CH-1-5 Cultural, Historical, and Research Perspectives on Sexuality – Sexuality Today : Exam Guide

This Document Contains Chapters 1 to 5 Chapter 1: Cultural, Historical, and Research Perspectives on Sexuality Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following statements most accurately describes Victorian-era attitudes toward marital sex and love? a. Sexual attraction and love are considered good foundations for marriage. b. Sex and love are considered separate human experiences. c. The ideal love includes sexual passion. d. Both sex and love are to be enjoyed outside the marital union. Answer: b 2. Social wars regarding sexuality education, television and advertising content, museums devoted to sexuality, and politically volatile issues such as abortion and gay marriage are examples of American a. agreement. b. ambivalence. c. compromise. d. harmony. Answer: b 3. Research on sexual behavior in the United States indicates that since World War II a. changes have been very slight compared with those that occurred during the Victorian era. b. very significant changes in attitudes and behaviors have occurred. c. men’s sexual attitudes and behaviors have changed significantly; however, no similar change has occurred among women. d. changes in sexual attitudes and behaviors have occurred mainly among middle-class whites and have not spread to other groups. Answer: b 4. Among the factors contributing to changes in sexual attitudes and behavior in the United States in the 1960s and 1970s were a. the counterculture’s questioning of social institutions and authority. b. the advertising industry’s emphasis on sex appeal and sexual freedom. c. shifting attitudes toward the roles of men and women. d. All of these Answer: d 5. According to recent scientific surveys, most Americans a. have large numbers of sexual partners and a wide repertoire of sexual behaviors. b. pattern their lovemaking after what they observe in movies. c. have little interest in sex and are more concerned with money and power. d. engage in less frequent sex and a narrower range of activities than is commonly thought. Answer: d 6. How has HIV changed American sexual behavior? a. Fear of HIV infection has resulted in more people abstaining from sex before marriage. b. Nonmarital sexual activity has declined. c. Awareness of the need to make sexual decisions with care has increased. d. Premarital sexual activity has increased dramatically among women but not among men. Answer: c 7. Politics and “traditional” values are intertwined with which of the following sexual issues? a. Abortion and access to contraception b. Funding for sex-related research c. Sexuality education d. All of these Answer: d 8. The predominant social attitude relating to human sexuality is a. non-existent. b. procreational or traditional. c. recreational. d. relational. Answer: a 10. According to Richard von Krafft-Ebing, the cause of all sexual deviations is a. a brain disorder. b. childhood sexual abuse. c. masturbation. d. unconscious conflict. Answer: c 11. Which statement most accurately describes Iwan Bloch’s contribution to our understanding of sexual behavior? a. Bloch carried out the first laboratory study of human sexual response. b. Bloch conducted the first scientific survey about then-current sexual practices. c. Bloch was the first to apply a historical approach to understanding sexual behavior. d. Bloch was the first to recognize that sexual problems were often at the root of mental illnesses. Answer: c 12. Which statement most accurately describes the contributions of Richard von Krafft-Ebing to our understanding of human sexual behavior? a. Although his opinions and biases had no scientific basis, his views influenced medicine and psychiatry for a long time. b. He was the first to take a historical approach to understanding particular types of sexual behaviors. c. By studying sexual behavior across different cultures, he broadened our conception of what is acceptable sexual behavior. d. He was the first to apply the survey method to sex research. Answer: a 13. The idea that sexuality is at the core of personality development and affects adult life and mental health is most associated with a. Henry Havelock Ellis. b. Sigmund Freud. c. Alfred Kinsey. d. Helena Wright. Answer: b 14. Which of the following individuals made positive contributions toward liberating female sexual pleasure? a. Sigmund Freud b. Alfred Kinsey c. Richard von Krafft-Ebing d. Helena Wright Answer: d 15. Alfred Kinsey contributed greatly to our understanding of sexual behavior by a. writing a marriage manual that opposed the restrictions of the Victorian age. b. developing a theory of psychosexual development that emphasized childhood sexuality. c. interviewing thousands of Americans about their sexual behavior and attitudes. d. collecting laboratory data on sexual responses. Answer: c 16. Although Kinsey and his colleagues interviewed thousands of people for his groundbreaking studies, his results are considered flawed because his interviewees were a. a biased sample in terms of the age-group represented. b. a sample of convenience. c. encouraged to exaggerate the frequency and variety of their behaviors. d. still influenced by Victorian sexual attitudes. Answer: b 