CH-8 Managing Human Resources – Business Essentials : Exam Guide

Chapter 8 Managing Human Resources MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is correct with regard to the opening case entitled “Are More Cracks Appearing in the Glass Ceiling”? A) Women aspire to top management positions just like men do B) Progress is evident in eliminating the glass ceiling, but it is slow C) During 2002-2006, the percentage of top paying jobs held by women tripled D) While women make lower base pay rates than men, they earn higher bonuses E) All of these are correct Answer: B 2) ________ is the set of organizational activities directed at attracting, developing, and maintaining an effective workforce. A) Production management B) Operations management C) Developing a mission statement D) Human resource management E) Financial management Answer: D 3) Human resource managers are also sometimes called A) financial managers. B) accountants. C) lawyers. D) production managers. E) personnel managers. Answer: E 4) Human resources are a valuable means for A) improving business-government interactions. B) reducing the amount of strategic processes. C) reducing unnecessary organizational costs. D) improving productivity. E) reducing embarrassment. Answer: D 5) Which of the following is considered the starting point of effective human resource management? A) Advertising B) Financing C) Human resource planning D) External staffing E) Recruitment Answer: C 6) The evaluation of the duties required by a particular job and the qualities required to perform it is referred to as A) advertising. B) promotion. C) staffing. D) job analysis. E) training. Answer: D 7) Cindy Stevens is observing and interviewing several database administrators to determine the duties and responsibilities associated with their job, as well as the knowledge, skills, and abilities that someone must have to perform the job. Cindy is performing the HR function of A) job analysis. B) advertising. C) promotion. D) training. E) staffing. Answer: A 8) A ________ is a document outlining the duties of a job, its working conditions, and the tools, materials, and equipment used to perform it. A) job specification B) job quantification C) recruitment effort D) job description E) job advertisement Answer: D 9) Cindy Stevens has developed a document that identifies the duties and responsibilities of a database administrator. This document is referred to as a A) recruitment effort. B) job quantification. C) job description. D) job advertisement. E) job specification. Answer: C 10) Which of the following describes the skills, education, and experience required by a job? A) Job description B) Job specification C) Advertising budget D) On-the-job training agreement E) Employee analysis Answer: B 11) Cindy Stevens has identified the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary for a database administrator in her organization. She will record this information in a(n) A) advertising budget. B) employee analysis. C) job specification. D) staffing survey. E) on-the-job training agreement. Answer: C 12) Which of the following statements is not true regarding human resource management? A) The effectiveness of the HR function has a substantial impact on the bottom line. B) HRM is strategically important C) HRM takes place in complex ever changing context D) HRM's importance has grown dramatically over the last two decades. E) All of the statements are true regarding human resource management. Answer: E 13) When managers conduct a job analysis, they may use this information to A) establish performance appraisal systems. B) develop appropriate selection methods. C) set equitable compensation rates. D) start planning for the organizations future HR needs. E) all of these. Answer: E 14) Noah's Pottery wants to complete a job analysis of the company. This will involve studying A) the relationship a job has with others in the business. B) the time and motions it takes to complete specific tasks. C) the specific duties in a particular job. D) the requirements of a job for purposes of determining wage rates. E) the demand for labour in the future. Answer: C 15) George, the Director of Human Resources must start planning for human resources. What are the two steps involved in planning for human resources? A) Employee development and internal promotion B) Job analysis and recruiting C) Labour supply and labour demand D) Job analysis and forecasting E) Recruiting and preparation of job descriptions Answer: D 16) June has been given the responsibility of doing a job analysis, but she doesn't have a clue about what it means, so she asks you. You say that it is A) a written statement which outlines the duties, tasks, and relationship with other positions in the organization. B) an attempt to generate large numbers of qualified applicants. C) the specific method by which the firm will attempt to reach its objectives. D) the detailed study of the specific duties required for a particular job and human qualities required to perform that job. E) analysis of the characteristics of individuals who currently hold jobs with the firm. Answer: D 17) The foundations of effective HR management develops from A) management HR training. B) job analysis, job description, and job specification. C) effective HR forecasting. D) effective HR personnel. E) employee awareness programs. Answer: B 18) Joe manages 15 workers on a production line. He has asked each of them to create a checklist of all the duties they perform. Joe is working on A) job analysis. B) job specification. C) job description. D) person-job matching. E) job relatedness. Answer: C 19) In addition to spending several hours with each of her subordinates, Stephanie is having one-on-one meetings with each of them to determine their exact duties, specific skills and education. Stephanie is working on A) job description. B) job specification. C) job analysis. D) person-job matching. E) job relatedness. Answer: C 20) John is reading a document which describes the conditions under which his job will be done, the ways in which it relates to other positions, and the duties he needs to perform. John is probably looking at A) a job specification. B) a job description. C) job relatedness. D) person-job matching. E) a job analysis. Answer: B 21) Which document outlines the duties, responsibilities, and working relationships of a position? A) Human resources plan B) Job forecast C) Job analysis D) Job description E) Management development plan Answer: D 22) As a human resources specialist, you are responsible for developing job descriptions. But before you do this, you need to plan the steps to complete the task. Job descriptions are developed from the A) bona fide occupational requirement. B) forecast of the internal labour supply. C) job specification. D) job analysis. E) job forecast. Answer: D 23) A ________ outlines the objectives, responsibilities, and key tasks in a job. A) job specification B) job forecast C) job description D) job analysis E) job matching Answer: C 24) The necessary skills, education, and experience needed to fill a position make up the A) job design. B) job specification. C) job analysis. D) job relatedness. E) job description. Answer: B 25) Human resource managers use ________, which list each important managerial position, who occupies it, how long that person will likely stay in the job, and who is qualified as a replacement. A) job analysis B) skills inventories C) replacement charts D) job specifications E) the managerial grid Answer: C 26) A ________ contains information on each employee's education, skills, work experiences, and career aspirations. A) job analysis B) skills inventory C) managerial grid D) replacement chart E) job specification Answer: B 27) Cindy Stevens has developed a database that contains information on each employee's education, skills, work experience, and career aspirations. She plans to use this database to identify employees to fill vacancies. This data base is a ___________. A) job specification B) skills inventory C) managerial grid D) job analysis E) replacement chart Answer: B 28) ________ is the process of attracting qualified people to apply for jobs within an organization. A) Collective bargaining B) Validation C) Recruitment D) Job analysis E) Selection Answer: C 29) Mark, a manager in production, needs to determine the supply and demand of employees in order to develop specific strategies. This is known as A) job specification. B) job description. C) performance appraisal. D) job analysis. E) forecasting. Answer: E 30) When forecasting demand A) industry comparisons are mandatory. B) the company forecasts the number and type of people who will be available for hiring from the labour market at large. C) employees are interviewed and asked how long they think they will remain with the company. D) employees sign a contract stating the number of years they will stay. E) a company must assess trends in past HR usage, future organizational plans, and general economic trends. Answer: E 31) Forecasting the supply of labour involves two tasks. The first task is to forecast A) future organizational plans. B) the number and type of employees who will be in the firm at some future date. C) general economic trends. D) trends in past HR usage. E) demand for certain types of employees. Answer: B 32) The HR technique that lists each important managerial position, who occupies it, how long he or she will probably stay in it before moving on, and who (by name) is now qualified or soon will be qualified to move into it is known as A) employee information systems. B) the replacement chart. C) job analysis. D) job specification. E) forecasting. Answer: B 33) To facilitate both planning and identifying people for transfer or promotion, some organizations have ________. These systems are usually computerized and contain information on each employee's education, skills, work experience and career aspirations. A) video assessments B) skills inventories C) work inventories D) job inventories E) employee inventories Answer: B 34) After comparing future demand and internal supply, managers can make plans to manage predicted shortfalls or overstaffing. If a shortfall is predicted, the company may do all of the following except A) install labour-saving or productivity-enhancing systems. B) hire new employees. C) encourage early retirement. D) transfer present employees into understaffed areas. E) retrained present employees. Answer: C 35) If overstaffing is expected to be a problem, managers may A) install labour-saving systems. B) retrain present employees. C) install productivity-enhancing systems. D) hire new employees. E) encourage early retirement. Answer: E 36) The development and administration of programs to enhance the quality and performance of people working in an organization is known as A) quality of work life. B) performance appraisal. C) pay-for-performance. D) human resource management. E) merit pay. Answer: D 37) The process of attracting qualified persons to apply for the jobs that are open is called ________. A) searching B) soliciting C) interviewing D) recruiting E) selection Answer: D 38) The purpose of recruiting is A) to determine wage rates for a new employee. B) to find the best candidate. C) to choose the best candidate for a job. D) to develop a pool of interested, qualified applicants. E) to ensure that anyone who wishes to obtain a job has an equal opportunity to apply for it. Answer: D 39) Which of the following is correct with regard to the box entitled “Green Recruiting”? A) Because of the current economic downturn, more and more graduates are saying they just want a job, and they are not worrying about whether employers are eco-friendly B) A survey by Monster.com showed that 50 percent of respondents said that they would quit their current job if they could get another job at an environmentally-friendly company C) Canadians have become more concerned about the environment than they were a few years ago D) At present, there are only about 100,000 Canadians employed in environmentally-related jobs, but the number is rapidly increasing E) All of these are correct Answer: C 40) External recruiting methods include all of the following except A) union hiring halls. B) referrals by present employees. C) advertising. D) campus interviews. E) promoting employees through the ranks. Answer: E 41) What is the first step in obtaining applicants who are both interested in and qualified for available jobs? A) Interviews B) Selection C) Recruiting D) Enlistment E) Resume differentiation Answer: C 42) The use of newspaper advertisements, visits to high