CH-6-10 Sexuality in Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence – Sexuality Today : Exam Guide

This Document Contains Chapters 6 to 10 Chapter 6: Sexuality in Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence Multiple Choice 1. The process of forming our own conceptions and expressions of sexuality is called a. psychosexual development. b. sexual differentiation. c. sexual orientation. d. sociocultural development. Answer: a 2. If you believe that human beings possess an innate sex drive that builds up and must be expressed from time to time, then you agree, at least in part, with the approach to human sexuality known as a. developmental theory. b. instinct theory. c. libido theory. d. social learning theory. Answer: b 3. Which of the following is NOT a concept identified primarily with psychodynamic theory? a. Libido b. Reinforcement c. The oral stage d. The unconscious mind Answer: b 4. According to Sigmund Freud, psychosexual development is based on a. patterns learned through the positive and negative consequences of particular behaviors. b. successful solutions to various psychosocial tasks all through life. c. the libido and unconscious processes. d. the triumph of natural sexual behaviors over unnatural sexual behaviors. Answer: c 5. What did Freud mean when he described infants as "polymorphously perverse"? a. He believed that the innate sexual energy of infants is undifferentiated and indiscriminate. b. He thought that all through life, we must complete various sexuality-related tasks. c. He was describing the basis for later definitions of natural and unnatural sexual behavior. d. He was emphasizing his belief that sexual interests and behaviors could be rewarded or punished by the environment. Answer: a 6. Which statement most accurately reflects Freud's concept of a latency period? a. As we grow, we observe many aspects of sexuality, and we later perform those behaviors which have been reinforced. b. During this period, sexual energies lie dormant, while social and intellectual development continues. c. Libido is focused on the sex organs, and this results in loving heterosexual relationships. d. Three important strands of development lie at rest during the years just before puberty. Answer: b 7. According to conditioning and social learning theory, our sexual expression is formed by a. integration of gender identity, sexual response, and the ability to form intimate relationships. b. interaction of the libido with unconscious processes. c. patterns of reinforcement, generalization, and discrimination as well as by social learning through observation and identification. d. sexual instincts that are channeled into socially acceptable forms. Answer: c 8. During childhood, Lisa watched hours of music videos while her older brother babysat. The music videos frequently featured men with pronounced musculature. As an adult, she is aroused by the sight of flexed muscles, especially on athletes and bodybuilders. Her adult responses are an example of a. discrimination. b. generalization. c. modeling. d. reinforcement. Answer: b 9. Which of the following is NOT an important concept in the conditioning and social learning approach to psychosexual development? a. Discrimination b. Generalization c. Reinforcement d. Sexual scripts Answer: d 10. As a boy, Roger loved action movies in which the male hero had very superficial sexual relationships with various women. As an adult, Roger keeps his relationships with women very sexual and very superficial. Which theory of sexuality appears to apply here? a. Developmental theory b. Instinct theory c. Psychodynamic theory d. Social learning theory Answer: d 11. According to Erik Erikson, what important psychosocial task must be faced and accomplished during adolescence and early adulthood? a. Achieving a sense of intimacy with others b. Developing an individual sexual script c. Discriminating between socially acceptable and unacceptable sexual stimuli d. Identifying with significant childhood models Answer: a 12. Which of the following is NOT one of the principal "strands" in John Bancroft's unified theory of psychosexual development? a. Development of the capacity for intimate dyadic relationships b. Establishment of gender identity c. Generalization and discrimination d. Sexual response and understanding one's sexual orientation Answer: c 13. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the approach of John Bancroft to psychosexual development? a. Gender identity, sexual response, and the capacity for intimate relationships provide the foundation of adult sexuality. b. Individuals form their own sexual scripts based on normative social and cultural scripts. c. Psychosexual development consists of the successful negotiation of eight psychosocial crises that occur through the lifespan. d. The processes of reinforcement, observation, and modeling combine to help us form our sexuality. Answer: a 14. The sense of oneself as a boy or girl constitutes one's a. gender identity. b. sexual orientation. c. sex role. d. sexual script. Answer: a 15. The processes of pre-labeling, self-labeling, and social labeling are associated with the development of a. gender identity. b. intimate relating. c. sexual orientation. d. sexual scripting. Answer: c 16. When an adolescent compares his or her own feelings and responses to those that are prescribed by the society and culture, this is the ____________________ stage in the development of sexual orientation. a. peer labeling b. pre-labeling c. self-labeling d. social labeling Answer: c 17. Gagnon and Simon's script theory a. attempts to explain how sexual behavior is socially constructed. b. emphasizes the effects of childhood sexual patterns on later development. c. holds that sexual preferences and behaviors are learned through the pairing of stimuli with sexual responses. d. supports the importance of our internal sex drive. Answer: a 18. Harry initiates the first date with Sally. He initiates their first sexual encounter, and Sally initiates discussion of contraceptive use. Sally initiates discussion of their living together, and Harry proposes that they marry in two years. These behaviors constitute a. a common cultural scenario. b. a process of social labeling. c. each person's intrapsychic script. d. this couple's interpersonal script. Answer: d 19. The theory that attempts to explain sexual decision making in terms of economic principles such as cost-benefit analysis and risk management is known as a. choice theory. b. commodities theory. c. sexual script theory. d. social network theory. Answer: a 20. Which statement most accurately summarizes the findings of researchers regarding sexual responses during infancy? a. As early as age 2, babies will respond to visual erotic imagery. b. Genital responsiveness has been observed in male infants still in the uterus and in both male and female infants at birth. c. Maternal hormones in the bodies of both male and female infants lead to behavior that mimics the sexual responsiveness of women. d. Sexual responsiveness begins with the onset of puberty because of the action of the pituitary gland and sex hormones. Answer: b 22. Children begin to touch their genitals as early as a. 2 months. b. 6 months. c. 2 years. d. 4 years. Answer: b 23. A researcher asks a 3-year-old boy, "How do you know Laura is a girl?" The child replies, "Because she wears dresses and ribbons." What can we conclude about this 3-year-old? a. He has been punished for masturbating. b. He has yet to discover masturbation. c. He is confused about gender identity. d. His understanding of biological gender differences is still forming. Answer: d 24. Common forms of sex-related behavior during childhood are a. coercive acts and frequent masturbation. b. frequent nudity and seeking out erotic pictures. c. genital display and repeated attempts to insert objects into the rectum. d. masturbation and displaying the genitals to other children. Answer: d 25. Which of the following behaviors is NOT considered a sign of possible sexual abuse? a. Aggressive sexual behavior toward other children b. Attempts at oral-genital contact c. Inserting objects into the rectum d. Self-manipulation of the genitals Answer: d 26. A father observes his 4-year-old daughter touching her genitals. What response do sexual development researchers suggest? a. Ask her to show her mother what she does and ask if it is okay. b. Explain that this, like bathing or using the toilet, is done in private. c. Punish her and tell her she will go blind if she continues this behavior. d. Suggest that other parents won't let her play with their children if they learn that she does this. Answer: b 27. Teenagers who choose not to have sexual intercourse typically cite the following reasons EXCEPT a. fear of pregnancy. b. feeling as though they aren't mature enough. c. parental disapproval. d. religious values. Answer: b 28. Researchers studying the effects of adolescent sexual intercourse after age 15 have found that those with such sexual experience have a. higher levels of self-esteem than those who are inexperienced. b. resulting fear about pregnancy and sexually transmitted diseases. c. shown no effect on social and emotional development. d. typically damaged self-concept. Answer: a 29. For young people, the primary sources of information about sex are a. friends of the same sex and independent reading. b. parents. c. sex education courses. d. television and movies. Answer: a 30. When does the first ejaculation of semen typically occur for boys? a. Between 5 and 10 years of age b. Between 8 and 21 years of age c. Between 11 and 15 years of age d. It is unpredictable. Answer: c 31. The term nocturnal emission refers to a. ejaculations that occur while sleeping. b. nighttime dreams about engaging in sexual activity. c. spontaneous orgasms in response to fantasy. d. the first ejaculation that occurs during masturbation. Answer: a 32. What have researchers learned about the capacity for "spontaneous orgasms"? a. Spontaneous orgasms occur among boys in response to visual stimulation and among girls in response to auditory stimulation. b. The idea of spontaneous orgasms is a myth. c. By late adolescence, this ability is lost among males but is maintained by a few women. d. With continued practice, this is an ability that can be maintained by both men and women. Answer: c 33. Which of the following statements about girls during early adolescence is NOT accurate? a. Girls at this age exhibit a somewhat lower incidence of heterosexual experimentation than boys. b. Girls at this age exhibit about the same incidence of masturbation and same-gender sexual activity as boys. c. Girls become sexually active somewhat later than boys. d. Girls who have older boyfriends are likely to begin having intercourse earlier than other girls. Answer: b 34. Experiencing erotic fantasies appears to be an important step in helping early adolescents learn to be sexual because they a. achieve physical and emotional maturity. b. avoid unprotected sexual activities. c. learn about one's own sexual preferences. d. understand intimate relationships. Answer: c 35. Regarding masturbation, the general pattern is that a. both boys and girls masturbate less when they become sexually active. b. masturbation is equally common in boys and girls in early childhood, but becomes more common among boys than among girls in adolescence.. c. girls who masturbate do so more frequently than boys who masturbate, although fewer girls than boys masturbate. d. more girls than boys masturbate, but they are very secretive about it. Answer: b 36. An apparent difference in the pattern of same-gender sexual activity is that a. boys are more likely to report several same-gender encounters, whereas girls typically report only one. b. girls report less same-gender activity in later adolescence, whereas boys report more. c. girls report same-gender activity with peers, whereas boys report that such activity usually occurs with older men. d. girls report strong disapproval of their activity from their peers, whereas boys report little. Answer: b 37. One gender difference between gay and lesbian adolescents is that a. gay males usually begin sexual activity with older males; lesbians typically become active with peers. b. lesbians who masturbate more frequently typically begin their same-gender sexual behavior earlier than gay males. c. more