17. Jack Smith was a research participant in Masters and Johnson’s research during the early 1950s. Most likely, what aspect of Jack’s sexuality was studied? a. The development of his gender identity and masculinity b. His attitudes toward behaviors such as masturbation and same-gender sexual behavior c. The frequency of his premarital and extramarital sexual activity d. His physiological responses during masturbation and coitus Answer: d 18. Ken is having sexual difficulties and consults a sex therapist for help. The techniques this therapist might use are based on the research efforts of a. Alfred Kinsey. b. John Money. c. William Masters and Virginia Johnson. d. Philip Blumstein and Pepper Schwartz. Answer: c 19. Which of the following was not one of the methodological approaches used by researchers in the National Health and Social Life Survey? a. They selected households with eligible subjects in randomly chosen areas of the country. b. They attempted to interview all eligible members of the household in each of the households selected. c. They gathered data through face-to-face interviews conducted by trained survey researchers. d. They sometimes returned to households several times to persuade all of the desired participants to cooperate with the interviews. Answer: b 20. The recent study on American sexual behavior that is generally considered the most accurate is the a. National Health and Social Life Survey. b. Janus Report on Sexual Behavior. c. Redbook survey. d. American Couples study. Answer: a 21. Which of the following factors would be most critical to ensuring that a survey on condom use among students at your institution gave statistically reliable and generalizable results? a. Who conducted the study and when it was conducted during the academic year b. The length of the questionnaire and how respondents returned it to the researchers c. The representativeness of the sample and the response rate of the participants d. Whether questions were multiple choice or true/false and the reading level of the participants Answer: c 22. In conducting sex research, the best type of sample is a _____ sample. a. clinical b. naturally occurring c. random d. volunteer Answer: c 23. To obtain an accurate measure of the number of students at your school who typically engage in oral-genital sexual activity, you should select a _____ sample. a. normal b. random c. sexually active d. volunteer Answer: b 24. When it comes to sex surveys, the most studied population group in the U.S. is a. adolescents. b. college students. c. minority group members. d. young married couples. Answer: b 25. One strength of the case study approach in sex research is that case studies a. provide an in-depth look at individual circumstances. b. can be easily generalized to other populations. c. generally involve atypical sexual behaviors. d. None of these Answer: a 26. Elsa is a participant in a study in which her blood flow, level of vaginal lubrication, and heart rate are monitored as she reads either nonerotic or erotic material. This study involves a. case study material. b. laboratory observation. c. field observation. d. ethno-sexual data collection. Answer: b 27. A researcher varies room temperature as groups of research subjects read erotic material. The researcher measures the effect on their level of sexual arousal. What research method is being employed here? a. Controlled laboratory experiment b. Ethno-sexual field study c. Case study d. Observation in a natural setting Answer: a 28. Before completing a questionnaire about her sexual attitudes and behavior, Nancy reads and signs a statement in which she agrees that she understands the purpose of the study and what will be expected of her as a participant. What ethical principle is involved here? a. Evaluation of the value of the study versus risks to participants b. Confidentiality c. Protection from psychological and physical harm d. Informed consent Answer: d 29. Dr. Lawrence completes a proposal for a study of condom use by students at her university. To ensure that this study is ethical, she will a. have the proposal evaluated by her university’s human-research review committee. b. decide whether to use experimentation or the survey method. c. be sure to obtain a representative sample of participants. d. obtain consent for participation from the students’ parents. Answer: a 30. A Eurocentric perspective is most accurately described as a. a nonjudgmental approach. b. one that allows for diversity. c. a viewpoint based on European culture. d. an egalitarian approach. Answer: c 31. Jason belongs to a religious group that sees the primary purpose of sexual activity to be the eventual birth of children. The sexual attitudes of this religious group are classified as a. procreational. b. relational. c. recreational. d. nontraditional. Answer: a 32. In Ravi’s society, it is recognized that love between two people often leads them to sexual activity both before and after marriage. The sexual attitudes of this group are classified as a. procreational. b. relational. c. interpersonal. d. recreational. Answer: b 33. Emma believes that any sexual activity between two consenting adults is acceptable as long as both individuals enjoy it. Her sexual attitude is classified