. It evaluates factors such as compatibility, scalability,
performance, and security to determine whether the technology infrastructure can support the
system requirements effectively.
37) Organizational feasibility concerns whether a new system fits within an organization's
customs, culture, charter, or legal requirements.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Organizational feasibility evaluates whether the proposed system aligns with the
organization's structure, culture, policies, and legal requirements. It considers factors such as
organizational readiness, stakeholder support, change management implications, and
alignment with strategic objectives to determine the system's fit within the organization.
38) Systems analysts work more with managers and executives than business analysts.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Systems analysts primarily work with stakeholders from various levels of the organization,
including managers, executives, business users, and IT professionals. While they collaborate
closely with managers and executives to understand business objectives and requirements,
they also interact extensively with business analysts, programmers, testers, and end-users
throughout the systems development process.
39) Systems analysts integrate the work of programmers, testers, and users.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Systems analysts play a crucial role in integrating the efforts of different stakeholders
involved in the systems development process. They collaborate with programmers to translate
business requirements into technical specifications, work with testers to ensure that
developed systems meet quality standards, and engage with users to gather feedback and
facilitate user acceptance testing.
40) During the requirements definition stage of the SDLC, the team will be heavy with
business and systems analysts.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The requirements definition stage of the SDLC focuses on gathering, analyzing, and
documenting user requirements for the proposed system. During this stage, the team typically
includes a significant number of business analysts and systems analysts who work together to
elicit and document business needs, functional requirements, and system specifications. Their
collaboration ensures that the project's objectives are clearly defined and understood before
proceeding to the design and development phases.
41) User involvement is critical throughout the system development process.
Answer: True
Rationale:
User involvement ensures that the system meets the needs and expectations of its intended
users. Throughout the development process, active participation from users helps in gathering
requirements, providing feedback on design prototypes, and testing the system to ensure
usability and functionality alignment with business objectives.
42) For off-the-shelf software, the project team produces design documentation for writing
program code.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Off-the-shelf software refers to pre-built software solutions that are purchased or licensed
from third-party vendors. Since the software is already developed, the project team typically
does not produce design documentation or write program code for off-the-shelf software.
Instead, the focus is on configuration, customization, integration, and implementation of the
software to meet specific business requirements.
43) If a project involves off-the-shelf programs, then little database design needs to be done.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Off-the-shelf programs often come with predefined database structures that are designed to
support their functionalities. In such cases, there may be minimal or no need for extensive
database design because the structure and schema of the database are already established by
the software vendor. However, some degree of database configuration or customization may
still be necessary to align the off-the-shelf solution with the organization's data requirements.
44) With pilot installation, the new system/business processes are installed in phases across
an organization.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Pilot installation involves implementing the new system or business processes in a limited
area or department within the organization, rather than across the entire organization. This
approach allows for testing and refinement of the system in a controlled environment before
full-scale deployment. It helps mitigate risks and allows for adjustments based on feedback
and lessons learned during the pilot phase.
45) Organizations should avoid the plunge installation conversion style unless the new
system provides a new capability that will not disrupt the operation of the organization if it
fails.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Plunge installation, also known as direct cutover or big bang conversion, involves
immediately discontinuing the old system and fully implementing the new system. This
approach can be risky because any failure or unexpected issues with the new system can
disrupt the organization's operations. Therefore, it is advisable to avoid plunge installation
unless the new system offers significant advantages or capabilities that outweigh the potential
risks of disruption.
46) SDLC projects are the easiest to manage.
Answer: False
Rationale:
System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) projects can be complex and challenging to manage
due to factors such as changing requirements, technological uncertainties, resource
constraints, and stakeholder expectations. Managing an SDLC project requires effective
planning, coordination, communication, risk management, and adaptability to address
evolving needs and challenges throughout the project lifecycle.
47) A project plan is a list of WBS tasks, arranged to account for task dependencies, with
durations and resources applied.
Answer: True
Rationale:
A project plan outlines the tasks, milestones, resources, timelines, and dependencies required
to complete a project successfully. It typically includes a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS),
which decomposes the project into smaller, manageable tasks, organized hierarchically to
illustrate the project's scope and structure. The project plan also incorporates estimates of task
durations, resource allocations, and sequencing to guide project execution.
48) A Gantt chart, shows tasks, dates, and dependencies.
Answer: True
Rationale:
A Gantt chart is a visual representation of a project schedule that displays tasks, timelines,
and dependencies in a horizontal bar chart format. Each task is represented by a bar, with the
length of the bar indicating the duration of the task, and the positioning of the bars on the
timeline shows the start and end dates of each task. Dependencies between tasks are indicated
by connecting lines or arrows, illustrating the sequence of activities.
