This Document Contains Chapters 11 to 13 Chapter 11: Decision Making about Pregnancy and Parenthood Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following has NOT been used as a folk method of contraception? a. Crocodile dung b. Crushed rose petals c. Queen Anne's lace seeds d. Silphium sap Answer: b 2. The purpose of the Comstock Laws of the 1870s was to a. curtail the activities of prostitutes. b. encourage the use of condoms as contraceptives. c. limit the number of out-of-wedlock births. d. prevent the dissemination of contraceptive information. Answer: d 3. What is the historical significance of the Comstock Laws? a. They allowed the legalization of abortion during the early stages of pregnancy. b. They indicated the government's sanction of abstinence as the only permissible form of birth control. c. They suggest that women had increasing control over their own fertility as the twentieth century began. d. They were a sign of increasingly positive attitudes toward condom use. Answer: b 4. Why is Margaret Sanger an important person in the history of sexuality in the U.S.? a. She advocated passage of the Comstock Laws. b. She developed the surgical technique used in male sterilization. c. She fought the legal system to provide information on birth control to women. d. She pioneered the use of condoms as contraceptive devices. Answer: c 5. Growth in the world's population is a. concentrated in the industrialized nations. b. expected to level off by 2010. c. expected to level off by 2030, when zero population growth should be achieved. d. mostly occurring in less developed countries, where local resources cannot support the increased number of people. Answer: d 6. Which statement most accurately describes the status of children in the U.S.? a. The general increase in rates of infertility has led to an improvement in the status of children. b. The overall status of American children has been declining in recent years. c. The status of children has risen as the status of the elderly has declined. d. While the overall status of infants has declined, the overall status of older children has improved. Answer: b 7. According to the World Health Organization, approximately ____________ of all unwanted pregnancies worldwide are terminated by abortion. a. 20 million b. 50 million c. 30 million d. 40 million Answer: b 8. Research on birth control indicates that among developed countries, a. rates of unintended pregnancy in Canada and the Netherlands are especially high. b. rates of unintended pregnancy vary very little. c. the rate of unintended pregnancy in the U.S. is above average. d. the rate of unintended pregnancy in the United States is lower than average. Answer: c 9. Data from various studies on birth control in the U.S. indicate that a. about 12 to 13 percent of unmarried, non-cohabitating individuals never use contraceptive devices. b. almost everyone who has access to a contraceptive uses it. c. compared with Canadians, U.S. adults report great trust in the effectiveness of birth control methods. d. compared with the Dutch, Americans report far lower rates of unplanned pregnancies. Answer: a 10. Use of the pill, condoms, diaphragms, IUDs, or similar birth control measures is discouraged by a. Islamic and Jewish teachings. b. most Christian denominations. c. the Roman Catholic Church and fundamentalist Muslim groups. d. All of these Answer: c 11. The risks inherent in pregnancy are a. higher than those associated with any method of birth control. b. lower than those associated with taking oral contraceptives. c. lower than those associated with using a diaphragm. d. negligible. Answer: a 12. One of the major obstacles in making effective contraceptive decisions is the belief that a. contraception is the man's responsibility. b. contraceptives do not prevent pregnancy. c. sex must be spontaneous. d. unmarried men and women are more likely to be infertile. Answer: c 13. Individuals who feel guilty about their sexual activities tend to a. be perfectionists in their use of contraceptives. b. consult both religious and medical authorities about contraceptive use. c. ignore their partner's wishes regarding contraceptives. d. make poor contraceptive decisions. Answer: d 14. Which of the following factors has NOT been shown to have a negative impact on decision making regarding contraception? a. A high level of interest in sexual activity b. Believing that contraception is a woman's problem c. Considering totally spontaneous sex to be the most desirable type d. Negative feelings about sexual expression, such as guilt or shame Answer: a 15. How do feelings such as guilt, fear, or shame about sex influence contraceptive behavior? a. These feelings influence sexual behavior but have not been shown to influence the use of contraceptives. b. These feelings may interfere with gathering information and planning for intercourse. c. These feelings may lead to overuse of birth control techniques, resulting in later infertility. d. These feelings typically lead to promiscuity among women and inhibition among men. Answer: b 16. Which of the following is NOT a step necessary in order to avoid unwanted pregnancy if one is sexually active? a. Acknowledging that sexual activity could lead to pregnancy b. Douching or bathing immediately after intercourse c. Obtaining adequate information about contraceptive techniques d. Using a contraceptive technique consistently and properly Answer: b 17. Comparisons of types of birth control indicate that a. a woman's age should not influence the choice of method. b. the failure rates of all methods rise with age. c. the progestin-only pill has particular advantages for young women. d. vaginal barrier methods are less effective for young women than for older women. Answer: d 18. Sexually active individuals should understand that contraceptives a. can be relied upon only if they have a high theoretical failure rate. b. can only reduce the risk of pregnancy, not eliminate it. c. of all types interfere with sexual spontaneity. d. that require regular medical supervision have the lowest typical failure rate. Answer: b 19. The theoretical failure rate of a contraceptive refers to the a. effectiveness rate observed among actual people. b. expected failure rate if the method is used perfectly. c. failure rate based on psychological theories or models. d. level of effectiveness desired by scientists and researchers. Answer: b 20. Which of the following statements is true of the typical failure rate of a contraceptive? a. It assumes that the method is used correctly and consistently. b. It depends on the quality control used in its manufacture. c. It is usually much lower than the theoretical failure rate. d. It takes human error and carelessness into consideration. Answer: d 21. Most researchers agree that a key step needed in order to bring overpopulation under control is a. for men to share fully in family planning. b. to improve the typical failure rate for condoms. c. to increase emphasis on withdrawal as a contraceptive technique. d. to increase the sterilization of unmarried individuals. Answer: a 22. Sexual activities such as mutual masturbation and oral sex are examples of a. immature sexual expression. b. outercourse. c. safe sex. d. sexual variations. Answer: b 23. Which statement most accurately describes coitus interruptus? a. A diaphragm is placed over the head of the penis before ejaculation. b. The penis is squeezed between the woman's thighs. c. The penis is withdrawn from the vagina just before ejaculation. d. Two partners engage in extended mutual masturbation. Answer: c 24. The major reason for the high failure rate for coitus interruptus is that a. only very sexually experienced men know when they are about to ejaculate. b. sperm may be present in pre-ejaculatory secretions. c. vaginal contractions may squeeze out semen before ejaculation. d. vaginismus may prevent the penis from being withdrawn. Answer: b 25. Which of the following statements about withdrawal is accurate? a. It is a relatively effective technique of contraception for young men. b. It is more effective if the couple has intercourse frequently. c. It is more effective if the woman controls the moment of withdrawal. d. It is somewhat more effective than no contraceptive technique at all. Answer: d 26. The most commonly used oral contraceptive is the a. combination pill. b. inert pill. c. minipill. d. progestin-only pill. Answer: a 27. When Pam and Brett begin a regular sexual relationship, they agree that oral contraceptives make the most sense for them. After a physical examination and history, which type of oral contraceptive is most likely to be prescribed? a. A combination pill b. A minipill c. A placebo pill d. A progestin-only pill Answer: a 28. Greg and Gina rush off to begin their week's vacation. In all the excitement, they forget Gina's contraceptive pills. They should a. have sex