CH-14-17 The Spectrum of Human Sexual Behavior – Sexuality Today : Exam Guide

This Document Contains Chapters 14 to 17 Chapter 14: The Spectrum of Human Sexual Behavior Multiple Choice 1. Whether a sexual activity should be considered a problem may depend at least in part on a. cultural values. b. social judgments. c. the participants' reactions. d. All of these Answer: d 2. Guilt over sexual intercourse seems to be more common among people with a. a general discomfort with sexuality. b. low self-esteem. c. poor communication with parents. d. All of these Answer: d 3. A person who exhibits a paraphilia a. includes objects such as lingerie and leather in lovemaking. b. is sexually aroused by objects or situations that are not considered pathological and antisocial. c. prefers several unusual positions for intercourse. d. prefers sexual relations with prostitutes. Answer: b 4. Which of the following is NOT a paraphilia? a. Erectile dysfunction b. Exhibitionism c. Fetishism d. Voyeurism Answer: a 5. Which statement most accurately reflects the concept of total sexual outlet? a. All people experience the same degree of sexual tension and energy. b. Almost all human activities involve the outward expression of sexual energy. c. If one avenue of sexual expression is blocked, another will be used. d. The only way for sexual tension to be released is through orgasm from shared sex. Answer: c 6. According to recent research, which of the following factors appears to have the greatest impact on which sexual behaviors people engage in? a. An innate sex drive that seeks expression through any unblocked channel b. Culture and the meanings given to various sexual behaviors in that culture c. The genetically based need for contact comfort d. The sexual behaviors that a person observes among his or her peers Answer: b 7. Comparisons of erotic plasticity suggest that a. individual men tend to be more rigid than women in choosing which sexual activities to participate in. b. individual women tend to be more rigid that men in choosing which sexual activities to participate in. c. men show significantly greater plasticity than women. d. there are no significant differences in the erotic plasticity of men and women. Answer: a 8. How does a person form a preference for a particular sexual act or way of becoming sexually aroused? a. This comes about through observation of parents and peers. b. This is based on that person's individual anatomy. c. This is determined mainly by genetic factors. d. This is unknown at present. Answer: d 9. Larry becomes sexually aroused only if he engages in a very unusual behavior. A sexological professional is likely to describe his activity as a(n) a. aberration. b. dysfunction. c. perversion. d. variant. Answer: d 10. When a particular sexual activity is considered atypical or outside mainstream sexual behavior, it is referred to as a. abnormal. b. dysfunctional. c. perverse. d. variant. Answer: d 11. In terms of sexual behaviors, how are paraphilias different from variants? a. Paraphilias are behaviors that are considered atypical or existing in addition to more mainstream behaviors. b. Paraphilias involve more subjective erotic feelings whereas variants are overt sexual acts. c. Unlike variants, paraphilias are considered pathological or antisocial sexual behaviors. d. Unlike variants, paraphilias involve same-gender partners. Answer: c 12. Comparisons of sexual motivation indicate that a. men's sexual motivation tends to be more constant than women's. b. there is no significant difference in the level of sexual motivation felt by men and women. c. until menopause, there is no significant difference in the level of sexual motivation felt by men and women. d. women's sexual motivation tends to be more constant than men's. Answer: a 13. Regarding the correlation between sexual desire and sexual activity, research shows that level of sexual desire and level of sexual activity are a. negatively correlated. b. not necessarily correlated. c. positively correlated. d. positively correlated for males only. Answer: b 14. Michelle experiences and likes her sensual feelings as she puts on her silk blouse. She often looks at the attractive men and women she sees on her way to work. She really enjoys touching and being touched by her fiancé. Michelle may be described as a. aberrant. b. erotophilic. c. erotophobic. d. paraphilic. Answer: b 15. Kevin feels guilty about his masturbatory activities. He has intercourse with his fiancée only when she insists, and he prefers to get this task over with as quickly as possible. He leaves contraception up to her and doesn't want to talk about it. Kevin may be described as a. erotophobic. b. paraphilic. c. satyriac. d. variant. Answer: a 16. Roberta feels disgusted when she views any sexual material and generally has a negative response to any conversation or situation that is at all sexual. Roberta may be described as a. erotophobic. b. heterosexist. c. homophobic. d. perverse. Answer: a 17. Neal is 35 years old and seldom masturbates. He has had intercourse twice in his adult life. He seems indifferent to stimuli that relate to sexual matters. Neal appears to be satisfied with his adjustment. Neal may be described as a. erotomanic. b. heterosexist. c. hyposexual. d. satyriac. Answer: c 18. Compulsive and seemingly uncontrollable sexual activity, often as part of a mental illness, is called a. erotogenic response. b. erotomania. c. erotophilia. d. erotophobia. Answer: b 19. Why does Kelly advocate getting rid of the term nymphomania? a. The term hyposexuality is more descriptive of the condition. b. It is vague, has been misused, and has sexist overtones. c. The term erotophobic is much more accurate. d. It has been confused with satyriasis and erotomania. Answer: b 20. An unusually high level of sexual desire characterizes a. promiscuity. b. hyposexuality. c. nymphomania. d. hypersexuality. Answer: d 21. Leon has decided not to engage in sexual activities with other people. He has chosen a. virginity. b. celibacy. c. asexuality. d. autosexuality. Answer: b 22. A person who has a very low interest in sexual behavior may be described as a. asexual. b. hypersexual. c. presexual. d. transsexual. Answer: a 23. An important thing to remember about celibacy is that it a. can result in paraphilic behavior. b. is not necessarily a sign of sexual problems. c. is virtually impossible to maintain. d. may be a way to hide impotence or same-gender orientation. Answer: b 24. Comparisons of sexual behavior show that a. men in general are more likely than women to engage in atypical sexual activities. b. individual men are less likely than women to try a broad spectrum of sexual activities. c. individual women tend to show less erotic plasticity than do men. d. Both (a) and (b) Answer: d 25. Larry likes to dress up in women's clothes for fun. Mitchell experiences sexual arousal when he handles or dresses up in women's clothing. These two men would be described as a. gay. b. deviants. c. erotophobes. d. transvestites. Answer: d 26. Nathan becomes aroused only when he can touch women's garments. He often masturbates while wearing women's clothing. Nathan may be described as a a. celibate fetishist. b. fetishistic transvestite. c. gay transvestite. d. satyriac transvestite. Answer: b 27. Cross-dressing behavior typically begins during a. adolescence. b. childhood. c. middle age. d. young adulthood. Answer: b 28. Because of social conventions, cross-dressing by men is most likely to be a. carried out in private. b. part of regular foreplay. c. performed with a sexual partner. d. socially accepted. Answer: a 29. Some male transvestites collectively participate in a(n) a. criminal empire. b. open institution. c. relic of old religious traditions. d. underground subculture. Answer: d 30. A majority of transvestites are a. celibate men. b. erotomanic individuals of either gender. c. gay men. d. married, heterosexual men. Answer: d 31. Maurice maintains a second apartment and a part-time job in which he functions as a woman named Yvette. Over time he gradually closes down his identity as Maurice and lives more and more as Yvette. This scenario describes a case of a. erotophobia. b. same-gender sexual orientation. c. simple transvestitism. d. transgenderism. Answer: d 32. Someone who seeks surgery to alter his or her genital anatomy and hormonal treatments to change body contours may be described as a a. fetishist. b. person with an other-gender orientation. c. practicing transvestite. d. transsexual. Answer: d 33. Vibrators can be effective aids for a. men who cannot fantasize. b. men who ejaculate prematurely. c. women who are close to menopause. d. women with orgasmic difficulties. Answer: d 34. Which of the following sexual aids is most likely to cause physical damage? a. A dildo b. A vibrator c. A cock ring d. A French tickler Answer: c 35. When Roxanne and Carl make love he puts on a device that is designed to stimulate her clitoris during intercourse. This device is called a a. dildo. b. French tickler. c. penile implant. d. vibrator. Answer: b 36. Which of the following is NOT one of the main types of sexual fantasies? a. Exploratory b. Impersonal c. Paraphilic d. Sadomasochistic Answer: c 37. The most prevalent theme for the sexual fantasies of both women and men is a. engaging in same-gender sexual activities. b. forced or forceful sexual contact. c. having sexual contact with animals or children. d. intimate activities such as passionate kissing or mutual masturbation. Answer: d 38. Higher levels of explicitness in sexual fantasies are associated with a. childhood sexual trauma. b. greater likelihood of sexual dysfunction. c. increasing levels of sexual guilt. d. more liberal sexual attitudes. Answer: d 39. According to recent research, individuals who have more sexual fantasies tend to a. be hypersexual and carry on more than one sexual relationship at a time. b. be very shy and withdrawn in relating to others. c. be relatively happy with their sexual lives and have high rates of sexual activity. d. have few real romantic or sexual relationships. Answer: c 40. Intense sexual arousal by objects or material not typically considered sexual is referred to as a. autogynephilia. b. fetishism. c. frotteurism. d. pansexualism. Answer: b 41. Fetishism refers to sexual arousal that is triggered by a. erotic photographs or drawings. b. nonsexual objects or materials. c. sexual fantasies about exotic situations. d. the use of vibrators or fantasy. Answer: b 42. Ethan likes to look at and collect high-heeled shoes. He becomes aroused by touching them or using them to masturbate to orgasm. Such behavior is referred to as a. fetishistic. b. pansexual. c. scatological. d. troilistic. Answer: a 43. The condition in which sexual arousal is generated by stealing is called a. autogynephilia. b. erotomania. c. kleptomania. d. pyromania. Answer: c 44. Which of the following is NOT one of the forms that fetishism may take? a. Kleptomania b. Pyromania c. Transvestitism d. Troilism Answer: d 45. Sexual activity shared by three people is called a. fetishism. b. tribadism. c. triphilia. d. troilism. Answer: d 46. Male street prostitutes are called a. escorts. b. hookers. c. hustlers. d. johns Answer: c 47. The repeating male exhibitionist experiences pleasure from a. having his victims touch him. b. orgasm. c. shocking his victims. d. watching others undress or be nude. Answer: c 48. Sexually arousing activities that involve bondage, pain, or humiliation are called a. coprophilia. b. frotteurism. c. onanism. d. sadomasochism. Answer: d Fill in the Blank 49. Kinsey's theory of sexual expression based on the concept of total sexual outlet has been termed the ________________ theory of sex. Answer: hydraulic 50. The capacity to modify one's sexual needs and behaviors as circumstances change is known as _____________. Answer: erotic plasticity 51. Having an abnormally low level of sexual interest is called ____________. Answer: hyposexuality 52. A tendency found in some males to become sexually aroused by obsessive thoughts and images of being female and having female attributes, or even female sex organs, is called _____________________. Answer: autogynephili 53. Probably the most common sexual aid is a(n) ______________. Answer: vibrator 54. Finding sexual excitement in objects, articles of clothing, or the textures of particular materials not usually considered to be sex-related is called ____________. Answer: fetishism 55. Male sex workers who serve women have been known as ______________. Answer: gigolos or escorts 56. Obtaining sexual gratification from observing others who are nude, disrobing, or engaging in sexual activities is ______________. Answer: voyeurism 57. Hypoxphilia, or creating pressure around the neck during sexual activity in order to enhance sexual pleasure, can sometimes lead to accidental death also known as ______. Answer: autoerotic asphyxiation True or False 58. Research supports the idea that humans have an innate sex drive. Answer: False 59. For all women the level of sexual interest waxes and wanes with the menstrual cycle and is highest just after menstruation. Answer: False 60. Erotophobic individuals are more likely than other people to use contraceptives during intercourse. Answer: False 61. Biological factors have been clearly shown to explain gender differences in the willingness to engage in atypical sexual activities. Answer: False 62. Cross-dressing is found mostly in heterosexual people. Answer: True 63. Men report more sexual fantasies in all major categories than women. Answer: True 64. Most sex workers have voluntarily chosen their work. Answer: True 65. Frotteurism involves displaying one's genitals to an unwilling person. Answer: False 66. Hypoxphilia results in up to 1,000 deaths a year in the U.S. Answer: True Short Answer 67. Describe an important weakness in traditional sex research. Answer: Traditional sex research tended to ignore the distinction between sexual performance and subjective erotic experience, such as desire and sensuality. 68. Why has use of the terms variant and paraphilia increased in recent years? Answer: These terms are less judgmental than traditional terms, such as aberrant or deviant. 69. Explain the concept of hypersexuality and why it is significant. Answer: Hypersexuality refers to possession of a very high level of interest in sex. It may be considered an extreme of erotophilia. Traditionally, society has found hypersexuality troublesome. 70. Why is promiscuity considered a "loaded" term? Answer: The term is vague and defined by social norms. Traditionally, it has more often been applied negatively to the sexual behavior of women than that of men. 71. List unhealthy reasons for having multiple sex partners. Answer: Unhealthy reasons include: (a) unsatisfactory personal relationships, (b) lack of self-respect, (c) a need to prove oneself, (d) a need for sexual conquest, (e) a quest for a sense of power and control, and (f) a response to stressful situations. 72. How is cross-dressing related to sexual orientation? Answer: Although the typical cross-dresser is a heterosexual, married male, cross-dressing occurs among males and, to a lesser extent, females of all sexual orientations. 73. Describe one sexual aid that may be harmful. Answer: So-called cock rings are advertised as helping to maintain erections; but if they are too tight, they can cause physical damage. 74. What is a French tickler? Answer: It is a sexual device worn at the base of the penis that has projections ostensibly designed to stimulate the clitoris during intercourse. 75. What is the major difference between men's and women's fantasies? Answer: Men's fantasies tend to be more active, impersonal, and visually oriented; the themes of women's fantasies are generally more romantic and passive. 76. How does fetishism develop? Answer: The exact mechanisms are unknown, but most people with fetishes report that they had an experience of sexual arousal with the fetished object at some point. 77. Is fetishism harmful to others? Answer: Most forms of fetishism are not, but kleptomania and pyromania are two types of fetishism that can harm others. Also, any type of fetishism may be carried to an extreme that produces offensive or even harmful behavior. 78. In reference to pornographic material, what is habituation? Answer: Continued exposure to the same pornographic material results in a decrease in sexual arousal over time. Thus, new material is continually sought. 79. How does contemporary Western culture view prostitution? Answer: Prostitution is seen as an institution that exploits and subordinates prostitutes, especially women and young girls. 80. What is the typical profile of men who engage in telephone scatologia? Answer: They are typically men who feel very insecure and inadequate. They may also have negative attitudes toward women. 81. How does telephone scatologia differ from "telephone sex"? Answer: The goal of the obscene caller is to shock or surprise. The goal of most telephone sex is to have a willing telephone partner who will cooperate in a sexually provocative conversation. 82. What are some characteristics of cultures in which S&M is practiced? Answer: Research suggests that these are cultures in which: (a) dominance and submission are embedded in the culture; (b) aggression is socially valued; (c) there is a clear and unequal distribution of power among social groups; (d) there is sufficient affluence to provide the leisure to become involved in these practices; and (e) creativity and imagination are valued. Essay 83. Describe some of the most common ways that individuals in our culture enhance their sexual arousal and pleasure. Answer: Attempts at sexual enhancement are extremely varied. Common methods include the viewing of erotica and pornography, using sexual toys and devices, engaging in fantasy, trying different positions for intercourse, and including additional people in sexual activity. 84. A student conducts an anonymous survey of 1,000 college students regarding the themes and contents of their sexual fantasies. If this sample is similar to those of previous studies, what are likely to be the findings? Answer: There are likely to be four main types of fantasies: (a) exploratory fantasies involving group sex, mate-swapping, or same-gender behavior; (b) intimate fantasies involving passionate kissing, oral sex, making love in various settings, or mutual masturbation; (c) impersonal fantasies involving strangers, pornography, fetishism, or watching others; and (d) sadomasochistic fantasies involving whipping, spanking, or forceful sex. Fantasies in the intimate category will probably be the most prevalent. These will probably involve past, new, or imaginary partners. Impersonal and sadomasochistic fantasies will likely be the least common. 85. Make an argument that prostitution is NOT a victimless crime. Answer: Prostitutes might be considered victims. Many female prostitutes come from a background of sexual and physical abuse that has damaged their feelings of self-worth, and this background may help lead them into prostitution. The job can be very dangerous. Prostitutes are often raped, beaten, robbed, and forced to perform sexual acts against their will, and they risk infection with HIV. Chapter 15: Dealing with Sexual Problems Multiple Choice 1. Whether a sexual activity should be considered a problem may depend at least in part on a. cultural values. b. social judgments. c. the participants' reactions. d. All of these Answer: d 2. A sexual activity that involves the coercion, assault, abuse, or exploitation of another person a. is a serious problem. b. may constitute a problem if it creates guilt or stress. c. may constitute a problem if it is motivated by hostility. d. may constitute a problem if it violates certain norms. Answer: a 3. If the men in your class are typical, they are likely to be concerned about which aspect of their bodies? a. Degree of hairiness b. Height c. Level of strength d. Weight Answer: b 4. If the women in your class are typical, they are likely to be concerned about which aspect of their bodies? a. Height b. Level of flexibility c. Level of strength d. Weight Answer: d 5. Guilt over sexual intercourse seems to be more common among people with a. a general discomfort with sexuality. b. low self-esteem. c. poor communication with parents. d. All of these Answer: d 6. A person who exhibits a paraphilia a. includes objects such as lingerie and leather in lovemaking. b. is