as a. procreational. b. relational. c. recreational. d. educational. Answer: c 34. Helen wants to have sex with her boyfriend, Bob, as one more way of “having fun together.” Bob wants to know if Helen really cares for him before they have intercourse. Their conflict may be described as one that involves a. traditional versus nontraditional attitudes. b. Victorian versus modern attitudes. c. recreational versus relational attitudes. d. promiscuous versus cautious attitudes. Answer: c Fill in the Blank 35. ________________ wrote Psychopathia Sexualis, in which the dangers of masturbation were emphasized. Answer: Richard von Krafft-Ebing 36. _________________ published A Thousand Marriages, based on reports of 5,200 women patients. Answer: Robert Latou Dickinson True or False 37. Traditional Victorian attitudes toward female sexuality did not shift substantially until the 1980s. Answer: False 38. Because attitudes toward nonmarital sex, teenage sexual activity, and same-gender sexual activity are inherently related to each other, cultures can be easily categorized as permissive or nonpermissive. Answer: False 39. A major problem in assessing the accuracy of survey research is that those who respond may be very different from those who do not. Answer: True 40. Current techniques of sex therapy originated from the research of William Masters and Virginia Johnson. Answer: True 41. Research based on individuals who seek treatment for a sexual problem is called experimentation. Answer: False Essay 42. Describe the three categories, based on assumptions about the purpose of sex, which researchers have used to describe North American attitudes toward sex. Answer: (a) Procreational – those who see the primary purpose of sexual activity to be reproduction; (b) relational – those who view sexual activity as a natural component of intimate and loving relationships; (c) recreational – those who consider the primary purpose of sex to be pleasure. 43. What were the major weaknesses of Kinsey’s research? Answer: First, Kinsey used a “sample of convenience.” This limits the generalizability of his findings because his sample was neither random nor representative. Second, because his respondents were volunteers, they may differ significantly from the general population. 44. William Masters and Virginia Johnson made major contributions in which three areas of sexual knowledge? Answer: They contributed to knowledge about (a) physiological responses during masturbation, (b) physiological responses during intercourse, and (c) the treatment of sexual dysfunction. 45. Describe the significance of the National Health and Social Life Survey. Answer: This survey is significant because of both its high-quality methodology and the data it produced. Because of the study’s state-of-the-art techniques, the data have high validity. The sample was randomly selected and almost mirrored the general American population. Researchers obtained a response rate of nearly 80 percent, and they used a carefully designed questionnaire and face-to-face interviews. The findings indicated that Americans overall were far less sexually active and more content with their sexual lives than previously believed. 46. A group of students wants to conduct a survey about some aspect of sexual behavior on their campus. What are two of the most important issues they must deal with to ensure that their results can be generalized? Answer: They must be sure (a) that their sample is as representative as possible and (b) that they have an adequate response rate. 47. List seven areas of sexual behavior about which attitudes have changed substantially during the last several decades. Answer: Substantial changes have occurred in attitudes regarding (a) masturbation, (b) nonmarital sex, (c) the double standard, (d) sexual orientations, same-gender sexual activity, and gender identities, (e) the body and nudity, (f) the relationship between sex and love, and (g) sexuality education. Various pages 48. How have attitudes in the U.S. toward the roles of women and men in sexual activity changed over the last several decades? Answer: Old stereotypes have weakened. Male aggression and female passivity were once seen as the norm in sexual activity. Now the role of sexual initiator is no longer seen as solely a male prerogative, and women are viewed as having strong sexual feelings. 49. How has the fear of HIV and AIDS both changed and failed to change sexual attitudes and behaviors? Answer: In general, individuals have become more aware of the potential dangers of sexual activity, but studies regarding abstinence, sexual activity, and condom use do not provide a clear picture of the extent of changes in sexual behavior. Overall, however, research suggests that a large proportion of North Americans give little attention to safe sex. 50. Describe the two forms of bias that may influence research on sexuality. Answer: One type is participation bias, which refers to differences between those who are willing to participate in studies of sexuality and those who are not. Another form of bias is response bias, which refers to failures by participants to be accurate or truthful. Participants might, for example, conceal sexual behavior that embarrasses them or exaggerate sexual activity that enhances their self-esteem. 