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Chapter 20: Anti-Infective Drugs Multiple Choice Questions 1. Generic ________ drugs begin with the prefixes cef-, cefa- or cepha-. a. antiviral b. cephalosporin c. fluoroquinolone d. protease inhibitor drugs Answer: b. cephalosporin Correct Feedback: Generic cephalosporin antibiotic drugs begin with cef-, cefa-, or cepha-. a. antiviral Incorrect Feedback: Antiviral drugs do not begin with these prefixes. c. fluoroquinolone Incorrect Feedback: Fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs do not begin with these prefixes. d. protease inhibitor drugs Incorrect Feedback: Protease inhibitor drugs do not begin with these prefixes. 2. The suffix __________ is common to generic tetracycline antibiotic drugs. a. –cillin b. –mycin c. –navir d. –cycline Answer: d. –cycline Correct Feedback: The suffix –cycline is common to generic tetracycline antibiotic drugs. a. –cillin Incorrect Feedback: The suffix –cillin is not common to generic tetracycline drugs. b. –mycin Incorrect Feedback: The suffix –mycin is not common to generic tetracycline drugs. c. –navir Incorrect Feedback: The suffix –navir is not common to generic tetracycline drugs. 3. Aminoglycoside drugs are primarily effective against _____. a. viruses b. parasites c. gram-negative bacteria d. gram-positive bacteria Answer: c. gram-negative bacteria Correct Feedback: Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are primarily effective against gram-negative bacteria. a. viruses Incorrect Feedback: Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are not effective against viruses. b. parasites Incorrect Feedback: Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are not effective against parasites. d. gram-positive bacteria Incorrect Feedback: Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are not effective against gram-positive bacteria. 4. Which of the following is NOT a class of antibiotic drug? a. carbapenem drugs b. monobactam drugs c. protease inhibitor drugs d. quinolone drugs Answer: c. protease inhibitor drugs Correct Feedback: Protease inhibitor drugs for HIV and AIDS inhibit the viral enzyme protease. a. carbapenem drugs Incorrect Feedback: Carbapenem drugs are antibiotic drugs that kill bacteria. b. monobactam drugs Incorrect Feedback: Monobactam drugs are antibiotic drugs that kill bacteria. d. quinolone drugs Incorrect Feedback: Quinolone drugs are antibiotic drugs that kill bacteria. 5. Nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs act in the same way as __________ except that they are chemically preactivated and act more quickly against a virus. a. aminoglycoside drugs b. fusion inhibitor drugs c. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs d. protease inhibitor drugs Answer: c. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs Correct Feedback: Nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs act in the same way as nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs, except that they are chemically preactivated and can act more quickly in the body. a. aminoglycoside drugs Incorrect Feedback: Aminoglycoside drugs are antibiotic drugs and are not effective against viruses. b. fusion inhibitor drugs Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs do not act in the same way as nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs. d. protease inhibitor drugs Incorrect Feedback: Protease inhibitor drugs do not act in the same way as nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs. 6. Fusion inhibitor drugs for HIV and AIDS can only be administered ______. a. by inhalation b. orally c. subcutaneously d. topically Answer: c. subcutaneously Correct Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs for HIV and AIDS can only be administered by subcutaneous injection and must be injected twice a day. a. by inhalation Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs cannot be administered by inhalation. b. orally Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs cannot be administered orally. d. topically Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs cannot be administered topically. 7. Which type of antibiotic drug does NOT cause the bacterium to die by interfering with the structure of its cell wall? a. carbapenem antibiotic drugs b. cephalosporin antibiotic drugs c. fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs d. monobactam antibiotic drugs Answer: c. fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs Correct Feedback: Fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs inhibit an enzyme that is essential to bacterial DNA replication and this causes cell death. a. carbapenem antibiotic drugs Incorrect Feedback: Carbapenem antibiotic drugs do interfere with the structure of the cell wall of the bacterium. b. cephalosporin antibiotic drugs Incorrect Feedback: Cephalosporin antibiotic drugs do interfere with the cell wall that surrounds each bacterium. d. monobactam antibiotic drugs Incorrect Feedback: Monobactam antibiotic drugs do interfere with the structure of the cell wall of the bacterium. 8. Which category of drugs to treat HIV binds directly to reverse transcriptase? a. fusion inhibitor drugs b. nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs c. HIV vaccines d. protease inhibitor drugs Answer: b. nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs Correct Feedback: Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs bind directly to reverse transcriptase, an enzyme needed to reproduce viral DNA, and disrupts its activity, causing the virus to die. a. fusion inhibitor drugs Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs do not bind to reverse transcriptase. c. HIV vaccines Incorrect Feedback: There are no HIV or AIDS vaccines currently on the market. d. protease inhibitor drugs Incorrect Feedback: Protease inhibitor drugs do not bind to reverse transcriptase. 9. Penicillin drugs are NOT effective at all against which type of bacteria? a. aerobic bacteria b. anaerobic bacteria c. gram-negative bacteria d. gram-positive bacteria Answer: a. aerobic bacteria Correct Feedback: Penicillin drugs are used to treat a wide variety of grampositive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacterial infections. b. anaerobic bacteria Incorrect Feedback: Penicillin drugs are effective against anaerobic bacterial infections. c. gram-negative bacteria Incorrect Feedback: Penicillin drugs are effective against some gram-negative bacterial infections. d. gram-positive bacteria Incorrect Feedback: Penicillin drugs are effective against gram-positive infections. 10. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Penicillin G drugs cannot be given orally because they are inactivated by gastric acid. b. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective against bacteria that produce penicillinase. c. The fungus from which the first cephalosporin drugs were produced was discovered near a sewer outlet in Italy. d. Patients taking aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are given vision tests and blood tests for cholesterol levels to monitor for signs of toxicity. Answer: d. Patients taking aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are given vision tests and blood tests for cholesterol levels to monitor for signs of toxicity. Correct Feedback: Patients receiving aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are carefully monitored with hearing tests (audiograms) and blood tests (BUN and creatinine) for kidney function. a. Penicillin G drugs cannot be given orally because they are inactivated by gastric acid. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. b. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective against bacteria that produce penicillinase. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. c. The fungus from which the first cephalosporin drugs were produced was discovered near a sewer outlet in Italy. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. 11. Out of all of the drugs listed, which is the most effective against bacteria that produce penicillinase? a. first-generation cephalosporin drugs b. second-generation cephalosporin drugs c. third-generation cephalosporin drugs d. All generation cephalosporin drugs are equally effective. Answer: c. third-generation cephalosporin drugs Correct Feedback: Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective of all the cephalosporin drugs against bacteria that produce penicillinase. a. first-generation cephalosporin drugs Incorrect Feedback: First-generation drugs are not as effective as third-generation drugs against bacteria that produce penicillinase. b. second-generation cephalosporin drugs Incorrect Feedback: Second-generation drugs are not as effective as thirdgeneration drugs against bacteria that produce penicillinase. d. All generation cephalosporin drugs are equally effective. Incorrect Feedback: First and second-generation cephalosporin drugs are not as effective as third-generation cephalosporin drugs against bacteria that produce penicillinase. 12. Which protease inhibitor drug for HIV and AIDS is ONLY available as part of a combination drug, not as an individual drug? a. abacavir b. lopinavir c. tenofovir d. zidovudine Answer: b. lopinavir Correct Feedback: The protease inhibitor drug lopinavir is only available as part of a combination drug, not as an individual drug. a. abacavir Incorrect Feedback: Abacavir (Ziagen) is not a protease inhibitor drug. c. tenofovir Incorrect Feedback: Tenofovir (Viread) is not a protease inhibitor drug. d. zidovudine Incorrect Feedback: Zidovudine (Retrovir) is not a protease inhibitor drug. 13. Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat all of the following types of infections EXCEPT _____. a. otitis media b. urinary tract infections c. fungal infections of the nails d. meningitis Answer: c. fungal infections of the nails Correct Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are effective against many gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. They are commonly used to treat otitis media infections in the ear, urinary tract infections, and meningitis. a. otitis media Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat otitis media. b. urinary tract infections Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat urinary tract infections. d. meningitis Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat meningitis. 14. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Until the introduction of penicillin, sulfa drugs were the only anti-infective drugs available to treat bacterial infections. b. Sulfonamide drugs interfere with the growth of some bacteria that must manufacture their own folic acid. c. A human cell has a cell wall like a bacterium. d. Antibiotic drugs that can kill a variety of different types of bacteria are known as broad spectrum antibiotic drugs. Answer: c. A human cell has a cell wall like a bacterium. Correct Feedback: All penicillin drugs interfere with the cell wall that surrounds a bacterium. Human cells have a cell membrane rather than a cell wall. a. Until the introduction of penicillin, sulfa drugs were the only anti-infective drugs available to treat bacterial infections. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. b. Sulfonamide drugs interfere with the growth of some bacteria that must manufacture their own folic acid. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. d. Antibiotic drugs that can kill a variety of different types of bacteria are known as broad spectrum antibiotic drugs. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. 15. Which of the following is NOT a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic drug? a. Receptin b. Omnicef c. Cefobid d. Rocephin Answer: a. Receptin Correct Feedback: Recombinant human soluble CD4 (Receptin) is used to treat HIV and AIDS. b. Omnicef Incorrect Feedback: Cefdinir (Omnicef) is a third-generation cephalosporin drug. c. Cefobid Incorrect Feedback: Cefoperazone (Cefobid) is a third-generation cephalosporin drug. d. Rocephin Incorrect Feedback: Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is a third-generation cephalosporin drug. 16. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. The cost of third-generation cephalosporin drugs is lower than the cost of other cephalosporin drugs. b. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective of all of the cephalosporin drugs against bacteria that produce penicillinase. c. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective of all of the cephalosporin drugs against gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. d. Because third-generation cephalosporin drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier, they are used to treat meningitis. Answer: a. The cost of third-generation cephalosporin drugs is lower than the cost of other cephalosporin drugs. Correct Feedback: The cost of third-generation cephalosporin drugs is higher than that of other cephalosporin drugs. b. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective of all of the cephalosporin drugs against bacteria that produce penicillinase. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. c. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective of all of the cephalosporin drugs against gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. d. Because third-generation cephalosporin drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier, they are used to treat meningitis. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. 17. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. A viral infection cannot be treated with an antibiotic drug. b. The American Academy of Pediatrics states that educating parents is the single most important issue in reducing the overuse of antibiotic drugs. c. Few bacteria have developed resistance to antibiotic drugs, but many will develop resistance in the future. d. Antibiotic drugs have been widely prescribed for conditions that did not need antibiotic drugs, and traces of antibiotic drugs given to animals show up in the meat. Answer: c. Few bacteria have developed resistance to antibiotic drugs, but many will develop resistance in the future. Correct Feedback: Most bacteria have developed resistant strains that are immune to certain antibiotic drugs. a. A viral infection cannot be treated with an antibiotic drug. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. b. The American Academy of Pediatrics states that educating parents is the single most important issue in reducing the overuse of antibiotic drugs. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. d. Antibiotic drugs have been widely prescribed for conditions that did not need antibiotic drugs, and traces of antibiotic drugs given to animals show up in the meat. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. 