sexually aroused by objects or situations that are not considered normative. c. prefers several unusual positions for intercourse. d. prefers sexual relations with prostitutes. Answer: b 7. Which of the following is NOT a paraphilia? a. Erectile dysfunction b. Exhibitionism c. Fetishism d. Voyeurism Answer: a 8. Hypersexuality has been comparable to a. alcoholism. b. hyposexuality. c. the paraphilias. d. voluntary criminal behavior. Answer: a 9. According to the sexual addiction model, hypersexuality, like other forms of addiction, a. is a cycle of negative feelings coped with through repetitive sexual behaviors. b. is caused by a hormonal imbalance created by a traumatic event. c. is caused by a neurochemical imbalance. d. is inherited. Answer: a 10. Antonio engages in intercourse four or five times a week, and masturbates on days he does not have intercourse. He considers this too frequent, labels himself a sex addict, and seeks treatment. What kind of treatment is he likely to undergo? a. A 12-step program similar to those for alcoholics and drug abusers b. Hormonal treatments to increase the pleasure of fewer sexual activities c. Intensive psychoanalysis d. Surgery to reduce his sex drive Answer: a 11. The sex addiction model a. is almost universally accepted as an explanation for all compulsive sexual behaviors. b. is viewed with skepticism and has strong opponents among sexologists. c. is widely accepted as an explanation for a small subset of compulsive sexual behaviors. d. seems to apply to the compulsive sexual behavior of women but not that of men. Answer: b 12. Maria is the only female worker in her section. Male coworkers insist on keeping pictures of nude women on the walls. They often leave sex-related cartoons and drawings on her locker. This behavior may be considered a. paraphilic. b. sexual abuse. c. sexual addiction. d. sexual harassment. Answer: d 13. A supervisor frequently places his arm around an employee’s shoulder when giving her instructions. He makes suggestive comments about her clothing and grooming. Such behavior may be considered a. sexual harrassment, hostile environment complaint b. sexual harrassment, sexual abuse complaint c. sexual harassment, aggressive or outrageous acts complaint d. sexual harassment, third-party effect complaint Answer: c 14. A professor invites one of his male students to an expensive dinner. During the dinner, the professor frequently moves the conversation to the sexual experiences of the student. This behavior may be considered a. assaultive. b. sexual abuse. c. sexual harassment. d. the result of a sexual addiction. Answer: c 15. Comparisons of the reactions of men and women to sexual harassment indicate that in general a. men are less likely to tolerate harassment. b. men are quicker to interpret suspect behavior as harassment. c. men tend not to be as offended by harassment. d. there are no significant differences in their reactions. Answer: c 16. Sexual harassment of men a. is almost always perpetrated by women. b. is often perpetrated by other men. c. is very rare. d. occurs more often than sexual harassment of women. Answer: b 17. Stephanie and Tom work together. Stephanie frequently comments on Tom's body and clothing. She often asks about his sexual experiences with other women. She stands unusually close to him when they converse. If Tom is typical of men, he will perceive her behavior as a. paraphilic. b. sexual abuse. c. sexual harassment. d. simply sexy. Answer: d 18. Sexual harassment that is linked to the granting or denial of some benefit or privilege is said to be based on a. a hostile environment. b. a quid pro quo. c. aggressive acts. d. third-party effects. Answer: b 19. A professor hints to a student that a better grade hinges on a "more personal relationship." This type of harassment is called a. quid pro quo harassment. b. relational harassment. c. sexual assault. d. third-party effects harassment. Answer: a 20. A professor intersperses slide presentations with pictures of women in suggestive poses to "increase student interest." He often gives examples that involve stereotypical ideas about women's emotional functioning. This scenario may be an example of which type of harassment? a. Aggressive acts b. Hostile environment c. Quid pro quo d. Third-party effects Answer: b 21. Sandy has just been promoted to manage a branch office of his travel agency and wants to be sure he discourages sexual harassment. Key steps he should take are to a. create a professional environment and publicize clear, simple grievance procedures. b. encourage a casual environment and regular social gatherings of the staff. c. hire equal numbers of men and women. d. take steps (b) and (c). Answer: a 22. After having a long dinner with her boss, Susan is suddenly promoted to a higher position. Her boss now insists on more "affection." Researchers have found that Susan is likely to respond with a. aggression toward her boss. b. paraphilic behavior involving masculine garments. c. self-blame for allowing this situation to develop. d. sexual dysfunction. Answer: c 23. A common response to sexual harassment is a. aggressive behavior toward the harasser. b. paraphilic behavior. c. sexual dysfunction. d. shock, disbelief, and emotional upset. Answer: d 24. Sexual harassment often results in the victim's a. beginning to harass others. b. behaving aggressively against the harasser. c. inciting violence in the workplace. d. quitting school or a needed job to avoid the harasser. Answer: d 25. To protect both staff and students, colleges and universities need to a. fulfill their responsibilities to act in loco parentis. b. have a record of all personal relationships between staff and students. c. institute well-thought-out sexual harassment policies. d. prohibit all romantic and sexual relationships between students and staff. Answer: c 26. Only one biology project can win the department prize. Sarita makes extra appointments with her biology professor, Dr. Jones, to explain how "important" he and the class subject matter have become to her. She sits a little too close to Dr. Jones and wears revealing clothing. Such behavior may constitute a. normal sexual interest. b. paraphilic interest focused on animals. c. sexual assault. d. sexual harassment. Answer: d 27. How have most colleges and universities sought to deal with romantic and sexual relationships between faculty and students? a. Most prohibit all romantic and sexual relationships between members of these two groups. b. Most tolerate other-gender relationships but not same-gender relationships. c. Most aim to function in loco parentis and establish regulations accordingly. d. Most prohibit relationships between professors and any students they supervise. Answer: d 28. In forming policies against sexual harassment in colleges and universities, administrators must a. balance the right to personal privacy with protection of both students and faculty. b. consider the harmlessness of most paraphilic behavior between consenting adults. c. recognize the egalitarian relationships that typically exist between professors and students. d. respect the tradition of professors having affairs with their students. Answer: a 29. Why don't more people report sexual harassment at the workplace? a. They don't experience the behavior in a negative way. b. They fear loss of a job. c. They prefer the new power that threatening to report the harassment gives them. d. They secretly enjoy the attention. Answer: b 30. Many major corporations in the U.S. have programs to educate their employees about the dangers of sexual harassment because a. harassment victims and their families can suffer if no action is taken. b. most people do not approve of women being in high management positions. c. they can be held legally accountable for the actions of their employees. d. women's groups have economic and political power. Answer: c 31. One of the best approaches to ending sexual harassment is to a. counter the harassing behavior with aggressive acts. b. immediately report the harassing behavior to the police. c. share specific information about the offender's behavior with friends and neighbors. d. seek mediation services offered in the work place, or write a clear letter to the harasser. Answer: d 32. A client tells her therapist about her sexual difficulties. The therapist suggests that a caring sexual relationship with the therapist would help her overcome these difficulties. The therapist's behavior is considered a. a sexual boundary violation. b. a type of sexual dysfunction. c. sexual assault. d. sexual harassment. Answer: a 33. An attorney hints to a client that legal fees are lower for "close friends." Such behavior between a professional and a client may constitute a. a sexual boundary violation. b. sexual assault. c. sexual dysfunction. d. sexual harassment. Answer: a 34. The term boundary violations is applied when a. an individual who is expected to be the helper for another person instead takes sexual advantage of that person. b. same-gender relationships become sexual. c. sexual activity on a date continues after one person tries to stop it. d. any of the above situations occurs. Answer: a 35. Research indicates that victims of boundary violations may continue to seek help from the perpetrator because a. they are confused by conflicting feelings of shame and the need to be cared for. b. they feel helpless. c. they lack self-confidence. d. all of the above may interact to deter victims from taking charge of the situation. Answer: d 36. In professional/client relationships, who has the responsibility to maintain appropriate boundaries? a. A local ethics committee b. The client c. The professional d. The professional organization to which the professional belongs Answer: c 37. Which of the following is NOT a tactic identified for obtaining sex coercively? a. Emotional manipulation and lies b. Exploitation of the intoxicated c. Flirting in social settings d. Physical force and harm Answer: c 38. The term rape refers to a. nonconsensual or forced sexual acts. b. sadomasochistic activities. c. sexual acts between members of a family. d. unwanted sexual advances. Answer: a 39. Robert, age 18, has sexual intercourse with Ellen, who is 16. In many states, Robert could be a. charged with statutory rape. b. classified a pedophile. c. considered a sexual harasser. d. labeled a paraphiliac. Answer: a 40. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of those who engage in coercive or aggressive sexual activity? a. They have high levels of traditionally masculine traits. b. They have unusually high levels of sexual interest. c. They tend to rationalize their aggressive behavior. d. They were victims of childhood violence or sexual abuse. Answer: b 41. How did NHSLS researchers explain the great discrepancy between the small number of men who reported forcing a woman to have sex and the large number of women who reported being forced to have sex? a. Men are more likely to lie on such surveys because they fear prosecution. b. Men who had forced women did not perceive their behavior as coercive. c. Women are less interested in sex and may experience what they do as forced. d. Women tend to exaggerate the frequency of forced sex to protect their reputations. Answer: b 42. The term rape myth refers to the a. belief that rape statistics are seriously inflated. b. belief that when women refuse sex, they don't mean it. c. bond men form by behaving aggressively toward women. d. idea that women were meant to serve men sexually. Answer: b 43. Karen was the victim of acquaintance rape last year. Which of the following would indicate that she has NOT successfully healed the trauma of this experience? a. Her depression has lessened. b. She is able to trust men. c. She no longer has intrusive nightmares about the event. d. She remembers the event with a sense of emotional detachment, or disassociation. Answer: d 44. The term hebephilia refers to a. fear of children. b. love of children. c. sexual abuse of adolescents. d. sexual abuse of elderly people. Answer: c 45. Children are most likely to be molested by a. members of other ethnic groups. b. physicians and teachers. c. relatives or acquaintances. d. strangers and distant neighbors. Answer: c 46. Studies of adult sexual abusers indicate the commonality a. of an unusually high need for control. b. of personal ambivalence of sexual orientation. c. of a history of being abused themselves. d. of hormonal imbalances. Answer: c Fill in the Blank 47. When something is gained in return for giving something else, it is called a(n) ______________________. Answer: quid pro quo 48. If a student who is involved with her professor receives better grades because of the relationship and other students are unfairly affected, this forms the basis for a sexual harassment complaint on the grounds of ___________ effects. Answer: third-party 49. Sexual exploitation of clients by physicians, nurses, therapists, clergy, lawyers, or similar professionals is called a(n) ___________. Answer: boundary violation 50. Sexual intercourse by an adult with a partner who is under the age of consent is known as _______________________. Answer: statutory rape 51. When rape is perpetrated by a friend or acquaintance, it is called ___________. Answer: acquaintance rape or date rape 52. Sexual abuse of children is ___________. Answer: pedophilia 53. The sexual abuse of adolescents is sometimes distinguished from pedophilia and is instead called _______________________. Answer: hebephilia 54. When a sexually abused child's feelings, attitudes, and behaviors relating to sex are exhibited in developmentally inappropriate ways, _______________________ sexualization is said to have taken place. Answer: traumatic 55. The strong prohibition against sexual relationships within families is often called the ___________. Answer: incest taboo 56. If Meredith tells her therapist that she has just remembered that her father raped her many years ago, her recollection is known as a(n) ___________. Answer: recovered memory True or False 57. According to the U.S. Conference of Catholic Bishops, the number of priests accused of sexually molesting children since 1950 is over 4,000. Answer: True 58. Sexual relationships between therapists and their clients are often helpful to those clients. Answer: False 59. Females cannot force a male to have sex against his will. Answer: False 60. There is clear evidence that males can have erections and ejaculation when they are afraid or anxious. Answer: True 61. Girls are more likely to be sexually abused by strangers, whereas boys are more likely to be sexually abused by family members. Answer: False 62. Almost all pedophiles were sexually abused as children, and children who are sexually abused will most likely become abusive to children. Answer: False 63. Teenagers who have been sexually abused are more likely than other teenagers to engage in unsafe sexual practices that may lead to disease or pregnancy. Answer: True 64. Sexual coercion and persistence is relatively common among college students. Answer: True 65. Serious head injury prior to the age of 13 has been studied as a common experience among male pedophiles. Answer: True 66. Some therapists have been accused of implanting false memories of childhood sexual abuse in their clients. Answer: True Short Answer 67. Give an example of a problematic paraphilia and explain why it creates problems. Answer: Exhibitionism, pedophilia, voyeurism, sadomasochism, fetishism, and zoophilia are problematic paraphilias because they can involve participation, coercion, and exploitation of an unwilling person. 68. What characteristics of an organization increase the chances that sexual harassment will occur? Answer: An unprofessional environment, a sexist atmosphere, and lack of knowledge about grievance policies increase the likelihood that sexual harassment will take place. 69. What action has been found to be very effective in dealing with those who sexually harass others? Answer: Writing a clear, direct letter to the offender that describes specific incidents and tells the person to stop the behavior has been found to be very effective. 70. Describe the effects of sexual relationships between helping professionals and their clients. Answer: The effects have been found to be overwhelmingly negative. Clients may feel used, angry, and dehumanized. Trust has been destroyed, and clients may exhibit a great deal of self-blame. 71. How is rape broadly defined in our society? Answer: The meaning of the term is often extended to include any type of forced sexual activity. 72. Why is it difficult to estimate the true prevalence of forced sex? Answer: It is assumed that most instances are not reported. 73. How did NHSLS explain the great discrepancy between the frequency of forced sex reported by male respondents (2.8 percent) and the frequency reported by women (22 percent)? Answer: Researchers concluded that most men who had forced women to have sex did not recognize how coercive their behavior appeared to women. 74. What proportion of rapes is committed by strangers? Answer: Estimates range from 4 percent to 22 percent. Thus, the vast majority of reported rapes are committed by acquaintances, lovers, boyfriends, spouses, and relatives. 75. Why is the term marital rape considered a "new concept"? Answer: Traditionally, it was assumed that a husband could not rape his wife because part of her duty was to submit to him sexually. 76. Does male rape really exist? Answer: Yes, sex forced on males, either by other men or by women, is a real phenomenon. In fact, probably almost 30 percent of gay and bisexual males have been forced to have sex by other men. Men can have erections and ejaculate in spite of anxiety or fear. 77. List several characteristics of adults who sexually abuse children. Answer: Adult male abusers (a) tend to come from rejecting and controlling families, (b) have disturbed relationships with their own fathers, (c) are likely to have experienced some sexual trauma earlier in their lives, (d) tend to distort or rationalize their behaviors, and (e) tend to blame their victims or some third party for their abusive behavior. 78. An elementary school teacher observes a child behaving in a sexually aggressive way with other children. What should this teacher be aware of? Answer: Such behavior is often a sign that the child is being sexually abused. 79. Michael was sexually abused during his childhood. Is he likely to similarly abuse his own children? Answer: This idea is widely accepted, but recent reviews of the literature suggest that other factors are involved. These include the social supports available while Michael was growing up, the degree of emotional isolation he faced, and the potential effects of poverty and stress. 80. Can those who sexually abuse children be treated? Answer: Contrary to common belief, there are some treatments that have shown success. Successful programs usually apply a combination of treatment methods. 