49) The critical path is the sequence of activities that determine the earliest date by which the
project can be completed.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The critical path in a project network diagram is the longest path of dependent tasks that
determines the minimum time required to complete the project. Activities on the critical path
have zero slack or float, meaning any delay in these activities will directly impact the
project's overall duration. Identifying and managing the critical path is essential for project
scheduling and resource allocation to ensure timely project completion.
50) A trade-off involves balancing of three critical factors: requirements, cost, and time.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Project management often involves trade-offs between project requirements, cost, and time
constraints. Balancing these factors requires making strategic decisions to optimize project
outcomes within the available resources and constraints. For example, adjusting project
scope, allocating additional resources, or extending timelines may be necessary to meet
project objectives while managing cost and schedule constraints effectively.
51) According to the SDLC, progress of the development cycle goes in a sequence from
requirements to design to implementation.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) typically follows a sequential progression
from gathering and analyzing requirements to designing the system architecture and user
interface, and finally to implementing and testing the developed solution. This sequence
ensures that the project team has a clear understanding of user needs before proceeding to the
design and implementation phases, thereby minimizing the risk of rework and ensuring
alignment with stakeholder expectations.
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Which of the following is true of information systems?
A) Information systems include all business process activities.
B) Every information system has at least one application.
C) Information systems should be bought off-the-shelf.
D) Every business process must include at least one information system.
Answer: B
Rationale:
An information system consists of hardware, software, data, procedures, and people working
together to collect, process, store, and disseminate information to support decision making
and control in an organization. Since applications are software components of information
systems that accomplish specific tasks, every information system must have at least one
application to function effectively.
2) Which of the following is true for the relationship between business processes and
information systems?
A) A business process need not relate to any information system, but an information system
relates to at least one business process.
B) Information systems incorporate all business process activities, and hence should be
developed before business processes.
C) Starting from processes and working toward information systems is the best option to
anticipate future demands and new business processes.
D) Developing information systems before business processes ensures that all activities are
considered in the development process.
Answer: A
Rationale:
While every information system relates to at least one business process, not every business
process necessarily relates to an information system. Some business processes may be
manual or not supported by formal information systems, but every information system must
align with and support at least one business process to be meaningful and effective.
3) A ________ is a person who is well versed in an organization's strategy and who focuses,
primarily, on ensuring that business processes and information systems meet the
organization's competitive strategies.
A) business analyst
B) business application programmer
C) business administrator
D) business supervisor
Answer: A
Rationale:
A business analyst is responsible for analyzing the business domain, documenting its
processes, and assessing its objectives. They ensure that business processes and information
systems align with the organization's competitive strategies and goals.
4) ________ are IS professionals who understand both business and information technology.
A) Development analysts
B) Systems analysts
C) IT supervisors
D) Project managers
Answer: B
Rationale:
Systems analysts bridge the gap between business needs and technology solutions. They
possess knowledge of both business processes and information technology, enabling them to
design, develop, and implement effective information systems that meet organizational
objectives.
5) A ________ is a network of activities, repositories, roles, resources, and data flows that
interact to accomplish a business function.
A) business management
B) business analysis
C) business process
D) business policy
Answer: C
Rationale:
A business process is a structured set of activities that involve people, resources, and systems
working together to achieve a specific organizational goal or objective.
6) ________ are collections of related tasks that receive inputs and produce outputs.
A) Activities
B) Databases
C) Resources
D) Presentations
Answer: A
Rationale:
Activities represent the individual steps or tasks within a business process that take inputs,
perform actions, and produce outputs.
7) An inventory or a database is an example of a ________, which is defined as a collection
of something.
A) resource
B) repository
C) data flow
D) model
Answer: B
Rationale:
A repository is a centralized location where data or information is stored and managed. It
serves as a collection point for organizing and accessing data within a business process or
system.
8) In a business process, a role refers to ________.
A) a physical repository
B) the movement of data
C) a collection of data
D) a collection of activities
Answer: D
Rationale:
In the context of business processes, a role defines the responsibilities and permissions
assigned to individuals or groups within the process. It represents the collection of activities
or tasks performed by a specific role player to accomplish a particular function.
9) In a business process, resources are ________.
A) people or computer applications that are assigned to roles
B) collections of procedures and activities
C) physical repositories and data repositories
D) collections of related tasks that receive inputs and produce outputs
Answer: A
Rationale:
Resources in a business process refer to the people, tools, equipment, or applications assigned
to perform specific tasks or activities within the process. They are the human or technological
components responsible for executing process steps and contributing to achieving process
objectives.
10) An as-is model ________.
