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Chapter 20: Anti-Infective Drugs
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Generic ________ drugs begin with the prefixes cef-, cefa- or cepha-.
a. antiviral
b. cephalosporin
c. fluoroquinolone
d. protease inhibitor drugs
Answer: b. cephalosporin
Correct Feedback: Generic cephalosporin antibiotic drugs begin with cef-, cefa-, or cepha-.
a. antiviral
Incorrect Feedback: Antiviral drugs do not begin with these prefixes.
c. fluoroquinolone
Incorrect Feedback: Fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs do not begin with these prefixes.
d. protease inhibitor drugsr
Incorrect Feedback: Protease inhibitor drugs do not begin with these prefixes.
2. The suffix __________ is common to generic tetracycline antibiotic drugs.
a. –cillin
b. –mycin
c. –navir
d. –cycline
Answer: d. –cycline
Correct Feedback: The suffix –cycline is common to generic tetracycline antibiotic drugs.
a. –cillin
Incorrect Feedback: The suffix –cillin is not common to generic tetracycline drugs.
b. –mycin
Incorrect Feedback: The suffix –mycin is not common to generic tetracycline drugs.
c. –navirr
Incorrect Feedback: The suffix –navir is not common to generic tetracycline drugs.
3. Aminoglycoside drugs are primarily effective against _____.
a. viruses

b. parasites
c. gram-negative bacteria
d. gram-positive bacteria
Answer: c. gram-negative bacteria
Correct Feedback: Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are primarily effective against gramnegative bacteria.
a. viruses
Incorrect Feedback: Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are not effective against viruses.
b. parasites
Incorrect Feedback: Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are not effective against parasites.
d. gram-positive bacteria
Incorrect Feedback: Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are not effective against gram-positive
bacteria.
4. Which of the following is NOT a class of antibiotic drug?
a. carbapenem drugs
b. monobactam drugs
c. protease inhibitor drugs
d. quinolone drugs
Answer: c. protease inhibitor drugs
Correct Feedback: Protease inhibitor drugs for HIV and AIDS inhibit the viral enzyme
protease.
a. carbapenem drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Carbapenem drugs are antibiotic drugs that kill bacteria.
b. monobactam drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Monobactam drugs are antibiotic drugs that kill bacteria.
d. quinolone drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Quinolone drugs are antibiotic drugs that kill bacteria.
5. Nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs act in the same way as __________
except that they are chemically preactivated and act more quickly against a virus.
a. aminoglycoside drugs
b. fusion inhibitor drugs
c. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs

d. protease inhibitor drugs
Answer: c. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs
Correct Feedback: Nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs act in the same
way as nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs, except that they are chemically
preactivated and can act more quickly in the body.
a. aminoglycoside drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Aminoglycoside drugs are antibiotic drugs and are not effective against
viruses.
b. fusion inhibitor drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs do not act in the same way as nucleotide analog
reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs.
d. protease inhibitor drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Protease inhibitor drugs do not act in the same way as nucleotide analog
reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs.
6. Fusion inhibitor drugs for HIV and AIDS can only be administered ______.
a. by inhalation
b. orally
c. subcutaneously
d. topically
Answer: c. subcutaneously
Correct Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs for HIV and AIDS can only be administered by
subcutaneous injection and must be injected twice a day.
a. by inhalation
Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs cannot be administered by inhalation.
b. orally
Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs cannot be administered orally.
d. topically
Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs cannot be administered topically.
7. Which type of antibiotic drug does NOT cause the bacterium to die by interfering with the
structure of its cell wall?
a. carbapenem antibiotic drugs
b. cephalosporin antibiotic drugs
c. fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs

d. monobactam antibiotic drugs
Answer: c. fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs
Correct Feedback: Fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs inhibit an enzyme that is essential to
bacterial DNA replication and this causes cell death.
a. carbapenem antibiotic drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Carbapenem antibiotic drugs do interfere with the structure of the cell
wall of the bacterium.
b. cephalosporin antibiotic drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Cephalosporin antibiotic drugs do interfere with the cell wall that
surrounds each bacterium.
d. monobactam antibiotic drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Monobactam antibiotic drugs do interfere with the structure of the cell
wall of the bacterium.
8. Which category of drugs to treat HIV binds directly to reverse transcriptase?
a. fusion inhibitor drugs
b. nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs
c. HIV vaccines
d. protease inhibitor drugs
Answer: b. nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs
Correct Feedback: Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs bind directly to
reverse transcriptase, an enzyme needed to reproduce viral DNA, and disrupts its activity,
causing the virus to die.
a. fusion inhibitor drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs do not bind to reverse transcriptase.
c. HIV vaccines
Incorrect Feedback: There are no HIV or AIDS vaccines currently on the market.
d. protease inhibitor drugsr
Incorrect Feedback: Protease inhibitor drugs do not bind to reverse transcriptase.
9. Penicillin drugs are NOT effective at all against which type of bacteria?
a. aerobic bacteria
b. anaerobic bacteria
c. gram-negative bacteria

d. gram-positive bacteria
Answer: a. aerobic bacteria
Correct Feedback: Penicillin drugs are used to treat a wide variety of grampositive, gramnegative, and anaerobic bacterial infections.
b. anaerobic bacteria
Incorrect Feedback: Penicillin drugs are effective against anaerobic bacterial infections.
c. gram-negative bacteria
Incorrect Feedback: Penicillin drugs are effective against some gram-negative bacterial
infections.
d. gram-positive bacteriar
Incorrect Feedback: Penicillin drugs are effective against gram-positive infections.
10. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Penicillin G drugs cannot be given orally because they are inactivated by gastric acid.
b. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective against bacteria that produce
penicillinase.
c. The fungus from which the first cephalosporin drugs were produced was discovered near a
sewer outlet in Italy.
d. Patients taking aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are given vision tests and blood tests for
cholesterol levels to monitor for signs of toxicity.
Answer: d. Patients taking aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are given vision tests and blood
tests for cholesterol levels to monitor for signs of toxicity.
Correct Feedback: Patients receiving aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are carefully monitored
with hearing tests (audiograms) and blood tests (BUN and creatinine) for kidney function.
a. Penicillin G drugs cannot be given orally because they are inactivated by gastric acid.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
b. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective against bacteria that produce
penicillinase.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
c. The fungus from which the first cephalosporin drugs were produced was discovered near a
sewer outlet in Italy.r
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
11. Out of all of the drugs listed, which is the most effective against bacteria that produce
penicillinase?
a. first-generation cephalosporin drugs