lesbians begin their same-gender sexual activity in groups; gay males begin in a dyadic relationship. d. most gay males report that their first same-gender experience occurred by age 14; lesbians report that it occurred later. Answer: d 38. Gay, lesbian, and bisexual adolescents are a. about 15 percent of the population of U.S. adolescents. b. at greater risk than other adolescents for psychological distress, dropping out of school, and running away from home. c. most likely to have been aware of their sexual orientation for many years. d. typically more mature than other adolescents in terms of emotional and social development. Answer: b 39. One recent trend in adolescent heterosexual activity has been an increase in a. fetishistic activities. b. mutual masturbation. c. rates of both oral and anal sex d. rates of both pregnancy and abortion. Answer: c 40. Which of the following most accurately describes changes in teenage pregnancy rates since 1980? a. Pregnancy rates have declined. b. Pregnancy rates have increased as more teenagers have become sexually active and fewer have been using contraceptives. c. Pregnancy rates have not changed, although birth rates have declined. d. While pregnancy rates have increased among sexually active teenage women, they have declined among adolescent women as a whole. Answer: a 41. Adolescent women are most likely to use contraception a. during their first experience of sexual intercourse. b. if they already have one baby. c. if they have been involved in a steady relationship. d. if they have just met their sexual partners. Answer: c 42. Assessments of programs designed to prevent teenage pregnancies have found that a. adolescent males have developed increasingly positive attitudes toward abortion. b. these programs have contributed to a recent increase in abortion rates. c. these programs have had no measurable impact. d. those programs that provide access to contraception are most effective in decreasing the risk of adolescent pregnancy . Answer: d 43. Adolescents who are more likely than the general adolescent population to engage in high-risk sexual activities without the protection of condoms include a. homeless or runaway teens. b. students with low grades. c. those with a history of substance abuse. d. All of these Answer: d Fill in the Blank 44. The term _____________________ was used by Freud to refer to the sex drive. Answer: libido 45. According to Freud, children go through a(n) _____________________, during which sexual energy is dormant. Answer: latency period 46. According to conditioning theory, the process of generalization is kept in check by the process of ______________________. Answer: discrimination 47. ____________________ proposed eight key tasks or crises that shape the nature of a person's psychosexual development from birth to death. Answer: Erik Erikson 48. The approach to psychosexual development that focuses on the social context of sexual activity is known as ____________________ theory. Answer: social network True or False 49. Freud saw psychosexual development as the movement of the focus of libido to different parts of the body. Answer: True 50. The modeling of observed behavior is a core concept of the social learning approach to psychosexual development. Answer: True 51. Sexual scripts contain cultural, interpersonal, and intrapsychic elements. Answer: True 52. There is evidence that high school and college students who engage in oral sex do not consider themselves to be "having sex." Answer: True 53. Adolescent sexual fantasies are considered helpful in allowing individuals to identify their sexual preferences. Answer: True 54. Statistics on same-gender sexual activity are inconclusive and are not based on random samples. Answer: True 55. Gay males typically have their first same-gender experience somewhat earlier than lesbians do. Answer: True 56. Adolescent males with higher self-esteem are less likely to be sexually active than are males with lower self-esteem. Answer: False 57. Adolescent pregnancy rates seem to be decreasing all over the industrialized world. Answer: True 58. Biological development and timing of puberty seem to be the same for gay adolescents as they are for those who are hetero- sexual. Answer: True Short Answer 59. What is psychosexual development? Answer: This term refers to the development of one's own way of thinking and feeling about sexuality along with one's pattern of behavior and sexual orientation. 60. What learning processes are emphasized in the social learning approach to psychosexual development? Answer: This approach emphasizes observation, identification, and modeling. 61. According to Bancroft's model of psychosexual development, what are the three foundations of a sexually mature adult? Answer: Bancroft proposes three strands that eventually come together during psychosexual development: (a) gender identity, (b) sexual response and orientation, and (c) the capacity for dyadic intimacy. 62. What have contemporary researchers found regarding Freud's concept of a latency period during childhood? Answer: Research does not support the idea. Instead, evidence suggests that children remain in touch with sexual and romantic feelings throughout childhood. Essay 63. What are several ways in which the sex-related behaviors of girls and women in your generation have changed significantly from those typical of your mother's or grandmother's generation? Answer: Responses may vary but should include most of the following: (a) Adolescent girls are becoming sexually active at younger ages; (b) awareness of sexually transmitted diseases and condom use has increased; (c) greater numbers of females now report masturbatory activities; (d) there has been a weakening of the double standard regarding sexual relationships before marriage; (e) cohabiting and singlehood have become increasingly acceptable; (f) women are waiting to marry until later in life; (g) divorce has increased. Varied pages Chapter 7: Adult Sexuality and Relationships Multiple Choice 1. Theories of mate selection have fallen into all of the following categories EXCEPT a. psychological theory. b. social network theory. c. evolutionary or sociobiological theory. d. Freudian theory. Answer: d 2. The tendency toward equal status contact means a. that extramarital sexual activity is most likely to occur between people of equal status. b. that people tend to initiate and maintain relationships with people who have similar social characteristics. c. that when people have frequent contact, differences in their status diminish. d. All of these Answer: b 3. A hypothesis of evolutionary psychology supported by cross-cultural research holds that a. cultural differences prevent meaningful generalizations about mating strategies. b. females place a higher value on the attractiveness of potential mates than on their status. c. males and females have different sexual strategies. d. the mating behaviors of males and females are guided by the same goals. Answer: c 4. Evolutionary psychology theorists maintain that cross-cultural evidence suggests that a. the complex decision-making processes involved in choosing a mate are patterned, universal themes built into human psyches and societies by evolutionary imperatives. b. men look on women solely as sex objects. c. women view men only as success objects. d. men and women view each other as both sex and success objects. Answer: a 5. The concept of formalizing the context for a sexual relationship between two people, traditionally assumed to be a man and a woman, a. grew out of the example of relationships practiced by Native Americans. b. is based on Jesus’ teachings in the Bible. c. came to North America with European colonists. d. was introduced to North Americans by European missionaries. Answer: c 6. By the late 1990s, what percent of men and women in the country had been married at least once by age 55? a. 95 percent b. 85 percent c. 68 percent d. Just over 50 percent Answer: a 7. What is the relationship between cohabitation and later marriage? a. A majority of cohabiting couples later marry each other. b. Fewer than 5 percent of cohabiting couples later marry each other. c. Approximately 50 percent of cohabiting couples later marry each other. d. Virtually all couples that cohabit later marry each other. Answer: c 8. About half of cohabitations end within a. the first year. b. the second year. c. the fifth year. d. after ten years. Answer: a 9. Which of the following groups has been found to engage in partnered sexual activity most frequently? a. Adolescents b. Married and cohabiting couples c. Single people d. The elderly Answer: b 10. Jennie and Vin have been married for several years. If they are similar to most U.S. couples, a. Jennie will have a more positive view of their sex life than will Vin, but Vin will have a more positive view of married life in general. b. the frequency of their sexual activity will be decreasing with the length of their relationship. c. they will say that they receive great sexual pleasure and emotional satisfaction from their sex lives. d. All of these Answer: d 11. It is believed that approximately ___________ percent of married couples may have sex infrequently enough to essentially be considered nonsexual. a. 5 b. 20 c. 30 d. 50 Answer: b 12. People in their __________ have sex most frequently. a.. teens b. twenties c. thirties d. forties Answer: b 13. Research on sexual fidelity in the United States indicates that a. compared with married couples, unmarried cohabiting couples have a dramatically higher rate of extra relational sex. b. extramarital sex is usually motivated by a desire for sexual excitement. c. sexual infidelity is high among those who had high levels of sexual activity before marriage. d. the vast majority of couples tend to be sexually faithful to their spouses. Answer: d 14. What percent of married people report that they receive great physical pleasure from their sexual lives? a. 40 b. 50 c. 68 d. 88 Answer: d 15. The median age for women at first marriage is a. 21. b. 23. c. 25. d. 27. Answer: c 16. The median age for men at first marriage is a. 21. b. 23. c. 25. d. 27. Answer: d 17. Ultimately, nearly ________ of U.S. marriages end in divorce. a. one-fourth b. one-third c. half d. three-fourths Answer: c 18. What percentage of divorced people remarry? a. 20 percent b. 30 percent c. 50 percent d. 70 percent Answer: d 19. Second marriages tend to be _______ first ones. a. quite a bit longer than b. about the same length as c. a bit shorter than d. much more satisfying than Answer: c 20. Which of the following is a true statement about sexuality among older people? a. Individuals with a low level of sexual interest during their young adult years often experience increased sexual interest during their older adult years. b. Older people in institutional settings often retain an interest in sex but lack the privacy to engage in it. c. Sexual dysfunctions due to medical treatments among older people can rarely be overcome. d. There is generally no decline in sexual behavior as people age. Answer: b 21. Which of the following is a false stereotype about sex and aging? a. A loss of interest in sexual intimacy is a natural part of the aging process for most people. b. It is more difficult for older women to find potential sexual partners than it is for older men. c. Many medications given to older people decrease sexual desire. d. The level of sexual interest shown by elderly adults correlates with the level of sexual interest they showed as young adults. Answer: a 22. Research confirms that among older people, negative attitudes toward sex correlate with a. heightened sexual activity. b. relative sexual inactivity. c. excessive masturbation. d. negative views about marriage. Answer: b 23. What becomes the sole means of sexual gratification for many older people who have lost their sexual partners? a. Escort services b. Homosexual relationships c. Masturbation d. None of these Answer: c 24. There is evidence to suggest that gays and lesbians a. are beginning to become more open about their sexual orientations. b. are more likely to identify themselves as bisexual. c. tend to revert back to a heterosexual identity. d. obtain more sexual partners. Answer: a 25. Diseases most frequently found to have adverse effects on sexual functioning include all of the following EXCEPT a. multiple sclerosis or stroke