schools, colleges, and university campuses, and use of employment agencies are part of A) performance appraisals. B) external recruiting. C) community involvement. D) internal training programs. E) compensation studies. Answer: B 43) Carol wants to find a new employee from outside the company. As part of an external recruiting campaign, she can use all of the following except A) recruiting visits to educational institutions. B) members of the union. C) advertisements in trade publications. D) personal recommendations. E) word of mouth. Answer: B 44) Evaluating each potential candidate for an existing job opening and deciding on whom to extend a job offer to is called ________. A) recruiting B) screening C) interviewing D) decision-making E) selecting Answer: E 45) What is the step in the staffing process in which managers must evaluate and choose the best candidate? A) Ability and aptitude tests B) Organizational induction C) Application or resume D) Internal staffing E) Selecting human resources Answer: E 46) Which of the following is correct with regard to the boxed insert entitled "Job Recruitment in the Social Media era?" A) When a company called I Love Rewards needed to hire 17 people, it placed advertisements in a national newspaper and used an internet recruiting site B) The best way to find a job is through online recruitment sites like Monster.com C) Social media sites are being increasingly used by job seekers to find new job opportunities D) The effectiveness of social media for helping people find jobs is being reduced somewhat by security and privacy concerns E) All of these are correct Answer: D 47) The process of considering present employees as candidates for openings within the organization is referred to as A) profit sharing. B) job analysis. C) internal recruitment. D) external recruitment. E) vestibule training. Answer: C 48) Asking a prospective employee a question like “Tell me about a situation where you took the initiative” would happen when the __________ approach is being used. A) aptitude testing B) behaviour based interviewing C) curveball D) testing E) assessment centre Answer: B 49) Cindy Stevens has placed an advertisement for a job vacancy in the employment section of the newspaper. This is a form of A) profit sharing. B) external recruitment. C) job analysis. D) vestibule training. E) internal recruitment. Answer: B 50) Selecting applicants from outside the organization is called A) internal recruitment. B) job posting. C) external recruitment. D) homogenizing the work force. E) none of these. Answer: C 51) Which of the following is not a form of external recruiting? A) Use of a skill inventory B) Employee referrals C) Campus interviews D) Advertising a vacancy in the newspaper E) Use of employment agencies Answer: A 52) When Sara, the human resource manager, attempts to determine the predictive value of a selection technique, she is doing A) validation. B) certification. C) training. D) internal recruitment. E) external recruitment. Answer: A 53) Which of the following is a selection technique? A) Interviews B) Application forms C) Aptitude tests D) Polygraph tests E) All of these Answer: E 54) Louis, an information-technology manager, needs to select a new employee. Which of the following is not normally used as a part of the employee selection process? A) Performance appraisals B) Ability and aptitude tests C) Applications and resumes D) Medical examinations E) Reference checks Answer: A 55) Kim, public relations manager, has just completed the process of checking the references of several job candidates. What should she do next? A) Conduct screening interviews B) Conduct medical and drug tests C) Conduct an interviews with the candidates D) Give ability/aptitude tests E) Administer polygraph tests Answer: C 56) Jerry, a marketing manager, has just conducted screening interviews with several job candidates. What should he do next? A) Consider applications and resumes B) Give a polygraph test C) Give an ability/aptitude test D) Give medical/drug/polygraph tests E) Conduct an interview with the manager Answer: C 57) Which of the following steps is not part of the selection process? A) Development of a pool of applicants B) Reference checks C) Screening interview D) Job offer E) Screening of resumes and application forms Answer: A 58) You are sending your resume to potential employers and wish to impress the HR manager. Your friend suggests that you portray yourself as possessing the top three characteristics that have been identified by the Canadian Federation of Independent Business on your resume. These characteristics are A) open-minded, eager, and aggressive. B) good work ethic, reliability, and willingness to stay on the job. C) mature, knowledgeable, and a college graduate. D) good personality, positive attitude, and knowledgeable about the company. E) positive attitude, experience, and education. Answer: B 59) The phase in the staffing of a company in which the firm seeks to develop a pool of interested, qualified applicants for a position is called A) recruitment. B) selection. C) searching. D) soliciting. E) interviewing. Answer: A 60) All of the following are external recruiting methods except A) advertising. B) campus interviews. C) a skills inventory system. D) hiring “walk-ins.” E) union hiring halls. Answer: C 61) What are the two main phases of staffing? A) Closed and open promotion systems B) Recruitment and orientation C) Job descriptions and job specifications D) Open promotion systems and job analysis E) Recruitment and selection Answer: E 62) The first step in selection is A) asking the candidate to fill out an application form. B) doing reference checks. C) doing a job analysis. D) conducting an in-person interview. E) posting the job. Answer: A 63) Which of the following is correct with regard to selecting human resources? A) An application form is an inefficient method of gathering information about an applicant B) An assessment centre is a place where human resource professionals analyze an applicant’s application form C) The interview is a popular selection tool because it is almost always a good predictor of future job success D) Interviewers can increase interview validity by asking “curveball” questions, i.e., questions that job applicants would never be expected to be asked E) All of these are correct Answer: D 64) Once the recruiting process has attracted a pool of applicants, the next step is to select someone to hire. The intent of the selection process is to gather information from applicants that will predict their job success. The organization can only gather information about factors that are predictive of future performance. This process is called A) psychological profiling. B) screening. C) job specification. D) validation. E) none of these. Answer: D 65) Which of the following is correct with respect to behaviour-based interviewing? A) It assesses how well an applicant is likely to get along with other workers if the applicant is hired B) A question like “Do you often take the initiative?” is a good example of the kind of question that would be asked in a behaviour-based interview C) It focuses on finding out how an applicant has reacted to important or difficult job situations in the past and assumes that these are a good indicator of how the person will react in the future D) The interviewer asks the applicant a highly structured series of questions E) All of these are correct Answer: C 66) Jim is an accounts-receivable manager who has received many applications for an accounts-receivable clerk position. What would he most likely do next? A) Interviews with his manager B) Reference checks C) Screening interviews D) Polygraph tests E) Give ability/aptitude tests Answer: C 67) After reference checks have been received, what is usually the next step in the selection process? A) Screening interview B) Interview with the manager C) Give ability/aptitude tests D) Polygraph tests E) Reference checks Answer: B 68) The standardized form used in the staffing process that asks the applicant for his/her experience, education, background, name, address, and telephone number is A) a reference check list. B) a job description. C) a job requisition. D) an application form. E) all of these ask for this information. Answer: D 69) Video assessment refers to A) an expensive alternative to traditional hiring techniques. B) videotaping employees on-the-job in order to evaluate their job performance. C) having new hires watch videos that show a series of realistic work situations, and then asking them to choose a course of action to deal with the situation. D) videotaping new hires during an interview in order to evaluate their personality. E) none of these. Answer: C 70) Video assessments A) provide a biased view of the corporation. B) are more expensive than assessment centers. C) are inexpensive, but unfortunately not very reliable. D) have been shown to be inferior to old-fashioned one-on-one assessments. E) can give management greater insight into employee strengths and weaknesses before they are hired. Answer: E 71) The process of introducing new employees to the organization so that they can more quickly become effective contributors is known as A) acquainting. B) orientation. C) educating. D) training. E) developing. Answer: B 72) Which of the following is not part of orientation? A) Providing information about pay days B) Reading manuals C) Taking a polygraph test D) Introduction to co-workers E) Learning about parking priorities Answer: C 73) You are responsible for training in your company, and have created a management training program to take place at a local conference center. This is an example of A) vestibule training. B) off-the-job training. C) a lecture program. D) video conferencing. E) mentoring. Answer: B 74) Employee training and development programs are used to A) make up for some deficiency or to help employees acquire a new skill. B) provide input into the job analysis process. C) introduce employees to the business. D) determine the wage and salary structure. E) evaluate employee performance on the job. Answer: A 75) Which training program takes place while the employee is at work? A) On-the-job training B) Class room C) Seminars D) Vestibule E) Work relatedness Answer: A 76) Suzy has been assigned to a veteran employee for the first week on a new job. She will follow him around and learn the job by watching how he does it. This process is A) vestibule training. B) orientation. C) performance appraisal. D) off-the-job training. E) on-the-job training. Answer: E 77) Elsie is using a simulator to learn how to fly a new jet without ever leaving the ground. In order to learn this new skill set Elsie is using A) job expansion. B) job shadowing. C) vestibule training. D) job rotation. E) on-the-job training. Answer: C 78) One major family of techniques and methods consists of various work-based programs. This includes all of the following except A) systematic job rotations. B) on-the-job training. C) lecture or discussion approach. D) vestibule training. E) systematic job transfers. Answer: C 79) The most commonly used instructional-based program is A) off-the-job training. B) on-the-job training. C) systematic job rotations and transfers. D) the lecture or discussion approach. E) vestibule training. Answer: D 80) Vestibule training is A) a work simulation in which the job is performed under conditions closely simulating the actual work environment. B) an instructional-based program in which a trainer presents material in a descriptive fashion to those attending a trainee program. C) a development program in which employees gain new skills at a location away from the normal work site. D) training workers through the use of classroom-based programs. E) a technique that ties training and development activities directly to task performance. Answer: A 81) When airline pilots use the simulator built by CAE Inc. to learn how to fly the new Airbus A380, they are engaging in what kind of training? A) Job rotation B) Off-the-job training C) On-the-job training D) Vestibule training E) Management development Answer: D 82) The informal interactions among managers for the purpose of discussing mutual problems, solutions, and opportunities is A) mentoring. B) off-the-job training. C) on-the-job training. D) group therapy. E) networking. Answer: E 83) Management development programs usually try to enhance all of the following skills except A) analytical skills. B) conceptual skills. C) networking skills. D) problem-solving skills. E) decision making skills. Answer: C 84) When an older, more experienced manager sponsors and teaches