b. second-generation cephalosporin drugs
c. third-generation cephalosporin drugs
d. All generation cephalosporin drugs are equally effective.
Answer: c. third-generation cephalosporin drugs
Correct Feedback: Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective of all the
cephalosporin drugs against bacteria that produce penicillinase.
a. first-generation cephalosporin drugs
Incorrect Feedback: First-generation drugs are not as effective as third-generation drugs
against bacteria that produce penicillinase.
b. second-generation cephalosporin drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Second-generation drugs are not as effective as thirdgeneration drugs
against bacteria that produce penicillinase.
d. All generation cephalosporin drugs are equally effective.
Incorrect Feedback: First and second-generation cephalosporin drugs are not as effective as
third-generation cephalosporin drugs against bacteria that produce penicillinase.
12. Which protease inhibitor drug for HIV and AIDS is ONLY available as part of a
combination drug, not as an individual drug?
a. abacavir
b. lopinavir
c. tenofovir
d. zidovudine
Answer: b. lopinavir
Correct Feedback: The protease inhibitor drug lopinavir is only available as part of a
combination drug, not as an individual drug.
a. abacavir
Incorrect Feedback: Abacavir (Ziagen) is not a protease inhibitor drug.
c. tenofovir
Incorrect Feedback: Tenofovir (Viread) is not a protease inhibitor drug.
d. zidovudiner
Incorrect Feedback: Zidovudine (Retrovir) is not a protease inhibitor drug.
13. Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat all of the following types of infections EXCEPT
_____.
a. otitis media

b. urinary tract infections
c. fungal infections of the nails
d. meningitis
Answer: c. fungal infections of the nails
Correct Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are effective against many gram-negative and grampositive bacteria. They are commonly used to treat otitis media infections in the ear, urinary
tract infections, and meningitis.
a. otitis media
Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat otitis media.
b. urinary tract infections
Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat urinary tract infections.
d. meningitis
Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat meningitis.
14. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Until the introduction of penicillin, sulfa drugs were the only anti-infective drugs available
to treat bacterial infections.
b. Sulfonamide drugs interfere with the growth of some bacteria that must manufacture their
own folic acid.
c. A human cell has a cell wall like a bacterium.
d. Antibiotic drugs that can kill a variety of different types of bacteria are known as broad
spectrum antibiotic drugs.
Answer: c. A human cell has a cell wall like a bacterium.
Correct Feedback: All penicillin drugs interfere with the cell wall that surrounds a bacterium.
Human cells have a cell membrane rather than a cell wall.
a. Until the introduction of penicillin, sulfa drugs were the only anti-infective drugs available
to treat bacterial infections.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
b. Sulfonamide drugs interfere with the growth of some bacteria that must manufacture their
own folic acid.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
d. Antibiotic drugs that can kill a variety of different types of bacteria are known as broad
spectrum antibiotic drugs.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
15. Which of the following is NOT a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic drug?

a. Receptin
b. Omnicef
c. Cefobid
d. Rocephin
Answer: a. Receptin
Correct Feedback: Recombinant human soluble CD4 (Receptin) is used to treat HIV and
AIDS.
b. Omnicef
Incorrect Feedback: Cefdinir (Omnicef) is a third-generation cephalosporin drug.
c. Cefobid
Incorrect Feedback: Cefoperazone (Cefobid) is a third-generation cephalosporin drug.
d. Rocephinr
Incorrect Feedback: Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is a third-generation cephalosporin drug.
16. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. The cost of third-generation cephalosporin drugs is lower than the cost of other
cephalosporin drugs.
b. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective of all of the cephalosporin
drugs against bacteria that produce penicillinase.
c. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective of all of the cephalosporin
drugs against gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.
d. Because third-generation cephalosporin drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier, they are
used to treat meningitis.
Answer: a. The cost of third-generation cephalosporin drugs is lower than the cost of other
cephalosporin drugs.
Correct Feedback: The cost of third-generation cephalosporin drugs is higher than that of
other cephalosporin drugs.
b. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective of all of the cephalosporin
drugs against bacteria that produce penicillinase.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
c. Third-generation cephalosporin drugs are the most effective of all of the cephalosporin
drugs against gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
d. Because third-generation cephalosporin drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier, they are
used to treat meningitis.r

Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
17. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. A viral infection cannot be treated with an antibiotic drug.
b. The American Academy of Pediatrics states that educating parents is the single most
important issue in reducing the overuse of antibiotic drugs.
c. Few bacteria have developed resistance to antibiotic drugs, but many will develop
resistance in the future.
d. Antibiotic drugs have been widely prescribed for conditions that did not need antibiotic
drugs, and traces of antibiotic drugs given to animals show up in the meat.
Answer: c. Few bacteria have developed resistance to antibiotic drugs, but many will develop
resistance in the future.
Correct Feedback: Most bacteria have developed resistant strains that are immune to certain
antibiotic drugs.
a. A viral infection cannot be treated with an antibiotic drug.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
b. The American Academy of Pediatrics states that educating parents is the single most
important issue in reducing the overuse of antibiotic drugs.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
d. Antibiotic drugs have been widely prescribed for conditions that did not need antibiotic
drugs, and traces of antibiotic drugs given to animals show up in the meat.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
18. Which of these pairs of drugs consists of two aminoglycoside drugs that are given orally
as a bowel prep before surgery because they are not absorbed from the intestine into the
blood?
a. kanamycin, neomycin
b. minocycline, tetracycline
c. cefaclor, cefuroxime
d. ampicillin, ticarcillin
Answer: a. kanamycin, neomycin
Correct Feedback: Some aminoglycoside drugs (kanamycin, neomycin) are not absorbed
from the intestine into the blood, and so they are given orally as a bowel prep to inhibit
intestinal bacteria prior to abdominal surgery.
b. minocycline, tetracycline
Incorrect Feedback: These are not aminoglycoside drugs.