18. Which of these pairs of drugs consists of two aminoglycoside drugs that are given orally as a bowel prep before surgery because they are not absorbed from the intestine into the blood? a. kanamycin, neomycin b. minocycline, tetracycline c. cefaclor, cefuroxime d. ampicillin, ticarcillin Answer: a. kanamycin, neomycin Correct Feedback: Some aminoglycoside drugs (kanamycin, neomycin) are not absorbed from the intestine into the blood, and so they are given orally as a bowel prep to inhibit intestinal bacteria prior to abdominal surgery. b. minocycline, tetracycline Incorrect Feedback: These are not aminoglycoside drugs. c. cefaclor, cefuroxime Incorrect Feedback: These are not aminoglycoside drugs. d. ampicillin, ticarcillin Incorrect Feedback: These are not aminoglycoside drugs. 19. On a culture and sensitivity laboratory test, a large ring of inhibition signifies that ________. a. the specimen from the patient did not contain any bacteria b. the antibiotic drug in that disk is effective in killing that bacterium c. the laboratory technician did not swab the Petri dish correctly with the patient’s specimen d. all of the above Answer: b. the antibiotic drug in that disk is effective in killing that bacterium Correct Feedback: Petri dishes show small or large rings of inhibition (clear zones of no bacterial growth) around different antibiotic disks. A large ring of inhibition signifies that the antibiotic drug in that disk is very effective in killing the bacterium. a. the specimen from the patient did not contain any bacteria Incorrect Feedback: This answer is not correct. c. the laboratory technician did not swab the Petri dish correctly with the patient’s specimen Incorrect Feedback: This answer is not correct. d. all of the above Incorrect Feedback: There is only one correct answer. 20. Which of the following pairs of antibiotic drugs is used to prevent Myobacterium avium-intracellulare infection in AIDS patients? a. nystatin, fluconazole b. nelfinavir, retonavir c. azithromycin, clarithromycin d. penicillin G, amoxicillin Answer: c. azithromycin, clarithromycin Correct Feedback: Azithromycin and clarithromycin are used to prevent Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infection in AIDS patients. a. nystatin, fluconazole Incorrect Feedback: These are not antibiotic drugs. b. nelfinavir, retonavir Incorrect Feedback: These are not antibiotic drugs. d. penicillin G, amoxicillin Incorrect Feedback: These drugs are not used to prevent Mycobacterium aviumintracellulare infections in AIDS patients. 21. All of the following are fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs EXCEPT ______. a. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) b. erythromycin (Eryc, Ery-Tab) c. lomefloxacin (Maxaquin) d. ofloxacin (Floxin) Answer: b. erythromycin (Eryc, Ery-Tab) Correct Feedback: Erythromycin (Eryc, Ery-Tab) is a macrolide antibiotic drug. a. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) Incorrect Feedback: Cipro is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic drug. c. lomefloxacin (Maxaquin) Incorrect Feedback: Maxaquin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic drug. d. ofloxacin (Floxin) Incorrect Feedback: Floxin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic drug. 22. If a patient was taking the macrolide antibiotic drug azithromycin (Zithromax) and developed an allergic reaction, why might that reaction last long and be severe? a. Because the category of macrolide antibiotic drugs is known to cause severe allergic reactions. b. Because patients on this drug develop a cross-allergy to penicillin drugs. c. Because this drug has a long half life. d. Because this drug causes ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Answer: c. Because this drug has a long half life. Correct Feedback: The macrolide antibiotic drug azithromycin (Zithromax) has a half life of 68 hours. That means it takes 68 hours for the body to excrete one half of a single dose of Zithromax. If the patient has an allergic reaction to Zithromax, that reaction will last longer and could be more severe. a. Because the category of macrolide antibiotic drugs is known to cause severe allergic reactions. Incorrect Feedback: This is an incorrect statement. b. Because patients on this drug develop a cross-allergy to penicillin drugs. Incorrect Feedback: This is an incorrect statement. d. Because this drug causes ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Incorrect Feedback: This is an incorrect statement. 23. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. MRSA is resistant to methicillin and the penicillin category of drugs. b. MRSA is a serious infection that is only found in hospitalized patients. c. Hospitalized patients with MRSA are treated with intravenous vancomycin. d. All of the statements are false. Answer: b. MRSA is a serious infection that is only found in hospitalized patients. Correct Feedback: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) causes serious and sometimes fatal infections in hospitalized patients, and now has been found in patients who are in other healthcare facilities and even at home. a. MRSA is resistant to methicillin and the penicillin category of drugs. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. c. Hospitalized patients with MRSA are treated with intravenous vancomycin. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. d. All of the statements are false. Incorrect Feedback: Only one of the statements is false. 24. The drug Augmentin _____. a. is a combination drug b. contains the generic drugs amoxicillin and clavulanic acid c. contains a substance that inactivates penicillinase produced by some bacteria d. all of the above Answer: d. all of the above Correct Feedback: Combination drugs such as Augmentin (amoxicillin, clavulanic acid) contain a penicillin antibiotic drug (ampicillin, amoxicillin, piperacillin, ticarcillin) that is inactivated by penicillinase from resistant bacteria and another drug (clavulanic acid, sulbactam, tazobactam) that inactivates bacterial penicillinase. a. is a combination drug Incorrect Feedback: That is true, but it is not the only correct answer. b. contains the generic drugs amoxicillin and clavulanic acid Incorrect Feedback: That is true, but it is not the only correct answer. c. contains a substance that inactivates penicillinase produced by some bacteria Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer. 25. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Zidovudine (Retrovir) for HIV and AIDS was originally known as azidothymidine (AZT). b. The word retrovirus is a shortened form of the phrase reverse transcriptase. c. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus. d. Clinical testing to approve AZT for treating AIDS took several years and was prolonged because of a number of patient deaths. Answer: d. Clinical testing to approve AZT for treating AIDS took several years and was prolonged because of a number of patient deaths. Correct Feedback: In 1986, clinical testing of AZT was begun using a doubleblind study in which severely ill AIDS patients were divided into two groups: one group received AZT while the control group received a placebo. Shortly after the study was begun, it was stopped when it was found that those in the control group had a 40% mortality rate while those receiving AZT had only a 6% mortality rate. In March 1988, just four months after a new drug application was filed, the FDA approved AZT. a. Zidovudine (Retrovir) for HIV and AIDS was originally known as azidothymidine (AZT). Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. b. The word retrovirus is a shortened form of the phrase reverse transcriptase. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. c. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. 26. Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of an HIV infection? a. decreased numbers of T lymphocytes b. fatigue, fever, and night sweats c. diarrhea and weight loss d. an opportunistic infection Answer: d. an opportunistic infection Correct Feedback: Symptoms of an HIV infection include progressive decrease in the number of T lymphocytes, symptoms of fever, night sweats, weakness, diarrhea, weight loss, fatigue, and swollen glands. The dividing line between an HIV infection and AIDS is the presence or absence of the following indicators: CD4 lymphocyte count below 200 cells/mm3, and presence of opportunistic infections/diseases. a. decreased numbers of T lymphocytes Incorrect Feedback: This is one of the symptoms of an HIV infection. b. fatigue, fever, and night sweats Incorrect Feedback: These are symptoms of an HIV infection. c. diarrhea and weight loss Incorrect Feedback: These are symptoms of an HIV infection. 27. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. A person infected with HIV usually remains without symptoms for four to five years. b. Drugs used to treat HIV inhibit the growth of the retrovirus, but are unable to kill it. c. The viral load is the total number of viruses in the blood and lymphocytes. d. All of the above statements are true. Answer: d. All of the above statements are true. Correct Feedback: A person infected with HIV usually remains without symptoms for four to five years. Drugs used to treat HIV inhibit the growth of the retrovirus but are unable to kill it. The viral load is the total number of viruses in the blood and lymphocytes. a. A person infected with HIV usually remains without symptoms for four to five years. Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer. b. Drugs used to treat HIV inhibit the growth of the retrovirus, but are unable to kill it. Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer. c. The viral load is the total number of viruses in the blood and lymphocytes. Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer. 28. Which of the following drug categories is NOT used to treat HIV and AIDS? a. macrolide drugs b. protease inhibitor drugs c. fusion inhibitor drugs d. integrase inhibitor drugs Answer: a. macrolide drugs Correct Feedback: These antiviral drugs are used to treat HIV and AIDS: protease inhibitor drugs, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs, nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs, nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs, fusion inhibitor drugs, and integrase inhibitor drugs. b. protease inhibitor drugs Incorrect Feedback: Protease inhibitor drugs are used to treat HIV and AIDS. c. fusion inhibitor drugs Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs are used to treat HIV and AIDS. d. integrase inhibitor drugs Incorrect Feedback: Integrase inhibitor drugs are used to treat HIV and AIDS. 29. Which of the following is NOT a protease inhibitor drug used to treat HIV and AIDS? a. indinavir (Crixivan) b. zalcitabine (Hivid) c. nelfinavir (Viracept) d. saquinavir (Fortovase, Invirase) Answer: b. zalcitabine (Hivid) Correct Feedback: Zidovudine (Retrovir) is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug for HIV and AIDS. a. indinavir (Crixivan) Incorrect Feedback: Indinavir (Crixivan) is a protease inhibitor drug used to treat HIV and AIDS. c. nelfinavir (Viracept) Incorrect Feedback: Nelfinavir (Viracept) is a protease inhibitor drug used to treat HIV and AIDS. d. saquinavir (Fortovase, Invirase) Incorrect Feedback: Saquinavir (Fortovase, Invirase) is a protease inhibitor drug used to treat HIV and AIDS. 30. Drugs used to treat opportunistic infections associated with HIV and AIDS are needed because of the immune system’s inability to defend against _____ infections. a. bacterial b. fungal c. viral d. all of the above Answer: d. all of the above Correct Feedback: The immune system of a patient with an HIV infection is unable to defend against opportunistic infections, such as candidiasis, coccidioidomycosis, CMV retinitis, histoplasmosis, toxoplasmosis, Salmonella, Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infection, and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. a. bacterial Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer. b. fungal Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer. c. viral Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer. 31. Which of the following drugs does NOT belong to the nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug category used to treat HIV and AIDS? a. delavirdine (Rescriptor) b. efavirenz (Sustiva) c. nevirapine (Viramune) d. amantadine (Symmetrel) Answer: d. amantadine (Symmetrel) Correct Feedback: Amantadine (Symmetrel) is an antiviral drug used to prevent or treat influenza A or influenza B infections (the “flu”). a. delavirdine (Rescriptor) Incorrect Feedback: This drug is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug. b. efavirenz (Sustiva) Incorrect Feedback: This drug is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug. c. nevirapine (Viramune) Incorrect Feedback: This drug is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug. 32. ________ drugs are specific drugs that are used to slow intestinal transit time and treat AIDS-related diarrhea that is not responsive to other prescription antidiarrheal drugs. a. antibiotic b. antiviral c. fluoroquinolone d. orphan Answer: d. orphan Correct Feedback: Orphan drugs slow intestinal transit time and are used to treat AIDS-related diarrhea that is not responsive to regular prescription antidiarrheal drugs. a. antibiotic Incorrect Feedback: Antibiotic drugs are not effective in treating AIDS-related diarrhea. b. antiviral Incorrect Feedback: Antiviral drugs are not effective in treating AIDS-related diarrhea. c. fluoroquinolone Incorrect Feedback: Fluoroquinolone drugs are not effective in treating AIDSrelated diarrhea. 33. All of the following are cephalosporin trade name drugs EXCEPT ______. a. Keflex b. Duricef c. Amoxil d. Mefoxin Answer: c. Amoxil Correct Feedback: Amoxicillin (Amoxil, Moxatag) is a penicillin antibiotic drug. a. Keflex Incorrect Feedback: Cephalexin (Keflex) is a cephalosporin drug. b. Duricef Incorrect Feedback: cefadroxil (Duricef) is a cephalosporin drug. d. Mefoxin Incorrect Feedback: Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) is a cephalosporin drug. 34. One trade name for the tetracycline antibiotic drug doxycycline is ______. a. Vibramycin b. Cipro c. Zithromax d. Hivid Answer: a. Vibramycin Correct Feedback: Doxycycline (Vibramycin, Vibra-Tabs) is a tetracycline antibiotic drug. b. Cipro Incorrect Feedback: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is not a tetracycline antibiotic drug. c. Zithromax Incorrect Feedback: Azithromycin (Zithromax) is not a tetracycline antibiotic drug. d. Hivid Incorrect Feedback: Zalcitabine (Hivid) is not a tetracycline antibiotic drug. 35. The phrase culture and sensitivity means ______. a. culture of the antibiotic drug and sensitivity to it b. culture of the prescribed drug and type of bacteria sensitive to it c. culture of the bacteria and its sensitivity to temperature d. culture of the bacteria and its sensitivity to antibiotic drugs Answer: d. culture