A) documents the current situation of a business process
B) contrasts the former and current states of a business process
C) indicates the desired outcome of a business process
D) represents the ideal state of a business process
Answer: A
Rationale:
An as-is model documents the current state or existing condition of a business process,
including its activities, roles, resources, data flows, and interactions. It serves as a baseline
for analyzing and identifying areas for improvement or redesign in the process.
11) In business process management, once the as-is model is created, the very next step that a
team must take is to ________.
A) obtain feedback about implementation
B) assess the results of the changes
C) create system components
D) implement changes in the organization
Answer: C
Rationale:
After creating the as-is model, the next step in business process management is to design or
create system components, which may include new software applications, tools, or
infrastructure necessary to support the improved or redesigned processes identified during
modeling.
12) Which of the following is an accurate representation of the steps in the business process
management cycle?
A) model processes; implement processes; assess results; create components
B) create components; model processes; implement processes; assess results
C) implement processes; create components; model processes; assess results
D) model processes; create components; implement processes; assess results
Answer: D
Rationale:
The correct sequence of steps in the business process management (BPM) cycle starts with
modeling processes to understand current operations, followed by creating components
necessary for improvement, implementing changes, and finally assessing the results to
identify further enhancements.
13) The Information Systems Audit and Control Association has created a set of standard
practices called ________ that are often used in the assessment stage of the BPM cycle.
A) CISA
B) CISM
C) COBIT
D) CRISC
Answer: C
Rationale:
COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technologies) is a framework
created by ISACA (Information Systems Audit and Control Association) for governance and
management of enterprise information technology. It provides standard practices for
assessing and improving processes, making it valuable in the assessment stage of the BPM
cycle.
14) ________ set the stage for the requirements for any information systems and applications
that need to be created or adapted.
A) Business repositories
B) Business assessments
C) Business objectives
D) Business process models
Answer: D
Rationale:
Business process models depict the sequence of activities, roles, resources, and data flows
within a business process. They provide a foundation for understanding and defining the
requirements for information systems and applications that support or automate those
processes.
15) The ________ is a software-industry standards organization that created a standard set of
terms and graphical notations for documenting business processes.
A) WBS
B) OMG
C) SDLC
D) COBIT
Answer: B
Rationale:
The Object Management Group (OMG) is a software-industry standards organization
responsible for creating the Business Process Modeling Notation (BPMN), which is a widely
used standard for documenting and visualizing business processes.
16) ________ is a standard set of terms and graphical notations for documenting business
processes.
A) Business Process Modeling Notation
B) Business Process Execution Language
C) Interface Standard Model
D) ISO 9000
Answer: A
Rationale:
Business Process Modeling Notation (BPMN) is a standardized graphical notation for
representing business processes. It provides a common language for business users, analysts,
and developers to communicate and document processes effectively.
17) In a BPMN process diagram, all activities for a given role are shown in that role's
________.
A) repository
B) swim lane
C) gateway
D) database
Answer: B
Rationale:
In BPMN, swim lanes are used to visually organize and depict the responsibilities or roles
involved in a business process. All activities assigned to a specific role are shown within that
role's swim lane.
18) In a BPMN process diagram, a ________ represents an activity.
A) dotted arrow
B) rectangle with rounded corners
C) diamond
D) solid arrow
Answer: B
Rationale:
In BPMN notation, activities are represented by rectangular shapes with rounded corners.
Each activity represents a specific task or operation within the business process.
19) In BPMN notation, ________ represent decisions and usually contain a question that is
answered with yes or no.
A) diamonds
B) circles
C) rectangles
D) squares
Answer: A
Rationale:
In BPMN diagrams, decisions are depicted using diamond-shaped symbols. These decision
points typically contain a question that guides the flow of the process based on different
conditions or outcomes.
20) In a BPMN process diagram, dotted arrows depict the flow of ________ and data flow in
the process.
A) resources
B) messages and data flows
C) activities
D) tasks
Answer: B
Rationale:
Dotted arrows in BPMN diagrams represent the flow of messages and data between activities
or components within the business process. They indicate the communication pathways or
data exchanges between different parts of the process.
21) In BPMN, ________ depict the flow or sequence of activities in a process.
A) dotted arrows
B) solid lines
C) solid arrows
D) dotted lines
Answer: C
Rationale:
Solid arrows in BPMN diagrams are used to represent the flow or sequence of activities
within a process. They indicate the logical progression from one activity to the next, showing
the order in which tasks are performed.
22) In BPMN diagrams, a square with a plus sign means that ________.
A) the data flow continues on the next page
B) a particular activity applies to multiple processes
C) a question can be answered with yes or no
D) an activity is independent of the process
Answer: D
Rationale:
A square with a plus sign in BPMN diagrams represents an independent activity that is not
directly connected to the sequence of the process. It indicates that the activity is standalone
and does not rely on other tasks within the process.