c. cefaclor, cefuroxime
Incorrect Feedback: These are not aminoglycoside drugs.
d. ampicillin, ticarcillinr
Incorrect Feedback: These are not aminoglycoside drugs.
19. On a culture and sensitivity laboratory test, a large ring of inhibition signifies that
________.
a. the specimen from the patient did not contain any bacteria
b. the antibiotic drug in that disk is effective in killing that bacterium
c. the laboratory technician did not swab the Petri dish correctly with the patient’s specimen
d. all of the above
Answer: b. the antibiotic drug in that disk is effective in killing that bacterium
Correct Feedback: Petri dishes show small or large rings of inhibition (clear zones of no
bacterial growth) around different antibiotic disks. A large ring of inhibition signifies that the
antibiotic drug in that disk is very effective in killing the bacterium.
a. the specimen from the patient did not contain any bacteria
Incorrect Feedback: This answer is not correct.
c. the laboratory technician did not swab the Petri dish correctly with the patient’s specimen
Incorrect Feedback: This answer is not correct.
d. all of the abover
Incorrect Feedback: There is only one correct answer.
20. Which of the following pairs of antibiotic drugs is used to prevent Myobacterium aviumintracellulare infection in AIDS patients?
a. nystatin, fluconazole
b. nelfinavir, retonavir
c. azithromycin, clarithromycin
d. penicillin G, amoxicillin
Answer: c. azithromycin, clarithromycin
Correct Feedback: Azithromycin and clarithromycin are used to prevent Mycobacterium
avium-intracellulare infection in AIDS patients.
a. nystatin, fluconazole
Incorrect Feedback: These are not antibiotic drugs.
b. nelfinavir, retonavir

Incorrect Feedback: These are not antibiotic drugs.
d. penicillin G, amoxicillin
Incorrect Feedback: These drugs are not used to prevent Mycobacterium aviumintracellulare
infections in AIDS patients.
21. All of the following are fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs EXCEPT ______.
a. ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
b. erythromycin (Eryc, Ery-Tab)
c. lomefloxacin (Maxaquin)
d. ofloxacin (Floxin)
Answer: b. erythromycin (Eryc, Ery-Tab)
Correct Feedback: Erythromycin (Eryc, Ery-Tab) is a macrolide antibiotic drug.
a. ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Incorrect Feedback: Cipro is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic drug.
c. lomefloxacin (Maxaquin)
Incorrect Feedback: Maxaquin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic drug.
d. ofloxacin (Floxin)r
Incorrect Feedback: Floxin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic drug.
22. If a patient was taking the macrolide antibiotic drug azithromycin (Zithromax) and
developed an allergic reaction, why might that reaction last long and be severe?
a. Because the category of macrolide antibiotic drugs is known to cause severe allergic
reactions.
b. Because patients on this drug develop a cross-allergy to penicillin drugs.
c. Because this drug has a long half life.
d. Because this drug causes ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
Answer: c. Because this drug has a long half life.
Correct Feedback: The macrolide antibiotic drug azithromycin (Zithromax) has a half life of
68 hours. That means it takes 68 hours for the body to excrete one half of a single dose of
Zithromax. If the patient has an allergic reaction to Zithromax, that reaction will last longer
and could be more severe.
a. Because the category of macrolide antibiotic drugs is known to cause severe allergic
reactions.
Incorrect Feedback: This is an incorrect statement.
b. Because patients on this drug develop a cross-allergy to penicillin drugs.

Incorrect Feedback: This is an incorrect statement.
d. Because this drug causes ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
Incorrect Feedback: This is an incorrect statement.
23. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. MRSA is resistant to methicillin and the penicillin category of drugs.
b. MRSA is a serious infection that is only found in hospitalized patients.
c. Hospitalized patients with MRSA are treated with intravenous vancomycin.
d. All of the statements are false.
Answer: b. MRSA is a serious infection that is only found in hospitalized patients.
Correct Feedback: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) causes serious and
sometimes fatal infections in hospitalized patients, and now has been found in patients who
are in other healthcare facilities and even at home.
a. MRSA is resistant to methicillin and the penicillin category of drugs.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
c. Hospitalized patients with MRSA are treated with intravenous vancomycin.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
d. All of the statements are false.r
Incorrect Feedback: Only one of the statements is false.
24. The drug Augmentin _____.
a. is a combination drug
b. contains the generic drugs amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
c. contains a substance that inactivates penicillinase produced by some bacteria
d. all of the above
Answer: d. all of the above
Correct Feedback: Combination drugs such as Augmentin (amoxicillin, clavulanic acid)
contain a penicillin antibiotic drug (ampicillin, amoxicillin, piperacillin, ticarcillin) that is
inactivated by penicillinase from resistant bacteria and another drug (clavulanic acid,
sulbactam, tazobactam) that inactivates bacterial penicillinase.
a. is a combination drug
Incorrect Feedback: That is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
b. contains the generic drugs amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
Incorrect Feedback: That is true, but it is not the only correct answer.

c. contains a substance that inactivates penicillinase produced by some bacteriar
Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
25. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Zidovudine (Retrovir) for HIV and AIDS was originally known as azidothymidine (AZT).
b. The word retrovirus is a shortened form of the phrase reverse transcriptase.
c. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus.
d. Clinical testing to approve AZT for treating AIDS took several years and was prolonged
because of a number of patient deaths.
Answer: d. Clinical testing to approve AZT for treating AIDS took several years and was
prolonged because of a number of patient deaths.
Correct Feedback: In 1986, clinical testing of AZT was begun using a doubleblind study in
which severely ill AIDS patients were divided into two groups: one group received AZT
while the control group received a placebo. Shortly after the study was begun, it was stopped
when it was found that those in the control group had a 40% mortality rate while those
receiving AZT had only a 6% mortality rate. In March 1988, just four months after a new
drug application was filed, the FDA approved AZT.
a. Zidovudine (Retrovir) for HIV and AIDS was originally known as azidothymidine (AZT).
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
b. The word retrovirus is a shortened form of the phrase reverse transcriptase.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
c. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus.r
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
26. Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of an HIV infection?
a. decreased numbers of T lymphocytes
b. fatigue, fever, and night sweats
c. diarrhea and weight loss
d. an opportunistic infection
Answer: d. an opportunistic infection
Correct Feedback: Symptoms of an HIV infection include progressive decrease in the number
of T lymphocytes, symptoms of fever, night sweats, weakness, diarrhea, weight loss, fatigue,
and swollen glands. The dividing line between an HIV infection and AIDS is the presence or
absence of the following indicators: CD4 lymphocyte count below 200 cells/mm3, and
presence of opportunistic infections/diseases.
a. decreased numbers of T lymphocytes