a younger, less experienced manager, this is known as A) mentoring. B) off-the-job training. C) on-the-job training. D) group therapy. E) networking. Answer: A 85) John has been gathering information from a variety of sources, including a manager's subordinates in order to assess their performance. He is conducting A) a traditional performance review. B) positive reinforcement. C) an internal appraisal. D) 360-degree feedback. E) tailoring. Answer: D 86) When McMaster University president Peter George had his performance evaluated by staff, union leaders, and board members, this was an example of A) on-the-job training. B) off-the-job training. C) vestibule training. D) 360-degree feedback. E) a management development program. Answer: D 87) The ranking method which consists of a statement or question about some aspect of an individual's job performance is called A) a graphic rating scale. B) the critical incident method. C) the forced distribution method. D) a simple ranking system. E) the degree of agreement method. Answer: A 88) Adam, the manager of sewing production, has been asked to rank-order his team from top to bottom. This is an example of what type of ranking method? A) High-low feedback B) Graphic rating C) Top-down order ranking D) Forced distribution E) Simple ranking Answer: E 89) When an employee performance rater recalls examples of especially good or poor performance by an employee this is called A) the process improvement method. B) the inconsistency method. C) the new work force method. D) the high-visibility method. E) the critical incident method. Answer: E 90) Which of the following is correct regarding performance appraisals? A) They are required by law B) The appraisal process begins when the manager defines performance standards for the employee C) The process is completed when the employee’s performance improves D) Organizations focus on information provided by the subordinate’s peers E) All of these Answer: B 91) Suppose a manager decides that 10 percent of the employees in her department will be categorized as “outstanding.” She is using which tool of performance appraisal? A) Simple ranking method B) Complex ranking method C) Forced distribution D) Graphic rating scale E) All-or-nothing method Answer: C 92) When university and college teachers grade on the normal curve, they are essentially using which method for appraising the performance of students? A) Forced distribution method B) Simple ranking method C) Graphic rating scale D) 360-degree feedback E) None of these Answer: A 93) The ranking method which consists of a statement or question about some aspect of an individual’s job performance is called A) graphic rating scale. B) simple ranking system. C) critical incident method. D) forced distribution method. E) 360-degree feedback. Answer: A 94) One important aspect of human resources is compensation. As the person responsible, you need to know that compensation includes A) base salary, incentives, bonuses, benefits and other rewards. B) salaries and employee benefits. C) wages, salaries, profit-sharing, and employee benefits. D) wages, salaries, and employee benefits only. E) wages and salaries only. Answer: A 95) Jake is reviewing his salary, the bonus plan, the profit-sharing plan, and the benefit program. Jake is looking at the A) wages system. B) salary system. C) compensation system. D) pay-for-performance system. E) merit salary system. Answer: C 96) Wages are paid for ________, while salary is paid for ________. A) getting a job done, time worked B) time worked; number of units produced C) number of units produced; getting a job done D) time worked or number of units produced; getting a job done E) time worked; getting a job done Answer: D 97) ________ means the base level of wages or salaries paid to an employee. A) Hiring compensation B) Base compensation C) Level one D) Starting rate E) Basic compensation Answer: B 98) Bill is looking at his pay cheque. He worked 38 hours last week and since he is paid $10.00 per hour, his gross pay was $380.00. Bill's compensation is in the form of A) variable pay. B) workers' compensation. C) salary. D) wages. E) bonus. Answer: D 99) _______ generally refer to hourly compensation paid to operating employees, while _______ generally refers to a yearly amount that is to be paid to an employee. A) workers’ compensation; salary B) salary; bonus C) bonus pay; salary D) salary; wages E) wages; salary Answer: E 100) When an employee is paid a certain amount of money for every unit produced, this is a A) salary program. B) piece-rate incentive program. C) wage program. D) pay-for-performance. E) job evaluation. Answer: B 101) Scott is looking at his pay cheque. He worked 48 hours last week but got paid the same as he did the previous week when he worked only 36 hours. His compensation plan is based on A) workers' compensation. B) bonuses. C) variable pay. D) wages. E) salary. Answer: E 102) A method for determining the relative value or worth of a job to the organization so that individuals who perform it can be appropriately compensated is known as A) job analysis. B) job description. C) job evaluation. D) job rating. E) job determination. Answer: C 103) What is the purpose of incentive pay plans? A) They provide a mechanism for managers to constructively discipline troublesome employees B) To motivate high performance C) To reduce the amount of wages payable to employees D) They permit accurate and honest performance appraisals E) Compliance with federal law which requires incentives such as social insurance and workers' compensation Answer: B 104) All of the following are considered incentive systems except A) profit-sharing plans. B) benefits. C) individual incentive plans. D) gainsharing. E) sales commissions. Answer: B 105) Philip is the president of a small machining company who wants to motivate his employees. He asks for your help and you indicate that ________ are designed to motivate employees. A) retirement plans B) incentive programs C) Christmas bonuses D) wages E) free dental programs Answer: B 106) Gina has heard good things about incentive programs, but doesn't know much about them. She asks for your advice and you point out that two examples of incentive programs are A) employee of the month awards and profit-sharing plans. B) wages based on comparable worth and profit-sharing plans. C) gainsharing plans and profit-sharing plans. D) wages based on comparable worth and gain-sharing plans. E) employee recognition and profit-sharing plans. Answer: C 107) After a very successful year when the firm exceeded targeted earnings levels by 10 percent, each employee received extra pay equal to 10 percent of what they earned for the year. This plan is called A) merit salary. B) pay-for-knowledge. C) profit-sharing. D) gainsharing. E) pay-for-performance. Answer: C 108) Takato wants to set up either a gain-sharing plan or a profit-sharing plan. What is the difference between the two plans? A) Profit-sharing plans are generally preferred by employees B) Gainsharing is based on cost savings from productivity improvements, while profit-sharing is based on the firm's profits C) Gain-sharing plans generally result in more money being given to employees than profit-sharing plans do D) There is really very little difference in the two types of plans E) Gain-sharing plans are found only in the public sector, while profit-sharing plans are found only in the private sector Answer: B 109) ________ distribute bonuses to all employees in a company based upon reduced costs from working more efficiently. A) Profit-sharing plans B) Gainsharing plans C) Merit salary systems D) Bona fide occupational requirement plans E) Assessment centre plans Answer: B 110) As a new human resources manager, you must design a benefits package for the employees. However, you need to know that some benefits are voluntary and the law requires some. Benefits that companies often voluntarily offer employees include all of the following except A) life insurance. B) dental benefits. C) extended health coverage. D) workers' compensation coverage. E) disability insurance. Answer: D 111) Protection plans protect employees when their income is threatened or reduced by all of the following except A) unemployment. B) disability. C) death. D) holidays. E) illness. Answer: D 112) The most important type of optional protection plan is A) wellness programs. B) health insurance. C) workers' compensation. D) cafeteria-style benefit plans. E) paid vacations. Answer: B 113) Shawn has been hurt while working on his job. The cost for him to have the injury repaired and to recuperate is covered under A) major medical insurance. B) disability insurance. C) health insurance. D) workers' compensation. E) hospitalization insurance. Answer: D 114) Which of the following is correct with regard to the box entitled “The Importance of Perks”? A) Perks include things like unlimited sick days, on-site childcare services, free beverages, and concierge services B) Companies generally try to avoid giving employees discounts on products the company sells C) Being a “family-friendly company” was very popular in the 1990’s, but its popularity has waned D) A study by Hewitt Associates showed that, surprisingly, companies that are on lists like “The Top 100 Companies To Work For” don’t actually have any more job applicants than other companies that are not on the list E) All of these are correct Answer: A 115) Rosalyn belongs to a company with a wellness program. The program may include A) employment insurance. B) better health insurance. C) stress management programs. D) life insurance. E) workers' compensation. Answer: C 116) A plan under which a certain dollar amount of benefits per employee is set aside and employees select from a variety of alternatives is called A) variable benefits plan. B) optional benefits plan. C) alternative benefits plan. D) discretionary benefits plan. E) cafeteria benefits plan. Answer: E 117) Joan is finding that her current benefit package does not meet her needs as it appears to be a "one size fits all" approach. What would Joan likely recommend to her employer to improve her satisfaction with the benefit package? A) Impose a wage and salary freeze in order to expand the benefits offered B) Use a cafeteria benefit plan and let the employee select the benefits within a set monetary limit C) Lower commission rates for sales people in order to expand the benefits offered D) Pay employees an additional amount in order to purchase their own external benefits plan E) Offer only the benefits that are required by law Answer: B 118) As a new employee of Mega Computers, Sam has received a package outlining possible benefits that he may choose from. He has been given a specific amount of annual benefit dollars with which he can select the benefits which best fit his situation. This is a(n) A) discretionary benefits plan. B) cafeteria benefits plan. C) optional benefits plan. D) alternative benefits plan. E) variable benefits plan. Answer: B 119) Sammy is looking at his pay cheque. He received $900 for producing 75 units. This pay is called A) merit pay. B) a stock option. C) knowledge-based pay. D) piece-rate incentive plan. E) skill-based pay. Answer: D 120) The type of incentive program for major league baseball players that will pay them extra money for hitting over.300 or making the All-Star team is called A) gainsharing. B) variable pay. C) profit-sharing. D) stock options. E) a bonus. Answer: E 121) Tim is the president of a small machining company who wants to motivate his employees. He asks for your help and you indicate that ________ are designed to motivate employees. A) incentive pay plans B) wages C) Christmas bonuses D) free dental programs E) retirement plans Answer: A 122) Under _________, profits earned above a certain level are distributed to employees, while under __________, bonuses are distributed to employees when a company’s costs are reduced through greater work efficiency. A) protection plans; pay-for-knowledge plans B) profit-sharing; gainsharing C) gainsharing; profit-sharing D) a piece-rate incentive plan; a salary plan E) none of these Answer: B 123) An incentive plan for distributing bonuses to all employees for company profits above a specific level is A) gainsharing. B) skill-based pay. C) pay-for-knowledge. D) profit-sharing. E) a bonus. Answer: D 124) At Palliser Furniture, any profit resulting from production that exceeds a certain level is split 50-50 between the company and the employees. This is an example of A) gainsharing. B) skill-based pay. C) pay-for-knowledge. D) profit-sharing. E) a bonus. Answer: A 125) Besides