81. In reference to Western norms, what is unusual among the Kubeo Indians of South America? Answer: Boys come of age only after having sexual intercourse with their mothers. This would be defined as incest in the U.S. Chapter 16: Sexually Transmitted Diseases, HIV/AIDS, and Sexual Decisions Multiple Choice 1. An interesting historical fact about sexually transmitted diseases is that they were a. often blamed on some outside national or ethnic group. b. often completely treatable. c. usually associated with excessive masturbation. d. usually attributed to diet and poor health habits. Answer: a 2. In earlier times, sexually transmitted diseases were called a. female problems. b. foreign diseases. c. public infections. d. venereal diseases. Answer: d 3. It has been suggested that past policymakers were ambivalent about eradicating STDs because a. little was known about how to prevent their spread. b. researchers wanted to study the long-term course of such diseases. c. the threat of such diseases discouraged illicit sexual behavior. d. their treatment provided a good income for physicians and other health professionals. Answer: c 4. In recent years, the fight against STDs in the U. S. has been a. complicated by the development of both new viral diseases and antibiotic-resistant strains of STDs. b. largely halted by religious groups arguing for abstinence. c. largely won, thanks to antibiotics. d. largely won, thanks to the development of vaccines. Answer: a 5. STDs are associated with a. breast and bone cancers. b. infertility and cancers. c. kidney disease and prostatitis. d. tuberculosis and hepatitis. Answer: b 6. The incidence of STDs seems concentrated among a. college students. b. minority group members. c. the recently divorced. d. those under 25 years of age. Answer: d 7. Why is it difficult to gauge the true prevalence of STDs in the U. S? a. Health officials are too embarrassed to report such data. b. Most cases of STDs are never treated. c. Most patients have more than one STD. d. There are deficiencies in how statistical data are collected. Answer: d 8. In regard to STDs in the U S, the National Health and Social Life Survey (NHSLS) found that a. about one person in six has had at least one STD. b. almost no respondents admitted to having had any STDs. c. men were more likely to have had an STD in the year prior to the survey. d. most infected individuals continued to spread STDs. Answer: a 9. In regard to STDs, the NHSLS found that a. men tended to suffer more serious physical consequences from STDs. b. men were more likely to have had an STD than women were. c. transmission of STDs is twice as easy from a male to a female as it is from a female to a male. d. women with the fewest sexual partners were more likely to contract any STD. Answer: c 10. Which of the following is the most accurate predictor of who is likely to contract an STD? a. General health habits b. Level of formal education c. Number of sex partners d. Sexual orientation Answer: c 11. Rates of infection and death from AIDS are much higher than average in countries with a a. high level of poverty b. high proportion of gay or bisexual males c. high rate of alcoholism d. long history of heroin abuse Answer: a 12. Which of the following is NOT a stage which perinatal infection with HIV can occur? a. During breast-feeding. b. During pregnancy. c. During the birth process. d. During toilet training. Answer: d 13. UNAIDS estimates that 40 million people worldwide are infected with HIV. About 75 percent are thought to have acquired the infection through a. heterosexual contact. b. intravenous drug use. c. same-gender sexual contact. d. unsanitary water systems. Answer: a 14. "Clap" and "the drip" refer to a. gonorrhea. b. herpes. c. HIV infection. d. syphilis. Answer: a 15. Why are women at greater risk for gonorrhea after a single exposure than men? a. Bacteria have a more hospitable environment in the vulva than in the male urethra. b. Men are more careful about using condoms when having casual sex. c. Since they use more antibiotics, women are more susceptible to new strains of gonorrhea. d. Women are more likely to have other STDs, and this lowers their resistance. Answer: a 16. Among newborns, the ___________ is/are especially susceptible to gonorrheal infection. a. ears. b. eyes. c. mouth. d. lungs. Answer: b 17. The STD that causes urethral pain and discharge among males is called a. gonorrhea. b. herpes. c. HPV. d. syphilis. Answer: a 18. Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of untreated gonorrhea? a. Heart and brain maladies b. Pelvic inflammatory disease c. Sterility d. Tuberculosis Answer: d 19. Which of the following statements about gonorrhea is NOT accurate? a. Babies can be infected as they pass through the birth canal of an infected woman. b. In recent years, there has been an overall decrease in the incidence of this disease. c. Only vaginal intercourse can transmit the gonorrhea bacterium. d. Women are much more likely to contract the disease after just one exposure. Answer: c 20. After unprotected sex with a new partner, Tamisha mentions to you that she experienced a yellow vaginal discharge and some irritation. This cleared up completely. As a friend, what advice might you offer Tamisha? a. "Don't worry. Your body has fought off any infections." b. "Go to a clinic or doctor. Gonorrhea often behaves this way." c. "Have a pregnancy test. These are early signs of impregnation." d. "You should be concerned about liver and kidney diseases, not STDs." Answer: b 21. A substantial proportion of women and men with gonorrhea are also infected with a. chlamydia. b. herpes. c. scabies. d. syphilis. Answer: a 22. Marty has been diagnosed with gonorrhea. In its treatment, it is vital that a. all of his sexual partners are treated as well. b. an enzyme-sensitive immunoassay test be used. c. he take baths and change his underwear frequently. d. he take several antiviral agents as well. Answer: a 23. Which statement most accurately describes the history of syphilis in the U. S.? a. Beginning in 1900, it has gradually disappeared. b. Since antibiotics became easily accessible, rates of syphilis have gradually increased. c. Syphilis has consistently remained the most commonly reported STD. d. In 2000, the rate of syphilis infection had dropped to the lowest rate ever recorded, but has since increased. Answer: d 24. The STD whose first symptom is a chancre at the site of infection is called a. chlamydia. b. gonorrhea. c. herpes. d. syphilis. Answer: d 25. Why would women be less likely than men to be aware of a syphilitic chancre? a. Any pain and discomfort are likely to be interpreted as related to menstruation. b. It is painless and often occurs on the vaginal wall or cervix. c. They tend to be symptom-free until the tertiary stage of syphilis. d. Women tend to be less vulnerable to syphilis. Answer: b 26. How is it that some syphilitic patients get to the tertiary stage without treatment? a. After each stage, symptoms seem to disappear completely, even without attention. b. Because infection is possible without sexual contact, many do not know they are infected. c. Primary and secondary stage symptoms are so subtle that many do not notice them. d. Since syphilis is so rare, many are not aware of its signs. Answer: a 27. A young man is admitted to the emergency room with a bumpy red rash, fever, swollen lymph nodes, hair loss, and loss of appetite. The physician might suspect a. chlamydia. b. herpes simplex. c. infectious gonorrhea. d. secondary syphilis. Answer: d 28. Denise asks why no one in her family will ever tell her how her grandfather died. Finally she learns that he died from a sexually transmitted disease that led to paralysis, psychosis, and blindness. Most likely, he died from a. AIDS. b. gonorrhea. c. herpes. d. syphilis. Answer: d 29. Syphilis that is transmitted from the mother to the fetus is called a. congenital syphilis. b. genetic syphilis. c. inherited syphilis. d. secondary syphilis. Answer: a 30. The traditional treatment for syphilis is a. acyclovir. b. AZT. c. penicillin. d. steroids. Answer: c 31. Since syphilis infection is associated with a higher risk of ___________, it is often recommended that patients who test positive for syphilis also be tested for this STD. a. genital herpes b. genital warts c. HIV d. pubic lice Answer: c 32. Which of the following statements about chlamydia is accurate? a. It can be treated with penicillin. b. It can result in blindness and pneumonia in infants. c. It is caused by trichomoniasis bacteria. d. Its first symptom is a chancre at the point of infection. Answer: b 33. Chlamydia will pose an immediate and serious health risk to which of the following individuals? a. Anna, who was just born. b. Ben, who is in middle school. c. Carla, who is an attorney. d. Duane, who is about to retire. Answer: a 34. Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of chlamydia in women? a. Breast cancer b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Infertility d. PID Answer: a 35. Sarah and her husband-to-be go for physicals before they marry and learn that they both have an asymptomatic STD. They will both be treated with erythromycin. Most likely, they are suffering from a. chlamydia. b. gonorrhea. c. herpes. d. syphilis. Answer: a 36. Which of the following STDs appears only in males? a. Chlamydia b. HIV c. NSU d. PID Answer: c 37. Maria notices intense itching in the genital area. There is some discharge with a noticeable odor. Most likely her health care provider will diagnose this as a. an NGU. b. chlamydia. c. herpes. d. some type of vulvovaginitis. Answer: d 38. Flagyl and other antibiotics are commonly used to treat a. atrophic vaginitis. b. bacterial vaginosis. c. gonorrhea. d. yeast infections. Answer: b 39. The type of vulvovaginitis that results from an overgrowth of a fungus is called a. a yeast infection. b. chlamydia. c. HPV. d. trichomoniasis. Answer: a 40. Deidre is diagnosed as having an outbreak of Candida albicans. This vulvovaginitis is called a. a yeast infection. b. bacterial vaginosis. c. herpes. d. trichomoniasis. Answer: a 41. At the drug store, Patty purchases nystatin suppositories for an itchy vulvovaginal infection. Most likely she is suffering from a. a yeast infection. b. atrophic vaginitis. c. NSU. d. trichomoniasis. Answer: a 42. Which of the following vulvovaginal infections CANNOT be transmitted by sexual contacts? a. Atrophic vaginitis b. Bacterial vaginosis c. Monilial vaginitis d. Trichomoniasis Answer: a 43. HSV-1 usually appears as a a. chancre. b. cold sore. c. soft, pinkish lesion. d. vulvovaginitis. Answer: b 44. HSV-2 usually appears as a. a cold sore. b. a fungal infection. c. genital lesions. d. NSU. Answer: c 45. Outbreaks of genital herpes sores are associated with a. hot weather. b. not wearing absorbent fiber underwear. c. NSUs. d. stress, illness, or exhaustion. Answer: d 46. The genital herpes virus is particularly contagious when a. HPV is very active. b. it is in its first stage of itchy, painful blisters. c. the person also has a cold sore. d. the sores are healed completely. Answer: b 47. Victor is experiencing an outbreak of genital herpes. Most likely, he will be treated with a. acyclovir. b. AZT. c. flagyl. d. tetracycline. Answer: a 48. In the U. S., the most commonly reported viral STD is a. gonorrhea. b. herpes. c. HPV. d. syphilis. Answer: c 49. The presence of genital warts has been linked to a. incidence of cancer cells in the cervix. b. kidney infections. a. liver infections. d. prostate problems. Answer: a 50. Hepatitis B is almost always transmitted by a. contact with contaminated wet surfaces. b. contaminated clothing and sneezes. c. food contaminated with fecal material. d. sexual contact. Answer: d 51. The most common chronic blood-borne infection in the U. S. is a. hepatitis A. b. hepatitis B. c. hepatitis C. d. HIV. Answer: c 52. Lenore has been diagnosed with pubic lice. Most likely, she will be treated with a. acyclovir. b. AZT. c. Kwell. d. tetracycline. Answer: c 53. A symptom of primary HIV disease is a. Kaposi's sarcoma b. opportunistic infections c. swollen glands d. thrush Answer: c 54. Which of the following is out of place in the progression of AIDS? a. Full blown AIDS b. Primary HIV disease c. Chronic asymptomatic disease d. Chronic symptomatic disease Answer: a 55. HIV and other viruses that carry their genetic code in the form of RNA are called? a. apoptosis viruses b. mega viruses c. pneumoocystic viruses d. retroviruses Answer: d 56. Which of the following occurs during the chronic asymptomatic disease stage of HIV? a. A gradual immune system decline. b. Flu-like symptoms that may include a rash. c. Opportunistic infections. d. Thrush Answer: a 57. The chronic asymptomatic phase of HIV infection is a. a time during which an infected person may still transmit HIV to others. b. a time during which the virus is dormant and cannot be transmitted to others. c. almost always very brief. d. the time during which the virus is most able to infect others Answer: a 58. After unprotected sex, Rhonda believes there is a possibility she was exposed to HIV and goes for an HIV test. The result is negative. She should a. be aware that her immune system is now compromised. b. feel safe to continue unprotected sexual activities. c. have a second test within 6 months. d. notify all her previous sexual partners Answer: c 59. As a strategy to prevent HIV infection, microbicides a. are intended for topical application in gel or cream prior to intercourse. b. are too costly to research and realistically develop. c. could be taken orally or injected as a vaccine. d. might substitute for condom use when the male is uncooperative Answer: a 60. What is the status of a search for a vaccine for AIDS? a. So far, most tests of vaccines have yielded disappointing results. b. The CDC has a preventative vaccine but not a therapeutic vaccine. c. The genetic structure of HIV makes a vaccine impossible. d. There are no funds available to test several promising vaccines. Answer: a 61. Which of the following has NOT been suggested as a way to avoid contracting an STD? a. Considering abstinence b. Considering sexual activities that do not involve penetration or the mingling of bodily fluids c. Having a medical examination before you consider having sexual contact with a new partner d. Taking responsibility for your own protection through condom use, asking questions, washing, and so on Answer: c Fill in the Blank 62. The majority of reported STD cases are found in people under the age of ___________. Answer: 25 63. A painless __________ develops in the primary stage of syphilis. Answer: chancre 64. Cold sores on the mouth are usually caused by ____________. Answer: HSV-1 65. Of the two strains of the herpes simplex virus, ___________ usually results in lesions on the mouth but is also linked to a high percentage of genital lesions. Answer: type 1 66. Exposure of the eyes to the herpes virus may cause a severe eye infection called ___________. Answer: herpes keratitis 67. Genital warts usually do not appear on the genitals for about __________ months after exposure to an infected partner. Answer: three 68. HPV has been linked to the occurrence of ___________ cancer in females. Answer: cervical 69. Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted virus that can cause ___________ infection. Answer: liver 70. HIV destroys ________, which are a type of white blood cell that plays a major role in bringing together the body's immune defenses. Answer: CD4 cells True or False 71. It is now estimated that one out of every five individuals in the U. S. is infected with some form of viral STD. Answer: True 72. Men are more likely to experience symptoms with gonorrhea than are women. Answer: True 73. There is over a 50 percent chance of a woman contracting gonorrhea on a single exposure during intercourse. Answer: True 74. Because of low rates of infection and effective treatment methods for syphilis, the U.S. Public Health Service thought it reasonable to set the goal of eradication of syphilis infections in the country as a reasonable possibility. Answer: True 75. In about 70 percent of all cases of chlamydia there are no early symptoms. Answer: True 76. An asymptomatic person who is HIV-positive cannot transmit the virus. Answer: False 77. Proper treatment of some vulvovaginal infections often requires the simultaneous treatment of sexual partners. Answer: True 78. A new vaccine can prevent all herpes infections, and a new drug can eradicate the virus from the body of those already infected. Answer: False 79. HPV is the most common sexually transmitted viral disease in the U. S. Answer: True Short Answer 80. Why were women found by the NHSLS to be more likely than men to report that they had had an STD within the previous year? Answer: It is twice as easy for a man to transmit an STD to a woman than vice versa. 81. Describe the symptoms of gonorrhea for a male. Answer: In most men, symptoms appear within 2 weeks after infection. Burning and itching sensation develop in the urethra, especially during urination. Also, a thick, pus-like discharge drips from the urethra. 82. List the signs and symptoms of tertiary stage syphilis. Answer: These include heart problems, paralysis, blindness, joint problems, and psychosis. Eventually the condition may be fatal. 83. Why is chlamydia sometimes called the "silent STD"? Answer: The symptoms are often vague or nonexistent. They can also masquerade as symptoms of other diseases. 84. Name three STDs that are caused by bacteria. Answer: These are gonorrhea, syphilis, and chlamydia. Herpes, warts, and hepatitis are caused by viruses. 85. How can women reduce the likelihood of developing a vulvovaginal infection? Answer: They should use condoms during intercourse; wear cotton or other absorbent fabrics as underwear; and avoid vaginal sprays and douches. 86. Describe the symptoms of genital herpes. Answer: Painful or itchy clusters of blisters appear on the sex organs. These open and ulcerate within a few days and are highly contagious. Sometimes other symptoms accompany the outbreak. 87. Elvira had genital blisters and was diagnosed and treated for herpes. The blisters have disappeared, and Elvira states she has been cured. Evaluate her statement. Answer: Acyclovir can relieve the symptoms. But at present, there is no cure for genital herpes. 88. Describe the treatment options for genital warts. Answer: Genital warts can be removed by laser surgery, electrosurgery, freezing, with liquid nitrogen, or surgical excision. The chemical podophyllin may be applied to external warts for 3 to 4 weeks. 89. Why do individuals infected with HIV become susceptible to opportunistic infections? Answer: HIV infection leads to a gradual decline in the body's immune cells. This allows bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other disease-causing organisms to attack and to overcome the body's weakened resistance system. 90. What symptoms are associated with the early stages of hepatitis B? Answer: Sometimes there are no symptoms, but possible symptoms include loss of appetite, lethargy, headache, joint achiness, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, darkening of the urine, and enlargement of the liver. 91. List at least four of the groups that the CDC recommends undergo HIV testing. Answer: The CDC recommends testing for (a) couples planning to be married, (b) anyone seeking treatment for an STD, (c) anyone with a history of intravenous drug use who has shared equipment with others, (d) sexual partners of anyone with a history of intravenous drug use who has shared equipment with others, (e) pregnant women who live in high prevalence areas, or (f) gay and bisexual men, annually.. 92. What are "crabs" and how can one get rid of them? Answer: This term refers to infestation of pubic lice. Kwell is used to eradicate them. All potentially exposed bedclothes, underwear, and towels must be washed or dry-cleaned. Essay 93. Discuss what teenagers know about STDs, and how they behave. Answer: U.S. teenagers lack basic knowledge of STDs. Very few can name all eight major STDs; they cannot distinguish between those that are curable and those that are not. Most did not consider themselves at risk for infection. About half of the sexually experienced teenagers did not use a condom every time they had sex; they often assumed that they did not have an STD because they had no symptoms. Yet almost half of the new cases of STDs annually are among persons aged 15 to 24. 94. Why is it difficult to accurately estimate the incidence of STDs in the U. S? Answer: There are several problems in collecting data. Many private physicians do not consistently report all STDs. Public clinics may not have expensive diagnostic tests to detect some STDs. In addition, STDs are reported as "cases" rather than as infected individuals, so reinfection is counted in the same way as a new infection of a different individual. And people with a bacterial STD are more likely to seek treatment than are those with a viral STD. 95. Besides HIV, which STDs present particular dangers for newborns? Answer: Gonorrhea can cause congenital blindness. Syphilis can cause significant birth defects. Chlamydia can also lead to blindness. Genital herpes can lead to serious or even fatal illness in newborns. 