of the bacteria and its sensitivity to antibiotic drugs Correct Feedback: The physician collects a specimen of the infected area and sends it to a laboratory for a culture and sensitivity test. In the laboratory, the specimen (urine, blood, mucus, pus, saliva, etc.) is swabbed onto a Petri dish to grow colonies of the bacterium. These are used to identify what bacterium (or different kinds of bacteria) is causing the infection. The bacterium is then swabbed onto another Petri dish, and disks with specific concentrations of different antibiotic drugs are added. The antibiotic drugs that are effective against that bacterium will have a large zone of inhibition (clear ring) around their disk where the bacterium was not able to grow. a. culture of the antibiotic drug and sensitivity to it Incorrect Feedback: In a culture and sensitivity, the antibiotic drug is not cultured. b. culture of the prescribed drug and type of bacteria sensitive to it Incorrect Feedback: In a culture and sensitivity, the prescribed drug is not cultured. c. culture of the bacteria and its sensitivity to temperature Incorrect Feedback: In a culture and sensitivity, the sensitivity to temperature is not tested. 36. Which pair of drugs belongs to the penicillin category of antibiotic drugs? a. Crixivan, Norvir b. Amoxil, Pfizerpen c. Omnicef, Zinacef d. Cipro, Maxaquin Answer: b. Amoxil, Pfizerpen Correct Feedback: Amoxicillin (Amoxil, Moxatag) and ampicillin (Principen) are penicillin antibiotic drugs. a. Crixivan, Norvir Incorrect Feedback: These are not penicillin antibiotic drugs. c. Omnicef, Zinacef Incorrect Feedback: These are not penicillin antibiotic drugs. d. Cipro, Maxaquin Incorrect Feedback: These are not penicillin antibiotic drugs. 37. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Annual vaccination with a flu shot prevents a person from getting the flu for that year. b. Flu shots contain either the whole virus, a part of the virus, or a surface antigen from the virus. c. The two most common and dangerous flu families are influenza A and influenza B viruses. d. Each year, the CDCP reformulates the flu vaccine. Answer: a. Annual vaccination with a flu shot prevents a person from getting the flu for that year. Correct Feedback: : Each February, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDCP) selects those stains of influenza that are most prevalent in Asia and other parts of the world to include in the flu vaccine that will be offered in the United States the following fall before the start of flu season. Flu viruses mutate constantly and create many new subtypes, and so the influenza vaccine must be reformulated every year. Persons who get flu shots can still get the flu from other strains of the influenza virus not included in the flu vaccine. b. Flu shots contain either the whole virus, a part of the virus, or a surface antigen from the virus. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. c. The two most common and dangerous flu families are influenza A and influenza B viruses. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. d. Each year, the CDCP reformulates the flu vaccine. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. 38. The _____ group of antibiotic drugs can cause permanent discoloration of teeth. a. penicillin b. cephalosporin c. aminoglycoside d. tetracycline Answer: d. tetracycline Correct Feedback: Tetracycline drugs can cause permanent discoloration of the teeth. a. penicillin Incorrect Feedback: Penicillin drugs do not cause permanent discoloration of the teeth. b. cephalosporin Incorrect Feedback: Cephalosporin drugs do not cause permanent discoloration of the teeth. c. aminoglycoside Incorrect Feedback: Aminoglycoside drugs do not cause permanent discoloration of the teeth. 39. The _____ group of antibiotic drugs can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. a. penicillin b. cephalosporin c. aminoglycoside d. tetracycline Answer: c. aminoglycoside Correct Feedback: All aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs have the potential to cause toxic effects to the auditory nerve (ototoxicity) or to the kidneys (nephrotoxicity). a. penicillin Incorrect Feedback: Penicillin drugs do not cause ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity. b. cephalosporin Incorrect Feedback: Cephalosporin drugs do not cause ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity. d. tetracycline Incorrect Feedback: Tetracycline drugs do not cause ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity. 40. Sulfonamide drugs are _____. a. also known as sulfa drugs b. a type of antibiotic drug c. used to treat HIV d. a member of the penicillin category drugs Answer: a. also known as sulfa drugs Correct Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are also known as sulfa drugs. b. a type of antibiotic drug Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are not antibiotic drugs. c. used to treat HIV Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are not used to treat HIV. d. a member of the penicillin category drugs Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are not penicillin drugs. 41. To which category of antibiotic drugs does ciprofloxacin (Cipro) belong? a. penicillins b. fluoroquinolones c. tetracyclines d. fusion inhibitors Answer: b. fluoroquinolones Correct Feedback: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic drug. a. penicillins Incorrect Feedback: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) does not belong to the penicillin category. c. tetracyclines Incorrect Feedback: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) does not belong to the tetracycline category. d. fusion inhibitors Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs are not a category of antibiotic drugs. 42. The generic drugs trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are both in a combination drug that is marketed under the two trade names of ______. a. Bactrim and Maxaquin b. Septra and Rocephin c. Omnicef and NegGram d. Bactrim and Septra Answer: d. Bactrim and Septra Correct Feedback: Bactrim (trimethoprim, sulfamethoxazole) and Septra (trimethoprim, sulfamethoxazole) are combination drugs. a. Bactrim and Maxaquin Incorrect Feedback: Maxaquin is not a combination drug. b. Septra and Rocephin Incorrect Feedback: Rocephin is not a combination drug. c. Omnicef and NegGram Incorrect Feedback: Neither of these drugs is a combination drug. 43. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. An AIDS vaccine is not yet available. b. AZT is used to treat secondary infections in AIDS patients. c. AIDS patients do not contract other types of infections. d. Lithium is one of the main drugs used to treat all AIDS patients. Answer: a. An AIDS vaccine is not yet available. Correct Feedback: Because HIV continues to mutate, no vaccine has yet been approved by the FDA, although many are in the clinical trials phase. b. AZT is used to treat secondary infections in AIDS patients. Incorrect Feedback: AZT is not used to treat secondary infections in AIDS patients. c. AIDS patients do not contract other types of infections. Incorrect Feedback: AIDS patients do contract other types of infections. d. Lithium is one of the main drugs used to treat all AIDS patients. Incorrect Feedback: Lithium is not one of the main drugs used to treat all AIDS patients. 44. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Both antiyeast drugs and antifungal drugs are used to treat severe yeast infections in the body. b. The AIDS virus belongs to a category of viruses known as retroviruses. c. AIDS is not fatal if treatment is begun early in the disease. d. pentamidine (NebuPent, Pentam 300) is used to treat Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Answer: c. AIDS is not fatal if treatment is begun early in the disease. Correct Feedback: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is an eventually fatal disease in which the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attaches to CD4 receptors on helper T lymphocytes. a. Both antiyeast drugs and antifungal drugs are used to treat severe yeast infections in the body. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. b. The AIDS virus belongs to a category of viruses known as retroviruses. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. d. pentamidine (NebuPent, Pentam 300) is used to treat Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. 45. What was the drug that was banned for causing seal-limb deformities in babies but is now being used to treat AIDS? a. azithromycin b. thalidomide c. erythromycin d. pentamidine Answer: b. thalidomide Correct Feedback: Thalidomide was used to treat morning sickness in pregnant women in Europe and caused the severe birth defect of phocomelia (“seal limbs”) in their babies; it was withdrawn from the market. In 1997, it was discovered to be useful in treating cancer, AIDS, and leprosy. a. azithromycin Incorrect Feedback: Azithromycin does not cause seal-limb deformities. c. erythromycin Incorrect Feedback: Erythromycin does not cause seal-limb deformities. d. pentamidine Incorrect Feedback: Pentamidine does not cause seal-limb deformities. 46. Which of the following sentences is FALSE? a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is the most common serious infection and complication of AIDS. b. PCP eventually affects about three-fourths of all AIDS patients. c. PCP seldom causes symptoms in healthy individuals who do not have AIDS. d. Pneumocystis carinii is a bacterium. Answer: d. Pneumocystis carinii is a bacterium. Correct Feedback: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) is the most common serious infection and complication of AIDS and eventually affects about threefourths of all AIDS patients. Pneumocystis carinii is a protozoan that seldom causes symptoms in healthy individuals, but it is a life-threatening infection in AIDS patients. a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is the most common serious infection and complication of AIDS. Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer. b. PCP eventually affects about three-fourths of all AIDS patients. Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer. c. PCP seldom causes symptoms in healthy individuals who do not have AIDS. Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer. 47. Antifungal drugs are effective against all of the following medical conditions EXCEPT ______. a. athlete’s foot b. jock itch c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia d. onychomycosis Answer: c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia Correct Feedback: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is caused by a protozoan, not a fungal infection. Topical fungal infections of the skin include ringworm, athlete's foot, and jock itch, all of which are caused by the fungus Tinea. A fungal infection of the nails (onychomycosis) can be treated topically if the infection has not reached the nail bed. a. athlete’s foot Incorrect Feedback: Antifungal drugs are effective against athlete’s foot. b. jock itch Incorrect Feedback: Antifungal drugs are effective against jock itch. d. onychomycosis Incorrect Feedback: Antifungal drugs are effective against onychomycosis, a fungal infection of the nails. 48. Which of these drugs is a trade name for the antifungal drug amphotericin B? a. Tamiflu b. Kaletra c. Biaxin d. Fungizone Answer: d. Fungizone Correct Feedback: When a fungal infection becomes embedded in the nail bed and the nail becomes misshapen, thickened, and discolored, then it must be treated with oral antifungal drugs such as amphotericin B (Fungizone) that act systemically through the blood to reach the tissues around the nail. a. Tamiflu Incorrect Feedback: Tamiflu is not the trade name for the antifungal drug amphotericin B. b. Kaletra Incorrect Feedback: Kaletra is not the trade name for the antifungal drug amphotericin B. c. Biaxin Incorrect Feedback: Biaxin is not the trade name for the antifungal drug amphotericin B. 49. Patients with an allergy to penicillin may also show an allergy to what other category of antibiotic drugs? a. cephalosporin drugs b. antiviral drugs c. fluoroquinolone drugs d. all of the above Answer: a. cephalosporin drugs Correct Feedback: Cephalosporin drugs and penicillin drugs are structurally similar, and patients who are allergic to penicillin drugs may have an allergic reaction if given cephalosporin antibiotic drugs. b. antiviral drugs Incorrect Feedback: Patients allergic to penicillin are not allergic to antiviral drugs. c. fluoroquinolone drugs Incorrect Feedback: Patients allergic to penicillin are not allergic to fluoroquinolone drugs. d. all of the above Incorrect Feedback: There is only one correct answer. 50. Why can’t tetracycline be given to pregnant or nursing women? a. Because it causes nausea and vomiting. b. Because it provokes a cross-allergy with penicillin drugs. c. Because it stains the baby’s developing permanent teeth. d. Because it is only effective against gram-negative bacterial infections. Answer: c. Because it stains the baby’s developing permanent teeth. Correct Feedback: Tetracycline drugs can cause permanent discoloration of the teeth; therefore, they are not prescribed for pregnant women (to protect the fetus’s developing teeth) or for children under age eight (whose permanent teeth are still developing). a. Because it causes nausea and vomiting. Incorrect Feedback: Tetracycline does not cause nausea and vomiting. b. Because it provokes a cross-allergy with penicillin drugs. Incorrect Feedback: Tetracycline does not provoke a cross-allergy with penicillin drugs. d. Because it is only effective against gram-negative bacterial infections. Incorrect Feedback: Tetracycline is effective against a wide variety of bacteria. 51. Which of the following statements about an AIDS vaccine is FALSE ________? a. It would contain purified protein genetic material from HIV. b. It would be reproduced by recombinant DNA technology. c. It would cause a mild case of HIV which could then be cured. d. It would stimulate the body to produce antibodies against HIV. Answer: c. It would cause a mild case of HIV which could then be cured. Correct Feedback: A vaccine, which consists of purified protein genetic material from the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), is reproduced using recombinant DNA technology. The purpose of the vaccine is to stimulate the body to produce antibodies against HIV. Because the vaccine only contains pieces of the virus, it cannot cause AIDS. a. It would contain purified protein genetic material from HIV. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. b. It would be reproduced by recombinant DNA technology. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. d. It would stimulate the body to produce antibodies against HIV. Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement. 