Incorrect Feedback: This is one of the symptoms of an HIV infection.
b. fatigue, fever, and night sweats
Incorrect Feedback: These are symptoms of an HIV infection.
c. diarrhea and weight lossr
Incorrect Feedback: These are symptoms of an HIV infection.
27. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. A person infected with HIV usually remains without symptoms for four to five years.
b. Drugs used to treat HIV inhibit the growth of the retrovirus, but are unable to kill it.
c. The viral load is the total number of viruses in the blood and lymphocytes.
d. All of the above statements are true.
Answer: d. All of the above statements are true.
Correct Feedback: A person infected with HIV usually remains without symptoms for four to
five years. Drugs used to treat HIV inhibit the growth of the retrovirus but are unable to kill
it. The viral load is the total number of viruses in the blood and lymphocytes.
a. A person infected with HIV usually remains without symptoms for four to five years.
Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
b. Drugs used to treat HIV inhibit the growth of the retrovirus, but are unable to kill it.
Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
c. The viral load is the total number of viruses in the blood and lymphocytes.r
Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
28. Which of the following drug categories is NOT used to treat HIV and AIDS?
a. macrolide drugs
b. protease inhibitor drugs
c. fusion inhibitor drugs
d. integrase inhibitor drugs
Answer: a. macrolide drugs
Correct Feedback: These antiviral drugs are used to treat HIV and AIDS: protease inhibitor
drugs, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs, nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase
inhibitor drugs, nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs, fusion inhibitor drugs,
and integrase inhibitor drugs.
b. protease inhibitor drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Protease inhibitor drugs are used to treat HIV and AIDS.

c. fusion inhibitor drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs are used to treat HIV and AIDS.
d. integrase inhibitor drugsr
Incorrect Feedback: Integrase inhibitor drugs are used to treat HIV and AIDS.
29. Which of the following is NOT a protease inhibitor drug used to treat HIV and AIDS?
a. indinavir (Crixivan)
b. zalcitabine (Hivid)
c. nelfinavir (Viracept)
d. saquinavir (Fortovase, Invirase)
Answer: b. zalcitabine (Hivid)
Correct Feedback: Zidovudine (Retrovir) is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug
for HIV and AIDS.
a. indinavir (Crixivan)
Incorrect Feedback: Indinavir (Crixivan) is a protease inhibitor drug used to treat HIV and
AIDS.
c. nelfinavir (Viracept)
Incorrect Feedback: Nelfinavir (Viracept) is a protease inhibitor drug used to treat HIV and
AIDS.
d. saquinavir (Fortovase, Invirase)r
Incorrect Feedback: Saquinavir (Fortovase, Invirase) is a protease inhibitor drug used to treat
HIV and AIDS.
30. Drugs used to treat opportunistic infections associated with HIV and AIDS are needed
because of the immune system’s inability to defend against _____ infections.
a. bacterial
b. fungal
c. viral
d. all of the above
Answer: d. all of the above
Correct Feedback: The immune system of a patient with an HIV infection is unable to defend
against opportunistic infections, such as candidiasis, coccidioidomycosis, CMV retinitis,
histoplasmosis, toxoplasmosis, Salmonella, Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infection,
and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
a. bacterial

Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
b. fungal
Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
c. viralr
Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
31. Which of the following drugs does NOT belong to the nonnucleoside reverse
transcriptase inhibitor drug category used to treat HIV and AIDS?
a. delavirdine (Rescriptor)
b. efavirenz (Sustiva)
c. nevirapine (Viramune)
d. amantadine (Symmetrel)
Answer: d. amantadine (Symmetrel)
Correct Feedback: Amantadine (Symmetrel) is an antiviral drug used to prevent or treat
influenza A or influenza B infections (the “flu”).
a. delavirdine (Rescriptor)
Incorrect Feedback: This drug is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug.
b. efavirenz (Sustiva)
Incorrect Feedback: This drug is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug.
c. nevirapine (Viramune)r
Incorrect Feedback: This drug is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug.
32. ________ drugs are specific drugs that are used to slow intestinal transit time and treat
AIDS-related diarrhea that is not responsive to other prescription antidiarrheal drugs.
a. antibiotic
b. antiviral
c. fluoroquinolone
d. orphan
Answer: d. orphan
Correct Feedback: Orphan drugs slow intestinal transit time and are used to treat AIDSrelated diarrhea that is not responsive to regular prescription antidiarrheal drugs.
a. antibiotic
Incorrect Feedback: Antibiotic drugs are not effective in treating AIDS-related diarrhea.
b. antiviral

Incorrect Feedback: Antiviral drugs are not effective in treating AIDS-related diarrhea.
c. fluoroquinoloner
Incorrect Feedback: Fluoroquinolone drugs are not effective in treating AIDSrelated diarrhea.
33. All of the following are cephalosporin trade name drugs EXCEPT ______.
a. Keflex
b. Duricef
c. Amoxil
d. Mefoxin
Answer: c. Amoxil
Correct Feedback: Amoxicillin (Amoxil, Moxatag) is a penicillin antibiotic drug.
a. Keflex
Incorrect Feedback: Cephalexin (Keflex) is a cephalosporin drug.
b. Duricef
Incorrect Feedback: cefadroxil (Duricef) is a cephalosporin drug.
d. Mefoxin
Incorrect Feedback: Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) is a cephalosporin drug.
34. One trade name for the tetracycline antibiotic drug doxycycline is ______.
a. Vibramycin
b. Cipro
c. Zithromax
d. Hivid
Answer: a. Vibramycin
Correct Feedback: Doxycycline (Vibramycin, Vibra-Tabs) is a tetracycline antibiotic drug.
b. Cipro
Incorrect Feedback: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is not a tetracycline antibiotic drug.
c. Zithromax
Incorrect Feedback: Azithromycin (Zithromax) is not a tetracycline antibiotic drug.
d. Hividr
Incorrect Feedback: Zalcitabine (Hivid) is not a tetracycline antibiotic drug.
35. The phrase culture and sensitivity means ______.