96. Jennifer would like to feel more control over her active sexual life. She would like to take positive steps to reduce the likelihood of contracting an STD. What would some of these steps be? Answer: She could consider abstinence. She could avoid sexual activities that involve penetration or sharing of bodily fluids. She should avoid multiple partners, know her partner well before beginning a sexual involvement, and initiate the use of condoms or vaginal pouches and spermicides. If there is any chance of exposure to an STD, she should seek medical treatment promptly. If an STD is diagnosed, she should inform her partner(s). Chapter 17: Sexual Dysfunctions and Their Treatment Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following questions reflects an ongoing issue in sex therapy? a. How can enough sex therapists be trained to treat all those with sexual problems? b. How can therapists get more people to recognize they have a disorder or dysfunction? c. When are sex therapists behaving unethically in inquiring about sexual behaviors? d. When should a particular pattern of sexual response be labeled a disorder or dysfunction? Answer: d 2. The imposition of labels such as orgasmic dysfunction and hypoactive sexual desire disorder is problematic because a. individual sexual responsiveness varies greatly. b. it is impossible to measure sexual responses objectively. c. their definitions cannot be clearly stated. d. these labels do not fit sexual problems as they are experienced by real people. Answer: a 3. There are well-accepted definitions of sexual dysfunction that include a. the idea that a person may have a dysfunction without realizing it or being upset by it. b. the idea that a sexual dysfunction exists if a sex-related difficulty leads a person to seek professional help. c. the requirement that the condition must cause enough distress for the person to consider it a problem. d. All of these Answer: d 4. According to the NHSLS, among women who reported that they did not have orgasms, a. a majority believed that there was something physically wrong with them. b. almost one-half blamed their husbands and lovers. c. up to one-third did not consider this a problem and found sex satisfying. d. up to three-fourths were actively seeking sex therapy. Answer: c 5. Which of the following is true in U.S. culture today? a. Sexual activity is at the center of most people's daily lives. b. Sexual failure is equated with a failure of manhood or womanhood. c. Sexual performance standards are clear for both women and men. d. Sexual success is more important than economic success. Answer: b 6. Which of the following is NOT a mythical performance standard for men? a. A female partner must be brought to the point of multiple orgasms. b. An erect penis is necessary for sexual pleasure. c. Orgasm must be reached without difficulty and is the ultimate pleasure. d. The longer ejaculation can be postponed, the better a sexual partner the man is. Answer: a 7. Traditionally, women have been considered a. easily aroused and driven by desire. b. passionate and demanding sexual partners. c. sexually indifferent or actively rejecting. d. sexually passive and nonperforming. Answer: d 8. Which of the following is NOT a mythical performance standard for women? a. Successful sex requires initiating the sexual encounter. b. Successful sex requires intense arousal and quick readiness for intercourse. c. Successful sex requires more than one orgasm. d. Successful sex requires reaching orgasm without difficulty. Answer: a 9. Thomas has always ejaculated almost immediately after having an erection. His difficulty is referred to as a a. lifelong dysfunction. b. personal dysfunction. c. pervasive dysfunction. d. primary dysfunction. Answer: a 10. Which of the following is NOT one of the components in Kaplan's three-phase model for understanding the relationship between sexual response and sexual dysfunction? a. Desire phase b. Orgasm c. Plateau phase d. Sexual arousal Answer: c 11. As a boy, unlike others his age, Ramon seldom gave any thought to sex. As an adult, this pattern has continued. He enjoys relating to women emotionally and physically, but he almost never initiates sexual activity. Recently, he and his wife have been discussing this as a problem between them. Kaplan would describe Ramon's problem as one of a. arousal. b. desire. c. orgasm. d. resolution. Answer: b 12. Bonnie really cares for her husband, Bill. Whenever they have intercourse, it is painful because of insufficient lubrication. No matter what they try, an artificial lubricant is necessary. Kaplan would describe Bonnie's problem as one of a. arousal. b. desire. c. orgasm. d. refraction. Answer: a 13. Ethan wants lovemaking with Diane to be pleasurable for both of them. However, he finds that as soon as he enters her vagina, he reaches orgasm almost instantly. This is frustrating for both Ethan and Diane. Kaplan would describe this as a problem of a. arousal. b. desire. c. orgasm. d. resolution. Answer: c 14. Studies of the incidence of sexual dysfunction a. have yielded an extremely wide range of estimates. b. indicate that about half of men and women experience sexual disorders. c. indicate that most people who experience sexual disorders eventually seek professional help. d. suggest that sexual difficulties are not as widespread as was once believed. Answer: a 15. One of the complaints very frequently brought to sex therapists is a. concern over fetishistic interests of a partner. b. inability to reach orgasm. c. partner discrepancies in level of sexual desire. d. vaginismus. Answer: c 16. Frank and Martha seem happily married and share many activities. Their sexual activity is almost nonexistent. Their way of life may be described as illustrating a. hypoactive sexual desire disorder. b. inhibited sexual desire. c. normal asexuality. d. sexual aversion. Answer: c 17. Michael chooses a celibate life for spiritual reasons and is very comfortable with his choice. His behavior is a. an indication of sexual aversion. b. sometimes called normal asexuality. c. symptomatic of anorgasmia. d. symptomatic of hypoactive sexual desire. Answer: b 18. Jim is unhappy about his partner Kevin's lack of interest in sexual activities. Kevin will respond if Jim stimulates him, but Kevin seems not to enjoy sex very much. Kevin states that he is concerned about this but that it does not reflect a loss of love for Jim. Kevin may be diagnosed with a. HSDD. b. male erectile disorder. c. normal asexuality. d. sexual aversion disorder. Answer: a 19. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe a gender difference in HSDD? a. Men with this problem are more likely to have had another sexual dysfunction for just a short time before experiencing HSDD. b. Men with this problem tend to be older than similarly diagnosed women. c. Women with this problem are more likely than men to report other psychological problems. d. Women with this problem tend to have more education than similarly diagnosed men. Answer: d 20. Frequent or severe childhood punishment, rigid religious backgrounds, or a history of sexual abuse are all associated with a. female arousal disorder. b. male erectile disorder. c. SD. d. sexual aversion disorder. Answer: d 21. The traditional term frigidity has been replaced with the term a. dyspareunia. b. female sexual arousal disorder. c. hypoactive sexual desire disorder. d. sexual aversion disorder. Answer: b 22. The technical term for impotence is a. erectile disorder. b. normal asexuality. c. premature ejaculation. d. SD. Answer: a 23. Tim, age 25, often experiences an inability to have or keep an erection. He would be classified as having a disorder of a. arousal. b. desire. c. orgasm. d. resolution. Answer: a 24. Erectile dysfunction is often associated with a. depression. b. fatigue. c. use of alcohol. d. All of these Answer: d 25. The painful and involuntary contraction of the outer vaginal muscles during attempted penetration is called a. dyspareunia. b. HSDD. c. sexual aversion disorder. d. vaginismus. Answer: d 26. The major cause of unconsummated marriages is a. erectile disorder. b. HSDD. c. sexual aversion. d. vaginismus. Answer: d 27. Vaginismus is considered a(n) a. arousal disorder. b. orgasmic disorder. c. sexual pain disorder. d. None of these Answer: c 28. Persistent genital pain that occurs during sexual activities is called a. dyspareunia. b. HSDD. c. sexual aversion. d. vaginismus. Answer: a 29. One current definition of premature ejaculation is ejaculation that a. occurs before his partner reaches orgasm. b. occurs in fewer than 30 minutes after penetration. c. persistently and recurrently occurs too rapidly for the man and his partner's enjoyment. d. takes place after fewer than 10 pelvic thrusts. Answer: c 30. Some researchers believe that premature ejaculation originates from a. a history of quick masturbatory response that becomes habitual. b. hypersensitivity of the penis. c. sexual aversion. d. suppressed resentment of the partner. Answer: a 31. A rare sexual dysfunction that occurs among men is a. erectile disorder. b. HSDD. c. postejaculatory pain. d. premature ejaculation. Answer: c 32. A clue that a sexual dysfunction may be caused by physical factors is that a. sexual functioning is not central to the self-concept of the person. b. the difficulty involves pain. c. the person and his or her partner are both concerned. d. the problem began only after a long period of good functioning. Answer: d 33. High blood pressure can cause a. arousal difficulties in men. b. desire and arousal difficulties in men and women. c. desire difficulties in men. d. desire difficulties in women. Answer: b 34. What therapy or treatment focuses on the functioning of the pubococcygeus muscle? a. Hormone injections b. Kegel exercises c. Sensate focus d. Systematic desensitization Answer: b 35. A person's first experience with problems in sexual arousal often happens a. after excessive use of alcohol. b. during foreign travel. c. in response to having a baby. d. with a new partner. Answer: a 36. Performance anxiety can a. generate sexual dysfunction. b. inhibit sperm and ovum production. c. lead to paraphiliac behavior. d. lower testosterone levels. Answer: a 37. The problem known as spectatoring a. is linked to indifference to a partner's reactions. b. is rare. c. may be especially common among people with panic disorder or social phobia. d. usually occurs as the culmination of a long period of increasing sexual difficulties. Answer: c 38. Which of the following therapeutic interventions has NOT been found useful in the treatment of sexual dysfunctions? a. Antidepressants for premature ejaculation b. Cialis, Levitra, and Viagra for improving erections c. Yohimbine for erectile problems d. All of the above are useful interventions. Answer: d 39. Missy and Brett seek help with premature ejaculation that is psychotherapeutic. The most