51. How did technology influence sexual behavior in the twentieth century? Answer: Technological advances altered the relationship between sexual behavior and reproduction. Technology reduced the fear of unwanted pregnancies and helped some people to regain sexual functioning and some to have children who would otherwise have been unable to do so. Essay 52. Your class decides to conduct a study of some aspect of sexual behavior on your campus. What ethical issues must be considered, and how will they be resolved? Answer: Ethical issues to be considered include (a) the need to protect participants from physical and psychological harm, (b) the need for informed consent, and (c) the participants’ right to confidentiality. To address these issues, researchers must (a) obtain approval for proposed research from a human-research review committee that evaluates the potential value of the research and the risks for participants; (b) give participants complete information about the study and what is expected of them before the study begins and then obtain their consent; and (c) ensure that personal facts about participants will not be made known to others. In addition, researchers should be aware of the controversy surrounding classification of research participants by race. 53. Think of three recent or popular books or movies. Was the sexual behavior depicted in these three works procreational, relational, or recreational? Explain. Answer: Answers will vary but should note that procreational sex is sex primarily for reproduction, relational sex involves sex as a natural part of an intimate and loving relationship, and recreational sex is sex intended for pleasure. • Book/Movie 1: "Normal People" (Book/TV Series) - The sexual behavior depicted is primarily relational, focusing on the emotional connection and dynamics between the characters. • Book/Movie 2: "Fifty Shades of Grey" (Book/Film) - The sexual behavior depicted leans towards recreational, emphasizing experimentation and pleasure-seeking rather than procreation or deep relational bonding. • Book/Movie 3: "Call Me by Your Name" (Book/Film) - The sexual behavior depicted is mostly relational, exploring the evolving emotional and intimate relationship between the characters. 54. Describe at least four trends or challenges that will affect sex research and theory in the twenty-first century. Answer: Trends include (a) a growing willingness to gather and analyze qualitative data, (b) increased use of the Internet to gather sex-related data, and (c) examination of ethnic differences in human sexuality. Important challenges include the need (a) to expand studies of trends in developing countries and of how these trends relate to sexual health, (b) to develop a stronger multidisciplinary perspective, with closer attention to related sciences, and (c) to improve the ability to respond quickly to society’s need for accurate information about sexual behavior. Chapter 2: Female Sexual Anatomy and Physiology Multiple Choice 1. The external female sex organs are collectively called the a. clitoris. b. glans. c. ovaries. d. vulva. Answer: d 2. The rounded pad of fatty tissue located over the female pubic bone is called the a. hymen. b. mons. c. shaft. d. urethra. Answer: b 3. Which of the following female sex organs forms a sheath of skin at the top covering the clitoris? a. The labia majora b. The minor lips c. The vagina d. The vulva Answer: b 4. Another name for the clitoral hood is the a. glans. b. introitus. c. labia. d. prepuce. Answer: d 5. Tampons are inserted into the vagina at the a. hymen. b. introitus. c. prepuce. d. urethral opening. Answer: b 6. Which external female sex organ becomes hard and erect during arousal? a. The clitoris b. The prepuce c. The labia minora d. The vulva Answer: a 7. In some sub-Saharan African and East Asian cultures, clitoridectomies are performed a. as a rite of passage to womanhood. b. to make childbirth as painful and difficult as possible. c. to prevent masturbation and the passing of sexually transmitted diseases. d. to protect against infibulation. Answer: a 8. One result of clitoridectomy is to a. ease childbirth. b. increase fertility. c. increase sexual pleasure. d. reduce sexual pleasure. Answer: d 9. The purpose of infibulation is to a. ensure that no intercourse will occur prior to marriage. b. increase the sexual pleasure of men during intercourse. c. prevent painful childbirth. d. reduce the possibility of masturbation. Answer: a 10. Which statement most accurately describes the controversy that surrounds clitoridectomy and infibulation? Some see these procedures as __________________; others see them as ___________________. a. an economic investment; exploitative of children b. good health measures; physically harmful c. important traditions with which outsiders should not interfere; representing subjugation of women d. protective of women; harmful to children Answer: c 11. Involuntary contraction of the sphincter vaginae and levator ani muscles is associated with a. endometriosis. b. infibulation. c. vaginismus. d. virginity. Answer: c 12. Lisa is a teenager who sees the magazine ads for "women's hygiene" products and wants to know if she should douche regularly. What