23) The traditional technique for developing information systems is ________.
A) the spiral approach
B) the systems development life cycle
C) rapid application development cycle
D) the V-model
Answer: B
Rationale:
The Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is the traditional approach used for developing
information systems. It involves a structured sequence of phases, including system definition,
requirement analysis, system design, implementation, and maintenance.
24) The first phase of systems development involves ________.
A) defining the system
B) implementing the system
C) determining requirement
D) maintaining the system
Answer: A
Rationale:
The first phase of the SDLC is system definition, where the project team defines the scope,
objectives, and goals of the system to be developed. This phase sets the foundation for the
rest of the development process.
25) The final phase of systems development involves ________.
A) implementing the system
B) determining the requirement
C) maintaining the system
D) designing system components
Answer: C
Rationale:
The final phase of the SDLC is system maintenance, where the developed system is deployed
into production, and ongoing support and enhancements are provided as needed to ensure its
continued operation and effectiveness.
26) The resulting project plan from the system definition is the input to the second SDLC
phase, which is ________.
A) component designing
B) system implementation
C) requirement analysis
D) system maintenance
Answer: C
Rationale:
The project plan resulting from the system definition phase serves as input to the second
phase of the SDLC, which is requirement analysis. This phase involves gathering,
documenting, and analyzing the detailed requirements of the system to be developed.
27) The first step in the system definition phase of systems development is to ________.
A) plan the project
B) conduct a feasibility study
C) determine the goals and scope
D) form the project team
Answer: C
Rationale:
The initial step in the system definition phase is to determine the goals and scope of the
project. This involves defining the objectives, boundaries, and desired outcomes of the
system to be developed.
28) Once we have defined a project's goals and scope, the immediate next step is to
________.
A) plan the project
B) assess feasibility
C) determine system requirements
D) form the project team
Answer: B
Rationale:
After defining the project's goals and scope, the next step is to assess feasibility. Feasibility
analysis evaluates whether the proposed project is viable from various perspectives, including
cost, schedule, technical, and organizational feasibility.
29) What are the four dimensions of feasibility?
A) planning, process, technical, and schedule feasibility
B) operational, strategic, technical, and tactical feasibility
C) cost, schedule, technical, and organizational feasibility
D) schedule, process, technical, and competitive feasibility
Answer: C
Rationale:
The four dimensions of feasibility in systems development are cost, schedule, technical, and
organizational feasibility. These factors assess whether the proposed project is financially
viable, can be completed within a reasonable timeframe, aligns with available technology,
and fits within the organization's structure and culture.
30) Organizational feasibility concerns whether the new system aligns with ________.
A) industry standards
B) technological feasibility
C) customer requirements
D) legal requirements
Answer: D
Rationale:
Organizational feasibility evaluates whether the new system aligns with legal requirements,
regulations, and policies relevant to the organization's operations. It ensures that the proposed
system complies with applicable laws and standards to avoid legal risks and liabilities.
31) If a defined project is determined to be feasible in the SDLC, the immediate next step is
to ________.
A) create and test components
B) form the project team
C) maintain the system
D) assess process results
Answer: B
Rationale:
Once a project is deemed feasible, the next step in the SDLC is to form the project team. The
project team is essential for executing the project plan and ensuring that all necessary
resources and expertise are available to proceed with the development process.
32) During the requirements definition stage of developing an information system, the project
team will include mostly ________.
A) programmers and testers
B) testers and business users
C) business and systems analysts
D) database designers and administrators
Answer: C
Rationale:
During the requirements definition stage, the project team primarily consists of business and
systems analysts. These professionals are responsible for gathering, analyzing, and
documenting the business and user requirements for the proposed system, ensuring that it
meets the needs of the organization and its stakeholders.
33) In the SDLC, the first major task for an assembled project team is to ________.
A) design system components
B) assess the project's feasibility
C) plan the project
D) define system goals and scope
Answer: C
Rationale:
Once the project team is assembled, the first major task in the SDLC is to plan the project.
Planning involves defining project objectives, scope, resources, timelines, and other essential
aspects to guide the development process effectively and ensure project success.
34) ________ include identifying what is to be produced, how frequently and how fast it is to
be produced.
A) Requirements
B) System implementations
C) Component designs
D) System definitions
Answer: A
Rationale:
Requirements include specifying what the system is expected to accomplish, including its
functionalities, features, performance criteria, and constraints. They define the scope and
objectives of the system development effort, guiding the design and implementation phases.
35) The ________ phase of the SDLC involves determining hardware and program
specifications, planning the database and procedures, and creating job definitions.