as usual because the pills are effective for a week after she stops taking them. b. purchase and use minipills to tide them over the week. c. use a different position for intercourse to reduce the likelihood of impregnation. d. use an alternative method of contraception for the rest of her present cycle. Answer: d 29. Basically, oral contraceptives work by a. blocking passage of the ovum into the uterus. b. interfering with normal patterns of ovulation and implantation. c. keeping sperm away from the unfertilized ovum. d. preventing uterine implantation of the zygote. Answer: b 30. Which of the following women is most likely to be prescribed the progestin-only pill? a. Sarah, who will be breast-feeding her baby for the next several months b. Theresa, who wants to become pregnant c. Veronica, who has just begun a sexual relationship with Derek d. Wendy, who is going through menopause Answer: a 31. Which of the following is NOT a favorable side effect that oral contraceptives have for many women? a. Decreased incidence of breast and ovarian cysts b. Increased bone mass among women in their twenties c. Increased effectiveness of antibiotics d. Increased menstrual regularity Answer: c 32. High blood pressure or a history of a blood-clotting disorder a. indicates that a woman should not use the combination pill for more than one year. b. indicates that low doses of the combination pill should be prescribed. c. indicates that oral contraceptives should not be prescribed. d. should not discourage women from using combination birth control pills. Answer: c 33. Which of the following is NOT a warning signal associated with the use of a birth control pill? a. Abdominal or chest pain b. Changes in vision c. Headaches d. Lack of ovulation Answer: d 34. The effectiveness of oral contraceptives may be reduced when women a. are underweight. b. fail to exercise sufficiently. c. take certain antibiotics. d. use vitamins regularly. Answer: c 35. In basic terms, hormonal contraceptives work by a. destroying sperm in the fallopian tubes. b. preventing cell division in the zygote. c. preventing ovulation and causing cervical mucus to thicken. d. preventing uterine implantation. Answer: c 36. A major advantage of the patch, the vaginal ring, and injections of progestin compared with oral contraceptives is that they a. are free of side effects. b. can be obtained without a prescription. c. do not interfere with the normal ovulatory cycle. d. do not need attention every day. Answer: d 37. Yesterday, Yolanda decided to begin using a contraceptive patch. How often must she replace it? a. After 21 days b. Daily c. Monthly d. Weekly Answer: d 38. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about contraceptive implants? a. The user can perform the implantation without medical assistance. b. They are a progestin-only form of birth control. c. They are effective for up to three years before replacement is needed. d. They work by preventing ovulation and thickening the cervical mucus. Answer: a 39. The greatest disadvantage of hormonal contraceptives is the a. fact that they do not protect against disease and cannot be safely used by many women. b. number of medical check-ups required. c. side effects and low level of effectiveness. d. time it takes for fertility to return to normal. Answer: a 40. Contraceptive implants and Depo-Provera both a. are based on forms of progestin. b. can be used by a woman without medical involvement. c. create a barrier between sperm and ovum. d. destroy sperm in the vagina. Answer: a 41. A disadvantage of spermicides is that they a. are not very effective if used alone and may irritate the vagina. b. are very expensive and difficult to find. c. require considerable motivation and planning. d. require medical administration and supervision. Answer: a 42. Even when used with another method, a disadvantage of the contraceptive suppository is that it a. increases the motility of sperm. b. increases the risk of TSS. c. requires medical supervision for insertion. d. requires up to a half hour to melt completely. Answer: d 43. The latex cup that fits over the cervix is called the a. diaphragm. b. female condom. c. IUD. d. vaginal pouch. Answer: a 44. Jessica is looking forward to a romantic evening of dining, dancing, and spending the night making love with Phil. To increase spontaneity, she inserts her diaphragm with spermicide before leaving her home at 7 P.M. She expects to arrive at Phil's house well past midnight. What should Jessica know? a. Dancing and heavy meals can dislodge the diaphragm from its required location. b. Diaphragms begin to dissolve if left in the vagina longer than two hours. c. Only a physician can insert the diaphragm properly before each use. d. The spermicide will protect against pregnancy for only two hours after insertion. Answer: d 45. A risk factor involved with the use of cervical caps and diaphragms is a. a greater possibility of STD infection. b. increased risk of developing TSS. c. increased vulnerability to PID. d. permanent interference with normal ovulation. Answer: b 46. Harry wants to buy the most effective condom available. Which of the following is NOT a feature that he should look for in the condoms? a. They should be lubricated with a spermicide. b. They should be made of latex. c. They should be made from natural materials. d. They should have a small nipple at the tip. Answer: c 47. The female condom a. consists of a single ring b. is inserted into the vagina. c. is made from animal membrane. d. prevents penetration into the vagina. Answer: b 48. Current evidence indicates that IUDs prevent pregnancy by a. interfering with implantation. b. interfering with ovulation. c. preventing fertilization. d. secreting a spermicide. Answer: c 49. Which of the following contraceptive techniques has the highest failure rate? a. Diaphragms used with spermicide b. Fertility awareness method c. Intrauterine devices d. Use of a condom alone Answer: b 50. Which of the following methods of contraception is NOT a type of VSC? a. Cutting of the vas deferens b. Gossypol injection c. Tubal ligation d. Vasectomy Answer: b 51. Don and Donna are married military officers whose jobs keep them apart for months at a time. They have no children but are considering having children in the future. Which of the following contraceptive methods would NOT be suitable for them? a. Barrier methods b. Hormonal patch, pill, or ring c. IUD d. Vasectomy Answer: d 52. Carol and Lewis are seasonal workers with a very low income. They have very limited access to medical services. What contraceptive method is likely to be most suitable and effective for them? a. Condoms b. Contraceptive pill c. IUD d. Withdrawal Answer: a 53. Which of the following contraceptives has the fewest health-related side effects? a. Condoms b. Contraceptive pill c. Hormonal patch d. IUD Answer: a 54. How does RU 486 work? a. It decreases the motility of sperm in the uterus and fallopian tubes. b. It delays release of the ovum during a normal cycle. c. It interferes with preparation or maintenance of the uterine lining for implantation. d. It involves the introduction of a copper wire into the uterus to prevent implantation. Answer: c 55. A new method of male contraception that is being researched involves a. receiving testosterone injections or implants. b. spreading gossypol ointment on the penis. c. taking a daily pill that reduces HCG. d. taking progestin orally each day. Answer: a 56. The method of abortion most often used during the second trimester of pregnancy is a. dilation and evacuation. b. mifepristone-induced abortion. c. saline-induced abortion. d. vacuum curettage. Answer: a 57. Having two or more abortions has been linked to an increased risk of a. ectopic pregnancy and miscarriages in later pregnancies. b. infertility. c. reduced fertility. d. None of these Answer: a 58. Research suggests that programs teaching safe sex should do which of the following to have greater impact? a. reaffirm women’s concerns about their own sexual enjoyment and that of their partners b. provide more comfortable male condoms c. empower women as agents of sexual and reproductive decision making d. both a and c Answer: d Fill in the Blank 59. The ___________________ failure rate is a measure of how often a birth control method can be expected to fail when used without error or technical failure. Answer: theoretical 60. The ___________________ failure rate is a measure of how often a birth control method can be expected to fail when human error and technical failure are considered. Answer: typical use 61. An infection caused by leaving contraceptive devices such as diaphragms and cervical caps in the vagina for long periods is ___________________. Answer: toxic shock syndrome (TSS) 62. Spontaneous abortion is another term for a(n) ___________________. Answer: miscarriage True or False 63. The typical failure rate of a contraceptive is higher than its theoretical failure rate. Answer: True 64. Oral contraceptives work by interfering with the normal ovulatory cycle. Answer: True 65. Contraceptive patches and rings work hormonally by preventing ovulation. Answer: True 66. Ortho Evra is a patch placed on the skin that releases hormones and has side effects similar to those of the pill. Answer: True 67. The spermicide nonoxynol-9 has the advantage of reducing the risk of HIV infection. Answer: False 68. The Supreme Court case that legalized abortion in the United States was Griswold v. Connecticut. Answer: False 69. About 70 percent of abortions in the United States are performed during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy. Answer: False 70. The most commonly used technique of abortion is vacuum aspiration. Answer: True Short Answer 71. What appear to be the main factors determining which contraceptive technique is chosen by women at various points in their lives? Answer: Typically, the first method is chosen on the basis of its effectiveness. Later in life, health concerns and potential effects on the body are likely to be more significant. 