b. diabetes, cardiovascular disease and heart attacks. c. arthritis. d. asthma. Answer: D Fill in the Blank 26. __________________ is the ability to open oneself to others in a way that permits mutual sharing and caring; it represents an essential quality in deeper human relationships. Answer: Intimacy 27. ___________________ of mate selection assume that the process is essentially the same for both women and men and that people search for mates who remind them of their opposite-sexed parent or who, at some deeper psychological level, represent qualities they long to attain within themselves. Answer: Psychological theories 28. There seems to be a tendency toward what social psychologists call _________________, meaning that people initiate and maintain relationships with others who have similar social characteristics. Answer: equal status contact 29. A two-person partnership is sometimes called a(n) _________________. Answer: dyad 30. Statistics from the General Social Survey and from the NHSLS indicate that about ____________ percent of married women and more than 75 percent of married men have been sexually exclusive during their marriages. Answer: 90 31. The practice in which men have more than one wife is known as ____________________. Answer: polygamy 32. The practice in which women take more than one husband is known as _____________________. Answer: polyandry 33. People are getting married ____________________ now than at any time in the past century. Answer: later 34. In nursing homes and other institutions, not only are outward expressions of sexual interest seen as inappropriate and therefore discouraged, but there is often a lack of _____________________ for any sort of personal or shared sexual activity. Answer: privacy 35. Erection problems are particularly common in men who have _____________________. Answer: heart disease True or False 36. Women become more sexually assertive during the college years, sometimes taking the initiative to have sex with a partner or even pursuing sex somewhat aggressively. Answer: True 37. The double standard that legitimizes sexual permissiveness for men but not for women no longer exists in our culture. Answer: False 38. One of the major tasks of early adulthood is to achieve intimacy with others. Answer: True 39. Psychological theories assume that human beings use sexual strategies to select mates who are advantageous from an evolutionary perspective because they contribute to the survival and perpetuation of the human species. Answer: False 40. Short-term sex partners are more important to women than to men. Answer: False 41. About 12 million people in the United States are estimated to be cohabiting currently. Answer: False 42. Adults who have more than one sexual partner available report greater sexual satisfaction than those who have one partner. Answer: False 43. During the sexual revolution, there was a fair amount of debate about the viability of monogamous relationships. Answer: True 44. There has been a trend toward delaying marriage until later in life, with younger professional women and men wanting to establish themselves in a career before pursuing a committed relationship. Answer: True 45. Based on recent statistics, it has been predicted that 60 percent of couples who marry today will be divorced within five years, Answer: False 46. Providing older people with opportunities for choice and a sense of personal autonomy can enhance their sexual identity and adjustment. Answer: True 47. Evidence shows that as women age, they become much more likely to have a sexual partner than are men. Answer: False 48. For many older people who have lost their sexual partners, masturbation becomes their sole means of sexual gratification. Answer: True 49. Fifty percent of sexual dysfunctions among individuals over 40 may be due to physiological changes and illnesses. Answer: True Short Answer 50. According to sociobiological theory, what features do people look for in long-term mates? Answer: Men look for mates who can bear children successfully. Women look for mates who can provide resources for offspring. 51. Some people define cohabitation as "living together before getting married." Is this accurate? Answer: No, because about half of such relationships end within the first year. It appears that less than 25 percent of people eventually marry the cohabiting partner. 52. What is the prevailing attitude in the U.S. toward monogamy for couples and cohabiting partners? Answer: Americans overwhelmingly have a positive attitude toward monogamy, and the vast majority adhere to this norm. 53. What is the success rate of second marriages? Answer: About half of all second marriages end in divorce. 54. What have cross-cultural researchers found regarding expectations about sexuality and aging? Answer: Most societies expect sexual activity to continue among the aging. 55. What are some of the medical problems that hamper the continuation of sexual activities as people age? Answer: Medications for problems such as arthritis, high blood pressure, and other cardiovascular conditions often hamper sexual activity. Prostate surgery and hysterectomy may result in problems, but these are correctable. Essay 56. Describe some current trends in marriage patterns in the U.S. Answer: More people are delaying marriage until they are older, and the percentage of people who intend to marry eventually has dropped. The number of people remaining single is rising, and the stigma associated with this has declined. 57. Think of an individual or couple in their sixties or older. How do the myths and attitudes about aging that are discussed in the text appear to apply to their experiences? Answer: Answers will vary, but the myths and attitudes likely to have influenced the individual(s) being discussed are as follows: (a) loving and sexual feelings are experienced only during youth; (b) sex is primarily for reproduction; and (c) older men remain more sexually interesting to younger partners than do older women. Many myths about aging, such as decline in sexuality or cognitive abilities, may not apply to this individual or couple in their sixties or older, as they might continue to lead active and fulfilling lives, challenging stereotypes depicted in the text. Chapter 8: Sexual Individuality and Sexual Values Multiple Choice 1. The categories that scientists use to understand the world are a. abstract, intellectual tools without practical, concrete effects. b. artificial and ever-changing. c. determined by evolution. d. innate. Answer: b 2. The labels applied by scientists to sexual behavior a. are attempts to shape human behavior. b. are simply names free of value judgments. c. have no effect beyond aiding communication. d. may reflect the values of their own societies. Answer: d 3. The contemporary consensus in medicine and psychology holds that masturbation is a(n) a. immature way of obtaining sexual pleasure and gratification. b. major cause of sexual dysfunctions and deviations. c. marginally acceptable alternative to normal sexual expression. d. widespread and generally harmless form of sexual expression. Answer: d 4. Self-pleasuring is a label often used in current books about sex to refer to a. any sexual act undertaken for the sake of self-gratification. b. heterosexual intercourse. c. masturbation. d. unsafe sexual practices. Answer: c 5. The term deviation is a. no longer used because the term refers to conditions that no longer exist. b. no longer widely used by sexologists because the term took on negative connotations. c. widely used by scientists to refer to sexual behaviors that are considered politically incorrect. d. widely used by sexologists to refer to unusual sexual behaviors. Answer: b 6. A paraphilia is a a. dependence on sexual behaviors or sexual fantasies involving stimuli that are considered unusual or unacceptable. b. love of sexual activity. c. person who is addicted to sexual activities. d. person who pursues pleasure relentlessly. Answer: a 7. Mitchell can experience orgasm only if he is wearing and touching leather garments. This behavior is an example of a. a paraphilia. b. a psychosis. c. biphobia. d. foreplay. Answer: a 8. The terms deviation, variation, and paraphilia all a. imply some aberration from an accepted sexual standard. b. imply the existence of an absolute standard of behavior. c. refer to an outdated way of viewing the world. d. refer to criminal behaviors. Answer: a 9. Sexual activities that precede vaginal penetration by the penis are called a. foreplay. b. onanism. c. paraphilias. d. self-pleasuring. Answer: a 10. Heterosexual standard, coital standard, orgasmic standard, and two-person standard are labels that describe a. key laws governing sexual behavior in the United States. b. key norms established by psychologists to evaluate sexual behavior. c. several universal norms of sexual behavior. d. some of the values regarding sexual behavior that have permeated Western culture. Answer: d 11. Which of the following has NOT been a sexual standard in traditional Western culture? a. Exclusively heterosexual attractions b. Orgasm as the ultimate goal c. Sex intertwined with romance d. Sexual behavior as a spiritual ideal Answer: d 12. In one society, some individuals engage in sexually arousing activities for extended periods in order to achieve spiritual transformation by extended arousal. This practice conflicts with the traditional Western standard called the a. deviation standard. b. heterosexual standard. c. orgasmic standard. d. safe sex standard. Answer: c 13. Which of the following is an accurate description of the Universal Declaration of Sexual Rights? a. It was adopted by the World Association for Sexology. b. It was a document proposed by the U.S. Department of State. c. It was a proposal submitted by the Democratic Party. d. It was a resolution passed by the United Nations. Answer: a 14. The Universal Declaration of Sexual Rights includes a. rights to sexual autonomy, sexual equity, and responsible reproductive choices. b. rights to sexual freedom, sexual pleasure, and sexual health care. c. rights to sexual integrity, sexual privacy, and comprehensive sexual education. d. All of these Answer: d 15. The tendency to assume that one's own sexual values and behaviors are superior to others is called a. egocentricy. b. erotocentricity. c. self-centeredness. d. the continuum of normalcy. Answer: b 16. If you decide that masturbation or oral-genital sex is normal because a vast majority of the population engages in the behavior, you are judging normality in terms of a. legal normalcy. b. moral normalcy. c. normalcy by expert opinion. d. statistical normalcy. Answer: d 17. Louise and Marty prefer to center their sexual activity around the use of various sexual "toys." They never have intercourse, but both feel satisfied. If you evaluate their behavior as normal because it is safe, exploits no one, and is consensual, then you are using which approach to normalcy? a. A continuum of normalcy b. Moral normalcy c. Normalcy by expert opinion d. Statistical normalcy Answer: a 18. As professionals use the term today, a person's sexual orientation a. can be determined by analyzing the levels of various hormones in a person's bloodstream. b. includes their sexual behavior, affectional preferences, and self-identification, along with other variables. c. is defined by their sexual activities. d. is determined only by which people a person finds sexually attractive. Answer: b 19. The term sexual individuality refers to a. all of the ways in which our sexual characteristics vary from the norm. b. our gender roles and sources of sexual attraction. c. our sexual needs, sexual activities, gender identity, sources of arousal, sexual preferences, and sexual fantasies and dreams. d. sexual characteristics that are determined at birth. Answer: c 20. Research indicates that a person's sexual attractions are a. influenced to some extent by his or her parents. b. not affected by his or her parents. c. to a great extent shaped by identification with his or her parents. d. to a great extent shaped by the relationship with his or her parents. Answer: a 21. The sexual preferences expressed by adults a. are very fluid until middle age. b. can be predicted on the basis of their parents' preferences. c. often are rooted in a single important event. d. tend to be a continuation and confirmation of earlier sexual feelings. Answer: d 22. Research indicates that social networks a. are extremely significant in shaping sexual attitudes and behaviors. b. have some influence on sexual behavior, but the influence is not likely to be profound. c. influence sexual attitudes but not sexual behavior. d. influence the sexual attitudes and behavior of adolescents but not the attitudes or behavior of adults. Answer: a 23. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic variables in Klein's system for describing a person's sexual identity? a. Emotional preference b. Moral values c. Self-identification d. Sexual attraction Answer: b 24. An important shortcoming of Klein's original model of sexual identity was that it a. failed to consider how factors might change over time. b. neglected parental influences during childhood. c. omitted factors such as emotional and social preferences. d. overlooked the physiological basis of sexual identity. Answer: b 25. Analysis of the National Health and Social Life Survey (NHSLS) found that almost half of the population believed that sex should be part of a loving relationship and did not condemn premarital sex. This group was labeled a. libertarian. b. recreational. c. relational. d. traditional. Answer: c 26. Among those who believed that sex and love did not need to be connected, the NHSLS researchers identified two subgroups, which they labeled a. pro-choice and conventional. b. pro-life and libertarian. c. recreational and libertarian. d. relational and contemporary. Answer: b 27. The NHSLS research indicated that a. a majority of the American public are libertarians. b. few Americans accept premarital sex within a loving relationship. c. more men than women hold traditional attitudes. d. there is no clear-cut system of American attitudes toward sexuality. Answer: d 28. According to the NHSLS research, which factor was associated with a greater likelihood of traditional sexual attitudes? a. Geographic region b. Greater religiousness c. Higher educational attainment d. Membership in an ethnic minority group Answer: b 29. According to the NHSLS, frequency of sexual activity a. declined greatly among those with traditional attitudes. b. did not seem to be linked with an attitudinal group. c. was clearly linked to recreational attitudes. d. was lowest among those in the conventional subgroup. Answer: b 30. Judging a sexual behavior as right or wrong depending on its motivations and consequences is characteristic of which approach to sexual morality? a. Asceticism b. Hedonism c. Recreational d. Situation ethics Answer: d 31. Situation ethics emphasizes the a. benefits of self-denial and self-discipline. b. changing nature of human needs and values. c. inherent good of pleasure. d. unique context of each decision. Answer: d 32. Asceticism emphasizes a. analysis of context. b. discipline, celibacy, and self-denial. c. pursuit of emotional well-being. d. pursuit of physical pleasure. Answer: b 33. Two important theorists in the area of the moral development of children are a. Freud and Watson. b. Klein and Coleman. c. Money and Gagnon. d. Piaget and Kohlberg. Answer: d 34. According to Piaget and Kohlberg, when children are 8 to 10 years old, they typically progress from obeying rules in order to satisfy their own needs to following moral codes in order to a. avoid punishment. b. be perceived as good people. c. contribute to the betterment of society. d. live up to their own standards. Answer: b 35. Which of the following is NOT widely accepted in U.S. society as a principle of sexual morality? a. Noncoercion b. Non-deceit c. Respect for the beliefs of others d. Treatment of people as means Answer: d 36. Which of the following is NOT a recommended step in establishing healthy sexual values? a. Consider your responsibility to other people. b. Find values that will not create conflicts with your peers. c. Recognize that communication is important in any sexual relationship. d. Think ahead about sexual situations and issues. Answer: b 37. Stan is visually impaired. What materials are available to help him learn about male and female anatomy? a. Audiotapes b. Captioning services c. Life-size plastic models d. Oral instruction Answer: c 38. Spinal cord injuries interfere with sexual functioning a. only insofar as they cause depression, which decreases sexual desire. b. to a degree that depends on the location and extent of the injury. c. to the extent that male victims are incapable of sexual responses. d. to the extent that victims are incapable of sexual sensations. Answer: b Fill in the Blank 39. The view that sexual intercourse between a man and a woman is the ultimate sexual act is known as the _____________________ standard. Answer: coital 40. Using one's own culture to judge others and assuming that it is superior to all others is known as _____________________. Answer: ethnocentricity 41. The form of ethnocentricity that assumes that one's own sexual values, standards, and activities are best is called _____________________. Answer: erotocentricity 42. The standard reference work that includes descriptions and classifications of those sexual activities which American psychiatrists consider psychological disorders is the _______________________. Answer: Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, or DSM 43. The term _____________________ refers to females who have a predominantly same-gender sexual orientation and identity. Answer: lesbian 44. NHSLS researchers gave the label _____________________ to describe the attitudes of those who do not believe that sex and love need to be connected. Answer: recreational 45. Prejudice toward transgender individuals has been called _____________________. Answer: transphobia True or False 46. As the term is currently defined, a paraphilia interferes with an individual's life and causes clinical levels of distress. Answer: True 47. Research indicates that people who have sex with members of their own gender are remarkably similar to heterosexuals. Answer: True 48. Parents and parental relationships are much less important in determining sexual orientation than is commonly believed. Answer: True 49. It seems most likely that inborn factors create predispositions that influence sexual orientation and sexual preferences. Answer: True 50. Social networks appear to be very important in shaping and maintaining sexual attitudes and behaviors. Answer: True 51. The NHSLS found that over half the population do not feel that love and sex need to be connected. Answer: False 52. The NHSLS research clearly indicates that people's attitudes have little effect on their behavior and that most people do not have firmly held attitudes regarding sex. Answer: False 53. College athletics is one area of American life in which homophobia has been largely eradicated. Answer: False 54. Participating in sexual activities that are contrary to one's values may cause an individual to experience conflict and guilt. Answer: True 55. Most disabling conditions affect an individual's sexual needs and ability to function sexually. Answer: False 56. Brain scans of women with spinal cord injuries suggest that genital stimulation may create signals that bypass the injury and travel directly to the brain. Answer: True Short Answer 57. How is masturbation regarded by contemporary scholars and practitioners in the area of human sexuality? Answer: It is seen as a widespread, generally harmless, and normal form of sexual expression. 58. What is a paraphilia? Answer: A paraphilia is a sexual attachment or dependency on an unusual stimulus which may be tangible or exist in fantasy. The attachment interferes with the individual's life and is considered at least somewhat pathological. 59. What does use of the term foreplay for noncoital sexual activity imply? Answer: It implies that the activity is not a goal or pleasurable in itself but only the preamble to intercourse. 60. Explain the concept of erotocentricity. Answer: The term refers to the belief that one's own sexual standards, values, and activities are best. It is a type of ethnocentricity. 61. What is meant by statistical normalcy? Answer: It is one way of defining what is normal. By the standard of statistical normalcy, a behavior is normal if it is widespread in a particular population. 62. According to current models of sexual orientation, what are six variables that should be considered when describing a person's sexual orientation? Answer: Variables to take into account are (a) sexual behavior, (b) sexual attractions, (c) self-identification, (d) life style, (e) frequency of sex with different partners, and (f) changes over time. 63. What are the elements of sexual individuality? Answer: It is made up of our gender identity, gender role, what we find sexually attractive or arousing, our preferences for certain sexual behaviors, and sexual fantasies and dreams. 64. What were two of the most significant findings of the NHSLS research? Answer: Two key findings were that (a) there is no clear-cut system of American values, and (b) there is a clear link between people's attitudes and their sexual behaviors. (Students might mention other findings.) 65. Describe what is meant by a social constructionist perspective on sexual ethics. Answer: According to this approach, social forces form moral values, including those related to sexuality, and those values may change as societies change. 66. How do internalized and externalized homophobia and biphobia manifest themselves? Answer: Externalized homophobia and biphobia manifest themselves in name-calling, discrimination, or prejudice toward others. Internalized homophobia and biphobia manifest themselves in discomfort with one's own feelings, desires, or behaviors. 67. What is the principle of normalization? Answer: This principle holds that programs for those with disabilities should aim to help them adapt to the norms of mainstream social life. 68. What determines the sexual functioning of paraplegics? Answer: The primary determinant is the extent and location of the spinal cord injury. Many paraplegics demonstrate penile erection or vaginal lubrication because these are partially controlled by localized spinal reflexes. For many paraplegics, direct stimulation can result in arousal and orgasm. Essay 69. Think of a familiar or popular movie or novel. Apply the six sociocultural standards for sexual arousal and behavior to that work. How well do they apply? Answer: Responses will vary, but the six standards to be mentioned are (a) the heterosexual standard; (b) the coital standard; (c) the orgasmic standard; (d) the two-person standard; (e) the romantic standard; and (f) the safe-sex standard. 1. Modesty: The characters in "Bridgerton" adhere to the societal norms of their time regarding modesty, but the series also challenges these norms by depicting intimate scenes openly. 2. Instrumentality: Sexual behavior in "Bridgerton" serves multiple purposes, including procreation, pleasure, and social bonding, reflecting the complexities of relationships in that era. 3. Objectification: While characters are sometimes viewed as objects of desire, the series also explores their inner lives and emotional complexities beyond mere objectification. 4. Violence: Sexual encounters in "Bridgerton" are consensual and portrayed without violence, aligning with contemporary expectations of healthy relationships. 5. Institutional Support: The societal norms and institutions depicted in the series both constrain and influence characters' sexual behavior, adding depth to their decisions and actions. 6. Gender Roles: "Bridgerton" addresses and subverts traditional gender roles, offering varied portrayals of masculinity and femininity that impact characters' sexual interactions and desires. 70. Neither Steven nor his wife, Angela, has ever really enjoyed penile-vaginal intercourse. They prefer to engage in mutual masturbation or oral-genital sex. List and apply various criteria to evaluate the normalcy of their behavior. Answer: Responses will certainly vary, but the criteria for normalcy that might be applied include (a) statistical normalcy; (b) normalcy by expert opinion; (c) moral normalcy; and (d) the continuum of normalcy. Steven and Angela's preference for mutual masturbation or oral-genital sex is normal as long as it is consensual, satisfying, and healthy for both partners. Normalcy in sexual behavior is defined by mutual consent, absence of harm, and mutual satisfaction. 