financial compensation, an organization provides its employees with an array of other indirect compensation called A) workers’ compensation. B) training. C) benefits. D) 360 degree feedback. E) mentoring. Answer: C 126) Sheila has been hurt while working on her job. The costs for her to have the injury repaired and to recuperate are covered under A) Canada Pension Plan. B) employment insurance. C) disability insurance. D) workers' compensation. E) paid time off. Answer: D 127) Amanda belongs to a company with a “wellness” program. The program would likely include A) better health insurance. B) employment insurance. C) a stress management program. D) life insurance. E) workers' compensation. Answer: C 128) With regard to employment insurance premiums, which is correct? A) the employer must pay all the premiums. B) the employee must pay all the premiums. C) the employer pays more of the total premium than the employee. D) the employee pays more of the total premium than the employer. E) the government pays all the premiums. Answer: C 129) Which of the following is true with respect to mandated benefits? A) The Canada Pension Plan is in a deficit position, and it is doubtful that people retiring after 2030 will get their full entitlement from the plan B) Employment insurance premiums in 2010 for employees were $3.73 per hundred dollars of earnings C) The workers’ compensation premiums are related to each employer’s expected future experience with job-related accidents and illnesses D) Only employers pay premiums to an employment insurance fund E) All of these are true Answer: C 130) Non discrimination in employment on the basis of race, color, creed, sex, or national origin is A) reverse discrimination. B) equal employment opportunity. C) equal pay. D) comparable worth. E) affirmative action. Answer: B 131) The ________ prohibits a wide variety of practices in recruiting, selecting, promoting, and dismissing personnel. A) Canada Labour Standards Act B) National Labour Relations Act C) Canadian Human Rights Act D) Canadian Labour Relations Act E) Canadian Employment Equity Act Answer: C 132) When an employer may choose one applicant over another based on overriding characteristics of the job, this is called A) comparable worth. B) discrimination. C) harassment. D) bona fide occupational requirement. E) human rights. Answer: D 133) The ________ is federal legislation that designates four groups as employment disadvantaged: women, visible minorities, aboriginal people, and people with disabilities. A) Equal Pay Act of 1963 B) Canadian Human Rights Act C) Fair Labour Standards Act D) Employment Equity Act of 1986 E) Canadian Employment Rights Act Answer: D 134) If a fitness centre hires only women to supervise the women’s locker room, it can do so without being discriminatory because of A) anti-discrimination laws. B) The Canadian Human Rights Act of 1977. C) the bona fide occupational requirement concept. D) comparable worth. E) affirmative action. Answer: C 135) What is the objective of the Canadian Human Rights Act? A) To ensure that everyone who wants a job can have one B) To protect immigrants from being mistreated while on the job C) To ensure that everyone who wants a job has an equal opportunity to compete for it D) To prevent employers from discriminating among job applicants on the basis of past experience E) All of these are objectives Answer: C 136) What is the difference between the Employment Equity Act of 1986 and the Canadian Human Rights Act of 1977? A) The former applies only to government employees, while the latter applies only to private-sector employees B) The former prohibits employment discrimination against four designated groups (women, visible minorities, Aboriginal people, and people with disabilities) , while the latter prohibits a variety of practices in recruiting, selecting, and dismissing personnel C) The former supersedes the latter D) The former doesn’t try to achieve employment equity, while the latter does E) All of these statements are correct Answer: B 137) The program for the same wages to be paid for jobs that have similar value to a firm regardless of the typical gender of the job holder is A) equal employment opportunity. B) reverse discrimination. C) equal pay. D) affirmative action. E) comparable worth. Answer: E 138) Comparing dissimilar jobs, such as those of nurses and mechanics would be most likely necessary if a manager is pursuing the idea of A) bona fide occupational requirement. B) affirmative action. C) comparable worth. D) reverse discrimination. E) equal pay. Answer: C 139) Ann keeps hearing the term "comparable worth." She is confused about it, so you explain that it means A) that an employer cannot discriminate against workers who are older than 40 years of age. B) that handicapped employees should be paid the same as their non-handicapped peers when they perform comparable work. C) men and women should receive equal wages. D) wages should be the same for men and women who hold jobs which are of comparable value to the firm. E) men and women should be paid the same wages when their work requires equal skill, effort, and responsibility and is performed under the same conditions. Answer: D 140) What is the main argument that opponents of comparable worth make? A) Women are not as strong as men B) The average woman spends a lower proportion of her potential years of work actually working C) Comparable worth ignores the supply and demand aspects of labour D) Comparable worth costs too much money E) Women live longer than men Answer: C 141) Mimi, a senior secretary, has a value to the company that is about the same as Tom, who is a mechanic. She has found out that Tom is paid about the same as she is. The firm's successful program is A) equal pay. B) male subjugation. C) comparable worth. D) affirmative action. E) reverse discrimination. Answer: C 142) Requests for sexual favors, unwelcome sexual advances or verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature that creates an intimidating or hostile environment for an employee is called A) discrimination. B) an anti progressive organization. C) a hostile work environment. D) repetitive strain. E) sexual harassment. Answer: E 143) In cases of ________ harassment, sexual favors are requested in return for job-related benefits. A) hostile work environment B) affirmative action C) quid pro quo D) employment-at-will E) reverse Answer: C 144) Jane, a supervisor, has offered George, a subordinate, a raise and promotion in exchange for a sexual relationship. This is an example of ________ harassment. A) employment-at-will B) quid pro quo C) reverse discrimination D) affirmative action E) hostile work environment Answer: B 145) A company is liable in cases of sexual harassment A) always, even if the harassment was done only once. B) under no circumstances, as it is the actions of two private individuals. C) only when the person doing the harassment holds a management position and the person being harassed is a lower-level employee. D) if management knew about the harassment but decided to do nothing about it E) only if the management intentionally harassed an employee. Answer: D 146) Mary's male coworkers routinely make off-color jokes and display calendars of scantily clad women. This is an example of ________ harassment. A) reverse discrimination B) hostile work environment C) affirmative action D) “boys-will-be-boys” E) quid pro quo Answer: B 147) ________ is responsible for carrying out enforcement of the Canadian Human Rights Act. A) The Workers Compensation Board B) Canadian Human Rights Commission C) The local police force D) The Provincial Court E) The Court of Queen's Bench Answer: B 148) Safety supervisors and workers' compensation boards have to deal with claims of repetitive strain injuries. It is important to know that repetitive strain injuries A) account for a clear majority of all time-loss claims. B) are injuries that are not work-related. C) account for nearly half of all time-loss claims. D) account for one-quarter of all time-loss claims. E) are very rare. Answer: C 149) Repetitive strain injuries disable more than ________ Canadians each year. A) 200 000 B) 550 000 C) 1 million D) 20 000 E) 50 000 Answer: A 150) You are a pension consultant. In designing pension plans for companies you need to know the trend for retirement. The trend for retirement is A) the average age has remained about the same. B) the average age is lower than it used to be. C) there is no trend. D) the median age has been cyclical, being lower in good economic times and higher in poor economic times. E) the median age is higher than it used to be. Answer: B 151) The range of workers' attitudes, values, beliefs, and behaviors that differ by gender, race, and ethnicity is called A) glass ceiling. B) affirmative action. C) comparable worth. D) reverse discrimination. E) workforce diversity. Answer: E 152) A successful work force diversity program would include all of the following except A) analyze compensation scales. B) hiring the best people from every group. C) make diversity a specific management goal. D) encourage different types of thinking. E) focus on race and gender issues. Answer: E 153) Programs that are designed to improve employee awareness of differences in attitudes and behaviors of co-workers from different racial, ethnic, or gender groups are called A) diversity training. B) affirmative action. C) comparable worth. D) equal employment opportunity. E) sensitivity training. Answer: A 154) Workers who are experts in specific fields and who add value because of what they know, rather than how long they have worked or the job they do are known as A) knowledge workers. B) information workers. C) expert workers. D) value workers. E) specialized workers. Answer: A 155) Knowledge workers include A) HR managers. B) athletes. C) musicians. D) hairdressers. E) engineers. Answer: E 156) ________ are employees who are of value because of the knowledge they possess. A) Technical experts B) Shop stewards C) Temporary workers D) Knowledge workers E) Contingent workers Answer: D 157) Which of the following is correct with regard to workforce diversity? A) The proportion of Aboriginals in the workforce has risen rapidly during the last decade, but will soon level off B) About half of the people who immigrated to Canada during the 1990’s were visible minorities C) By 2017, visible minorities will comprise more than 50 percent of the populations of Toronto and Vancouver D) Immigration officials are now starting to restrict the entrance of visible minorities into Canada E) All of these are correct Answer: C 158) Computer scientists, engineers, and physical scientists are all be examples of ________. A) contingent workers B) temporary workers C) shop stewards D) knowledge workers E) technical experts Answer: D 159) An employee who is hired on something other than a permanent or full-time basis is a A) technical employee. B) knowledge worker. C) contingent worker. D) knowledge expert. E) shop steward. Answer: C 160) Independent contractors, on-call workers, temporary employees, contract employees, and leased employees are all examples of A) contingent workers. B) flextime workers. C) migratory workers. D) telecommuters. E) union trustbusters. Answer: A 161) Temporary workers hired to supplement an organization's permanent work force are A) fill-in workers. B) gap fillers. C) hired guns. D) contingent workers. E) disposable workers. Answer: D 162) Categories of contingent workers include all of the following except A) knowledge workers. B) freelancers. C) on-call workers. D) part-time workers. E) contract employees. Answer: A 163) The DuPont Corporation offers a course for managers which teaches them to acknowledge the individuality of each person they employ. This is an example of A) employment equity. B) affirmative action. C) workforce diversity. D) bona fide occupational requirement. E) sensitivity training. Answer: C 164) Which of the following is correct with regard to knowledge workers? A) They add value to an organization because of their connections to technical workers in other firms B) They tend to work for traditional manufacturing firms C) The need for knowledge workers is gradually declining as the general education level of the workforce increases D) Training updates are important for knowledge workers so that their skills do not become obsolete E) All of these Answer: D 165) Cindy works on a temporary basis in order to supplement the organization's permanent workforce. Cindy is considered to be a A) knowledge worker. B) supervisor. C) technician. D) manager. E) contingent worker. Answer: E 166) A ________ is a group of individuals working together to achieve shared job-related goals. A) credit union B) department C) labour lobby D) labour union E) right-to-work union Answer: D 167) Individuals in a labour union work together to achieve all of the following except A) better prices. B) better working conditions. C) shorter working hours. D) higher pay. E) greater benefits. Answer: A 168) During which of the following business eras was the labour movement born? A) Industrial Revolution B) Marketing Era C) Entrepreneurial Era D) Production Era E) Global Era Answer: A 169) The process by which union leaders and management personnel negotiate common terms and conditions of employment is known as A) mediation. B) collective bargaining. C) labour unions. D) arbitration. E) certification. Answer: B 170) What is the source of power for labour unions? A) A shortage of workers B) Collective bargaining C) Parliament D) Public opinion E) All of these Answer: B 171) Collective bargaining is the process through which ________ and ________ negotiate an agreement concerning working conditions. A) an employee; an employer B) union leaders; the company’s employees C) managers; their subordinates D) union leaders; management E) an employee; management Answer: D 172) During the last 40 years A) union membership as a proportion of the total workforce has stagnated. B) there has been a decrease of unionized workers in the public sector. C) the union movement has been more successful in the United States than in Canada. D) union density has increased to 50 percent of the non-farm workforce. E) all of these are correct. Answer: A 173) Which two provinces have the highest rates of unionization? A) Alberta and Quebec B) Ontario and Alberta C) Newfoundland and Quebec D) Quebec and Ontario E) British Columbia and Ontario Answer: C 174) Which occupations have over 80 percent unionized workers? A) Teaching and food and beverage workers B) Teaching and nursing C) Lawyers and food and beverage workers D) Nursing and doctors E) Management and teaching Answer: B 175) Approximately what proportion of the non-farm work force in Canada is unionized? A) Less than one-fifth B) Less than one-third C) About 40 percent D) About one-half E) More than two-thirds Answer: B 176) Which of the following is one of the factors which helps to explain the lack of growth in union membership? A) Lack of recruiting new union members B) The workforce is increasingly employed in the high-tech sector C) Higher profitability of businesses D) Lower unemployment rates E) Effective anti-union strategies of employers Answer: E 177) In recent years, the trend for unions is to bargain for A) better working hours. B) fringe benefits such as discounts. C) improved pension programs for employees. D) substantial increases in wages and salaries. E) more relocation of jobs. Answer: C 178) All of the following are challenges facing unions, except A) technological change. B) employment growth in manufacturing industries. C) the decline of the so-called "smokestack industries." D) deregulation. E) free trade and the globalization of business. Answer: B 179) With regard to unionism today, which of the following is correct? A) Union membership as a proportion of the total workforce has been steadily increasing during the last two decades B) The highest rate of unionism in Canada is found in Newfoundland and Quebec C) The private sector is heavily unionized, but the public sector is not D) The union movement in Canada is less successful than it is in the U.S. E) All of these are correct Answer: B 180) Which of the following is correct with regard to unionism today? A) The lowest rate of unionism in Candada is found in Saskatchewan B) In the private sector, women and minorities are more likely to join unions than white males C) In recent years, unions have had less success in winning certification votes than they formerly did D) Union membership as a proportion of the total workforce has been slowly increasing E) All of these are correct Answer: C 181) Originally courts ruled against unions on the basis that A) a union could be made only between a husband and a wife. B) they would increase prices of goods. C) they were collecting dues without a licence. D) they were conspiring to restrain trade. E) they were not incorporated. Answer: D 182) The ________ recognized the right of employees to bargain collectively. A) Industrial Disputes Investigation Act B) Canadian Labour Congress C) Privy Council Order 1003 D) Constitution Act (1867) E) Canada Labour Code Answer: C 183) The ________ gave unions the right to bargain collectively in Canada. A) Constitution Act B) Canadian Labour Congress C) Industrial Disputes Investigation Act D) Privy Council Order 1003 E) Canadian Labour Code Answer: D 184) The ________ provided for compulsory investigation of labour disputes by a government appointed board before a strike was allowed. A) Constitution Act of 1867 B) Industrial Disputes Investigation Act C) Canada Labour Code D) Privy Council Order 1003 E) Ontario Labour Relations Act Answer: B 185) The Constitution Act A) prohibits unfair labour practices on the part of management. B) recognized the right of employees to bargain collectively. C) provides for compulsory investigation. D) is a comprehensive piece of legislation that applies to the labour practices of firms operating under the legislative authority of parliament. E) divides authority concerning labour regulations between the provinces and the federal government. Answer: E 186) The Canada Labour Code A) is a comprehensive piece of legislation that applies to the labour practices of firms operating under the legislative authority of parliament. B) divides authority over labour regulations between the federal and provincial governments. C) is made up of five sections. D) outlines 60 hours as the maximum hours of work per week. E) the section on collective bargaining is subdivided into eight sections. Answer: A 187) The ________ deals with issues like fair employment practices, standard hours of work and employee safety. A) Industrial Disputes Investigation Act B) Canadian Arbitration Law C) Canada Labour Code D) Constitution Act E) Privy Council Order 1003 Answer: C 188) All of the following legislation deals directly with labour-management relations except A) the Canada Labour Code. B) the Industrial Disputes Investigation Act. C) the Ontario Labour Relations Act. D) the Canadian Human Rights Act. E) Privy Council Order 1003. Answer: D 189) ________ was the first step in creating an environment more favourable to labour, while __________ recognized the right of employees to bargain collectively. A) The Conciliation Act; Privy Council Order 1003 B) The Constitution Act; Privy Council Order 1003 C) Privy Council Order 1003; The Canada Labour Code D) Privy Council Order 1003; The Constitution Act E) The Industrial Disputes Investigation Act; Privy Council Order 1003 Answer: A 190) All of the following are main sections of the Canada Labour Code except A) fair employment practices. B) safety of employees. C) standard hours, wages, vacations, and holidays. D) guidelines for managers when applying the Code. E) Canada industrial relations regulations. Answer: D 191) The issues that are typically most important to union negotiators include A) certification, benefits and security. B) compensation, benefits and job security. C) permissives, compensation and benefits. D) safety, seniority and wages. E) employee safety, benefits and wages. Answer: B 192) What term is used to describe the on-going process involving both the drafting and the administering of the terms of a labour contract? A) Certification B) Bargaining unit C) Collective bargaining D) Mediation E) Decertification Answer: C 193) When does collective bargaining occur? A) When all employees (not just the bargaining committee) get involved in bargaining B) When management requests a meeting with a union official to discuss a grievance C) When union and management representatives meet to negotiate a new contract D) When a mediator is asked to help resolve a deadlock in negotiations E) When the employee presents a grievance Answer: C 194) Which of the following statements about collective bargaining is false? A) A contract is usually arrived at through the process of arbitration B) It begins with the recognition of the union as the exclusive negotiator for its members C) It is the process of negotiating labour agreements D) It involves union representatives and employer representatives E) It involves the ongoing process of administering existing agreements Answer: A 195) Management and union must bargain and negotiate A) in good faith. B) in the presence of a mediator. C) at a round table. D) annually. E) in the presence of an arbitrator. Answer: A 196) What is COLA? A) A promise by management that wages will increase semi-annually B) The consumer price index C) A method used to measure wages vs. GDP D) An agreement to provide soft drinks for workers on their coffee breaks E) A contract clause relating wage increases to inflation Answer: E 197) In labour negotiations with management, the Amalgamated Ditch Diggers proposed wage increases be tied to the consumer price index. This is called a(n) ________ clause. A) adjustable wage index B) cost-of-living adjustment C) variable wage D) recognition item E) CPI-wage adjustment Answer: B 198) Which term identifies a union tactic that is used when their demands are not met and employees walk off the job and refuse to work? A) A collective pout B) A lockout C) A boycott D) A stick out E) A strike Answer: E 199) Strikes that are usually triggered by impasses over mandatory bargaining items are called ________ strikes. A) sympathy B) stalemate C) secondary D) economic E) wildcat Answer: D 200) A work slowdown A) involves having workers march at the entrance to the company with signs explaining their reasons for the slowdown. B) is a union tactic that is used instead of a strike. C) occurs when union members agree not to buy the product of the firm that employs them. D) is a management tactic. E) is when management slows their response time as a means to punish employees. Answer: B 201) Which of the following is a management tactic used to break a bargaining impasse? A) Work slowdown B) Lockout C) Wildcat strike D) Boycott E) Picketing Answer: B 202) Which term identifies a tactic of labour unions in which members march at the entrance to the company with signs explaining their reasons for striking? A) Picketing B) Lockout C) Collective action D) Work slowdown E) Wildcat strike Answer: A 203) What is the purpose in union picketing? A) To disrupt commerce in general B) To prevent customers from entering a store C) To seek public sympathy by explaining why they are picketing D) To urge other consumers to shun their firm's product E) To prevent products from leaving the store or manufacturing plant Answer: C 2044) The use of strike breakers is not allowed A) in B.C. B) in Manitoba. C) in Saskatchewan. D) in Ontario. E) anywhere in Canada. Answer: A 205) Six automotive companies have been getting together to plan a strategies and to exchange information about how to manage relations with unions. This group is known as A) an industrial leaders group. B) an employers' association. C) a management council. D) a trading block. E) an anti union trade association. Answer: B 206) Which of the following is not a union weapon used to attain its goals? A) A boycott B) A work slowdown C) A lockout D) Picketing E) A strike Answer: C 207) When a union that is striking asks the employer's customers to stop buying the employer's products, the union is requesting a(n) A) lockout. B) reverse picket. C) picket. D) injunction. E) boycott. Answer: E 208) All of the following are weapons that labour can use to pressure management throughout contract negotiations except a A) slowdown. B) picket. C) boycott. D) strike. E) lockout. Answer: E 209) A(n) ________ occurs when, after a series of bargaining sessions both management and labour fail to agree on a new contract or on a contract to replace an existing one about to expire. A) re-opener B) tactic C) impasse D) grievance E) closed shop Answer: C 210) Suppose that your union is unable to reach an agreement with the plant management. You get a call from your union steward telling you to be at the plant entrance at 8 a.m. with a large sign reading "Unfair to Workers." This activity is called A) a wildcat strike. B) boycotting. C) picketing. D) striking. E) corporate campaigning. Answer: C 211) If union organizers urge consumers not to buy a certain brand of textiles in order to put