52. Atripla and Combivir are combination drugs used to treat HIV and AIDS. Answer: True Feedback: Combination drugs for HIV and AIDS include Atripla (efavirenz, emtricitabine, tenofovir) and Combivir (lamivudine, zidovudine). 53. The goal of drug therapy is to suppress HIV replication as much as possible for as long as possible. Answer: True Feedback: The goal of drug therapy is to suppress HIV replication as much as possible for as long as possible. 54. Zidovudine (Retrovir), the first drug approved to treat HIV and AIDS, can no longer be given by itself because HIV has developed resistance to it. Answer: True Feedback: Zidovudine was used extensively by itself for many years, but can no longer be given alone because HIV has developed resistance to it. 55. Sulfonamide drugs are only effective against viruses. Answer: False Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are effective against many gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. 56. The designation of first-generation, second-generation, or third-generation indicates when a cephalosporin drug was first discovered or first marketed. Answer: False Feedback: Cephalosporin antibiotic drugs are further divided into firstgeneration, second-generation, and third-generation cephalosporin drugs. This designation has nothing to do with when these antibiotic drugs were discovered or first marketed, but instead divides them according to their therapeutic antibiotic properties. 57. Macrolide antibiotic drugs kill bacteria by inhibiting an enzyme that the bacteria need in order to reproduce. Answer: False Feedback: Macrolide antibiotic drugs are a group of drugs that either inhibit or kill bacteria by interfering with RNA and protein synthesis within the bacteria. 58. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs inhibit an enzyme the virus needs to reproduce itself and also become part of the viral DNA chain, which causes it to break, and the virus dies. Answer: True Feedback: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs inhibit reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that the virus needs to reproduce itself. These drugs also become part of the viral DNA chain, which causes it to break, and the virus dies. 59. Monobactam antibiotic drugs are effective against all gram-negative and grampositive bacteria. Answer: False Feedback: Monobactam antibiotic drugs are effective against gramnegative bacteria. 60. Drugs prescribed for patients with AIDS wasting syndrome are used to stimulate the appetite, build muscle, and treat extreme weight loss. Answer: True Feedback: These drugs for AIDS wasting syndrome are used to stimulate the appetite of AIDS patients, build muscle mass, and treat extreme weight loss. 61. Fungi can cause disease topically or systemically, and drugs used to treat fungi can be administered either topically, orally, or intravenously. Answer: True Feedback: Fungi can cause disease topically or systemically. There are topical, oral, and intravenous drugs for fungal infections. 62. Drugs used to treat Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAC) infections include antituberculosis drugs, macrolide antibiotic drugs, fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs, aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs, and orphan drugs. Answer: True Feedback: Drugs used to treat a MAC infection include antituberculosis drugs, macrolide antibiotic drugs, fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs, aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs, and orphan drugs. At least two of these drugs are used together to treat a MAC infection. 63. When a fungal infection involves the nail bed and the nail becomes misshapen, thickened, and discolored, then it must be treated with topical antifungal drugs that act systemically. Answer: False Feedback: When a fungal infection becomes embedded in the nail bed and the nail becomes misshapen, thickened, and discolored, then it must be treated with oral antifungal drugs that act systemically through the blood to reach the tissues around the nail. 64. Drugs for tuberculosis that are effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis are also used to treat MAC infection in AIDS patients because the bacteria that cause these two different infections have a waxy cell wall. Answer: True Feedback: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, has a waxy bacterial cell wall that makes it difficult to kill. Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium intracellulare belong to this same category of bacteria. Many antituberculosis drugs are used as one of the two drugs needed simultaneously to treat a MAC infection. 65. Kaposi’s sarcoma and Burkitt’s lymphoma are rare cancers that can develop in patients with the life-threatening bacterial infection of MRSA. Answer: False Feedback: HIV patients are prone to develop the rare cancers of Kaposi’s sarcoma and Burkitt’s lymphoma. 66. AIDS patients can develop widespread and extremely serious fungal infections. Answer: True Feedback: In immunocompromised patients, such as patients with cancer or AIDS or in those who are undergoing bone marrow transplantation, fungal and yeast infections can become widespread and extremely serious. 67. Tetracycline drugs are used to treat a wide variety of gram-negative and grampositive bacterial infections, as well as the sexually transmitted diseases of gonorrhea and syphilis. Answer: True Feedback: Tetracycline drugs are used to treat a wide variety of gramnegative and gram-positive bacterial infections, as well as other bacterial infections, and are used to treat the sexually transmitted diseases of gonorrhea and syphilis. 68. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) is used to treat a wide variety of gram-negative and grampositive bacterial infections and also the infections of Lyme disease, malaria, and anthrax from bioterrorism. Answer: True Feedback: Doxycycline (Vibramycin) is used to treat a wide variety of gram-negative and gram-positive bacterial infections. It also has special uses in treating the infections of Lyme disease, malaria, and anthrax from bioterrorism. 69. __________ drugs are not categorized as antibiotic drugs because they only inhibit the growth of bacteria but do not actually kill bacteria. Answer: Sulfonamide Feedback: Sulfonamide anti-infective drugs are a group of drugs that inhibit the growth of bacteria. They are not categorized as antibiotic drugs because they do not actually kill bacteria. 70. Sulfonamide drugs are also known as __________ drugs. Answer: sulfa Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are also known as sulfa drugs. 71. Penicillin antibiotic drugs all share the common molecular structure of a _________ ring. Answer: beta-lactam Feedback: Penicillin antibiotic drugs are a group of drugs that kill bacteria. These drugs share the common molecular structure of a beta-lactam ring. 72. Antibiotic drugs that are able to kill a variety of different types of bacteria are known as __________ antibiotic drugs. Answer: broad spectrum Feedback: Antibiotic drugs that are able to kill a variety of different types of bacteria are known as broad spectrum antibiotic drugs. 73. The suffix __________ is common to generic penicillin antibiotic drugs. Answer: –cillin Feedback: The suffix –cillin is common to generic penicillin antibiotic drugs. 74. __________ antibiotic drugs are further divided into first-generation, secondgeneration, and third-generation drugs. Answer: Cephalosporin Feedback: Cephalosporin antibiotic drugs are further divided into firstgeneration, second-generation, and third-generation cephalosporin drugs. 