71. What is a key objection to labeling someone as a homosexual, lesbian, or transvestite? Answer: Too often these labels are used as if they define the person's entire identity instead of only a small part of the individual's personality. In fact, research indicates that these labels predict nothing about other characteristics of a person, such as psychological adjustment, but the labels may be used to draw inaccurate, negative inferences about people and to marginalize them. Labels can have great power to guide thinking and behavior. 72. What was the largest population group identified by the NHSLS, and what were their general attitudes regarding sex and sexual choices? Answer: About half of the population was identified as relational. They believed sex should be part of a loving relationship but not necessarily reserved for marriage. As a result, they did not see premarital sex as wrong but were likely to view extramarital sex as wrong. The relational group included (a) a religious subgroup, which was guided by religious beliefs and opposed same-gender sex, teenage sex, and abortion; (b) a conventional subgroup, which was more tolerant toward teenage sex, pornography, and abortion but still opposed same-gender sex; and (c) a contemporary religious subgroup which was more tolerant of same-gender sex than the conventional subgroup. Chapter 9: Sexuality, Communication, and Relationships Multiple Choice 1. Words provide a. a hindrance to subtler, nonverbal forms of intimate communication. b. an important ingredient of communication. c. an unambiguous basis for communication. d. precise messages that should be interpreted independently of nonverbal cues. Answer: b 2. In order to reduce miscommunication, it is best to interact in the presence of a. a feedback system. b. a highly emotionally charged situation. c. an audience. d. many distractions. Answer: a 3. The year is 1915 and John is happily announcing his impending fatherhood to coworkers. The term he is least likely to use is a. expecting. b. in a family way. c. in confinement. d. pregnant. Answer: d 4. A study found that when describing the penis, men were more likely than women to use words that suggested a. cuteness. b. intimacy. c. power. d. reproductive function. Answer: c 5. When it comes to terms for sex-related things or ideas, a. college students tend to use terms that follow the norms of their parents. b. men tend to use more negative terms for male than for female sexual organs. c. people are more likely to use slang terms rather than scientific terms. d. women tend to use far more specific terms than men. Answer: c 6. Which of the following is NOT a contemporary myth about communication? a. An impressive conversationalist never permits any dead air. b. Strongly held, confident opinions turn people off. c. The rational mind is the only basis for effective communication. d. Using the right line will convince a partner to have sex. Answer: b 7. One of the most difficult aspects of conversation can be a. dealing with silence. b. expressing opinions. c. talking rather than listening. d. trying to persuade another person. Answer: a 8. Rhonda believes that if she lets Derek believe she is interested in being sexual with him, he is more likely to ask her to go with him to an upcoming big event. As she gets ready for her date, she rehearses how she will cleverly drop hints about this. Such strategies are usually perceived as a. awkward. b. convincing and inviting. c. direct communication. d. manipulative. Answer: d 9. An individual who believes in communication myths is likely to have relationships that are a. dangerous. b. highly sexual. c. intimate. d. superficial. Answer: d 10. Because sexual activity often involves vulnerability, it is an area in which many individuals act out their a. aggressive fantasies. b. best communication skills. c. power needs. d. preoccupation with everyday concerns. Answer: c 11. Susan grew up in a family in which preparations for every major event were preceded by a major argument after which each family member "proved his or her love" by attending the event in spite of bad feelings. Susan repeats this pattern with her boyfriend Tom. This is an example of how individuals a. are frightened by the silences in conversation. b. exert their power in sexual encounters. c. stifle communication. d. unknowingly play relationship games. Answer: d 12. One all-too-common "game" that gets in the way of real communication is a. acknowledging one's vulnerability to criticism. b. basing opinions on little or no solid information. c. confronting difficult problems directly. d. pushing for resolution of a conflict prematurely. Answer: d 13. One of the most important elements in a full and satisfying sexual relationship is a. effective mutual communication. b. equality of experience. c. knowledge of various sexual techniques. d. the availability of a variety of partners. Answer: a 14. A difficult conversation about intimate sexual issues is a little easier to have if a. both partners are feeling equally upset about the issue. b. both partners are very committed to the relationship. c. it is structured around traditional gender roles of authority and submission. d. one partner possesses more sexual knowledge than does the other. Answer: b 15. Which of the following is NOT a useful ground rule for effective communication? a. Be clear about your own sexual values. b. Concentrate on expressing your needs rather than listening. c. Maintain equality of needs and power between the partners. d. Select a good location for the conversation. Answer: b 16. Pam tells her partner, "Every time we make love, you always rush to get inside me. I would prefer that we take more time before getting to that point." This honest communication could be improved by a. avoiding "all-ness" words. b. beginning the conversation with, "I don't want to hurt you, but. . . ." c. being less direct. d. using humor. Answer: a 17. Which of the following words or phrases is most likely to undermine the effectiveness of intimate communication? a. "I feel. . . ." b. "It hard for me to. . . ." c. "Sometimes. . . ." d. "You always. . . ." Answer: d 18. Empathy is a. expressing one's true feelings. b. having a deep love for another person. c. listening carefully. d. putting oneself temporarily in the other person's place. Answer: d 19. During a conversation about having sex for the first time Nathan says to his partner, "Let's see if I understand. You would like for us to both be tested for HIV before we have sex." What is Nathan doing? a. Asking for clarification b. Empathizing c. Making "all-ness" statements d. Using self-talk effectively Answer: a 20. Silent pauses during a serious conversation a. are a sign of unequal commitment. b. can be calming and a sign of intimacy. c. indicate serious problems in the relationship. d. suggest that both partners are ignorant of their own values and limits. Answer: b 21. When Luis prepares for a date by reminding himself of his good characteristics, he is a. asking for clarification. b. empathizing. c. engaging in positive self-talk. d. making snap judgments. Answer: c 22. Jill "comes to life" whenever she is in a group. She becomes more energized, funny, and creative. On the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), she is likely to score high on a. abstraction. b. emotionality. c. extroversion. d. spontaneity. Answer: c 24. According to Tannen and Glass, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the communication patterns of girls? a. Face-to-face interaction b. Formation of small groups or pairs c. Highly hierarchical structure d. Mediation to preserve harmony Answer: c 25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the communication patterns of boys as described by Tannen and Glass? a. Attempts to solve conflict through insistence and threat b. Preference for not looking at each other directly c. Preference for playing in pairs or small groups d. Struggles to maintain status within a group Answer: c 26. Men have a tendency to resist doing what they are told because they do not want to feel dominated, or be in a/an ___________ position. a. ”one-down” b. Oedipal c. sexist d. secondary power Answer: a 27. John Gottman advises couples who are troubled by quarrels to begin to communicate more effectively by first a. learning to be quiet and listen attentively. b. learning to speak and listen nondefensively. c. overlearning quarrelling techniques. d. validating each other. Answer: a 28. According to recent research on close relationships, quarreling a. indicates inequality in the partners' levels of commitment to the relationship. b. invigorates relationships, and both partners should initiate such interchanges. c. is a sign of dissatisfaction and unhappiness. d. is inevitable and, if done constructively, can improve relationships. Answer: d 29. Which of the following is NOT a constructive way of addressing conflicts in relationships? a. Backing up accusations with evidence b. Expressing anger freely but without escalating c. Listening to each other carefully d. Working toward negotiation and compromise Answer: a 30. During quarrels, men typically a. appease. b. confront. c. initiate. d. withdraw. Answer: d 31. Because women are usually the "emotional managers" in relationships, they are a. less likely than men to express anger or hurt. b. less likely than men to pay attention to problems. c. more likely than men to attempt to avoid conflicts and disagreements. d. more likely than men to bring up difficult issues. Answer: d 32. Which of the following strategies for resolving impasses appears to be more effective than the others? a. Dominating b. Integrating c. Obliging d. Submitting Answer: b 33. Effective resolution of relational impasses is associated with a. appealing to logic and reason. b. having good evidence to back up accusations. c. referring to an outside authority. d. shifting to mutuality. Answer: d 34. In attempting to resolve relational impasses, which of the following might be an effective "I-message"? a. "I believe you are purposely trying to destroy our marriage." b. "I feel very frustrated when we try to talk about this." c. "I feel you are selfish and uncaring." d. "I feel you have a serious problem when it comes to quarreling constructively." Answer: b 35. Why are "I-messages" effective in resolving impasses? a. They are a way of shifting the spotlight onto the self and away from the problem at hand. b. They convey that a partner is taking personal responsibility for communicating about a problem. c. They indicate that the partner is both talking and listening. d. They reflect a partner's willingness to back up statements with logical proof. Answer: b 36. Which of the following is NOT a factor associated with long-term loving relationships according to John Gottman? a. An absence of quarrels b. An absence of strong gender differences in emotional expression c. Early confrontation of complaints and differences d. Positive memories about the beginning of a relationship Answer: a 37. Ruth becomes very aroused when she can initiate sexual activity with her boyfriend. However, she is fearful that this violates a strong societal norm, so she feels controlled and resentful. Ruth's behavior is an example of a. confusing sex and romantic attachments. b. modeling her sexuality after external standards. c. not allowing herself to be vulnerable. d. remaining at a dread/anger impasse. Answer: b 38. Before an individual can be vulnerable and deal with hurt, he or she needs to have a. a high level of sexual knowledge regarding pleasuring techniques. b. a willingness to depend on another to validate feelings. c. adequate self-esteem and self-confidence. d. sufficient sexual experience to impress a partner. Answer: c 39. Sylvia agrees to have sex with her partner in a position that does not appeal to her. What relational risk applies to this situation? a. Confusing romantic attachment with sexual attraction b. Dealing with doing something sexual that does not feel right c. Having low self-esteem and self-confidence d. Not allowing oneself to be vulnerable Answer: b 40. Today, the force that typically brings people together to form and maintain relationships is a. cultural pressures to reproduce. b. economic need. c. social regulations. d. strong personal connections between individuals. Answer: d 41. Ed and Merrily have just