economic pressure on management to negotiate a collective bargaining agreement with textile workers, this is called a A) boycott. B) lockout. C) picket. D) wildcat strike. E) strike. Answer: A 212) Which of the following is a tactic that can be used by management to break a bargaining impasse? A) Boycott B) Work slowdown C) Lockout D) Picketing E) Strike Answer: C 213) What approach is used to settle disputes between the government and public employees like firefighters and police officers? A) Strike breakers B) Strikes C) Compulsory arbitration D) Collective bargaining E) Mediation Answer: C 214) In arbitration A) the arbitrator's decision is legally binding on both parties. B) the arbitrator's decision is not enforceable. C) the arbitrator is selected by an employers' association. D) the arbitrator suggests a solution, but cannot enforce one. E) the arbitrator's sole duty is to prevent the bogging down of negotiations. Answer: A 215) If union-management negotiations are not successful, a person might be called in to impose a binding settlement on the disputing parties. This person is called a(n) A) conciliator. B) mediator. C) arbitrator. D) union steward. E) shop steward. Answer: C 216) A(n) ________ is a labour action in which employees temporarily walk off the job and refuse to work. A) lockout B) boycott C) strike D) arbitration E) mediation Answer: C 217) When union members ________, workers march at the entrance to the employer's facility with signs explaining their reasons for striking. A) slowdown B) boycott C) arbitrate D) mediate E) picket Answer: E 218) Members of the International Brotherhood of Basket weavers union have gone on strike and plan to ________, marching outside the entrance to Acme Baskets with signs. A) picket B) slowdown C) arbitrate D) mediate E) boycott Answer: A 219) The International Brotherhood of Basket weavers plans to use a(n) ________ to discourage consumers from purchasing Acme Baskets’ products. A) mediator B) boycott C) picket D) slowdown E) arbitrator Answer: B 220) Rather than going on strike, workers at Acme Baskets have chosen to stage a ________, performing their jobs as slowly as possible. A) strike B) lockout C) walkout D) slowdown E) boycott Answer: D 221) After negotiations failed, Acme Baskets, Inc. may chose to use a(n) ________ to prevent union employees from coming to work. A) economic strike B) strike breaker C) stop work order D) boycott E) lockout Answer: E 222) In a(n) ________, employers deny employees access to the workplace. A) boycott B) wildcat strike C) economic strike D) strike breaker E) lockout Answer: E 223) ________ are temporary or permanent replacements for striking workers. A) Contingent workers B) Union breakers C) Shop stewards D) Strike breakers E) Union busters Answer: D 224) After the International Brotherhood of Basket weavers went on strike, Acme Baskets could consider hiring A) union stooges. B) strike breakers. C) contingent workers. D) shop stewards. E) union busters. Answer: B 225) In a(n) ________, a third party suggests, but does not impose, a settlement to a labour dispute. A) strike B) lockout C) boycott D) mediation E) arbitration Answer: D 226) After contract negotiations stalled, the International Brotherhood of Basket weavers and Acme Baskets may agree to bring in a ________ to suggest a settlement. A) lockout B) strike C) mediator D) arbitrator E) boycott Answer: C 227) In which of the following dispute resolution alternatives does the neutral third party dictate a settlement between the two sides, which have agreed to submit to outside judgment? A) Arbitration B) Strike C) Lockout D) Boycott E) Mediation Answer: A 228) In a(n) ________, both parties are legally required to accept the judgment of a neutral third party. A) collective bargaining B) adjudication C) voluntary arbitration D) compulsory arbitration E) mediation Answer: D 229) Which of the following statements about mediation is correct? A) The mediator's decision is legally binding B) The mediator has the task of preventing outsiders from making the conflict worse C) The mediator is appointed by management D) The mediator is a neutral third party whose task is to suggest a compromise that will get the negotiations moving ahead E) All of these Answer: D TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 230) Human resources management involves the attraction, development and maintenance of an effective workforce. Answer: True 231) Another name for human resource managers is personnel managers. Answer: True 232) Job analysis is a detailed study of a job to determine the specific duties and the human qualities required to perform that job. Answer: True 233) A job description outlines the key tasks, objectives, and responsibilities of a job. Answer: True 234) A job description describes the skills, education, and experience required by a job. Answer: False 235) Planning for human resources involves an analysis of the job and recruitment of a pool of job applicants. Answer: False 236) Forecasting identifies the skills, education, and experience needed to fill a particular position. Answer: False 237) A key purpose of forecasting is to identify the supply and the demand of workers for higher wages and better working conditions. Answer: False 238) Forecasting internal supply refers to forecasting the number and type of employees who will be in the firm at some future date. Answer: True 239) At higher levels of the organization, managers plan for specific people and positions. The technique most commonly used is the replacement chart. Answer: True 240) After comparing future demand and internal supply, managers can make plans to manage predicted shortfalls or overstaffing. If a shortfall is predicted, extra employees can be transferred and early retirement may be encouraged. Answer: False 241) Forecasting identifies the skills, education, and experience needed to fill a particular position. Answer: False 242) Forecasting demand may result in plans to hire additional employees or plans to reduce the size of the workforce. Answer: True 243) The purpose of recruitment is to select the very best applicant available for the position. Answer: False 244) The purpose of recruiting is to hire as many people as possible from within the firm. Answer: False 245) Both external and internal staffing start with effective recruiting. Answer: True 246) Promotion from within can help build morale and keep high-quality employees from leaving. Answer: True 247) External recruiting methods include advertising, union hiring halls, referrals by present employees and campus interviews. Answer: True 248) The questionnaire which asks for information such as the background, experience and education of each applicant is known as the job application form. Answer: True 249) The two basic processes of external staffing are recruitment and selection. Answer: True 250) Experience has shown that promoting staff from within is generally the best approach. Answer: False 251) The process of determining the predictive value of information is called employee triangulating. Answer: False 252) The process of determining the predictive value of information is called validation. Answer: True 253) An assessment centre is a place where potential employees are interviewed for jobs. Answer: False 254) The training given to new employees, called vestibule training, focuses on simple things, such as work hours, parking, and pay schedules. Answer: False 255) The first step for a new employee is to enter a training program. Answer: False 256) A needs analysis focuses on two things: the organization's job-related needs and the capabilities of the current workforce. Answer: True 257) Vestibule training is an instructional-based program in which a trainer presents material in a descriptive fashion to those attending a trainee program. Answer: False 258) Instructional-based programs include on-the-job training, vestibule training and systematic job rotations and transfers. Answer: False 259) By using video conferencing, training of new employees involves considerably more interaction between trainer and trainee. Answer: True 260) The first step for a new employee is to enter an on-the-job training program. Answer: False 261) When airline pilots use the Airbus 380 simulator, this is an example of vestibule training. Answer: True 262) Management development programs focus on learning technical skills. Answer: False 263) A work simulation in which the job is performed under conditions closely simulating the actual work environment is known as vestibule training. Answer: True 264) A performance appraisal is primarily used to judge the effectiveness of training, such as an accident prevention program. Answer: False 265) A supervisor needing to evaluate the performance of an employee must contact the personnel department, who will then conduct the evaluation. Answer: False 266) A performance appraisal is used to evaluate how well an individual employee is doing in his or her job. Answer: True 267) The simple ranking method requires a manager to rank-order from top to bottom or from best to worst each member of a particular workgroup or department. Answer: True 268) A performance appraisal provides a benchmark to assess the extent to which recruiting and selection processes are adequate. Answer: True 269) The simple ranking method involves grouping employees into predefined frequencies of performance ratings. Answer: False 270) A critical incident is simply an example of especially good or poor performance on the part of the employee. Answer: True 271) The purpose of a pay survey is to ensure the organization provides the highest level of pay in the industry. Answer: False 272) Wages and salary are interchangeable terms that refer to an employee's pay. Answer: False 273) Employers must consider competitors' compensation plans and the pay levels for different jobs in their own firm when setting wage and salary levels. Answer: True 274) John has been at Mountain Co. for over 20 years and has seniority over Peter. This means that he will have priority in promotions over Peter. Answer: True 275) Company-wide incentive plans include pay-for-performance, profit-sharing, gainsharing, and pay-for-knowledge. Answer: False 276) A profit-sharing plan means that employees receive a bonus when they reduce costs. Answer: False 277) Special pay programs designed to motivate high performance are known as cafeteria plans. Answer: False 278) Compensation includes not only wages or salaries but incentives and benefits programs. Answer: True 279) The purpose of a compensation system is to provide for severance pay for an employee who is terminated. Answer: False 280) Merit pay is the incentive program that awards pay according to the relative value of employee contributions. Answer: True 281) When Palliser Furniture introduced a plan to reward employees for increasing production, this was an example of a gainsharing plan. Answer: True 282) Gainsharing and profit sharing are identical incentive programs. Answer: False 283) A protection plan protects employees when their income is threatened or reduced by illness, disability, death, unemployment, or retirement. Answer: True 284) The federal government requires that employers provide incentive programs such as retirement benefits. Answer: False 285) Health insurance, life insurance, and disability insurance may be provided for employees through a firm's benefits program. Answer: True 286) Individual incentive plans reward individual performance on a real-time basis, that is, they give soe financial reward for outstanding performance immediately or soon after it happens. Answer: True 287) A cafeteria benefits plan provides a free lunch for all employees who are covered by the program. Answer: False 288) Bona fide occupational requirement means that an employer can choose one worker over another based on overriding characteristics of the job. Answer: True 289) Comparable worth requires that employers use the same pay scale for employees regardless of their race, colour, religion, national origin, or sex. Answer: False 290) The "glass ceiling" refers to the invisible barrier that prevents minorities from moving into the very top jobs in business firms. Answer: False 291) In quid pro quo harassment, comments or actions of coworkers create a hostile work environment. Answer: False 292) It is the responsibility of the manager and the organization to control sexual harassment. Answer: True 293) The Canadian Human Rights Act takes precedence over any policies that a company might have developed on its own to deal with sexual harassment problems. Answer: True 294) The Canadian