do sexological and medical experts advise? a. No, douching is associated with increased risk of cancer. b. No, douching is associated with increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease. c. Yes, she should douche after each menstrual period to clean out the vagina. d. Yes, she should douche weekly in order to reduce the likelihood of vaginal infection. Answer: b 13. Janice recently began menstruating. She has heard from her friends that she should not use tampons because that would make her lose her virginity. What information can you offer Janice? a. A majority of females are born without hymens, so most likely using tampons will not be a problem. b. If she has an imperforate hymen, she can use tampons. An annular hymen will interfere with use of tampons. c. Most hymens have openings that will easily allow a tampon to be inserted. The presence or absence of a hymen is not an indicator of virginity. d. The hymen protects the vagina from disease; thus she should not insert anything into the vagina. She should refrain from any vigorous activity that could rupture the hymen. Answer: c 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of hymen? a. Annular b. Cribriform c. Prepuce d. Septate Answer: c 15. Rose has never had intercourse, and will be getting married in 3 months. She is concerned about experiencing pain from tearing of her hymen. Of all the comments she receives from her girlfriends, the advice LEAST likely to be helpful is from a. Angie, who tells her not to worry about the pain because her use of tampons over the years has gotten rid of the hymen. b. Beth, who tells her that she may want to spend some time prior to having intercourse inserting her fingers into the opening of the hymen. c. Cari, who tells her that she could always get her doctor to cut the hymen or stretch it with dilators. d. Dorle, who tells her that she should both encourage her husband to be careful and gentle. and take responsibility for guiding her husband's penis and controlling the timing and depth of penetration. Answer: a 16. In conducting a genital self-examination, which of the following should NOT, by itself, be of concern to a woman? a. A change in odor or consistency of vaginal discharge b. An itchy rash around the vagina c. Unusual or new bumps, sores, or blisters d. Vaginal discharge Answer: d 17. All of the following are sex-related risk factors associated with cervical cancer EXCEPT a. a history of pelvic inflammatory disease or a sexually transmitted disease. b. a parent or close relative having cancer. c. having 10 or more sex partners or a partner who has had multiple partners. d. very early initiation of sexual intercourse. Answer: b 18. The cervix is part of the a. fimbriae. b. ovary. c. uterus. d. vagina. Answer: c 19. The layer of the uterine wall that plays an important role in the menstrual cycle is the a. endometrium. b. isthmus. c. myometrium. d. perimetrium. Answer: a 20. The Pap smear is used to detect a. cervical cancer. b. endometriosis. c. sexually transmitted disease. d. vaginismus. Answer: a 21. Which one of the following statements about the ovaries is NOT accurate? a. At birth, ovaries contain thousands of follicles, but only 400-500 mature ova are produced. b. Inside each follicle is an oocyte. c. The core area of the ovary is called the cortex. d. The ovaries secrete both estrogen and progesterone. Answer: c 22. Where does fertilization usually take place? a. At the cervical os b. Near the fimbriae c. Within the fallopian tube d. Within the fundus Answer: c 23. The hairlike projections that help move the ovum through the fallopian tubes are called a. cilia. b. fimbriae. c. mylin. d. os. Answer: a 24. The condition called fibrous hymen can often cause a. cervical cancer. b. cystitis. c. dyspareunia. d. vaginal atrophy. Answer: c 25. Which of the following hormones is involved in the production of breast milk after childbirth? a. Estrogen b. FSH c. Progesterone d. Prolactin Answer: d 26. Karen is having difficulty breast-feeding her newborn infant. She appears to be producing lots of milk, but the milk is not being released or ejected from the breast. A physician may measure Karen's level of production of which hormone? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Oxytocin c. Prolactin d. Testosterone Answer: b 27. About one-third of breast cancers that develop before age 30 appear to result from a. childhood trauma to the breast tissue. b. inadequate hygiene. c. inherited genetic mutation. d. sexual activity that begins in early adolescence. Answer: c 28. To determine if she has the beginnings of breast cancer, Maria would undergo which procedure? a. ELISA test b. HRT c. Mammography d. Pap smear Answer: c 29. Gina was diagnosed with breast cancer. Surgery has been recommended in which her left breast will be removed in a procedure called a. infibulation. b. lumpectomy. c. mammography. d. mastectomy. Answer: d 30. Which one of the following organs is NOT involved in regulating the menstrual cycle? a. The clitoris b. The hypothalamus c. The ovaries d. The pituitary gland Answer: a 31. Which organ produces the hormones that stimulate the ovaries to produce estrogen and progesterone? a. The adrenal glands b. The hypothalamus c. The pituitary gland d. The