fallen in love. They feel an intense desire to be close to each other and often promise each other they'll never break up. The stage of love they are in is often called a. attachment. b. being in love. c. infatuation. d. intimacy. Answer: c 42. The initial phases of falling in love often result in a. the loved one begins to seem unique to their partner b. partners may experience euphoria in the presence of their lovers c. partners may report thinking obsessively about their loved one when they are absent. d. all of the above Answer: d 43. Gottman’s research indicates that hostile-detached couples have less stable relationships than a. volatile couples b. validating couples c. conflict-avoiding couples d. both b and c Answer: d 44. All of the following statements accurately reflect the research of Gottman and associates EXCEPT a. conflict-avoiding couples have the least stable relationships. b. couples with mismatched influence functions may have troubled relationships. c. the horizontal axis represents a range of verbal and facial expressions. d. the vertical axis represents the spouse’s influence on the partner’s behavior. Answer: a 45. Predictable characteristics associated with the stages of romantic attraction include all of the following EXCEPT a. greater desire for sexual intimacy than for emotional intimacy. b. involuntary, even sometimes unwanted, feelings of romantic attraction. c. obsessive thinking about the loved one. d. reordering of priorities to spend time together. Answer: a 46. Michelle's current love relationship has lasted a few weeks. She feels aroused by this partner and really enjoys their sexual relationship. She worries about her heartache if the relationship ends because they have little in common. According to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, the most dominant component of love for Michelle is a. a balance among all three components b. commitment. c. intimacy. d. passion. Answer: d 47. Jan and Bob are both married to other people. However, several times a month they meet at a hotel room and engage in intense lovemaking. Afterwards, they typically order a meal to be brought to their room and make arrangements for their next meeting. This relationship appears to be high in a. commitment. b. companionship. c. intimacy. d. passion. Answer: d 48. Jason and David have been partners for 25 years. They own a successful business together, jointly own property, have a network of close friends, and have helped raise an orphaned nephew. When David develops a serious heart condition, Jason retires in order to care for David. This relationship appears to be high in a. attraction. b. commitment. c. intimacy. d. passion. Answer: b 49. A relationship in which both individuals feel very close to each other, support each other emotionally, and share a great deal would be described by Robert Sternberg as high in a. attachment. b. commitment. c. intimacy. d. passion. Answer: c 50. Pheremones are: a. Endocrine secretions that guide the development of secondary sex characteristics b. Natural painkillers released by the brain c. Neurotransmitters that stimulate the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland d. Chemical sex attractants Answer: d 51. Ethan is passionately in love with Melissa. He seems ecstatic all the time. A neuroscientist might say, a. "Ethan is releasing a lot of pheromones." b. "Ethan's love map resembles that of his relatives." c. "It looks like Ethan's brain is being stimulated by PEA." d. "While Ethan's levels of endorphins are dropping, it is clear his oxytocin is skyrocketing." Answer: c 52. After a year of shared loving activities, Malik and Tawana feel very attached to each other and often experience a sense of tranquillity when they are together. This state is associated with the production of a. endorphins. b. oxytocin. c. phenylethylamine. d. pheromones. Answer: a 53. A loving couple should pay special attention to touching because a. sensual touching is an important basis for intimacy. b. skin senses are very related to hypothalamic activity. c. the sex flush occurs on the skin. d. touching is a way to induce sexual arousal. Answer: a 54. What misconception do many people have about long-term relationships? a. Individuals expect that intense feelings of love and sexual passion will last. b. Love ultimately becomes a way of controlling another person. c. People who create the opportunity for sex don't really love each other. d. Romantic love is a pure and idealistic love. Answer: a 55. Relationships that are created and maintained on the Internet a. are indistinguishable from face-to-face relationships. b. tend to develop very rapidly and can quickly become eroticized. c. tend to involve people with few common interests. d. tend to stagnate, never developing beyond a superficial level. Answer: b 56. Which of the following is NOT one of the main styles of emotional bonding identified by attachment theory? a. Avoidant b. Indifferent c. Preoccupied d. Secure Answer: b Fill in the Blank 57. Compared with women, men tend to talk _____________________ in public situations and _____________________ in private situations. Answer: more; less 58. The triangular theory of love—which focuses on the roles of intimacy, passion, and commitment—was proposed by _____________________. Answer: Robert Sternberg 59. The chemical in male sweat with a dry musky smell that is appealing to women is _____________________. Answer: androstenol 60. The chemical _____________________ is produced during cuddling. Answer: oxytocin True or False 61. Slang terms applied to female genitals tend to be more vague and negative than those applied to men's genitals. Answer: True 62. When considering choices related to sexual activity it is important to reach a clear opinion before making a decision. Answer: False 63. People often use the sexual arena in their struggles for power. Answer: True 64. In effective communication, careful listening can be more important than self-expression. Answer: True 65. According to Tannen and Glass, when talking with the same gender, girls are more likely than boys to face each other, look directly at each other, and enjoy talking together. Answer: True 66. Male socialization causes them to be cautious in social settings about being put in a one-down position. Answer: True 67. Frequent quarrels in a relationship indicate a relative lack of love and commitment. Answer: False 68. According to Gottman, to be successful, relationships must be emotionally expressive. Answer: False 69. One researcher has found that a ratio of five positive behaviors to one negative behavior is associated with relationships that last. Answer: True 70. There is evidence that prolactin is produced when orgasm occurs, and that it tends to suppress sexual desire for a time. Answer: True 71. Research indicates that people who have a dismissing avoidant style of attachment experience the greatest difficulty when a relationship breaks up. Answer: False Short Answer 72. What kinds of "games" do people sometimes play in their sexual or romantic relationships? Answer: They may play out games regarding (a) power issues, (b) relationship issues, or (c) communication issues. 73. What is the problem associated with "all-ness" statements? Answer: These statements are seldom fair or accurate, and they are likely to make the other person defensive. 74. In talking about difficult issues, why is asking for clarification important? Answer: False assumptions and misconceptions often hinder communication. Asking for clarification gives the other person an opportunity to correct these. 75. What are some of the types of communication that men and women tend to approach differently? Answer: Gender differences tend to show up in how men and women approach conversations over problems, asking for directions, and expressing needs. 76. What is a relational impasse? Answer: This term refers to a condition in which a relationship is "stuck" and the people in the relationship retreat into themselves. 77. What approaches to resolving impasses are most effective? Answer: An integrating style or a compromising style is likely to facilitate the shift to mutuality that can move people beyond an impasse. Using "I" messages can help bring about this change. 78. List and describe the components of Sternberg's theory of love. Answer: The main elements are (a) intimacy, the emotional component of love; (b) passion, the motivational component; and (c) commitment, the cognitive component. 79. What are pheromones? Answer: These are chemicals that serve as sexual attractants between individuals of the same species. 80. What three factors have been identified as critical in establishing sexual intimacy? Answer: The factors are (a) sensual touching, (b) relaxation, and (c) being a participant and not a spectator. 81. What are some of the typical reactions immediately after the breakup of a relationship? Answer: Relief, loneliness, grief, rejection, guilt, and anger are typical reactions. Essay 382. List five contemporary myths about communication in sexual relationships and explain how believing such myths may interfere with maintaining an intimate relationship. Answer: Five contemporary myths are as follows: (a) you should have a confident opinion on every issue; (b) an impressive conversationalist never permits any dead air; (c) mapping out strategies ahead of time makes for better communication; (d) using the right line will convince a partner to have sex; (e) the rational mind is the only basis for effective communication. These myths are likely to lead to game-playing, phony conversation, manipulative sexual seduction, and shallow relationships. 83. Paul finds watching pornographic films arousing and would like to include their viewing in lovemaking with Kim. Kim finds them repugnant and degrading to her and to all women. What guidelines should they keep in mind as they communicate about this? Answer: Preliminary steps to establish effective communication include the following: (a) Their level of commitment to each other must be considered. (b) Each needs to know his or her sexual values and be open to the values of the other. (c) They must discuss this sensitive issue as equals without one person's needs being considered more important than the other's. (d) They must build trust for one another. (e) They need to pick the right location (situation) for their discussion. As Paul and Kim communicate, they should try to (a) demonstrate warmth, caring, and respect; (b) avoid "all-ness" statements; (c) listen carefully; (d) empathize; (e) be genuine; (f) ask for clarification; (g) not be scared by silence; and (h) use effective self-talk. 84. What qualities distinguish constructive from destructive quarreling? Answer: In destructive quarreling, anger is expressed in vicious and attacking ways. Blaming occurs, as does character assassination. Both people are defensive, accusatory, stubborn, insulting, contemptuous, or whining. In constructive fighting, both people are free to express their anger, but without escalating it. They make an effort to acknowledge their differences and to be open to each other's points of view. They work toward resolution of disagreements through compromise and negotiation. 85. Summarize the findings of John Gottman regarding the qualities that might make or break marriages. Apply these to a marriage or intimate relationship that you have had a chance to observe. Answer: Answers will vary regarding the application, but these are the primary findings: (a) A ratio of five positive behaviors to one negative behavior improves the chances that the relationship will last. (b) Volatile relationships can be lasting ones. (c) Emotionally inexpressive relationships can be successful. (d) In happy relationships, both women and men emotionally express themselves in the same ways. (e) Positive feelings at the beginning of a relationship are associated with a higher likelihood that the relationship will last. John Gottman's research emphasizes that marriages thrive on positivity, effective communication during conflicts, and mutual respect. In observing a family member's relationship, their enduring bond is bolstered by frequent expressions of love, open dialogue during disagreements, and shared decision-making, reflecting Gottman's principles. 