Human Rights Act guarantees a job to any qualified person who wants one. Answer: False 295) Comparable worth programs relate mostly to paying similar wages or salaries to individuals who hold that jobs that are of equal value to the employer. Answer: True 296) Compared to men, the average woman spends a lower proportion of her potential years of work actually working. Answer: True 297) The average single woman earns 99 percent of what the average man earns. Answer: True 298) Quid pro quo harassments is the most blatant form of sexual harassment, while the creation of a hostile work environment is more subtle. Answer: True 299) In spite of the abolishment of a mandatory age for retirement in most provinces, workers in Canada are actually retiring earlier than they used to. Answer: True 300) Work force diversity refers to the range of workers' attitudes, values, beliefs, and behaviours that differ by gender, race, ethnicity, age, and physical abilities. Answer: True 301) In recent year, the number of contingent workers has increased dramatically. Answer: True 302) Categories of contingent workers include independent contractors, but not on-call workers. Answer: False 303) The power of unions comes from collective (group) action. Answer: True 304) Labour unions developed in response to management's unfair and uncaring treatment of employees. Answer: True 305) Labour unions were formed by company management as a defense mechanism to protect the firm against the rising power of the industrialists of the late 19th century. Answer: False 306) The earliest evidence of labour unions in Canada comes from Ontario Answer: False 307) Currently, less than 20 percent of the total Canadian workforce is unionized. Answer: False 308) Traditionally, union members have been predominately women. Answer: False 309) The proportion of the total workforce that is unionized has stagnated in the past few decades. Answer: True 310) One of the factors which helps to explain the stagnation in union membership is the more aggressive anti-unionization activity on the part of employers. Answer: True 311) Many Japanese manufacturers who have set up shop in North America have avoided unionization efforts by the United Auto Workers by providing job security and a work environment where employees are allowed to participate in plant management. Answer: True 312) One of the challenges facing unions is employment growth in service industries, where union power has traditionally not been strong. Answer: True 313) As a result of the recession of 2008-2009, unions are now taking a much more aggressive stance in their relations with management. Answer: False 314) In the past, unions focused on maintaining job security for their members, but in recent years they have increasingly focused on achieving increased wages and benefits. Answer: False 315) Some experts think a new wave of unionism may be on its way fuelled by young people. Answer: True 316) During the past 40 years, union density has ranged from 40-50 percent. Answer: False 317) Women now make up about 50 percent of union membership. Answer: True 318) The Constitution Act divided authority over labour regulations between the federal and provincial governments. Answer: True 319) Labour gained the right to collectively bargain with the passage of the Industrial Disputes Investigation Act. Answer: False 320) The Canada Labour Code prohibits paying employees on a piece-rate system. Answer: False 321) As part of the Canada Labour Code, the Minister of Labour must appoint a conciliation officer if the parties in the dispute cannot reach a collective agreement. Answer: True 322) If it can be shown that an employee did not exercise proper care to ensure his or her own safety on the job, compensation need not be paid if an injury occurs. Answer: False 323) Managers are covered by the provisions of the Canada Labour Code. Answer: False 324) The Canada Labour Code guarantees employees who wish to do so the right to bargain collectively with their employer. Answer: False 325) The most common contract issue is compensation. Answer: True 326) The cost of living allowance clause in a contract is sought by management to hold down labour costs. Answer: False 327) The collective bargaining process begins with the recognition of the union as the sole bargaining agent for its members. Answer: True 328) Both parties must bargain over items like wages, working hours, and benefits even if one party doesn’t want to. Answer: True 329) A strike occurs when union members walk off the job and refuse to work in order to win concessions from management. Answer: True 330) Wildcat strikes deprive workers of their status as employees and thus of the protection of labour laws. Answer: True 331) Management uses strikes, boycotts, and picketing to offset union weapons employed during contract negotiations. Answer: False 332) Unions are more reluctant to use the strike weapon than they used to be. Answer: True 333) The lockout is illegal if it is used as an offensive weapon to give the firm an economic advantage in the bargaining process. Answer: True 334) In 2008, the Potash Corporation of Saskatchewan and the United Steelworkers union asked for a mediator to help them settle their dispute. Answer: True 335) A mediator may be legally required to help management and union representatives resolve an impasse in contract negotiations. Answer: False 336) The process by which labour and management negotiate conditions of employment for workers represented by the union is called mediation. Answer: False 337) Most strikes in Canada are economic strikes. Answer: True SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 338) What are the key activities of human resource management? Answer: • attracting, developing and maintaining an effective workforce 339) What are the two documents that result from job analysis? Answer: Job description and job specification. 340) What type of information is included in a skills inventory? Answer: A skills inventory contains information on each employees' education, skills, work experience, and career aspirations. 341) What is recruitment? Answer: Recruitment is the process of attracting qualified persons to apply for jobs an organization is seeking to fill. 342) List four external recruitment methods. Answer: Answers will vary. Advertising, campus interviews, employment agencies, executive search firms, union hiring halls, referrals by present employees, and hiring walk-ins. Four external recruitment methods include: 1. Job boards and online job portals 2. Recruitment agencies and head hunters 3. Career fairs and networking events 4. Social media platforms like LinkedIn 343) What is validation? Answer: Validation is the process of determining the predictive value of a selection technique. 344) What is vestibule training? Answer: Vestibule training is off-the-job training conducted in a simulated environment. 345) What is the purpose of a performance appraisal? Answer: Employers conduct performance appraisal to determine the degree at which an employee is performing his/her job. 346) What is a piece rate incentive plan? Answer: A compensation program where an employee receives a certain amount of money for each unit produced. 347) List three forms of performance-based compensation. Answer: Merit pay plans, Incentive compensation systems, team and group incentive systems. 348) Describe three team and group incentive plans. Answer: Profit-sharing plans, performance increases and gain sharing. 349) What are the two types of sexual harassment? Answer: Quid pro quo harassment and hostile work environment. 350) What are knowledge workers? Answer: Knowledge workers are employees who are valuable because of the knowledge they possess. 351) What are the various categories of contingent workers? Answer: independent contractors, on-call workers, temporary workers, and contract workers. 352) What is a labour union? Why is it formed and what purpose does it serve? Answer: • labour union—a group of individuals who work together to achieve shared job-related goals such as higher pay, shorter working hours, and better working conditions • unions force management to listen to complaints of all workers 353) How has union membership (as a percentage of the total workforce) changed over the past 40 years? Answer: It has stayed in a fairly narrow range from 23-30 percent. 354) List the two factors which help to explain the decline in union membership. Answer: • composition of the workforce • there is more aggressive anti-unionization activity on the part of employers 355) Describe the major laws governing union-management relations. Answer: The Conciliation Act (which is designed to help settle labour disputes through voluntary conciliation) , the Industrial Disputes Investigation Act (allowed for compulsory investigation of labour disputes by a government-appointed board) , jand Privy Council Order 1003 (which gave unions the right to collectively bargain). Each province also has labour relations laws. 356) What three issues are typically most important to union negotiators? Answer: Compensation, benefits, and job security. 357) List the four options available to unions if contract negotiations break down. Answer: Strike, picketing, boycott, and slowdown. 358) List two options available to management if contract negotiations break down. Answer: Lockouts and strike breakers (plant closures, contracting out, forming an employer's association and decertification). 359) List the actions management has to offset the union's power. Answer: lockouts, strike breakers, close down the plant, contracting out, employer associations, decertification 360) What third party options can be used to overcome disputes between labour and management? Answer: Mediation and arbitration. 361) What is the difference between mediation and arbitration? Answer: Mediation uses a mediator to suggest, but not impose a settlement on the other parties of a union negotiation impasse, while an arbitrator (through arbitration) dictates a settlement between the two sides, which have agreed to submit to outside judgment. 362) List the actions a union has available when their demands are not met. Answer: strike, picketing, boycotts, and work slowdown ESSAY QUESTIONS. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 363) What is the difference between job analysis, job description, and job specification? Answer: • job analysis is first and evaluates the duties of a job and the qualities to perform it • job description is derived from job analysis and summarizes objectives, tasks, and responsibilities • job specification covers the skills, education, and experience needed to do the job 364) Why would a business firm wish to select employees for promotion from within the organization? Describe how an internal staffing system works. Answer: • knowledgeable about current employees (skills, attitudes, work habits, etc.) • promotion from within can help build morale and keep high-quality employees from leaving • in unionized firms, the procedures for notifying employees of internal job-change opportunities are usually spelled out in the union contract • for higher-level positions, a skills inventory system may be used to identify internal candidates or managers may be asked to recommend individuals who should be considered 365) What does the organization hope to accomplish in a recruiting effort? Identify ways that this recruiting may be accomplished. Answer: • to generate a large number of potential employees • develop a pool of interested, qualified applicants for a position • ways: • current employees • visit high schools, universities, vocational schools, and colleges • labour unions' membership rolls • advertise in newspapers, trade publications • help of public and private employment agencies • word of mouth • personal recommendations • unsolicited letters and resumes from job seekers 366) What are the typical stages of selecting from external candidates? Answer: • application or resumes • screening interview • ability/aptitude test • reference checks • interview with manager • medical, drug, and polygraphs 367) What types of activities take place in the selection stage? Identify the variety of selection techniques that are used. Answer: • sort through pool of candidates to choose the best one for a job • techniques: • applications • ability and aptitude tests • resumes • reference checks • screening interviews • on site interview • medical, drug and polygraph tests 368) Describe the human resources development process. Answer: • begins with orientation, then proceeds to the assessment of training and development needs including the performance of a needs analysis and selecting the best training techniques and methods. 