72. What risks are faced by sexually active women who do not use birth control? Answer: Over a year's time, the risk of pregnancy for partners in sexual intercourse who do not regularly use contraception is very high (about 90 percent). The health risks inherent in pregnancy are higher than those associated with any method of birth control. 73. Name two forms of contraception for which men can take full responsibility. Answer: The male condom and vasectomy both allow men to take full responsibility. 74. How can couples share responsibility for birth control? Answer: They can discuss the best method to use, share the costs involved, go together for any required medical care or counseling, and work together in usage of the device or method. 75. What is outercourse? Answer: This term refers to sexual activities that do not involve penetration of the vagina such as massage, mutual masturbation, and oral-genital contact. 76. Why is coitus interruptus such an unreliable contraceptive method? Answer: Sperm may be secreted before ejaculation. Also, it is difficult for many men to control their ability to withdraw before ejaculation. Moreover, this technique may be frustrating for both partners. 77. Why is nonoxynol-9 no longer recommended as a condom lubricant? Answer: Recent research has demonstrated that spermicides (including nonoxynol-9) may cause vaginal irritation that actually increases the risk of being infected with HIV or other STDs. Therefore, condom manufacturers have stopped using nonoxynol-9 as a spermicide. 78. What are some disadvantages of the female condom? Answer: Although the device almost never breaks or leaks, failure rates have been much higher than those for male condoms. Some women object to its feel or sound when it is inserted or to its appearance. 79. How does emergency contraception work? Answer: Current methods of postcoital or emergency contraception include taking extra doses of birth control pills, insertion of a copper IUD, and taking RU 486. It is not completely clear how current methods work. Some probably delay or prevent ovulation; some may act to prevent implantation and thus may be considered abortifacients. 80. Lisa returns from the hospital after a miscarriage. What has happened? Answer: The term miscarriage refers to a spontaneous abortion; that is, Lisa's pregnancy terminated naturally, without any intervention. 81. Describe the vacuum curettage procedure. Answer: The cervix is dilated; then a plastic tube connected to a suction device is inserted into the uterus. The uterine lining, fetal tissue, and placental tissue are suctioned out. 82. What are the most common methods of abortion in the U.S.? Answer: In the first trimester, vacuum curettage is the method used most often. Dilation and evacuation is typically used for abortions during the 13- to 16-week period. For later abortions, the most common methods are prostaglandin-induced or saline-induced abortion. 83. Why is Margaret Sanger an important figure in the history of sexuality in the U.S.? Answer: After observing the suffering of poor women who were unable to obtain contraceptive information, and the death of women trying to abort unwanted pregnancies, Sanger violated the Comstock Laws and worked to make contraceptive information available to women. She formed the National Birth Control League and opened a birth control clinic. She was arrested many times. Eventually, physicians were given the right to provide information on contraception to women. 84. What is the current status of children in the U.S.? Cite evidence in support of your answer. Answer: The status is declining. Evidence cited might include statistics on the percentage of children living in poverty, the number of children who die before their first birthday, the percentage of children not immunized against childhood diseases, and decreased availability of prenatal care for poor pregnant women. 85. What are some of the psychological and social factors that influence people's decision making regarding contraception? Answer: This complex decision-making process is influenced by many factors: (a) their feelings about contraception, (b) how they believe their peers would evaluate their contraceptive choices, (c) their beliefs regarding the importance of sexual spontaneity, (d) their beliefs regarding who should take responsibility for contraception, and (e) any negative feelings about sexual activity. 86. Distinguish the theoretical failure rate and the typical failure rate, and explain why these rates may be very different. Answer: The theoretical failure rate refers to how often a contraceptive method might fail if used perfectly and consistently. The typical failure rate refers to how often a contraceptive method is expected to fail given human error and inconsistent use. For example, the oral contraceptive has a very low theoretical failure rate of 0.1 percent, but women may forget to take it daily, resulting in a typical failure rate of 3 percent. 87. What medical care is necessary for women who want to use contraception? Answer: The care needed varies with the method of contraception. Although the health risks associated with pregnancy and childbirth are greater than those associated with any method of contraception, a thorough medical history should be taken and health risks evaluated before women take oral contraceptives or receive hormonal implants or injections or IUDs. Anyone taking oral contraceptives should have regular check-ups that include blood pressure readings and Pap tests. Contraceptive implants must be carefully inserted or removed by a trained clinician. Diaphragms and cervical caps must be fitted by a clinician. Removal as well as fitting of IUDs also requires a clinician. 88. Describe the objections to the use of mifepristone. Answer: This drug, also known as RU 486, is an abortifacient. Some oppose it because they oppose abortion. Others are concerned that its use will discourage the development of safe facilities for conventional abortions. Still others worry that it will be used too often without proper medical supervision. Chapter 12: Solitary Sex and Shared Sex Multiple Choice 1. An important difference between the Kinsey studies and the National Health and Social Life Survey (NHSLS) is that the NHSLS a. provided reliable statistics that can be generalized to the total population. b. studied only abnormal sexual behaviors. c. surveyed both men and women. d. used the survey method, whereas Kinsey depended on laboratory data. Answer: a 2. In examining statistical data about sexual activities, it is important to remember that a. such data do not determine what one's sexual behavior ought to be. b. such data represent sexual ideals, and not actual sexual behavior. c. these numbers represent the extremes of sexual behavior, not the norms. d. to be normal, one should adjust one's sexual behavior to match the statistical norms. Answer: a 3. Which of the following was a finding of the NHSLS? a. Men prefer solitary sex to shared sexual activities. b. Men think about sex more often than women. c. Most women think about sex every day. d. Women seek out activities associated with arousal more often than men. Answer: b 4. Medical authorities in the eighteenth century said that masturbation was harmful because a. expending sexual fluids leads to physical illness. b. genital stimulation leads to infection with sexually transmitted diseases. c. only lower primates engage in masturbation. d. pleasure from masturbation prevents the pursuit of shared sexual activities. Answer: a 5. According to the NHSLS, the major reason adults masturbate is to a. avoid sexual activity with a partner. b. avoid the possibility of STD infection. c. relieve sexual tension. d. substitute for not having a sexual partner. Answer: c 6. In general, most women masturbate by a. direct stimulation of the glans clitoris. b. engaging in sexual fantasy. c. inserting fingers or other objects into the vagina. d. manipulation of the entire mons area. Answer: d 7. The most common method of masturbation among women involves a. engaging in intense sexual and romantic fantasies. b. indirectly stimulating the clitoris with the hands. c. inserting a vibrator into the vagina. d. rubbing against an object. Answer: b 8. The most common technique of male masturbation involves a. grasping and stroking the shaft of the penis. b. inserting the penis into objects. c. rubbing the legs together. d. running a stream of warm water over the genital region. Answer: a 9. A major difference between men and women in their masturbatory technique is that women a. continue stroking the genitals during orgasm. b. have longer-lasting orgasms. c. tend to have more intense orgasms. d. use fantasy along with manual stimulation. Answer: a 10. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used method of male masturbation? a. Autofellatio b. Stroking or rubbing the penile shaft c. Using lubricating jelly or liquid on the hand that is rubbing the penis d. Using one hand to stimulate the scrotum or anal area while stroking the penis Answer: a 11. A dangerous male masturbatory activity involves a. attempting autofellatio. b. inserting objects into the urethra. c. stimulation of the anal region. d. the use of artificial vaginas. Answer: b 12. One survey of college students indicates that compared with females, males are _____________________ to use pornographic magazines or videos to enhance masturbation. a. equally likely b. much less likely c. much more likely d. slightly more likely Answer: c 13. Max usually fantasizes during masturbation. Most likely he fantasizes about a. incestuous sexual activity. b. sexual activity with animals. c. sexual activity with someone he cares about. d. violent, forceful sexual activity. Answer: c 14. Which of the following is NOT a myth associated with masturbation? a. Excessive masturbation can reduce interest in shared sexual activity. b. Masturbation can be a shared sexual activity. c. Masturbation is essentially a substitute for partnered sexual activity. d. Masturbation is not as physically satisfying as shared sexual activity. Answer: b 15. Which of the following statements about masturbation is accurate? a. Couples who love each other usually find it very easy to talk to each other about masturbation. b. Frequent masturbation can diminish one's interest in shared sexual activities. c. Individuals who do not have a regular partner tend to masturbate the most frequently. d. Individuals who have happy, healthy sexual and emotional relationships may also masturbate frequently. Answer: d 16. According to Masters and Johnson, how did most men define "excessive" masturbation? a. Masturbating more than once a week b. Masturbating more than they themselves did c. Masturbating more than twice a day d. Masturbating more than twice a month Answer: b 17. Research indicates that masturbation is pleasurable a. and necessary to maintain sexual responsiveness. b. but not needed for physical or mental health. c. even though it is not the healthiest form of sexual expression. d. mainly for teenagers and elderly individuals. Answer: b 18. Which of the following is NOT true about kissing? a. Asian cultures regard kissing as a much more private activity than Western cultures do. b. Chimps and orangutans kiss. c. Eskimos do kiss; they don't rub noses. d. In half of all cultures, people do not kiss. Answer: d 19. French-kissing involves a. breast stimulation. b. inserting the tongue into a partner's mouth. c. licking or nibbling the ears or neck. d. oral-genital stimulation. Answer: b 20. If stimulation to a particular part of the body results in sexual arousal, that part of the body is called a(n) a. autoerotic zone. b. erogenous zone. c. erotic zone. d. zona pellucida. Answer: b 21. Which of the following is NOT a typical erogenous zone? a. The anal-perineal area b. The earlobes c. The inner thighs d. The thumbs Answer: d 22. A hickey is a bruise that results from a. kissing/sucking. b. pinching/kissing. c. scratching/pinching. d. sucking/biting. Answer: d 23. Oral stimulation of the female genitals is called a. cunnilingus. b. fellatio. c. intra-femoral intercourse. d. intromission. Answer: a 24. Which of the following is NOT a type of oral sex? a. Cantharides b. Cunnilingus c. Fellatio d. "Sixty-nine" Answer: a 25. Which of the following population groups is most likely to engage in oral sex? a. African-American men b. Elderly married couples c. Teenagers who are members of minority groups d. Young, better-educated white persons Answer: d 26. According to the NHSLS, oral sex was performed during their most recent sexual experience by a. about half of the men. b. less than a third of the men. c. most men. d. most women. Answer: b 27. Oral sex, which has apparently become very acceptable to young people, a. can be responsible for spreading sexually transmitted diseases, including HIV. b. is especially popular among the less educated. c. is especially popular among those over 50. d. is safe sex. Answer: a 28. Use of a rubber dam during oral-genital and anal activity a. has not been proven effective in preventing transmission of HIV. b. increases sexual pleasure. c. is unnecessary. d. prevents transmission of any disease. Answer: a 29. Why is it unsafe to blow on an erect penis or blow into a vagina? a. These activities can spread STDs. b. These activities indicate the presence of a personality disturbance. c. These activities may force bacteria or air into a person's body. d. These activities may result in permanently premature orgasm. Answer: c 30. Mike sometimes visits prostitutes and insists that they perform fellatio on him because he believes this offers him protection against STDs. Is his belief based on fact? a. No, any contact with a prostitute is likely to result in STD infection. b. No, infections can be contracted from such oral contact. c. Yes, no bacteria or virus can be transmitted by receiving oral sex. d. Yes, that's why oral sex is the most common sexual act performed by prostitutes. Answer: b 31. Oral-anal contact a. even with thorough washing brings the risk of transmitting disease. b. is safe. c. is safe if strict hygienic measures are followed. d. is safer than fellatio. Answer: a 32. In the NHSLS study, anal intercourse had been engaged in by a. about half of the people sometime in their life. b. about 26 percent of the men sometime in their life. c. most people recently. d. most people sometime in their life. Answer: b 33. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with anal intercourse? a. Greater likelihood of deviant sexual behavior b. Increased risk of HIV transmission c. Infections as a result of later inserting the penis into the mouth or vagina d. Possible anal or rectal injuries Answer: a 34. Dolores suggests that she and her husband use a vibrator during their sexual activities. This indicates that Dolores a. is dissatisfied with her husband as a sexual partner. b. is likely to pursue extramarital affairs. c. is similar to a small percentage of other women. d. may have unexpressed interests in same-gender sexual behavior. Answer: c 35. A food or chemical that is believed to increase sexual interest or responsiveness is called a(n) a. amphetamine. b. aphrodisiac. c. intromission. d. sex toy. Answer: b 36. Which of the following has NOT been considered an aphrodisiac at one time or another? a. Alcohol b. Cantharides c. Graham crackers d. Olives Answer: c 37. The chemical used most often with sexual activity is a. alcohol. b. amyl nitrite. c. marijuana. d. nicotine. Answer: a 38. Kim and Louise are looking forward to a night of passionate lovemaking. What chemical are they most likely to use to enhance their sexual pleasure? a. Alcohol b. Amphetamines c. Amyl nitrite d. Marijuana Answer: a 39. When aphrodisiacs work, it is probably because a. activity in the cerebral cortex increases. b. sexual response is basically a chemical response. c. they cause constriction of the genital blood vessels. d. users believe in their effectiveness. Answer: d 40. The insertion of an erect penis into the vagina is called a. interaction. b. interfemoral intercourse. c. introjection. d. intromission. Answer: d 41. The best external lubricants for sexual intercourse are a. hand and body cream. b. petroleum jellies. c. silicone lubricants. d. water-soluble preparations. Answer: d 42. The tensing of the vaginal muscles to a degree that the penis cannot enter is called a. anorgasmia. b. coitus interruptus. c. intromission. d. vaginismus. Answer: d 43. The degree of pleasure experienced by both partners during intercourse can be enhanced by a. an especially large or long penis. b. an especially sensitive