86. Think of a romantic relationship you have been in or observed. How would you classify the attachment styles of the two individuals in that relationship, and why? Answer: Answers will vary, but the types of attachment described in the text were (a) secure, (b) preoccupied, (c) fearful avoidant, and (d) dismissive avoidant. In a relationship I observed, one partner exhibited a secure attachment style, demonstrating trust, comfort with intimacy, and effective communication. The other partner displayed an anxious attachment style, seeking reassurance, and sometimes showing fear of abandonment, influencing their interactions and dynamics within the relationship. Chapter 10: Reproduction, Reproductive Technology, and Birthing Multiple Choice 1. Sperm deposited during the ________________ ovulation are most likely to lead to conception. a. 2 days following b. 4 days following c. 2 days preceding d. 6 days preceding Answer: d 2. Research on the mechanisms of fertilization has demonstrated that a. almost all of the ejaculated sperm will reach the ovum. b. chemicals in sperm actively pull an ovum through the fallopian tubes. c. fertilization actually takes place in the uterus. d. sperm have molecules that are attracted to a chemical released by the egg. Answer: d 3. Which statement most accurately describes the process of exocytosis? a. The fertilized ovum becomes a zygote. b. The ovum releases a sperm-attracting chemical. c. The sperm cell opens and its chromosomes are released into the ovum. d. The sperm release an enzyme that facilitates penetration of the zona pellucida. Answer: c 4. Pat is female and has blue eyes. These traits were determined a. at ovulation. b. at the time of fertilization. c. during penetration of the zona pellucida. d. when exocytosis occurred. Answer: b 5. The overall number of multiple births has increased over recent years largely as a result of a. improved male fertility and use of more varied coital positions. b. improved prenatal care among ethnic groups who are more prone to multiple births. c. intercourse at younger ages and a tendency for women to have more sex partners. d. more older women becoming pregnant and increased use of fertility drugs. Answer: d 6. Which of the following is NOT a description that applies to identical twins? a. Formed from separation at the first cell division b. Formed from two ova and two sperm c. Monozygotic d. Result from a single process of fertilization Answer: b 7. The technique of selective reduction is applied when a. an older woman already has several children. b. identical triplets are developing. c. large-multiple pregnancies develop as a result of fertility drugs. d. too many sperm have reached the unfertilized ovum. Answer: c 8. The solid mass of cells formed after three days of zygotic cell division is called a(n) a. blastocyst. b. embryo. c. fetus. d. morula. Answer: d 9. The mass of cells that implants itself in the endometrium is called the a. blastocyst. b. fetus. c. morula. d. zygote. Answer: a 10. Juanita undergoes surgery for an ectopic pregnancy. The surgery will a. implant the blastocyst more securely into the endometrium. b. remove the blastocyst from the fallopian tubes or abdominal cavity. c. remove the morula from the uterus before it develops into a blastocyst. d. repair the amnion and chorion. Answer: b 11. Which statement most accurately describes the function of the amnion? a. It develops into the umbilical cord early in the pregnancy. b. It forms a fluid-filled sac to moisten and protect the embryo. c. It forms the placenta, which provides nourishment for the fetus. d. It produces villi, which become a major part of the placenta. Answer: b 12. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about embryonic development? a. At 24 weeks, an embryo is considered a fetus. b. Nourishment and metabolic wastes pass through the umbilical cord. c. The chorion projects villi that become part of the placenta. d. The yolk sac and allantois become partly incorporated into the umbilical cord. Answer: a 13. Scientists develop a new species of rice plant that is considered drought-resistant because each cell requires less water. It is most likely that this new type of rice was produced by a. gene therapy. b. genetic engineering. c. natural selection. d. random mutation. Answer: b 14. To date, the effort to map the human genome has a. been temporarily abandoned because of its complexity. b. generated information that is being used to develop tests and potential treatments for genetic diseases. c. produced successful treatments for scores of human diseases. d. unraveled the mystery behind genetic diseases. Answer: b 15. Melissa has decided to become a single mother, and she seeks artificial insemination. In other words, Melissa will a. donate an ovum to a very fertile woman. b. have donated sperm placed in her vagina or uterus. c. have intercourse with a volunteer. d. undergo in vitro fertilization. Answer: b 16. Which of the following is the most likely candidate for artificial insemination? a. A couple in which the husband has a very low sperm count b. A man who does not wish to have any more children c. A woman who has undergone a partial hysterectomy d. A woman who is beyond menopause Answer: a 17. Dolores and her partner Nancy would like to have a child. One possibility would be for them to seek a. amniocentesis. b. artificial insemination. c. GIFT. d. IVF. Answer: b 18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes IVF? a. A woman's ovum is surgically removed from the ovary, fertilized, and then placed in her prepared uterus. b. Donor sperm is placed inside a woman's uterus or vagina with a baster. c. Genetically altered DNA is injected into the ovaries of a woman who has a genetic disorder, and this procedure corrects that disorder. d. Ova are fertilized normally in the fallopian tubes, removed, and then frozen for implantation at a later date. Answer: a 19. Stan and Kim visit the fertility clinic. Several ova are removed from Kim and fertilized by Stan's sperm. One of the fertilized ova is placed in Kim's uterus after she has been treated with hormones. This couple has undergone a. artificial embryonation. b. artificial insemination. c. GIFT. d. IVF. Answer: d 20. A couple considering IVF should be aware that the a. frozen embryos may be chromosomally altered by the freezing process. b. health of the donor sperm cannot be clearly determined. c. process virtually guarantees that multiple births will result. d. success rate of births from IVF averages about 20 percent. Answer: d 21. Which statement most accurately describes the GIFT procedure? a. A previously frozen embryo is placed in a woman's fallopian tube. b. A woman's ova are placed in her fallopian tube with concentrated sperm. c. Donor sperm is inserted directly into a woman's uterus. d. Ova and sperm are united outside the body and then implanted in the uterus. Answer: b 22. A reproductive technique that involves placing a single sperm into a single ovum is called a. GIFT. b. ICSI. c. immature oocyte collection. d. IVF. Answer: b 23. Which of the following describes what happens when computerized sperm selection is used? a. Only sperm carrying desirable genetic traits are injected into an ovum in the fallopian tube. b. Only sperm identified as free of mutations are used in a GIFT procedure. c. Only sperm that have survived a special freezing technique are used to artificially inseminate a woman. d. Only the sperm identified as most motile are used in an IVF procedure. Answer: d 24. One of the most ethically controversial reproductive technologies involves a. assisting women over 55 to become pregnant. b. injecting sperm directly into an ovum. c. removing immature oocytes from the ovary and utilizing them in an IVF procedure. d. transferring sperm-producing cells from one animal into the testes of another. Answer: a 25. What has been the effect of the one-child-only policy in China? a. A preference for complete childlessness has developed. b. Few couples seek to know the sex of their developing child. c. The proportion of females born has increased. d. The ratio of males to females born has increased, probably because females have been aborted. Answer: d 26. How is a clone different from typical offspring? a. A clone develops from artificial embryonation. b. A clone develops outside a woman's uterus. c. A clone has the same genetic makeup as the cell donor. d. A clone resembles one parent much more than the other. Answer: c 27. In the U.S., research on embryos a. can only be conducted on certain animals. b. is prohibited by federal law. c. is restricted by federal law and by National Institute of Health (NIH) research guidelines. d. was recently endorsed by the federal government and freed from special restrictions. Answer: c 28. A husband and wife make a contract with a second woman to bear a child for them. The husband's sperm will be used via artificial insemination. The couple agrees to bear all medical costs and pay a fee for the second woman's services. This procedure is called a. artificial embryonation. b. gamete intra-fallopian transfer. c. gestational surrogacy. d. in vitro fertilization. Answer: c 29. For which of the following pregnant women is amniocentesis likely to be recommended? a. Dina, who is 40 years old b. Jean, who already has five children c. Leslie, who has previously had a miscarriage d. Maria, who is 22 years old Answer: a 30. Which statement most accurately describes the procedure known as amniocentesis? a. A sample of chorionic tissue is extracted through the cervix and examined for abnormalities. b. An embryo is removed from the uterus, examined for problems, and then reimplanted. c. Fetal cells in the amniotic fluid are extracted through the abdominal wall and examined for abnormalities. d. Ultrasonic waves are used to generate an image of the fetus and surrounding structures. Answer: c 31. A possible advantage of CVS over amniocentesis is that CVS a. can be performed as early as the eighth week of gestation. b. can be used to create "keepsake" images for the parents. c. does not cause a rise in temperature or jarring vibrations. d. does not involve the use of X rays, whereas amniocentesis does. Answer: a 32. Some scientists attribute a possible increase in rates of infertility to a. clothing styles that reduce sperm counts. b. environmental pollutants. c. first intercourse occurring at an increasingly young age. d. more egalitarian gender roles. Answer: b 33. Which of the following has NOT been implicated as a possible cause of increased infertility? a. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease b. Alcohol and tobacco use c. Injuries to the testes d. Regular use of condoms and spermicides Answer: d 34. Sperm counts might be increased by a. avoiding ejaculation for 48 hours before intercourse. b. avoiding submersion in very warm water. c. having sex daily. d. Both (a) and (b) Answer: d 35. A very important step in preventing birth defects and low-birth-weight babies is a. ensuring that the parents really want a child. b. limiting the sexual activity of the mother-to-be. c. maintaining a regular program of prenatal care. d. using a physician rather than a midwife to deliver the infant. Answer: c 36. The cause of the majority of premature birth defects is a. a history of STDs. b. depletion of the ozone layer. c. drug and alcohol abuse by the father. d. unknown. Answer: d 37. Antoine and Janine want a child, and they use a home pregnancy test. They are elated when the test indicates the presence of a. FSH. b. HCG. c. LH. d. PZD. Answer: b 38. Naomi is delighted when the results of a home pregnancy test are positive. Her next step should be to a. arrange for amniocentesis or CVS. b. have a laboratory pregnancy test to confirm the results. c. paint the nursery either green or yellow. d. wait for the onset of "morning sickness." Answer: b 39. Leonard and Jane mention that they do not have intercourse since they learned that Jane is pregnant. They are concerned that such vigorous activity could cause a miscarriage. What does research suggest about their concern? a. A somewhat higher rate of birth defects is associated with having intercourse during pregnancy. b. Except in the first trimester, intercourse is permissible during pregnancy. c. In the absence of a medical problem, intercourse may occur, as long as it is comfortable for both individuals. d. Multiple pregnancies could result from intercourse during pregnancy, so condoms should be used. Answer: c 40. The most