effective approach a sex therapist is likely to offer involves a. behavior therapy. b. electric shock. c. hypnosis. d. surgical intervention. Answer: a 40. Nick and Nora are seeking a qualified sex therapist. They would be wise to a. ask a friend. b. call or write AASECT or SIECUS. c. check newspaper advertisements. d. look at the listings in the Yellow Pages. Answer: b 41. Mary has been unable to have an orgasm during shared sex. A sex therapist is likely to suggest a. exposure to pornography. b. masturbation exercises. c. sensate focus. d. the squeeze technique. Answer: b 42. The typical intercourse position used in the course of sex therapy for both male and female dysfunction is a. man on top. b. rear vaginal entry. c. standing up. d. woman on top. Answer: d Fill in the Blank 43. A difficulty with sexual functioning that develops after some period of normal sexual functioning is called a(n) ______________________ dysfunction. Answer: acquired 44. Subtypes of disorders include __________, __________, and substance-induced or social/relational. Answer: organic; psychological 45. An absence or low level of sexual desire that is considered normal for a particular person is sometimes called __________. Answer: normal asexuality 46. Fear or disgust about sex and avoidance of sexual activity is known as ________. Answer: sexual aversion disorder 47. The presence or absence of ________ is often used to determine whether the cause of male erectile dysfunction is physical or psychological. Answer: nocturnal penile tumescence 48. Performance pressures and difficulties in relationships are often at the root of sexual dysfunction, although possible __________ causes must first be investigated. Answer: medical 49. Another term for painful sex is ________. Answer: dyspareunia 50. Mutual body-pleasuring exercises without the expectation or pressure for performance are known as ________. Answer: sensate focus True or False 51. An American sexual standard is that an erect penis is necessary for successful sex. Answer: True 52. A sexual dysfunction that develops after a period of adequate functioning is called a situational dysfunction. Answer: False 53. It is possible to have orgasm without sexual arousal. Answer: True 54. Some experts believe that lack of sexual arousal in women should be considered nonpathological. Answer: True 55. Recent research has led to development of an objective and universal standard for defining premature ejaculation. Answer: False 56. Frequent masturbation is associated with postejaculatory pain. Answer: False 57. Both vaginismus and lack of ejaculatory control usually have organic causes. Answer: False 58. The reduction of performance pressures is one of the basic principles of sex therapy. Answer: True 59. The American Association of Sex Educators, Counselors and Therapists has formulated a code of ethics to protect sex therapy clients. Answer: True Short Answer 60. Why was the publication of Human Sexual Inadequacy so significant? Answer: This work provided a terminology for naming and describing problems, a classification scheme, and therapeutic techniques for the treatment of sexual dysfunctions. 61. What is the critical factor in determining whether a person is experiencing a sexual dysfunction? Answer: The most important factor is the person's own feelings and history, as well as the feelings of his or her partner. But opinions differ; some believe that a dysfunction may exist even if the person is unaware of it. 62. Describe the difference in the apparent causes of sexual dysfunctions in men and women. Answer: For many women, sexual dysfunction is closely aligned with difficulties in their relationships, whereas male dysfunctions are often best studied from a medical point of view as well as a psychological or relational one. 63. In which phase of Kaplan's model would disorders such as erectile disorder and female arousal fall? Answer: These would both be considered disorders of the arousal stage. 64. Discuss how reports of sexual dysfunction by women differ from those by men. Answer: In general, women tend to report more sexual problems than men, except with regard to anxiety about performance and reaching orgasm too early. 65. What is NPT and how is it used in sex therapy? Answer: This term refers to nocturnal penile tumescence. Measuring NPT indicates whether normal erection is taking place during sleep; if it is, there is probably no organic cause for erectile problems. 66. List some of the factors that can contribute to dyspareunia. Answer: These could include vaginismus, dryness of the vagina, infection of the clitoris or vulva, irritation or injury to the vagina, or tumors of the internal reproductive organs. 67. Describe one theory of male orgasmic disorder. Answer: Men are so focused on their partners' pleasure or have so many conflicting feelings about sexual pleasure that they do not experience many of the subjective sensations associated with orgasm. Although they have no difficulty with erection, they have what might be called a "numb" erection. 68. Why is the concept of premature ejaculation somewhat problematic? Answer: What is considered premature in male response depends on cultural, interpersonal, and individual factors. 69. What factors contribute to postejaculatory pain? Answer: Although the immediate cause is muscle spasm, the spasm may be rooted in psychological factors such as guilt about sexual pleasure, ambivalence about a relationship, or repressed anger or resentment. 70. In terms of treating sexual dysfunctions, what factors would be considered predisposing ones? Answer: These could include biological factors (such as diseases like diabetes) or prior life experiences (such as a history of childhood sexual abuse). 71. When a person goes to a sex therapist for treatment of a sexual dysfunction, what is the first thing the therapist would probably do, and why? Answer: The first step is a medical examination to rule out any organic cause for the symptoms. 72. What is spectatoring? Answer: Spectatoring refers to high concern about performance and a resultant feeling of being outside of oneself in sexual encounters rather than being involved in the experience. 73. How are antidepressants used in sex therapy? Answer: They have been found to be useful in treating premature ejaculation, sexual aversions, and sexual phobias. 74. What two self-help techniques might a sex therapist suggest for individuals to try on their own? For what problems might these be effective? Answer: Two commonly suggested techniques are body exploration and masturbation. (Others may be mentioned.) Slow masturbation has been shown to be especially helpful in treating premature ejaculation. Masturbation also is helpful for orgasmic difficulties in women. 75. After a routine medical exam, what is the first thing a sex therapist will ask a couple to do? Answer: The therapist will ask them to enjoy and relax with each other's bodies. They will be asked to touch each other non-sexually and to massage each other. This is the first step in sensate focus. 76. Describe how vaginismus is generally treated. Answer: The goal is to reduce tension and permit gradual insertion. After self-examination during relaxation, a series of insertions with dilators of gradually increasing circumference or fingers is carried out. 77. Describe the impact of alcohol on sexual arousal. Answer: Alcohol may at first lower inhibitions and cause people to feel increased sexual desire. But as concentration of the drug builds in the body, the physiological responses of sexual arousal are inhibited, leading to poor sexual performance. 78. How does Viagra work? Answer: Viagra prolongs the effects of cyclic GMP, the substance that relaxes smooth muscles within the erectile tissues of the penis, allowing blood to flow in and cause erection. Essay 79. Why are terms such as erectile dysfunction and female sexual arousal disorder preferred to terms such as impotence and frigidity? Answer: Terms like the first two are less judgmental, more neutral, and more hopeful. The latter two labels could make problems worse because they are so emotionally loaded and evaluative. 80. Summarize the gender differences among those diagnosed with hypoactive sexual disorder. Answer: Men with HSDD tend to be older than women with HSDD. They are also more likely to have another sexual dysfunction for just a short period before experiencing HSDD. Women diagnosed with HSDD tend to report other forms of psychological distress such as anxiety, depression, and hostility. Women also report more life stress and are more likely to have another long-term dysfunction. For women, HSDD is often rooted in other relationship issues. 81. Describe how a single episode of sexual dysfunction can set the stage for a continuing problem, even when there is no physical basis for the dysfunction. Answer: The first difficulty may occur for some particular reason (performance anxiety, for example). This creates a fear of failure, and this fear interferes with responsiveness in the next sexual encounter, thus resulting in another experience of failure. This can perpetuate itself. 82. George and Martha go to a sex therapist for help with their sexual problems. After a physical examination that shows no organic problems, the therapist explains the goals of behavioral sex therapy. What kinds of goals is the therapist likely to mention? Answer: These would include (a) gaining a sense of permission to value one's sexuality, (b) making sexual activity a priority in the relationship, (c) eliminating whatever is blocking full sexual response, (d) reducing performance pressures, and (e) using sexual exercises to develop positive ways of functioning sexually. 83. A couple in sex therapy is at the point of having intercourse again. Explain why most sex therapists would recommend the woman-on-top position to the couple. Answer: This recommendation is made to help create a pattern of successful experiences. The woman-on-top position allows the woman greater control over the experience, and this is useful in treating female orgasmic problems. The position is also useful for the man because it relieves him of some of the responsibility and he can relax more. Test Bank for Sexuality Today Gary F. Kelly 9780078035470