clitoris. c. communication and openness. d. using only one position for intercourse. Answer: c 44. Which of the following factors has NOT been found to be important in the amount of pleasure experienced by women in sexual intercourse? a. Communication and cooperation between partners b. Penis size c. Positions of both partners d. Rate and vigor of pelvic movements Answer: b 45. The most common position used for intercourse is a. side by side. b. face to face. c. rear vaginal entry. d. standing. Answer: b 46. Cindy and Sean are experimenting with different coital positions. They particularly enjoy positions in which Cindy can control her level of coital movement. They would probably like which of the following positions? a. Both partners standing b. Rear vaginal entry c. Woman on the edge of a bed or chair d. Woman on top, man supine Answer: d 47. The copulatory position used by most mammalian species is a. face to face. b. front vaginal entry. c. rear entry. d. side by side. Answer: c Fill in the Blank 48. A bruise on the neck caused by sucking or biting is called a(n) _____________________. Answer: hickey 49. Kissing, licking, or sucking on the penis is termed _____________________. Answer: fellatio 50. Kissing, licking, or sucking the clitoris, labia, and vaginal opening is called _____________________. Answer: cunnilingus 51. The slang term for oral sex performed by partners on each other simultaneously is called _____________________. Answer: sixty-nine 52. A(n) _____________________ is a particular part of a person that when touched leads to sexual arousal. Answer: erogenous zone 53. Women, in general, seem to have _____________________ resolution phases than men. Answer: longer 54. Intentional unprotected anal sex, usually with a partner of the same HIV status, is known as ______________________. Answer: barebacking True or False 55. The 1994 NHSLS is considered the most reliable source of statistics on sexual behavior in the United States. Answer: True 56. The most recent surveys of American sexual behavior indicate that women and men masturbate at the same frequency. Answer: False 57. A majority of women masturbate by inserting objects into their vaginas. Answer: False 58. Many people fantasize while masturbating. Answer: True 59. Most people masturbate because they do not have a desirable partner. Answer: False 60. Masturbation leads to a same-gender sexual orientation. Answer: False 61. STDs cannot be transmitted during oral sex. Answer: False 62. Interfemoral intercourse involves penile movement, while it is held between a partner's thighs. Answer: True 63. The chemical most often used to enhance sexual pleasure is marijuana. Answer: False 64. Petroleum-based products, such as Vaseline, are useful as sexual lubricants. Answer: False Short Answer 65. Are there significant gender differences in sexual motivation? Answer: Yes, research suggests that males generally demonstrate higher levels of sexual interest than females. Furthermore, men are more likely than women to report that pleasure is a significant motive for sexual activity; women are more likely to report love as a motive for sex. 66. What should the sexuality student keep in mind as he or she evaluates statistics regarding the prevalence of particular sexual behaviors? Answer: These statistics do not present ideals or standards. 67. What was the somewhat surprising finding of the NHSLS survey regarding masturbation? Answer: Individuals with the most active partnered sex lives were also those most likely to masturbate. 68. What fantasies most often accompany masturbation? Answer: The most common fantasies involve sexual activity with a loved partner, but most men and women report that they have had recent fantasies involving people other than their main partner. 69. What is the general relationship between frequency of masturbation and satisfaction with a relationship? Answer: There is no relationship between the two factors. 70. What can couples do if one prefers a particular sexual activity while the other dislikes it? Answer: Compromises are likely to be necessary in any relationship, but it is also typical for partners to experiment, which may lead the person with negative feelings to change his or her attitude. 71. What social and demographic variables were found to be associated with greater likelihood to engage in oral sex? Answer: The factors associated with this activity were being young, being white, and having more education. 72. Describe two types of oral-genital sexual behavior. Answer: Oral stimulation of the male genitals is called fellatio. Oral stimulation of the female genitals is called cunnilingus. 73. Is masturbation always a solitary activity? Explain. Answer: No; one can watch one's partner masturbate, or members of a couple can masturbate each other. 74. Are marijuana and alcohol aphrodisiacs? Answer: No, but they may enhance sexual activity because when consumed in moderate amounts, they lead to relaxation and lowered inhibitions. 75. According to the NHSLS, what is the relationship among sexual satisfaction, relationship satisfaction, and general life satisfaction? Answer: People who report being happy with their lives tend to report being happy with their sex lives. Being sexually happy is associated with longer-lasting relationships. 76. How can individuals protect themselves against contracting HIV during intercourse? Answer: Whether their partners are male or female, men should use condoms. In male-female relationships, the woman may, alternatively, wear a female condom. Contact with semen or vaginal fluids should be avoided because HIV is carried in these fluids. 77. Suggest several ways in which a man can develop greater control over the amount of time taken to reach orgasm. Answer: (a) Slow the pelvic thrusting, making shallow thrusts. (b) Temporarily cease thrusting. (c) Take time to change positions. 78. Sometimes Jack and Susan like to make her orgasm(s) the main focus of their intercourse. What coital position would you suggest for this purpose? Answer: The position that gives the woman the most control over clitoral stimulation, which facilitates orgasm, is woman on top, man supine. 79. List advantages of the side-by-side position. Answer: (a) There is less strain on the body. (b) Both partners share in controlling thrusting motions. (c) The hands are free for caressing. 90. Why are many couples reluctant to attempt the rear vaginal position for intercourse? Answer: Because most mammals use a rear-entry position for copulation, many people associate this position with animals. In many cultures, however, this position is used regularly. 91. What coital positions are recommended during pregnancy? Answer: Side-by-side rear vaginal entry is recommended, as it is more comfortable and puts less strain on the woman's body. Essay 92. How did masturbation come to be viewed as a shameful, sinful, and immature type of sexual expression? Answer: The behavior of the biblical character Onan was misinterpreted as masturbation. In the eighteenth century, a physician wrote that bodily fluids had to be kept in balance and retained in the body for continued health. Physicians also believed that sexual arousal and orgasm were harmful to the nervous system. Claims that masturbation caused all sorts of illnesses were perpetuated in medical writings during the nineteenth century. 93. Why do many sex therapists and educators recommend masturbation? Answer: Masturbation can be a good way to learn about one's sexual preferences and responses. Men can learn to prolong their arousal; women can learn what orgasm feels like and how to produce that response. 94. What concerns need to be addressed if couples want to engage in anal intercourse? Answer: Condoms are more likely to break during anal sexual activity, and anal intercourse brings a high-risk of HIV transmission. It also brings the danger of tissue damage to the rectum and anal area. Correct types of lubricating jelly must be used and sufficient time must be allowed for relaxation of the anal sphincter. After anal sex, the penis should not be inserted into the mouth or vagina; bacteria can be transmitted easily. 