A) requirements analysis
B) system implementation
C) component design
D) system definition
Answer: C
Rationale:
The component design phase of the SDLC focuses on translating system requirements into
detailed hardware and software specifications, database structures, and procedural designs. It
lays the groundwork for building and implementing the system components.
36) Tasks in the ________ phase of the SDLC are to build and test system components and to
convert users to the new system.
A) system definition
B) component design
C) system maintenance
D) implementation
Answer: D
Rationale:
The implementation phase of the SDLC involves building, testing, and deploying system
components. It includes activities such as coding, testing, data conversion, user training, and
system deployment to ensure that the new system meets its objectives and functions correctly.
37) A(n) ________ is a formal description of a system's response to use and misuse scenarios.
A) activity log
B) work-breakdown structure
C) test plan
D) system conversion
Answer: C
Rationale:
A test plan is a formal document that outlines the testing approach, test objectives, test
scenarios, test cases, test schedules, and resources required to validate the system's
functionality, performance, and reliability. It guides the testing process to ensure thorough
coverage and accuracy.
38) Once a system has passed integrated testing, the organization installs the new system.
Which term is used to refer to this activity?
A) beta testing
B) system conversion
C) agile development
D) system control
Answer: B
Rationale:
System conversion refers to the process of installing and transitioning to a new system after it
has successfully passed integrated testing. It involves migrating data, training users, and
decommissioning old systems to ensure a smooth transition to the new system.
39) With ________ installation, the organization implements the entire system/business
processes on a limited portion of the business.
A) parallel
B) phased
C) pilot
D) plunge
Answer: C
Rationale:
Pilot installation involves implementing the new system or business processes on a limited
scale within the organization, such as a single department or location. It allows for testing and
evaluation of the system in a controlled environment before full-scale deployment.
40) In a ________ installation, the new system runs alongside the old one until it has been
tested and is fully operational.
A) pilot
B) phased
C) parallel
D) plunge
Answer: C
Rationale:
In a parallel installation, the new system operates concurrently with the old system for a
period of time. Both systems run in parallel until the new system has been thoroughly tested,
validated, and deemed fully operational, after which the old system is phased out.
41) A ________ installation is the riskiest because the old system is shut down and the new
system is introduced.
A) pilot
B) phased
C) parallel
D) plunge
Answer: D
Rationale:
Plunge installation, also known as direct installation, is the riskiest approach because it
involves completely replacing the old system with the new one in a single step. This abrupt
transition can be disruptive to the organization's operations and poses a higher risk of failure
if the new system does not function as expected.
42) Plunge installation is sometimes called ________ installation.
A) direct
B) loop
C) serial
D) operational
Answer: A
Rationale:
Plunge installation is sometimes referred to as direct installation because it involves directly
implementing the new system without running it concurrently with the old system. It
contrasts with phased or parallel approaches, where the new and old systems coexist for a
period.
43) Fixing a system so that it works correctly, or adapting it to changes in requirements,
occurs in the ________ phase of the SDLC.
A) implementation
B) maintenance
C) requirements analysis
D) component design
Answer: B
Rationale:
The maintenance phase of the SDLC involves making modifications to the system to fix
errors, enhance functionality, or adapt it to changes in user requirements or technological
environments. This phase ensures that the system continues to meet its objectives and
remains effective over its operational life cycle.
44) In systems development, documents, designs, prototypes, data models, database designs,
working data entry screens, and the like are examples of ________.
A) reports
B) resources
C) components
D) deliverables
Answer: D
Rationale:
In systems development, deliverables refer to tangible outputs produced during the
development process, such as documents, designs, prototypes, data models, and software
components. These deliverables represent the tangible results of the development effort and
are typically used to guide the implementation and deployment of the system.
45) Project teams create a ________, which is a hierarchy of the tasks required to complete a
project.
A) critical path
B) work-breakdown structure
C) Gantt chart
D) scope statement
Answer: B
Rationale:
A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of the project into
smaller, more manageable tasks or work packages. It provides a systematic and organized
way to define the scope of the project and break it down into actionable components that can
be assigned to project team members.
46) A ________ shows the tasks, start and finish dates, and dependencies for the tasks of a
project.
A) requirement analysis chart
B) Gantt chart
C) Pareto chart
D) scope statement
Answer: B
Rationale:
A Gantt chart is a visual representation of project tasks, their start and finish dates, and their
dependencies. It provides a timeline view of the project schedule, allowing project managers
to track progress, identify dependencies, and manage resources effectively.
47) The ________ is a sequence of activities that determines the earliest date by which a
project will be completed.
A) requirement analysis chart
B) Pareto chart
C) critical path
D) scope statement
Answer: C
Rationale:
The critical path is the longest sequence of dependent tasks in a project that determines the
minimum amount of time required to complete the project. Activities on the critical path have
zero slack or float, meaning any delay in these activities will directly impact the project's
overall duration.