common sign that the birth process is beginning is a. expulsion of the mucus plug from the cervix. b. rupture of the amniotic sac. c. the fetus's shifting to a lower position in the abdomen. d. uterine contractions. Answer: d 41. Helen calls her best friend to say that she knows that labor has begun because she a. experienced several uterine contractions 15 to 20 minutes apart. b. felt the baby shift down low in her abdomen. c. felt her cervical opening expand. d. felt the fetus move in her abdomen. Answer: a 42. Which of the following does NOT occur during the first stage of labor? a. Dilation of the cervical opening b. Increasing frequency and strength of uterine contractions c. Movement of the fetus through the birth canal d. Thinning of the cervix Answer: c 43. Traditionally, North American physicians have cut vaginal tissue during the birthing process. This procedure is called a. cesarian section. b. effacement. c. episiotomy. d. infibulation. Answer: c 44. A mother reports that after the birth of her last child, she experienced an infection at the site of a surgical scar in the lower part of her vagina. This left her with discomfort for several months after giving birth. Most likely, this woman underwent a(n) a. effacement. b. episiotomy. c. infibulation. d. partial zona dissection. Answer: b 45. As labor proceeds, Marina is told that her baby appears to be in considerable distress. Marina may have to decide whether to undergo a. a cesarian section. b. an episiotomy. c. artificial embryonation. d. infibulation. Answer: a 46. What contention is at the basis of the controversy that surrounds cesarian sections? a. This procedure can reduce the likelihood of future pregnancies. b. This procedure can result in pain and discomfort in the vaginal area long after a birth. c. This procedure is a violation of human rights. d. This procedure is unnecessary in many cases in which it is performed. Answer: d 47. The third stage of childbirth involves a. complete effacement of the cervix. b. delivery of the afterbirth. c. fetal movement down the birth canal. d. passage of the head and shoulders out of the birth canal. Answer: b 48. Which of the following is NOT part of the afterbirth? a. Cervical plug b. Fetal membranes c. Placenta d. Umbilical cord Answer: a 49. How has childbirth changed in recent years? a. Childbirth has become less medicalized and increasingly under the birth mother's control. b. Fathers have been less and less involved in the birthing process. c. There has been a great increase in gestation surrogacy arrangements. d. There has been increasing emphasis on childbirth as a major surgical intervention requiring the latest technology. Answer: a 50. What is the social significance of the trend toward natural childbirth? a. Control of the birth process has been returned to women and their partners. b. Midwives are now viewed as the sole appropriate practitioners for childbirth. c. The relatives of the birth mother are no longer involved in the birth process. d. There has been a decrease in the number of episiotomies and cesarian births. Answer: a 51. Martin and Stacy attend weekly classes in which Stacy learns various relaxation and breathing techniques for use during labor. Martin learns his role in the birthing room as coach and supporter for Stacy. This couple is learning the techniques for a. cesarian birth. b. induced labor. c. the Lamaze method. d. the Leboyer method. Answer: c 52. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the Lamaze method? a. Active participation by the mother in birthing her baby b. Coaching of the birth mother by her partner or another willing person c. Use of anesthesia to facilitate an enjoyable birth experience d. Use of different breathing and relaxation techniques all through the birthing process Answer: c 53. Currently, the most commonly used pain-relieving intervention during childbirth involves a. deep breathing. b. epidural blocks. c. general anesthesia. d. hypnosis. Answer: b 54. Vicky and Michael have a videotape of their family members visiting with them all through Vicky's labor and birthing of their son. The tape shows the family gathered in a comfortable, well-decorated room. This birth apparently took place a. before adequate medical help could be reached. b. in a birthing room. c. in a prenatal clinic. d. within a hospital delivery room. Answer: b 55. Carla and Jim decide to use the Leboyer method for their baby's birth. This implies that their baby will be born a. at home, while friends and relatives are celebrating. b. in a cool, brightly lit hospital delivery room. c. in a quiet, dimly lit room, and that he or she will be gently bathed. d. via an incision in the mother's abdomen. Answer: c 56. The highest rates of maternal death are found in a. Canada. b. Europe. c. South Asia. d. sub-Saharan Africa. Answer: d Fill in the Blank 57. When the chromosomes of an IVF embryo are examined for abnormalities before implantation in the uterus, the procedure is known as _____________________. Answer: preimplantation genetic diagnosis 58. The prenatal diagnostic technique called _____________________ involves inserting a thin catheter through the cervix and removing a tissue sample for study. Answer: CVS (chorionic villi sampling) 59. Infertility is defined as a failure to become pregnant after at least _____________________ year(s) of intercourse without contraception. Answer: one 60. Heavy _____________________ consumption during pregnancy can lead to _____________________, which is characterized by abnormal growth, neurological damage, and facial distortion. Answer: alcohol; FAS (fetal alcohol syndrome) True or False 61. Fertilization of the ovum must occur within one week after ovulation. Answer: True 62. One reason for the increase in multiple births in the U.S. is an increase in the number of births to teenagers. Answer: False 63. The mass of cells that attaches itself to the endometrium is called a morula. Answer: False 64. The chorion plays an important role in the formation of the placenta. Answer: True 65. Genetic engineering involves the creation of living matter from inert substances. Answer: False 66. IVF refers to fertilization of an ovum outside the body. Answer: True 67. There is a 60-percent likelihood that an IVF pregnancy will develop to full term. Answer: False 68. Chorionic villi sampling can be done at the eighth week of pregnancy. Answer: True 69. In pregnancies subsequent to a cesarian section delivery, it is possible for the mother to give birth vaginally. Answer: True Short Answer 70. How many chromosomes does a zygote contain? Answer: A zygote contains 46 chromosomes; 23 from the sperm and 23 from the ovum itself. 71. Why can't identical twins be of different sexes? Answer: Identical twins are formed from one sperm and one ovum, at the first division of a single zygote. The zygote divides into two cells, which develop separately into two individuals. Thus each twin has exactly the same chromosomes, including sex chromosomes. 72. Explain the concept of selective reduction. Answer: Used because fertility drugs increase the number of large-multiple pregnancies, selective reduction is the selective abortion of one or more fetuses in large-multiple pregnancies so that risks are reduced for those which remain. 73. Why does an ectopic pregnancy require surgery? Answer: An ectopic pregnancy creates the danger of rupture of the fallopian tube and severe internal bleeding because the blastocyst has developed in the fallopian tube or elsewhere outside the uterus. 74. Describe the function of the placenta. Answer: The placenta provides nourishment for the developing fetus. It also removes metabolic wastes from the fetus. 75. What is the basic principle of gene therapy? Answer: Gene therapy is based on the idea that certain diseases with genetic causes can be treated by injecting new genes into human cells. 76. Explain the process of artificial insemination. Answer: This process involves placing donated sperm in a woman's vagina or uterus without intercourse. 77. What is the major problem associated with the various IVF techniques? Answer: Although IVF techniques result in fertilization about 60 percent of the time, pregnancy rates average less than 20 percent when only a single embryo is transferred. Also, the cost of IVF is very high. 78. How is a clone different from normal offspring? Answer: A clone is created from just one body cell of an organism; thus the clone is a genetic duplicate of the original organism. Normal offspring develop from joining the genetic material of two organisms. 79. Explain gestational surrogacy. Answer: In this process, a couple in which the women is infertile pays another woman to bear a child. Sperm may come from the man in the couple, or IVF may be used. 80. Explain the purpose of amniocentesis. Answer: This technique is used to detect certain genetic disorders such as Down syndrome and to monitor fetal development. 81. What are the two major underlying reasons for male infertility? Answer: Male infertility is usually caused by low sperm count—that is, fewer than 40 million sperm per cubic centimeter of semen. Another cause is low sperm motility. 82. How do home pregnancy tests determine if a pregnancy exists? Answer: These tests detect the presence or absence of human chorionic gonadotropin. 83. What is current medical advice regarding drinking alcohol during pregnancy? Answer: Current medical advice is that women should avoid drinking alcohol during pregnancy. 84. What are common problems associated with premature birth? Answer: Premature birth decreases an infant's chances of survival; most infant deaths in the U.S. are associated with premature delivery. Among very premature infants, respiratory problems, cranial abnormalities, and their complications are the most common problems. 85. What are the health risks associated with multiple births? Answer: For the fetuses, there is increased risk of premature birth, low birth weight, birth defects, and death. For the mother, there is increased risk of bleeding, hypertension, and other metabolic disturbances. Essay 86. Describe some of the legal and ethical problems surrounding IVF. Answer: Many ethical and legal issues related to IVF arise from the storage of embryos and from the prenatal testing that may be associated with IVF. For example, what should be done with the many embryos that have been stored? Is it ethical to sell them or to use them for research? Is it ethical to select embryos on the basis of their sex or other genetic traits? Should there be limits on the freedom to make such selections? Should someone be in charge of monitoring the possible long-term effects of such selections and enacting limitations on this freedom? Who has the right to decide the fate of a frozen embryo? Can it be inherited if the parents die? 87. Summarize some of the important federal rules governing embryo research. Answer: According to NIH guidelines, research cannot be done on human embryos beyond their fourteenth day of development, and no gametes or embryos can be used for research without the explicit consent of their donors. Furthermore, human embryos cannot be transferred to animals for gestation; twins cannot be cloned; and sex selection and cross-species fertilization are prohibited. Federal funds cannot be used for research on human embryos. (However, there are special guidelines regarding research on human embryonic stem cells.) 88. Both David and Beth have family histories of various birth defects. Now that Beth is pregnant, they both want to know what tests are available to let them know if their baby is normal. What are some of the procedures that might be used, and what can they detect? Answer: Amniocentesis can be used to detect Down syndrome and muscular dystrophy, as well as to monitor general fetal development. CVI is another technique that allows chromosomal analysis. In addition, certain abnormalities can be detected visually through sonograms, embryoscopy, or fetoscopy. 89. Lee and Kim have decided to have their baby using the Lamaze method. How will they prepare or train? Answer: They will attend a series of prenatal classes in which they will learn relaxation and breathing techniques to be used at different points in the labor process. Lee will serve as coach during labor and delivery. Kim will be an active participant in the birthing. Test Bank for Sexuality Today Gary F. Kelly 9780078035470