95. What coital position appears to be used most frequently in Western culture? Why do you think this position is the most popular? Answer: In the West, man-on-top, woman supine is the most common position used. It is anatomically comfortable, and there is good psychological contact and the possibility of communication between the partners. It allows for variations such as different leg placements. Its popularity may also be connected to the control of sexual activity and pleasure that it allows the man. 96. Your textbook makes many references to the findings of the National Health and Social Life Survey (NHSLS). Explain why this research is so important, and describe at least one interesting or surprising finding of this research project. Answer: This survey is important because it is believed to offer the most reliable statistics on sexual behavior in the U.S. Some findings mentioned are the following: (a) Individuals with an active sex life are more likely to masturbate. (b) Vaginal intercourse is the most popular of all shared sexual behaviors for both men and women. (c) Watching one's partner undress is the second most appealing sexual behavior for both sexes. (d) The likelihood of engaging in oral-genital sex is higher among younger, white, more educated individuals. Chapter 13: Sexual Orientation, Identity, and Behavior Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following statements about the Kinsey Scale of Sexual Behavior is accurate? a. It categorized people as homosexual, heterosexual, or bisexual. b. It classified sexual behavior into seven categories. c. It described the personality characteristics that went with various sexual orientations. d. It measured the level of masculinity and femininity in a large sample of Americans. Answer: b 2. Paul was a respondent in Kinsey's 1953 survey. His sexual behavior was classified as "1." This classification indicates that he has a. engaged in heterosexual behavior and incidental same-gender behavior. b. engaged only in same-gender sexual behavior. c. had approximately equal levels of same-gender and heterosexual experiences. d. had only heterosexual experiences. Answer: a 3. Marian has related sexually to both women and men to an equal degree during her adult life. According to the Kinsey Scale of Sexual Behavior, her behavior would be classified as a. 0. b. 1. c. 2. d. 3. Answer: d 4. Why was the Kinsey Scale of Sexual Behavior considered so important? a. It considered the ethnic and cultural context of same-gender sexual expression. b. It delineated bisexuality as a clear-cut category. c. It described sexual expression as a continuum. d. It emphasized the romantic and affectional aspects of same-gender relationships. Answer: c 5. A weakness of the Kinsey Scale of Sexual Behavior is that it a. considered all who had one other-gender sexual experience as bisexual. b. ignored ethnicity in classifying respondents. c. emphasized lesbian behavior while ignoring same-gender sexual behavior of men. d. measured sexual behavior using an inadequate bipolar linear scale. Answer: d 6. A weakness of the Kinsey Scale of Sexual Behavior is that it a. contradicted biological notions regarding the origin of sexual orientation. b. did not recognize how rare same-gender sexual orientation is. c. failed to consider the age and marital status of the respondents. d. implied that the more heterosexual one was, the less homosexual one was. Answer: d 7. One controversy regarding sexual orientation centers on the accuracy of Kinsey's findings on the a. actual prevalence of same-gender sexual behavior. b. affectional rather than sexual preferences among self-identified bisexual people. c. intensity of sexual attraction among self-identified homosexual, heterosexual, and bisexual individuals. d. level of sexual satisfaction experienced by individuals of various sexual orientations. Answer: a 8. Agnes describes herself as lesbian, even though she has never been sexual with either a man or a woman. Such self-identification a. illustrates the subtleties involved in classifying individuals by their sexual orientation. b. implies that Kinsey's Scale should contain negative numbers to accommodate individuals who are not sexually active. c. indicates a personality disorder and perhaps mental illness. d. suggests that all people shift their sexual orientation during their lifetime. Answer: a 9. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the conclusions of the researchers who conducted the National Health and Social Life Survey (NHSLS) regarding sexual orientation? a. A 10-point scale of classification for sexual orientation would be more helpful than a 6-point scale. b. About 10 percent of adult men and 5 percent of women are exclusively gay or lesbian. c. Many individuals who identify themselves as gay or lesbian live in rural areas. d. Sexual orientation is a multidimensional concept and cannot be described by a single number. Answer: d 10. The NHSLS study found that a. same-gender sexual contact in males is more likely to occur after the age of 18. b. same-gender sexual contact in females is more likely to occur after the age of 18. c. Both (a) and (b) d. Neither (a) nor (b) Answer: b 11. How did the NHSLS approach issues of sexual orientation? a. It asked questions about desire, behavior, and self-identification. b. It classified individuals on the basis of masculinity and femininity rather than sexual expression. c. It restricted its questions to male respondents. d. It used a 10-point classification scheme. Answer: a 12. Which of the following was NOT demonstrated by the NHSLS research? a. Same-gender sex is found more desirable and more people than ever act on those desires. b. People who identify themselves as gay, lesbian, or bisexual tend to be more highly educated. c. Same-gender sexuality should be perceived and interpreted in various ways, depending on various contexts. d. Women who desire and have had sex with other women are more likely than men to identify themselves as gay or bisexual. Answer: d 13. A somewhat intriguing finding regarding same-gender orientation is that it is more common among individuals who grew up in a. rural settings. b. suburbia. c. urban centers. d. West Coast areas. Answer: c 14. The term homophobia refers to a. irrational fears and strong negative attitudes toward gays and lesbians. b. laws that discriminate against individuals with a same-gender orientation. c. people who are reluctant to identify themselves as gay, lesbian, or bisexual. d. traditions such as that of the berdache. Answer: a 15. The Torah a. does not specifically prohibit same-gender sexual behavior. b. prohibits both male-male and female-female sexual behavior. c. prohibits female-female sexual behavior. d. prohibits male-male sexual behavior. Answer: d 16. Around 400 C.E., ___________________ began to introduce a new sexual code that focused on maintaining purity and equated some sexual behaviors with the fallen state of the human soul. a. Buddhism b. Christianity c. Islam d. Judaism Answer: b 17. How do modern theologians in the Judeo-Christian-Muslim religious traditions view same-gender sexual behavior? a. They accept such behavior if it occurs in a loving relationship. b. They condemn this and any other sexual expression outside of the marital relationship. c. They uniformly condemn it as did all earlier religious scholars. d. They vary, with some accepting and others condemning such behavior. Answer: d 18. Late in his career, Freud declared that same-gender sexual orientation is the result of a. arrested sexual development. b. genetic abnormalities. c. mental illness. d. precocious sexual development. Answer: a 19. The typical family background assumed by the traditional psychodynamic model of same-gender sexual orientation did NOT include which of the following? a. A close-binding mother b. An absent father c. An openly hostile father d. An overprotective father Answer: d 20. Most psychodynamic theorists now view same-gender sexual orientation as a a. normal, mature developmental state. b. physiologically based illness that can be corrected by psychoanalysis. c. result of sexual abuse by a trusted same-gender adult. d. socialization caused by an overprotective mother and a hostile father. Answer: a 21. Most contemporary theorists and researchers perceive same-gender sexual orientation as a a. more mature but less common form of sexual expression than heterosexuality. b. natural form of sexual expression less prevalent than heterosexuality. c. sign of other disturbances in the personality. d. tolerable but abnormal form of sexual expression. Answer: b 22. Ralph enters psychotherapy for support while coping with the recent death of both his parents. When he offers his life history, Ralph mentions to the therapist that he is gay. How is the therapist most likely to respond to this information? a. The therapist will consider any problems Ralph might have to be due to his basic immaturity and deviant lifestyle. b. The therapist will focus on Ralph's problems of grief and parental loss and accept his orientation as normal. c. The therapist will refuse to work with him, knowing how difficult it is to change sexual orientation. d. The therapist will try to help Ralph change his orientation and then deal with helping him through his parental loss. Answer: b 23. Which description most accurately represents the modern psychological conception of same-gender orientation? a. A normal variation on human sexual expression b. A pathological condition due to faulty parental relationships c. A rare and exotic condition that implies other personality disturbance d. An acceptable but disabling