48) A ________ involves balancing of three critical factors: requirements, cost, and time.
A) WBS
B) trade-off
C) test plan
D) critical path
Answer: B
Rationale:
A trade-off involves making decisions that balance conflicting factors, such as project
requirements, cost constraints, and time limitations. Project managers often face trade-offs
when allocating resources, setting priorities, or making compromises to achieve project
objectives within budget and schedule constraints.
49) According to Brooks' Law, adding more people to a late project will ________.
A) lower the total project cost
B) speed up the project
C) create diseconomies of scale
D) reduce the need for coordination
Answer: C
Rationale:
Brooks' Law states that adding more people to a late software project will further delay the
project and create inefficiencies, known as diseconomies of scale. This is because new team
members require time to ramp up, increase communication overhead, and may introduce
coordination challenges, ultimately slowing down the project.
50) The situation that occurs when adding more resources creates inefficiencies is known as
________.
A) diseconomies of scale
B) marginal utility
C) marginal returns
D) diseconomies of scope
Answer: A
Rationale:
Diseconomies of scale occur when increasing the scale or size of a project or operation
results in diminishing returns or increased inefficiencies. Adding more resources beyond a
certain point can lead to coordination challenges, communication overhead, and decreased
productivity, ultimately hindering rather than improving project performance.
51) The final WBS plan is denoted as the ________ WBS, and it shows planned tasks,
dependencies, durations, and resource assignments.
A) test
B) baseline
C) standard
D) benchmark
Answer: B
Rationale:
The term "baseline" in project management refers to the original or approved version of a
plan, schedule, or document against which actual progress is measured. In the context of a
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), the baseline WBS represents the finalized plan detailing
tasks, dependencies, durations, and resource assignments for the project.
52) The term ________ refers to a set of management policies, practices, and tools that
developers use to maintain control over the project's resources.
A) workflow control
B) version control
C) transmission control protocol
D) configuration control
Answer: D
Rationale:
Configuration control, also known as change control, refers to the management process of
controlling changes to a project's resources, including documents, software, hardware, and
other artifacts. It involves implementing policies, practices, and tools to ensure that changes
are properly evaluated, approved, implemented, and documented to maintain project integrity.
53) According to the SDLC, progress of a business process goes in a linear sequence from
requirements to design to implementation. This is called the ________.
A) waterfall method
B) swim-lane method
C) Scrum process
D) agile development
Answer: A
Rationale:
The linear sequence of progress from requirements gathering to design and then to
implementation, where each phase is completed before moving to the next, is characteristic of
the waterfall method in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC). It is called the
"waterfall method" because progress flows steadily downwards, similar to a waterfall.
54) The rapid application development, the unified process, extreme programming, and
Scrum are examples of ________.
A) waterfall method
B) swim-lane method
C) agile development
D) SLDC
Answer: C
Rationale:
Rapid application development, the unified process, extreme programming, and Scrum are all
examples of agile development methodologies. Agile methodologies prioritize iterative
development, flexibility, and collaboration, allowing for incremental delivery of high-quality
software that can adapt to changing requirements.
55) In paired programming ________.
A) two devices are programmed at once
B) two programs are run simultaneously on one device
C) two devices are required to run one program
D) two team members share the same computer to write a computer program together
Answer: D
Rationale:
Paired programming is an agile software development technique where two programmers
work together at one workstation. They share the same computer, keyboard, and mouse,
collaborating in real-time to write code, review each other's work, and provide immediate
feedback, which often leads to higher-quality code and better problem-solving.
56) According to the Scrum process, once the tasks are known for a given set of
requirements, the next step is to assign each task a difficulty score, called ________.
A) scrums
B) points
C) grades
D) tallies
Answer: B
Rationale:
In the Scrum process, each task identified for a given set of requirements is assigned a
difficulty score known as "points" during the sprint planning session. These points represent
the estimated effort or complexity required to complete the task and are used to prioritize and
allocate work during the sprint.
57) The total number of points of work a team can accomplish in each Scrum period is called
________.
A) score
B) speed
C) velocity
D) degree
Answer: C
Rationale:
In Scrum, the total number of points of work that a team can accomplish in each sprint or
Scrum period is referred to as "velocity." It represents the team's capacity to deliver value and
is used for sprint planning and forecasting future iterations. Velocity helps the team set
realistic goals and optimize their productivity.
Essay Questions
1) Describe the composition of a development team for an information system.
Answer: Typical personnel on a development team are a manager (or managers for larger
projects), business analysts, system analysts, programmers, software testers, and users.