a. culture of the antibiotic drug and sensitivity to it
b. culture of the prescribed drug and type of bacteria sensitive to it
c. culture of the bacteria and its sensitivity to temperature
d. culture of the bacteria and its sensitivity to antibiotic drugs
Answer: d. culture of the bacteria and its sensitivity to antibiotic drugs
Correct Feedback: The physician collects a specimen of the infected area and sends it to a
laboratory for a culture and sensitivity test. In the laboratory, the specimen (urine, blood,
mucus, pus, saliva, etc.) is swabbed onto a Petri dish to grow colonies of the bacterium.
These are used to identify what bacterium (or different kinds of bacteria) is causing the
infection. The bacterium is then swabbed onto another Petri dish, and disks with specific
concentrations of different antibiotic drugs are added. The antibiotic drugs that are effective
against that bacterium will have a large zone of inhibition (clear ring) around their disk where
the bacterium was not able to grow.
a. culture of the antibiotic drug and sensitivity to it
Incorrect Feedback: In a culture and sensitivity, the antibiotic drug is not cultured.
b. culture of the prescribed drug and type of bacteria sensitive to it
Incorrect Feedback: In a culture and sensitivity, the prescribed drug is not cultured.
c. culture of the bacteria and its sensitivity to temperaturer
Incorrect Feedback: In a culture and sensitivity, the sensitivity to temperature is not tested.
36. Which pair of drugs belongs to the penicillin category of antibiotic drugs?
a. Crixivan, Norvir
b. Amoxil, Pfizerpen
c. Omnicef, Zinacef
d. Cipro, Maxaquin
Answer: b. Amoxil, Pfizerpen
Correct Feedback: Amoxicillin (Amoxil, Moxatag) and ampicillin (Principen) are penicillin
antibiotic drugs.
a. Crixivan, Norvir
Incorrect Feedback: These are not penicillin antibiotic drugs.
c. Omnicef, Zinacef
Incorrect Feedback: These are not penicillin antibiotic drugs.
d. Cipro, Maxaquinr
Incorrect Feedback: These are not penicillin antibiotic drugs.

37. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Annual vaccination with a flu shot prevents a person from getting the flu for that year.
b. Flu shots contain either the whole virus, a part of the virus, or a surface antigen from the
virus.
c. The two most common and dangerous flu families are influenza A and influenza B viruses.
d. Each year, the CDCP reformulates the flu vaccine.
Answer: a. Annual vaccination with a flu shot prevents a person from getting the flu for that
year.
Correct Feedback: : Each February, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDCP)
selects those stains of influenza that are most prevalent in Asia and other parts of the world to
include in the flu vaccine that will be offered in the United States the following fall before the
start of flu season. Flu viruses mutate constantly and create many new subtypes, and so the
influenza vaccine must be reformulated every year. Persons who get flu shots can still get the
flu from other strains of the influenza virus not included in the flu vaccine.
b. Flu shots contain either the whole virus, a part of the virus, or a surface antigen from the
virus.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
c. The two most common and dangerous flu families are influenza A and influenza B viruses.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
d. Each year, the CDCP reformulates the flu vaccine.r
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
38. The _____ group of antibiotic drugs can cause permanent discoloration of teeth.
a. penicillin
b. cephalosporin
c. aminoglycoside
d. tetracycline
Answer: d. tetracycline
Correct Feedback: Tetracycline drugs can cause permanent discoloration of the teeth.
a. penicillin
Incorrect Feedback: Penicillin drugs do not cause permanent discoloration of the teeth.
b. cephalosporin
Incorrect Feedback: Cephalosporin drugs do not cause permanent discoloration of the teeth.
c. aminoglycosider

Incorrect Feedback: Aminoglycoside drugs do not cause permanent discoloration of the teeth.
39. The _____ group of antibiotic drugs can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
a. penicillin
b. cephalosporin
c. aminoglycoside
d. tetracycline
Answer: c. aminoglycoside
Correct Feedback: All aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs have the potential to cause toxic
effects to the auditory nerve (ototoxicity) or to the kidneys (nephrotoxicity).
a. penicillin
Incorrect Feedback: Penicillin drugs do not cause ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity.
b. cephalosporin
Incorrect Feedback: Cephalosporin drugs do not cause ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity.
d. tetracycline
Incorrect Feedback: Tetracycline drugs do not cause ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity.
40. Sulfonamide drugs are _____.
a. also known as sulfa drugs
b. a type of antibiotic drug
c. used to treat HIV
d. a member of the penicillin category drugs
Answer: a. also known as sulfa drugs
Correct Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are also known as sulfa drugs.
b. a type of antibiotic drug
Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are not antibiotic drugs.
c. used to treat HIV
Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are not used to treat HIV.
d. a member of the penicillin category drugsr
Incorrect Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are not penicillin drugs.
41. To which category of antibiotic drugs does ciprofloxacin (Cipro) belong?
a. penicillins
b. fluoroquinolones

c. tetracyclines
d. fusion inhibitors
Answer: b. fluoroquinolones
Correct Feedback: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic drug.
a. penicillins
Incorrect Feedback: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) does not belong to the penicillin category.
c. tetracyclines
Incorrect Feedback: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) does not belong to the tetracycline category.
d. fusion inhibitorsr
Incorrect Feedback: Fusion inhibitor drugs are not a category of antibiotic drugs.
42. The generic drugs trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are both in a combination drug that
is marketed under the two trade names of ______.
a. Bactrim and Maxaquin
b. Septra and Rocephin
c. Omnicef and NegGram
d. Bactrim and Septra
Answer: d. Bactrim and Septra
Correct Feedback: Bactrim (trimethoprim, sulfamethoxazole) and Septra (trimethoprim,
sulfamethoxazole) are combination drugs.
a. Bactrim and Maxaquin
Incorrect Feedback: Maxaquin is not a combination drug.
b. Septra and Rocephin
Incorrect Feedback: Rocephin is not a combination drug.
c. Omnicef and NegGramr
Incorrect Feedback: Neither of these drugs is a combination drug.
43. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. An AIDS vaccine is not yet available.
b. AZT is used to treat secondary infections in AIDS patients.
c. AIDS patients do not contract other types of infections.
d. Lithium is one of the main drugs used to treat all AIDS patients.
Answer: a. An AIDS vaccine is not yet available.