369) What are work-based programs? What are the three common methods of work-based training? Answer: • Work based programs—a technique that ties training and development activities directly to task performance • Three common methods: • on-the-job training—those development programs in which employees gain new skills while performing them at work • vestibule training—a work simulation in which the job is performed under conditions closely simulating the actual work environment • systematic job rotations and transfers—a technique in which an employee is systematically rotated or transferred from one job to another 370) What is the difference between instructional-based programs and work-based programs? Answer: work-based: ties training activities directly to task performance instructional-based: training through the use of classroom-based programs 371) What are instructional-based programs? What are the two common methods of instructional-based training? Answer: • Instructional-based programs—training workers through the use of classroom-based programs such as the lecture approach • Two common methods: • lecture or discussion approach—an instructional-based program in which a trainer presents material in a descriptive fashion to those attending a trainee program • off-the-job training—those development programs in which employees learn new skills at a location away from the normal work site 372) What is the purpose of a performance appraisal system? Explain how a good system works and how management uses the information obtained through this system. Answer: • a formal program for comparing employees' actual performance with expected performance; used in making decisions about training, promoting, compensation and firing • make job performance expectations clear to an employee • observe performance • compare expectations with actual performance (rating scale) • written appraisal • decisions about any raise, promotion, demotion or firing of the employee • meet with employee to discuss the appraisal 373) There are many methods used to appraise performance. Some of the methods are based on relative rankings and others are based on ratings. Discuss four of these methods. Answer: • Ranking Methods • simple ranking method—a method of performance appraisal that requires a manager to rank-order from top to bottom or from best to worst each member of a particular work group or department • forced distribution method—a method of performance appraisal that involves grouping employees into predefined frequencies of performance ratings • Rating Methods • graphic rating scale—a statement or question about some aspect of an individual's job performance for which the rater must select the response that fits best • critical incident method—a technique of performance appraisal in which raters recall examples of especially good or poor performance by an employee and then describe what the employee did (or did not do) that led to success or failure 374) Why do so many business firms have employee compensation and benefit programs? Identify and describe some of the usual benefits. Answer: • to retain skilled workers • to make employees feel valued while simultaneously keeping company costs to a minimum • parts of a compensation and benefit scheme: wages, salary, incentive program, gain-sharing plan, profit-sharing plan, benefits, cafeteria benefits, retirement plans 375) Identify and discuss the various types of incentive compensation plans. Answer: • piece rate incentive plan—a compensation system in which an organization pays an employee a certain amount of money for every unit produced • individual incentive plans—a compensation system in which an employer gives an individual a salary increase or some other financial reward for outstanding performance immediately or shortly after the performance occurred • sales commission—paying salespeople based on the number of units they sell or the dollar value of sales they generate for the company • gainsharing program—an incentive program in which employees receive a bonus if the firm's costs are reduced because of greater worker efficiency and/or productivity • profit-sharing plan—an incentive program in which employees receive a bonus depending on the firm's profits 376) What is a cafeteria style benefits plan? Answer: • A flexible approach to providing benefits in which employees are allocated a certain sum to cover benefits and can "spend" this allocation on the specific benefits they prefer. • The organization typically establishes a budget, indicating how much it is willing to spend, per employee, on benefits. Employees are then presented with a list of possible benefits and the cost of each. They are free to put the benefits together in any combination they wish. 377) Discuss some of the facts/issues of retirement. Answer: • workers are retiring earlier than they used to • boomer couples are unlikely to retire at the same time • in Canada workers have successfully challenged mandatory retirement rules • some companies need the expertise of older workers • women often stay in the workforce longer than their husbands • research shows employees who stay on the job past 65 are usually the most productive ones 378) Describe the concept of bona fide occupational requirements and provide two examples. Answer: • when an employer may choose one applicant over another based on overriding characteristics of the job • examples could include: • requiring delivery driver applicants to be tested to see if they can lift 30 kilograms since the product being delivered weighs 30 kilograms • a woman hired to run women's locker room 379) Explain the procedures to deal effectively with potential sexual harassment. Answer: • develop clear and enforceable policies dealing with sexual harassment • inform all employees about the existence of these policies • train employees to recognize and refrain from sexual harassment • take complaints about sexual harassment seriously • establish a procedure for dealing with harassment complaints • take action against those who are involved in sexual harassment 380) In an effort to reduce costs companies are hiring contingent workers. Explain how this statement can be misleading. Answer: employers must be able to document their labour-cost savings precisely and compare that with how much they would be paying people in wages and benefits if they were on permanent staff. As well, contingent workers might be less effective performers than permanent workers. 381) Discuss the four keys to using contingent and temporary workers effectively. Answer: • careful planning - need to integrate workers into the workplace in an organized fashion rather than calling them in sporadically without notice • understanding this type of worker and realizing their advantages and disadvantages i.e. expecting too much from contingent workers • carefully assessing the costs associated with this course of action • fully understanding their own strategies including how they intend to manage temporary workers including their integration into the workplace 382) What are the trends in unionism from the 1970s to today? Answer: • growth of unions has slowed • makeup of workforce has changed • union power has declined • employers are asking for concessions from unions • employers are working hard to prevent unions by using anti-unionization activities. 383) Explain the two factors which help to explain the decline in union membership. Answer: • (1) composition of the workforce • today's workforce is increasingly composed of women and ethnic minorities • because these groups have much weaker traditions of union affiliation, their members are less likely to join unions when they enter the workforce • also, the workforce is increasingly employed in the service sector, which • (2) anti-unionization activities • there is more aggressive anti-unionization activity on the part of employers • for instance, many companies have tried to create a much more employee-friendly work environment and are increasingly treating workers with more respect and dignity 384) Discuss the difficult issues that face unionism in Canada. Answer: • trends that affect unions: • decline of smokestack industries • employment growth in the service industries • deregulation • a more competitive business environment • technological changes • free trade • unions must cooperate with employers if they are both to survive • unions are working with organizations to create effective partnerships in which managers and workers share the same goals: profitability, growth, and effectiveness with equitable rewards for everyone 385) Describe the major pieces of legislation that impact labour management relations. Answer: • Industrial Disputes Investigation Act: provided for compulsory investigation of labour disputes by a government-appointed board before a strike was allowed • Privy Council Order 1003: recognized the right of employees to bargain collectively • Constitution Act 1867: divided authority over labour regulations between the federal and provincial governments • Canadian Labour Code: legislation that applies to the labour practices of firms operating under the legislative authority of parliament • Ontario Labour Relations Act: is a comprehensive document dealing with the conduct of labour relations in that province 386) What are the main provisions of the Canada Labour Code? Answer: • divided into three sections: • industrial relations (gives employees the right to join a union, establishes the Canada Labour Relations Board, stipulates procedures to acquire or terminate bargaining rights, establishes rules for bargaining, states the requirement that the Minister of Labour must appoint a conciliation officer if parties cannot reach agreement, and stipulates the conditions under which strikes and lockout are permitted) • standard hours, wages, vacations, and holidays (deals with issues like standard hours of work, maximum hours of work per week, overtime pay, minimum wages, vacations, general holidays, sick leave, and maternity leave) • occupational health and safety (states responsibilities of management and workers in maintaining safe working conditions) 387) When does an impasse occur? What are some of the actions which unions can take when their demands are not met? Answer: • An impasse occurs when, after a series of bargaining sessions, management and labour fail to agree on a new contract or a contract to replace an agreement that is about to expire • Union tactics: • strike—a tactic of labour unions in which members temporarily walk off the job and refuse to work in order to win concessions from management • picketing —a tactic of labour unions in which members march at the entrance to the company with signs explaining their reasons for striking • boycott—a tactic of labour unions in disputes with management in which members refuse to buy the products of the company and encourage other consumers to do the same • slowdown—instead of striking, workers perform their jobs at a much slower pace than normal 388) What can management do to offset the union's power? Explain the weapons at their disposal. Answer: • lockouts: flipside of strikes; firm physically denies employees' access to the workplace in order to pressure workers to agree to the company's latest contract offer • strike breakers: individuals hired by a firm to replace a worker on strike • close down a plant • contracting out work: contracting work to non-union businesses • employer associations: grouping of small employers together to negotiate as one employer • use of "union-busting" consultants: consultants who help management get its message to the employees ↕ decertification: employers try to use improved working conditions to encourage employees to decertify their union 389) Explain the similarities and the differences among mediation, voluntary arbitration, and compulsory arbitration. Answer: • mediation: method of settling a contract dispute in which a neutral third party is asked to hear arguments from both sides and offer a suggested resolution • voluntary arbitration: method of settling a contract dispute in which the union and management ask a neutral third party to hear their arguments and issue a binding resolution • compulsory arbitration: method of settling a contract dispute in which the union and management are forced to explain their positions to a neutral third party who issues a binding resolution Test Bank for Business Essentials Ronald J. Ebert, Ricky W. Griffin, Frederick A. Starke, George Dracopoulos 9780132479769, 9780134384733