A business analyst is someone who is well versed in Porter's models and organizational
strategy, and who also understands the proper role for technology. Business analysts work
primarily with business processes as well as with systems development at a high level.
Systems analysts are IS professionals who understand both business and technology. They
integrate the work of the programmers, testers, and users. Depending on the nature of the
project, the team may also include hardware and communications specialists, database
designers and administrators, and other IT specialists.
2) Define business process, roles, resources, and data flows.
Answer: A business process is a network of activities, repositories, roles, resources, and data
flows that interact to accomplish a business function. Roles are collections of activities.
Resources are people or computer applications that are assigned to roles. A data flow is the
movement of data from one activity or another or from an activity to a repository, or the
reverse.
3) Explain why process management is necessary for an organization.
Answer: Processes are dynamic and often need to be changed. This need can arise because a
process doesn't work well, because of a change in technology, or because of a change in some
business fundamental.
• Improve process quality—The need to monitor process quality and adjust process design, as
appropriate, is one reason that processes need to be managed.
• Change in technology—When new technology changes any of a process's activities in a
significant way, the entire process needs to be evaluated. That evaluation is another reason for
managing processes.
• Change in business fundamentals—A substantial change in any of the following factors
might result in the need to modify business processes:
- Market (e.g., new customer category, change in customer characteristics)
- Product lines
- Supply chain
- Company policy
- Company organization (e.g., merger, acquisition)
- Internationalization
- Business environment
4) Name the four stages of the BPM process and summarize the activities in each.
Answer: Business process management (BPM) is a cyclical process for systematically
creating, assessing, and altering business processes. This cycle begins by creating models of
business processes. The business users who have expertise and are involved in the particular
process adjust and evaluate those models and make improvements. Usually teams build an asis model that documents the current situation and then changes that model to make
adjustments necessary to solve process problems.
The next step is to create system components. After that, new business processes or changes
to existing business processes are implemented. Well-managed organizations don't stop there.
Instead, they create policy, procedures, and committees to continually assess business process
effectiveness. The Information Systems Audit and Control Association has created a set of
standard practices called COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and related Technology)
that are often used in the assessment stage of the BPM cycle. When the assessment process
indicates that a significant need for change has arisen, the BPM cycle is repeated and
adjusted. New process models are developed, and components are created, implemented, and
assessed.
5) What are the types of arrows used in the swim-lane layout used in BPMN?
Answer: Two kinds of arrows are used in swim-lane layout. Dotted arrows depict the flow of
messages and data flows. Solid arrows depict the flow or sequence of the activities in the
process. Some sequence flows have data associated with them as well. According to Figure
10-7, the customer sends an RFQ (request for quotation) to a salesperson (dotted arrow). That
salesperson prepares a quotation in the first activity and then (solid arrow) submits the
quotation back to the customer. You can follow the rest of the process in this diagram.
Allocate inventory means that if the items are available, they are allocated to the customer so
that they will not be sold to someone else.
6) What are the phases of the system development life-cycle?
Answer: The phases of the system development life-cycle are:
• Define the system
• Determine the requirements
• Design system components
• Implement the system
- Create and test components
• Maintain the system
- Assess process results
7) Define technical feasibility and organizational feasibility.
Answer: Technical feasibility refers to whether existing information technology is likely to be
able to meet the needs of the new system.
Organizational feasibility concerns whether the new system fits within the organization's
customs, culture, charter, or legal requirements.
8) Discuss some of the key aspects to developing successful process and systems
development projects.
Answer: The key aspects to developing successful SDLC include:
• Create a Work-Breakdown Structure—Successful project managers break large projects into
smaller and smaller tasks until each task is small enough to estimate and to manage. Every
task should culminate in one or more results called deliverables. Tasks are interrelated, and to
prevent them from becoming a confusing morass, project teams create a work-breakdown
structure (WBS), which is a hierarchy of the tasks required to complete a project.
• Estimate Time and Costs—It is exceedingly difficult to determine duration and labor
requirements for many development tasks. Organizations take three approaches to this
challenge. The first is to avoid the major schedule risks and never develop systems and
software in-house. Instead, they license packages that include both business processes and
information systems components. If no suitable package exists, companies can admit the
impossibility of systems development scheduling and plan accordingly. They invest a certain
level of resources into a project, manage it as best they can, and take the schedule that results.
The third approach is to attempt to schedule the development project in spite of all the
difficulties.
• Create a Project Plan—A project plan is a list of WBS tasks, arranged to account for task
dependencies, with durations and resources applied. Some tasks cannot be started or finished
until other tasks are completed. Given dependencies, estimates for task duration and resource
requirements are then applied to the WBS to form a project plan. The critical path is the
sequence of activities that determine the earliest date by which the project can be completed.