Correct Feedback: Because HIV continues to mutate, no vaccine has yet been approved by
the FDA, although many are in the clinical trials phase.
b. AZT is used to treat secondary infections in AIDS patients.
Incorrect Feedback: AZT is not used to treat secondary infections in AIDS patients.
c. AIDS patients do not contract other types of infections.
Incorrect Feedback: AIDS patients do contract other types of infections.
d. Lithium is one of the main drugs used to treat all AIDS patients.r
Incorrect Feedback: Lithium is not one of the main drugs used to treat all AIDS patients.
44. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Both antiyeast drugs and antifungal drugs are used to treat severe yeast infections in the
body.
b. The AIDS virus belongs to a category of viruses known as retroviruses.
c. AIDS is not fatal if treatment is begun early in the disease.
d. pentamidine (NebuPent, Pentam 300) is used to treat Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
Answer: c. AIDS is not fatal if treatment is begun early in the disease.
Correct Feedback: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is an eventually fatal
disease in which the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attaches to CD4 receptors on
helper T lymphocytes.
a. Both antiyeast drugs and antifungal drugs are used to treat severe yeast infections in the
body.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
b. The AIDS virus belongs to a category of viruses known as retroviruses.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
d. pentamidine (NebuPent, Pentam 300) is used to treat Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
45. What was the drug that was banned for causing seal-limb deformities in babies but is now
being used to treat AIDS?
a. azithromycin
b. thalidomide
c. erythromycin
d. pentamidine
Answer: b. thalidomide

Correct Feedback: Thalidomide was used to treat morning sickness in pregnant women in
Europe and caused the severe birth defect of phocomelia (“seal limbs”) in their babies; it was
withdrawn from the market. In 1997, it was discovered to be useful in treating cancer, AIDS,
and leprosy.
a. azithromycin
Incorrect Feedback: Azithromycin does not cause seal-limb deformities.
c. erythromycin
Incorrect Feedback: Erythromycin does not cause seal-limb deformities.
d. pentamidiner
Incorrect Feedback: Pentamidine does not cause seal-limb deformities.
46. Which of the following sentences is FALSE?
a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is the most common serious infection and complication of
AIDS.
b. PCP eventually affects about three-fourths of all AIDS patients.
c. PCP seldom causes symptoms in healthy individuals who do not have AIDS.
d. Pneumocystis carinii is a bacterium.
Answer: d. Pneumocystis carinii is a bacterium.
Correct Feedback: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) is the most common serious
infection and complication of AIDS and eventually affects about threefourths of all AIDS
patients. Pneumocystis carinii is a protozoan that seldom causes symptoms in healthy
individuals, but it is a life-threatening infection in AIDS patients.
a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is the most common serious infection and complication of
AIDS.
Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
b. PCP eventually affects about three-fourths of all AIDS patients.
Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
c. PCP seldom causes symptoms in healthy individuals who do not have AIDS.r
Incorrect Feedback: This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
47. Antifungal drugs are effective against all of the following medical conditions EXCEPT
______.
a. athlete’s foot
b. jock itch
c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
d. onychomycosis

Answer: c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Correct Feedback: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is caused by a protozoan, not a fungal
infection. Topical fungal infections of the skin include ringworm, athlete's foot, and jock itch,
all of which are caused by the fungus Tinea. A fungal infection of the nails (onychomycosis)
can be treated topically if the infection has not reached the nail bed.
a. athlete’s foot
Incorrect Feedback: Antifungal drugs are effective against athlete’s foot.
b. jock itch
Incorrect Feedback: Antifungal drugs are effective against jock itch.
d. onychomycosis
Incorrect Feedback: Antifungal drugs are effective against onychomycosis, a fungal infection
of the nails.
48. Which of these drugs is a trade name for the antifungal drug amphotericin B?
a. Tamiflu
b. Kaletra
c. Biaxin
d. Fungizone
Answer: d. Fungizone
Correct Feedback: When a fungal infection becomes embedded in the nail bed and the nail
becomes misshapen, thickened, and discolored, then it must be treated with oral antifungal
drugs such as amphotericin B (Fungizone) that act systemically through the blood to reach
the tissues around the nail.
a. Tamiflu
Incorrect Feedback: Tamiflu is not the trade name for the antifungal drug amphotericin B.
b. Kaletra
Incorrect Feedback: Kaletra is not the trade name for the antifungal drug amphotericin B.
c. Biaxinr
Incorrect Feedback: Biaxin is not the trade name for the antifungal drug amphotericin B.
49. Patients with an allergy to penicillin may also show an allergy to what other category of
antibiotic drugs?
a. cephalosporin drugs
b. antiviral drugs
c. fluoroquinolone drugs

d. all of the above
Answer: a. cephalosporin drugs
Correct Feedback: Cephalosporin drugs and penicillin drugs are structurally similar, and
patients who are allergic to penicillin drugs may have an allergic reaction if given
cephalosporin antibiotic drugs.
b. antiviral drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Patients allergic to penicillin are not allergic to antiviral drugs.
c. fluoroquinolone drugs
Incorrect Feedback: Patients allergic to penicillin are not allergic to fluoroquinolone drugs.
d. all of the abover
Incorrect Feedback: There is only one correct answer.
50. Why can’t tetracycline be given to pregnant or nursing women?
a. Because it causes nausea and vomiting.
b. Because it provokes a cross-allergy with penicillin drugs.
c. Because it stains the baby’s developing permanent teeth.
d. Because it is only effective against gram-negative bacterial infections.
Answer: c. Because it stains the baby’s developing permanent teeth.
Correct Feedback: Tetracycline drugs can cause permanent discoloration of the teeth;
therefore, they are not prescribed for pregnant women (to protect the fetus’s developing teeth)
or for children under age eight (whose permanent teeth are still developing).
a. Because it causes nausea and vomiting.
Incorrect Feedback: Tetracycline does not cause nausea and vomiting.
b. Because it provokes a cross-allergy with penicillin drugs.
Incorrect Feedback: Tetracycline does not provoke a cross-allergy with penicillin drugs.
d. Because it is only effective against gram-negative bacterial infections.
Incorrect Feedback: Tetracycline is effective against a wide variety of bacteria.
51. Which of the following statements about an AIDS vaccine is FALSE ________?
a. It would contain purified protein genetic material from HIV.
b. It would be reproduced by recombinant DNA technology.
c. It would cause a mild case of HIV which could then be cured.
d. It would stimulate the body to produce antibodies against HIV.
Answer: c. It would cause a mild case of HIV which could then be cured.