psychological condition Answer: a 24. What was the overall purpose of the classic Bell, Weinberg, and Hammersmith study? a. To determine the types of parental relationships associated with different sexual orientations b. To examine the genetic and physiological bases of sexual orientation c. To identify the differences in the childhood development of gay men and lesbians d. To identify the possible causes of same-gender sexual orientation Answer: d 25. Bell, Weinberg, and Hammersmith's study a. focused on identifying the frequency of same-gender sexual behavior. b. involved interviews with gay men and lesbians, but not heterosexuals. c. was based on data gathered in 3- to 5-hour, face-to-face interviews. d. was dismissed by the Kinsey Institute because of methodological flaws. Answer: c 26. Which of the following was NOT a finding of the classic Bell, Weinberg, and Hammersmith study? a. Both lesbians and gay men tend to have a history of heterosexual experiences, but they evaluate these as unsatisfying. b. Patterns of parental identification appear to be irrelevant to the development of sexual orientation. c. Sexual orientation seems heavily related to the quality of one's relationship with one's father rather than with one's mother. d. Sexual orientation seems to be determined before adolescence, regardless of any overt sexual activity. Answer: c 27. Which of the following was NOT a finding of the classic Bell, Weinberg, and Hammersmith study on sexual orientation? a. Most gay men and lesbians have never had heterosexual experiences. b. Parental identification appears to play no significant role in the development of sexual orientation. c. Same-gender attraction plays a greater role in eventual self-identification as gay or lesbian than any particular activities with others. d. Sexual orientation appears to be largely determined before adolescence. Answer: a 28. Which of the following has NOT been a focus of biological models of homosexuality? a. Anatomical differences b. Genetic factors c. Prenatal hormonal differences d. Viral or bacterial infections Answer: d 29. Research suggests that hormonal levels in the prenatal period a. create gender identity. b. do not influence gender identity. c. influence gender identity only if they create gross anatomical abnormalities. d. might influence later gender identity. Answer: d 30. What is the general conclusion of contemporary researchers regarding the effects of hormone levels on sexual orientation? a. It seems clear that hormonal factors determine sexual orientation. b. Masculinizing hormones in females diagnosed with CAH create a same-gender sexual orientation. c. Prenatal hormones appear to have no influence on later sexual orientation. d. Prenatal hormones appear to influence later gender identity. Answer: d 31. One recent study of gay males who have brothers found that a. birth order has no effect on sexual orientation. b. the greater the number of brothers, the lower the likelihood that a man will be gay. c. the greater the number of older brothers, the higher the likelihood that a man will be gay. d. the greater the number of younger brothers, the higher the likelihood that a man will be gay. Answer: c 32. Regarding genetic influences on sexual behavior, which of the following has NOT been shown to be true? a. Same-gender orientation tends to run in families. d. Specific genes program sexual orientation. b. Studies of identical twins find that both twins are lesbian or gay in only 48 to 52 percent of the cases. c. Studies of identical twins indicate that same-gender sexual orientation is influenced by genes. Answer: b 33. To date, research on the possible biological bases of same-gender orientation suggests that a. among identical twins, the rate of both having same-gender orientation is 48 to 52 percent. b. any genes that influence sexual orientation occur on the Y chromosome. c. genes play as much of a role in sexual orientation as they do in determining height. d. the influence of genes on sexual orientation is slight. Answer: a 34. Which of the following is NOT a physical difference studied relative to same-gender and other-gender sexual orientations? a. Cerebral cortex of the brain b. Finger size ratio c. Left or right handedness d. Suprachiasmatic nucleus in the brain Answer: a 35. Harriet is experiencing anxiety after accepting a very stressful job. As a lesbian who is selecting a counselor to help her, she needs to be a. alert to professionals who are not aware of their own prejudices in working with clients with a same-gender orientation. b. certain to select someone with a traditional Freudian perspective. c. ready to face the fact that most of her problems are due to her same-gender orientation. d. sure to select a counselor who also has a same-gender orientation. Answer: a 36. Which of the following is NOT true regarding stereotypical gay and lesbian behavior? a. A very small percentage of gay males exhibit effeminate behavior. b. A very small percentage of lesbians exhibit masculine behavior. c. Most lesbians dress in a masculine style. d. The majority of gay men dislike effeminate behavior. Answer: c 37. Examination of various cultures and subcultures suggests that among those with a same-gender orientation, a. formation of a same-gender sexual identity is similar across cultures. b. interest in forming an identity based on sexual orientation varies. c. solidarity with others who have a same-gender sexual identity is especially important among U.S. minority groups. d. solidarity with others who have a same-gender orientation occurs only in the U.S. Answer: b 38. The first stage in Cass's theory of identity formation is a. acceptance. b. comparison. c. confusion. d. tolerance. Answer: c 39. Bill is very conscious of his attraction to other men. He realizes this may mean he is gay and realizes how his family is likely to respond to this knowledge. He is also aware that he will be on the "outside" of many social norms. Cass would describe Bill as being in which stage of identity formation? a. Identity acceptance b. Identity comparison c. Identity confusion d. Identity tolerance Answer: b 40. While the "Don't ask, don't tell" policy was active in the U.S. military, a. discrimination against gay men and lesbians has ended. b. the number of people discharged annually from the U.S. armed forces because of their sexual orientation or behavior decreased. c. the number of people discharged annually from the U.S. armed forces because of their sexual orientation or behavior increased. d. the treatment of gay men and lesbians has not changed. Answer: c Fill in the Blank 41. The NHSLS included questions about ___________________, which focused on attraction to others of the same gender as well as the appeal of various sex acts. Answer: desire 42. Research has found that there is a greater likelihood that gay men have gay male relatives on the ___________________ side of the family. Answer: maternal 43. According to the Bell, Weinberg, and Hammersmith study, lesbians and gay men tend to have had heterosexual experiences during childhood and adolescence and found these experiences relatively ___________________. Answer: unsatisfying 44. The anterior part of the brain's _______________________ plays some role in human sexuality. Answer: hypothalamus 45. The ___________________ model of sexual orientation incorporates a combination of biological, psychological, and socioenvironmental factors. Answer: multifactorial 46. Cass's theory of the stages in forming a sexual identity emphasizes the importance of paying attention to a person's ___________________. Answer: self-perceptions 47. The acknowledgment of one's same-gender sexual interests to oneself and to others is called ________________________. Answer: coming out True or False 48. Boy Scouts throughout the world accept gay youth as members. Answer: False 49. In 1973, the American Psychiatric Association's board of trustees voted unanimously to remove homosexuality from its list of mental illnesses. Answer: True 50. The normal variant model of same-gender orientation assumes that faulty parenting results in homosexuality. Answer: False 51. The Bell, Weinberg, and Hammersmith study found that compared with heterosexuals, a slightly higher proportion of lesbians and gay men had poor relationships with their fathers. Answer: True 52. The Bell, Weinberg, and Hammersmith study can be interpreted to be consistent with a biological approach to explaining sexual orientation. Answer: True 53. It is most likely that hormones, genes, and brain structures operate independently in their effect on sexual orientation. Answer: False 54. Only 8 percent of women with CAH identify themselves as lesbian or bisexual. Answer: False 55. Comparing heterosexuals to lesbians and gay men, physical differences in handedness, fingerprints, finger size ratio, and certain brain structures have been found. Answer: True 56. It appears that sexual orientation is defined less quickly by females than by males. Answer: True 57. Although sexual orientation and gender have been traditionally viewed as independent, recent studies have raised questions and controversy regarding how masculine and feminine behaviors (gender role) may be linked to sexual orientation. Answer: True 58. The issue of how open to be about one's same-gender orientation is faced during the identity tolerance stage of sexual identity formation in Cass’ model. Answer: True 59. Gay and lesbian activists who fight discrimination and homophobia are typically in the identity synthesis stage of Cass’ model of sexual identity development. Answer: False 60. Research suggests that compared with lesbians and heterosexual males, gay males are more likely to seek contact with a variety of sexual partners. Answer: True 61. A slang term for lesbian is AC/DC. Answer: False 62. Wearing a condom can eliminate the risk of contracting HIV during same-gender sexual relationships. Answer: False Short Answer 63. What kind of family structure did the early psychodynamic theories of same-gender orientation postulate? Answer: They postulated that the family would feature a close-binding, overprotective mother and an absent or overtly hostile father. 