The earliest date is the date determined by considering the longest path through the network
of activities. Paying attention to task dependencies, the planner will compress the tasks as
much as possible. Those tasks that cannot be further compressed lie on the critical path.
• Adjust Plan via Trade-offs—The project plan for the entire project results in a finish date
and a total cost. A trade-off is a balancing of three critical factors: requirements, cost, and
time.
• Manage Development Challenges—Nothing ever goes according to plan, and the larger the
project and the longer the development interval, the more things will violate the plan. Four
critical factors need to be considered:
- Coordination
- Diseconomies of scale
- Configuration control
- Unexpected events
9) What are the tools used when planning IS projects?
Answer: The various tools used to meet the complexities of planning IS projects are workbreakdown structures, Gantt charts, and critical paths. Tasks are interrelated, and to prevent
them from becoming a confusing morass, project teams create a work-breakdown structure
(WBS), which is a hierarchy of the tasks required to complete a project. The WBS for a large
project is huge; it might entail hundreds or even thousands of tasks. Once the project is
decomposed into small tasks, the next step is to define task dependencies and to estimate task
durations. Task dependencies are normally input to planning software such as Microsoft
Project. One of the tools used is a Gantt chart, which shows tasks, dates, and dependencies.
Another tool used is a critical path, which is the sequence of activities that determines the
earliest date by which the project can be completed. Critical path analysis is the process by
which project managers compress the schedule by moving resources, typically people, from
noncritical path tasks onto critical path tasks.
10) List and explain four critical factors for development project management.
Answer: Nothing ever goes according to plan, and the larger the project and the longer the
development interval, the more things will violate the plan. Four critical factors need to be
considered:
1. Coordination
2. Diseconomies of scale
3. Configuration control
4. Unexpected events
Coordination—Development projects, especially large-scale projects, are usually organized
into a variety of development groups that work independently. Coordinating the work of these
independent groups can be difficult, particularly if the groups reside in different geographic
locations or different countries. An accurate and complete WBS facilitates coordination, but
no project ever proceeds exactly in accordance with the WBS. Delays occur, and unknown or
unexpected dependencies develop among tasks.
Diseconomies of scale—Another problem is diseconomies of scale. The number of possible
interactions among team members rises exponentially with the number of team members.
Ultimately, no matter how well managed a project is, diseconomies of scale will set in.
Configuration control—As the project proceeds, controlling the configuration of the work
product becomes difficult. The development team produces an initial statement of
requirements. Meetings with users produce an adjusted set of requirements. An event could
occur necessitating a change to requirements. Similar problems occur with designs, program
code, database data, and other system components. The term configuration control refers to a
set of management policies, practices, and tools that developers use to maintain control over
the project's resources. Such resources include documents, schedules, designs, program code,
test suites, and any other shared resource needed to complete the project.
Unexpected events—The last major challenge to large-scale project management is
unexpected events. The larger and longer the project, the greater the chance of disruption due
to an unanticipated event.
11) What are the principles of agile development?
Answer: First, Scrum and the other agile techniques expect and even welcome change.
Because systems are created to help organizations and people achieve their strategies, and the
more the requirements change, the closer they come to facilitating strategies. The result is
better and more satisfying for both the users and the development team. Second, Scrum and
other agile development processes are designed to frequently deliver a working version of
some part of the product. Frequently means one to eight weeks, not longer. This frequency
means that management is at risk only for whatever costs and time have been consumed in
that period. And, at the end of the period, they will have some usable product piece that has at
least some value to the business. The third principle is that the development team will work
closely with the customer, until the project ends. Someone who knows the business
requirements must be available to the development team and must be able and willing to
clearly express, clarify, and elaborate on requirements. Also, customers need to be available
to test the evolving work product and provide guidance on how well new features work. The
fourth principle is a tough one for many developers to accept. Rather than design the
complete, overall system at the beginning, only those portions of the design that are needed to
complete the current work are done. Sometime this is called just-in-time design. Finally, agile
development methodologies are generic. They can be applied to the creation of business
processes, information systems, and applications.
12) What is the origin of the term 'scrum'?
Answer: Scrum is an agile development methodology developed by Jeff Sutherland, Jeff
McKenna, and John Scumniotales for a project at the Easel Corporation and extended by
others over the past 15 years. Scrum is a rugby term and was first used for teamwork in a
Harvard Business Review article written by Hirotaka Takeuchi and Ikujiro Nonaka. In rugby,
a scrum is a gathering of a team into a circle to restart play after a foul or other interruption.
Think of it as a huddle in American football.
Test Bank for Using MIS
David M. Kroenke
9780133029673, 9780135191767, 9780134106786, 9780138132484, 9780136100751, 9780134606996