Correct Feedback: A vaccine, which consists of purified protein genetic material from the
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), is reproduced using recombinant DNA technology.
The purpose of the vaccine is to stimulate the body to produce antibodies against HIV.
Because the vaccine only contains pieces of the virus, it cannot cause AIDS.
a. It would contain purified protein genetic material from HIV.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
b. It would be reproduced by recombinant DNA technology.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
d. It would stimulate the body to produce antibodies against HIV.
Incorrect Feedback: This is a true statement.
52. Atripla and Combivir are combination drugs used to treat HIV and AIDS.
Answer: True
Feedback: Combination drugs for HIV and AIDS include Atripla (efavirenz, emtricitabine,
tenofovir) and Combivir (lamivudine, zidovudine).
53. The goal of drug therapy is to suppress HIV replication as much as possible for as long as
possible.
Answer: True
Feedback: The goal of drug therapy is to suppress HIV replication as much as possible for as
long as possible.
54. Zidovudine (Retrovir), the first drug approved to treat HIV and AIDS, can no longer be
given by itself because HIV has developed resistance to it.
Answer: True
Feedback: Zidovudine was used extensively by itself for many years, but can no longer be
given alone because HIV has developed resistance to it.
55. Sulfonamide drugs are only effective against viruses.
Answer: False
Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are effective against many gram-negative and gram-positive
bacteria.
56. The designation of first-generation, second-generation, or third-generation indicates when
a cephalosporin drug was first discovered or first marketed.
Answer: False
Feedback: Cephalosporin antibiotic drugs are further divided into firstgeneration, secondgeneration, and third-generation cephalosporin drugs. This designation has nothing to do with
when these antibiotic drugs were discovered or first marketed, but instead divides them
according to their therapeutic antibiotic properties.

57. Macrolide antibiotic drugs kill bacteria by inhibiting an enzyme that the bacteria need in
order to reproduce.
Answer: False
Feedback: Macrolide antibiotic drugs are a group of drugs that either inhibit or kill bacteria
by interfering with RNA and protein synthesis within the bacteria.
58. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs inhibit an enzyme the virus needs to
reproduce itself and also become part of the viral DNA chain, which causes it to break, and
the virus dies.
Answer: True
Feedback: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs inhibit reverse transcriptase, an
enzyme that the virus needs to reproduce itself. These drugs also become part of the viral
DNA chain, which causes it to break, and the virus dies.
59. Monobactam antibiotic drugs are effective against all gram-negative and grampositive
bacteria.
Answer: False
Feedback: Monobactam antibiotic drugs are effective against gramnegative bacteria.
60. Drugs prescribed for patients with AIDS wasting syndrome are used to stimulate the
appetite, build muscle, and treat extreme weight loss.
Answer: True
Feedback: These drugs for AIDS wasting syndrome are used to stimulate the appetite of
AIDS patients, build muscle mass, and treat extreme weight loss.
61. Fungi can cause disease topically or systemically, and drugs used to treat fungi can be
administered either topically, orally, or intravenously.
Answer: True
Feedback: Fungi can cause disease topically or systemically. There are topical, oral, and
intravenous drugs for fungal infections.
62. Drugs used to treat Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAC) infections
include antituberculosis drugs, macrolide antibiotic drugs, fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs,
aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs, and orphan drugs.
Answer: True
Feedback: Drugs used to treat a MAC infection include antituberculosis drugs, macrolide
antibiotic drugs, fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs, aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs, and
orphan drugs. At least two of these drugs are used together to treat a MAC infection.
63. When a fungal infection involves the nail bed and the nail becomes misshapen, thickened,
and discolored, then it must be treated with topical antifungal drugs that act systemically.
Answer: False

Feedback: When a fungal infection becomes embedded in the nail bed and the nail becomes
misshapen, thickened, and discolored, then it must be treated with oral antifungal drugs that
act systemically through the blood to reach the tissues around the nail.
64. Drugs for tuberculosis that are effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis are also used
to treat MAC infection in AIDS patients because the bacteria that cause these two different
infections have a waxy cell wall.
Answer: True
Feedback: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, has a waxy
bacterial cell wall that makes it difficult to kill.
Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium intracellulare belong to this same category of
bacteria. Many antituberculosis drugs are used as one of the two drugs needed simultaneously
to treat a MAC infection.
65. Kaposi’s sarcoma and Burkitt’s lymphoma are rare cancers that can develop in patients
with the life-threatening bacterial infection of MRSA.
Answer: False
Feedback: HIV patients are prone to develop the rare cancers of Kaposi’s sarcoma and
Burkitt’s lymphoma.
66. AIDS patients can develop widespread and extremely serious fungal infections.
Answer: True
Feedback: In immunocompromised patients, such as patients with cancer or AIDS or in those
who are undergoing bone marrow transplantation, fungal and yeast infections can become
widespread and extremely serious.
67. Tetracycline drugs are used to treat a wide variety of gram-negative and grampositive
bacterial infections, as well as the sexually transmitted diseases of gonorrhea and syphilis.
Answer: True
Feedback: Tetracycline drugs are used to treat a wide variety of gramnegative and grampositive bacterial infections, as well as other bacterial infections, and are used to treat the
sexually transmitted diseases of gonorrhea and syphilis.
68. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) is used to treat a wide variety of gram-negative and
grampositive bacterial infections and also the infections of Lyme disease, malaria, and
anthrax from bioterrorism.
Answer: True
Feedback: Doxycycline (Vibramycin) is used to treat a wide variety of gram-negative and
gram-positive bacterial infections. It also has special uses in treating the infections of Lyme
disease, malaria, and anthrax from bioterrorism.
69. __________ drugs are not categorized as antibiotic drugs because they only inhibit the
growth of bacteria but do not actually kill bacteria.

Answer: Sulfonamide
Feedback: Sulfonamide anti-infective drugs are a group of drugs that inhibit the growth of
bacteria. They are not categorized as antibiotic drugs because they do not actually kill
bacteria.
70. Sulfonamide drugs are also known as __________ drugs.
Answer: sulfa
Feedback: Sulfonamide drugs are also known as sulfa drugs.
71. Penicillin antibiotic drugs all share the common molecular structure of a _________ ring.
Answer: beta-lactam
Feedback: Penicillin antibiotic drugs are a group of drugs that kill bacteria. These drugs share
the common molecular structure of a beta-lactam ring.
72. Antibiotic drugs that are able to kill a variety of different types of bacteria are known as
__________ antibiotic drugs.
Answer: broad spectrum
Feedback: Antibiotic drugs that are able to kill a variety of different types of bacteria are
known as broad spectrum antibiotic drugs.
73. The suffix __________ is common to generic penicillin antibiotic drugs.
Answer: –cillin
Feedback: The suffix –cillin is common to generic penicillin antibiotic drugs.
74. __________ antibiotic drugs are further divided into first-generation, secondgeneration,
and third-generation drugs.
Answer: Cephalosporin
Feedback: Cephalosporin antibiotic drugs are further divided into firstgeneration, secondgeneration, and third-generation cephalosporin drugs.
75. _____ antibiotic drugs interfere with the synthesis of protein in the bacterial wall.
Answer: Aminoglycoside
Feedback: Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs interfere with the synthesis of protein in the
bacterial wall.
76. The suffix __________ is common to protease inhibitor drugs.
Answer: –navir
Feedback: Note: The suffix –navir is common to generic protease inhibitor drugs.
77. Certain bacteria have developed a resistance to penicillin by producing the enzyme
______ that inactivates the penicillin molecule by splitting its beta-lactam ring.
Answer: penicillinase