64. What did the NHSLS conclude about the incidence of same-gender orientations and behavior? Answer: There are many subtleties in measuring the incidence of same-gender orientations and behavior; it cannot be accurately characterized by a single number. People often change their pattern of sexual behavior over their lifetimes. No single set of desires uniquely defines individuals as lesbian, gay, or bisexual. 65. Can therapy "cure" homosexuals? Answer: Therapists claiming to "cure" homosexuals usually mean that their patients have stopped participating in same-gender sexual behavior and begun fully functioning with members of the opposite sex. People who have made this change have been unhappy with and felt guilty over their same-gender activities and wished to give them up. Avoiding same-gender contact does not necessarily mean that sexual orientation has been changed. More research is needed to explain outcomes of these types of treatments. 66. Discuss Cass's view of self-perception and same-gender sexual orientation. Answer: People's perceptions of their sexuality may shift with time, and these shifts may result in new patterns of sexual behavior. Sexual identity is not permanently fixed. 67. What is meant by "coming out" and during which of Cass's stages of sexual formation is it most likely to first occur? Answer: It is defined as acknowledging to oneself and others that one is lesbian, gay, or bisexual. It occurs at the earliest in the third stage, identity tolerance. 68. What changes have researchers identified when comparing Kinsey's data on the prevalence of same-gender sexual behavior and his heterosexual-homosexual rating scale? Answer: They concluded that same-gender sexual behavior is less common than suggested by Kinsey's analysis. They proposed that sexual orientation is more complex than a bipolar scale allows. They determined that same-gender sexuality is a multidimensional phenomenon that cannot be accurately characterized by a single number. 69. How do most contemporary psychologists view same-gender sexual orientation, and on what is this view based? Answer: Most psychologists view same-gender sexual orientation as a "normal variant." This view is supported by studies that find there are no significant psychological differences between heterosexuals and people with a same-gender orientation. 70. Is there a genetic basis for same-gender sexual orientation? Answer: There is evidence that genetic factors affect the likelihood of a same-gender orientation, but the extent of that influence and its mechanisms remain unclear. 71. What particular concerns should same-gender-oriented individuals have when they choose a counselor or therapist? Answer: They need to be confident that the professional is not homophobic or biphobic. Moreover, they should be concerned about working with professionals who are not aware of their own prejudices. 72. Sidney identifies himself as bisexual. What special problems may he face? Answer: He may find that both heterosexuals and lesbians and gays are unwilling to accept him. Although he may align himself with gay and lesbian communities, he may be considered a traitor or fence-sitter by some in these communities. 73. Do gay men and lesbians make good parents? Support your answer. Answer: Relatively little research was done on this topic until recently. Available research suggests that the parenting skills of lesbian and gay parents are equivalent to those of heterosexuals. Essay 74. What new approach did the NHSLS take in studying same-gender sexual orientation, and what general conclusion did the researchers reach based on this approach? Answer: They collected data about three aspects of same-gender orientation: desire, sexual behavior, and self-identification. They concluded that all three dimensions must be considered, and that prevalence is influenced by education, geography, and age. 75. List the stages of Cass's model of same-gender sexual orientation, and describe the important features of each stage. Answer: Stage I, identity confusion, involves the realization that the idea of same-gender orientation relates to them personally and that this cannot be ignored. This leads to incongruence and confusion. Stage II, identity comparison, involves an examination of the implications of a same-gender identity, which may lead to a sense of loss and alienation. Some react positively and others may reject this new identity. Stage III, identity tolerance, brings the beginning of acceptance of one's orientation and recognition of needs that go with it. There is often increased involvement with others in the gay or lesbian community. Stage IV, identity acceptance, means accepting a self-image as gay, lesbian, or bisexual. A positive identification with others with a same-gender identity begins. Stage V, identity pride, involves increased identification with the gay and lesbian community. Political activism may ensue. Stage VI, identity synthesis, brings the attempt to integrate one's sexual identity with other aspects of the personality. 76. What were the central findings of the classic Bell, Weinberg, and Hammersmith study? Answer: Findings included the following: (a) sexual orientation seems largely determined before adolescence, even if no overt sexual activity has occurred, (b) same-gender attractions typically occur for about three years before any overt sexual behavior, (c) both lesbians and gay males tend to have had some heterosexual experiences during adolescence and typically report these as relatively unsatisfying, (d) identification with a parent of either gender appears unrelated to sexual orientation, and (e) the type of mother is unrelated to sexual orientation. 77. Describe the findings regarding the formation of same-gender sexual identity among gay men. Answer: Findings are as follows: (a) on average, gay men have more sexual partners than lesbians or heterosexuals, (b) gay men may be more willing to participate in casual and anonymous sexual encounters than lesbians or heterosexuals, (c) gay men tend to become aware of their same-gender orientation earlier and more abruptly than lesbians, (d) gay men tend to enter the identity formation process earlier than lesbians, and (e) gay men are likely to enter this process on the basis of sexual stimulation while conforming to stereotypical masculine behavior. 78. Describe the findings regarding same-gender identity development among lesbians. Answer: Findings include the following: (a) lesbians tend to take on a same-gender identity after a romantic same-gender relationship, (b) lesbians tend to have had sexual relationships with men, (c) lesbians enter the identity formation process after falling in love with a woman, (d) lesbians may begin this process later in life than gay men (e) in the earlier stages of this process, lesbians are more likely to reject the passive, nurturing aspects of the traditional feminine role, and (f) lesbians may begin this process after associating with feminist groups and philosophies or after a pleasurable sexual experience with another woman. 79. How does a person who is developing a same-gender sexual orientation come into contact with a gay or lesbian community? Answer: The NHSLS indicates that gays and lesbians are concentrated in America's large cities. Colleges and universities often have gay, lesbian, and bisexual organizations. Cities typically have gay and lesbian organizations, meeting centers, bookstores, newspapers, and magazines. There are also gay and lesbian political groups and health services. Test Bank for Sexuality Today Gary F. Kelly 9780078035470
Download
Close
Close