75. _____ antibiotic drugs interfere with the synthesis of protein in the bacterial wall. Answer: Aminoglycoside Feedback: Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs interfere with the synthesis of protein in the bacterial wall. 76. The suffix __________ is common to protease inhibitor drugs. Answer: –navir Feedback: Note: The suffix –navir is common to generic protease inhibitor drugs. 77. Certain bacteria have developed a resistance to penicillin by producing the enzyme ______ that inactivates the penicillin molecule by splitting its beta-lactam ring. Answer: penicillinase Feedback: The enzyme penicillinase is produced by penicillin-resistant bacteria and is also known as beta lactamase because it inactivates penicillin drugs by breaking their chemical structure at the site of the beta-lactam ring. 78. In 2006, the FDA approved the drug ______, which was the first combination drug to contain three different AIDS drugs. Answer: Atripla Feedback: In 2006, the FDA approved the first combination drug to contain three different AIDS drugs: Atripla. 79. The two distinct toxic effects of _________ and _________ have limited the use of drugs in the aminoglycoside category of antibiotic drugs. Answer: ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity Feedback: All aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs have the potential to cause toxic effects to the auditory nerve (ototoxicity) or to the kidneys (nephrotoxicity). 80. Dronabinol, a Schedule III drug used to treat AIDS wasting syndrome, is unusual in that it is derived from ______. Answer: marijuana Feedback: Dronabinol is a Schedule III drug derived from marijuana. 81. Define these abbreviations. AIDS ______________ HIV ______________ MRSA ____________ Answer: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, human immunodeficiency virus, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Feedback: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is an eventually fatal disease in which the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attaches to CD4 receptors on helper T lymphocytes. A resistant strain of bacteria was named methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). 82. The trade name drugs Fluarix, FluMist, Tamiflu, and Flumadine are used to treat ______. Answer: influenza Feedback: Many antiviral drugs used to prevent or treat influenza (the flu) have the letters flu in their trade names, including Fluarix, FluMist, Flumadine, and Tamiflu. 83. 1. amoxicillin (Amoxil, Moxatag) A. aminoglycoside antibiotic drug 2. azithromycin (Zithromax) B. antifungal drug 3. cefdinir (Omicef) C. carbapenem antibiotic drug 4. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) drug D. fluoroquinolone antibiotic 5. doripenem (Doribax) E. macrolide antibiotic drug 6. doxycycline (Vibramycin, Vibra-Tabs) inhibitor drug F. nucleoside reverse transcriptase 7. fluconazole (Diflucan) G. penicillin antibiotic drug 8. indinavir (Crixivan) H. protease inhibitor drug 9. lamivudine (Epivir) I. tetracycline antibiotic drug 10. tobramycin (TOBI) J. cephalosporin drug Answer: G Answer: E Answer: J Answer: D Answer: C Answer: I Answer: B Answer: H Answer: F Answer: A Feedback: These drugs and their categories are found throughout the chapter. 84. Briefly explain how penicillin antibiotic drugs work and why they are not harmful to human cells. Answer: All penicillin drugs interfere with the cell wall that surrounds the bacterium, disrupting the intracellular contents and causing cell death. Human cells have a cell membrane rather than a cell wall, and so they are not affected by penicillin drugs. 85. Explain what penicillinase is and how it affects the administration of some penicillin drugs. Answer: Some penicillin drugs are inactivated by penicillinase (all penicillin drugs except dicloxacillin, naficillin, and oxacillin). The enzyme penicillinase is produced by penicillin-resistant bacteria and is also known as beta lactamase because it inactivates penicillin drugs by breaking their chemical structure at the site of the betalactam ring. 86. Explain what the two focuses are for drug therapy for AIDS. Answer: Drug therapy for AIDS focuses on drugs to suppress the virus as well as drugs to treat any secondary opportunistic infections that develop. 87. Describe the steps that are involved in performing and interpreting the results of a culture and sensitivity test. Answer: While the patient is still in the office (before taking the first dose of the antibiotic drug), the physician collects a specimen of the infected area and sends it to a laboratory for a culture and sensitivity test. In the laboratory, the specimen (urine, blood, mucus, pus, saliva, etc.) is swabbed onto a Petri dish. The dish is allowed to incubate and grow colonies of the bacterium. The results show the bacterial colonies, and these are used to identify what bacterium (or different kinds of bacteria) is causing the infection. The bacterium is then swabbed onto another Petri dish, and disks with specific concentrations of different antibiotic drugs are added. The Petri dish is incubated. The antibiotic drugs that are effective against that bacterium will have a large zone of inhibition (clear ring) around their disk where the bacterium was not able to grow. 88. The macrolide antibiotic drug azithromycin (Zithromax) has a half life of 68 hours. What are the advantages and disadvantages associated with this long half life? Answer: The macrolide antibiotic drug azithromycin (Zithromax) has a half life of 68 hours. That means it takes 68 hours for the body to excrete one half of a single dose of Zithromax. This extended therapeutic effect is good because it makes it possible to take Zithromax just once a day for 5 days to complete treatment, while most other antibiotic drugs have a shorter half life and have to be take two or three times a day for seven days or more. Also, the patient is less likely to forget to take a dose of once-aday Zithromax. However, if the patient has an allergic reaction to Zithromax, that reaction will last longer and could be more severe. 89. The presence of what two things causes a diagnosis of HIV to change to be a diagnosis of AIDS? Answer: The dividing line between a diagnosis of HIV infection and a diagnosis of AIDS is determined by the presence or absence of the following indicators: CD4 lymphocyte count below 200 cells/mm3, and the presence of opportunistic infections/diseases. 90. Briefly explain how fusion inhibitor drugs and integrase inhibitor drugs prevent HIV from reproducing itself. Answer: Fusion inhibitor drugs block HIV when it tries to fuse its viral membrane with the cell membrane of the CD4 lymphocyte. Because the virus cannot fuse with the lymphocyte, it is unable to reproduce itself. Integrase inhibitor drugs block integrase, an enzyme used by HIV to insert its genetic material into a CD4 lymphocyte. 91. What is an “AIDS cocktail” and what are its advantages? Answer: The combination therapy (the so-called “AIDS cocktail”) became the standard treatment in 1996. Current drug therapy uses two or three antiviral drugs in combination; this is more effective than one drug and also decreases the risk of developing resistant strains of HIV. Test Bank for Understanding Pharmacology for Health Professionals Susan M. Turley 9780135145708, 9780133911268