Feedback: The enzyme penicillinase is produced by penicillin-resistant bacteria and is also
known as beta lactamase because it inactivates penicillin drugs by breaking their chemical
structure at the site of the beta-lactam ring.
78. In 2006, the FDA approved the drug ______, which was the first combination drug to
contain three different AIDS drugs.
Answer: Atripla
Feedback: In 2006, the FDA approved the first combination drug to contain three different
AIDS drugs: Atripla.
79 . The two distinct toxic effects of _________ and _________ have limited the use of drugs
in the aminoglycoside category of antibiotic drugs.
Answer: ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
Feedback: All aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs have the potential to cause toxic effects to the
auditory nerve (ototoxicity) or to the kidneys (nephrotoxicity).
80. Dronabinol, a Schedule III drug used to treat AIDS wasting syndrome, is unusual in that it
is derived from ______.
Answer: marijuana
Feedback: Dronabinol is a Schedule III drug derived from marijuana.
81. Define these abbreviations. AIDS ______________
HIV ______________
MRSA ____________
Answer: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, human immunodeficiency virus,
methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
Feedback: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is an eventually fatal disease in
which the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attaches to CD4 receptors on helper T
lymphocytes. A resistant strain of bacteria was named methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA).
82. The trade name drugs Fluarix, FluMist, Tamiflu, and Flumadine are used to treat ______.
Answer: influenza
Feedback: Many antiviral drugs used to prevent or treat influenza (the flu) have the letters flu
in their trade names, including Fluarix, FluMist, Flumadine, and Tamiflu.
83. 1. amoxicillin (Amoxil, Moxatag) A. aminoglycoside antibiotic drug
2. azithromycin (Zithromax) B. antifungal drug
3. cefdinir (Omicef) C. carbapenem antibiotic drug
4. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) drug D. fluoroquinolone antibiotic
5. doripenem (Doribax) E. macrolide antibiotic drug

6. doxycycline (Vibramycin, Vibra-Tabs) inhibitor drug F. nucleoside reverse transcriptase
7. fluconazole (Diflucan) G. penicillin antibiotic drug
8. indinavir (Crixivan) H. protease inhibitor drug
9. lamivudine (Epivir) I. tetracycline antibiotic drug
10. tobramycin (TOBI) J. cephalosporin drug
Answer: G
Answer: E
Answer: J
Answer: D
Answer: C
Answer: I
Answer: B
Answer: H
Answer: F
Answer: A
Feedback: These drugs and their categories are found throughout the chapter.
84. Briefly explain how penicillin antibiotic drugs work and why they are not harmful to
human cells.
Answer: All penicillin drugs interfere with the cell wall that surrounds the bacterium,
disrupting the intracellular contents and causing cell death. Human cells have a cell
membrane rather than a cell wall, and so they are not affected by penicillin drugs.
85. Explain what penicillinase is and how it affects the administration of some penicillin
drugs.
Answer: Some penicillin drugs are inactivated by penicillinase (all penicillin drugs except
dicloxacillin, naficillin, and oxacillin). The enzyme penicillinase is produced by penicillinresistant bacteria and is also known as beta lactamase because it inactivates penicillin drugs
by breaking their chemical structure at the site of the betalactam ring.
86. Explain what the two focuses are for drug therapy for AIDS.
Answer: Drug therapy for AIDS focuses on drugs to suppress the virus as well as drugs to
treat any secondary opportunistic infections that develop.
87. Describe the steps that are involved in performing and interpreting the results of a culture
and sensitivity test.
Answer: While the patient is still in the office (before taking the first dose of the antibiotic
drug), the physician collects a specimen of the infected area and sends it to a laboratory for a

culture and sensitivity test. In the laboratory, the specimen (urine, blood, mucus, pus, saliva,
etc.) is swabbed onto a Petri dish. The dish is allowed to incubate and grow colonies of the
bacterium. The results show the bacterial colonies, and these are used to identify what
bacterium (or different kinds of bacteria) is causing the infection. The bacterium is then
swabbed onto another Petri dish, and disks with specific concentrations of different antibiotic
drugs are added. The Petri dish is incubated. The antibiotic drugs that are effective against
that bacterium will have a large zone of inhibition (clear ring) around their disk where the
bacterium was not able to grow.
88. The macrolide antibiotic drug azithromycin (Zithromax) has a half life of 68 hours. What
are the advantages and disadvantages associated with this long half life?
Answer: The macrolide antibiotic drug azithromycin (Zithromax) has a half life of 68 hours.
That means it takes 68 hours for the body to excrete one half of a single dose of Zithromax.
This extended therapeutic effect is good because it makes it possible to take Zithromax just
once a day for 5 days to complete treatment, while most other antibiotic drugs have a shorter
half life and have to be take two or three times a day for seven days or more. Also, the patient
is less likely to forget to take a dose of once-aday Zithromax. However, if the patient has an
allergic reaction to Zithromax, that reaction will last longer and could be more severe.
89. The presence of what two things causes a diagnosis of HIV to change to be a diagnosis of
AIDS?
Answer: The dividing line between a diagnosis of HIV infection and a diagnosis of AIDS is
determined by the presence or absence of the following indicators: CD4 lymphocyte count
below 200 cells/mm3, and the presence of opportunistic infections/diseases.
90. Briefly explain how fusion inhibitor drugs and integrase inhibitor drugs prevent HIV from
reproducing itself.
Answer: Fusion inhibitor drugs block HIV when it tries to fuse its viral membrane with the
cell membrane of the CD4 lymphocyte. Because the virus cannot fuse with the lymphocyte, it
is unable to reproduce itself. Integrase inhibitor drugs block integrase, an enzyme used by
HIV to insert its genetic material into a CD4 lymphocyte.
91. What is an “AIDS cocktail” and what are its advantages?
Answer: The combination therapy (the so-called “AIDS cocktail”) became the standard
treatment in 1996. Current drug therapy uses two or three antiviral drugs in combination; this
is more effective than one drug and also decreases the risk of developing resistant strains of
HIV.

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