uterus Answer: c 32. Which of the following is NOT a process characteristic of the follicular phase? a. Estrogen causes the endometrium to thicken. b. FSH results in the maturation of one or more ova. c. Production of FSH is inversely proportional to the bloodstream estrogen level. d. Production of LH by the pituitary decreases. Answer: d 33. Which hormone is critical in the actual release or rupturing of a mature ovum from the ovary? a. Estrogen b. Follicular stimulating hormone c. Gonadotropin releasing hormone d. Luteinizing hormone Answer: d 34. Which of the following substances is NOT contained in the menstrual flow? a. A few ounces of blood b. Endometrial cells from the uterus c. Smegma d. Various fluids Answer: c 35. Helen visits her gynecologist because of severe pain during menstruation. In other words, Helen suffers from a. amenorrhea. b. dysmenorrhea c. phimosis. d. premenstrual syndrome. Answer: b 36. Over-the-counter drugs that claim to reduce the symptoms of PMS act by a. counteracting the effects of prostaglandin. b. decreasing the impact of FSH on the ovaries. c. facilitating the release of luteinizing hormone from the pituitary. d. increasing progesterone levels in the blood. Answer: a 37. Estrogen replacement therapy was first popularized as a way to a. maintain a keen mind and a sharp memory. b. reduce the risk of heart disease and bone loss. c. reduce the risk of uterine and breast cancer. d. stay youthful and feminine. Answer: d 38. Anna has been diagnosed as having osteoporosis. Which of the following is NOT likely to be recommended to reduce further bone loss? a. Calcium supplements b. Increased exercise c. Injections of FSH and LH d. Vitamin D Answer: c 39. Research on HRT shows all of the following effects EXCEPT a. decrease in menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes and night sweats. b. lower rates of breast cancer. c. more heart attacks, strokes, and blood clots. d. reduced rate of hip fractures and colon cancer. Answer: b 40. As Victoria enters menopause, she is considering whether to begin HRT. What advice would you? offer to her a. Benefits of taking estrogen alone are substantial. b. HRT is essential if she wants to continue sexual activity. c. She should carefully weigh the potential risks of HRT against the benefits. d. Women's health and quality of life are likely to increase with HRT. Answer: c 41. According to recent research, how are sexual interest and desire affected by menopause? a. For virtually all women, freedom from pregnancy increases sexual interest markedly. b. There is often a change, either an increase or a decrease, in sexual interest and desire, but it is temporary. c. Unless HRT is begun, sexual interest and desire decline markedly. d. Women are genetically programmed to lose interest in sex as soon as their reproductive abilities end. Answer: b Fill in the Blank 42. A common problem that is associated with pain in the vulvovaginal area and may interfere with sexual activity is _________________. Answer: vulvodynia (or vulvar vestibulitis) 43. The two inner folds of skin that join above the clitoris and extend along the sides of the vaginal and urethral openings are called the _________________. Answer: labia minora 44. The most sexually sensitive female sex organ is the _________________. Answer: clitoris 45. Body oil mixed with other secretions that forms a substance that may accumulate beneath the prepuce is called _________________. Answer: smegma 46. The most common type of hymen is __________________. Answer: annular 47. The muscular tube in the female important for reproduction and sexual pleasure is called the __________________. Answer: vagina 48. The os is the opening in the _________________. Answer: cervix 49. The layer of the uterine wall that is rich in blood vessels and glands is the __________________. Answer: endometrium 50. The finger like projections at the open end of each fallopian tube are called the __________________. Answer: fimbriae 51. A rare, chronic bladder inflammation in women that can cause debilitating discomfort and interfere with sexual enjoyment is called _________________. Answer: interstitial cystitis (IC) True or False 52. Research indicates that there is no doubt that use of mammography reduces the overall number of deaths from breast cancer. Answer: False 53. The external female sexual organs are called the clitoris and vagina. Answer: False 54. During sexual arousal, the clitoris hardens and becomes erect. Answer: True 55. When it is not aroused, the vagina assumes a flexible tubelike shape. Answer: False 56. One muscle that has a role in female orgasmic response is the pubococcygeus (or PC) muscle. Answer: True 57. Because the muscular walls of the vagina are normally contracted except when something is inserted into the cavity, it is possible for the vaginal muscles to contract during intercourse to the extent that the penis can momentarily become trapped. Answer: False 58. The second most common cancer among women is found in the vagina. Answer: False 59. In a pelvic exam, a sample of cells from the fundus of the uterus is taken. Answer: False 60. Pap smears can detect two stages of cervical cancer. Answer: True 61. The outgrowth of uterine lining into organs surrounding the uterus is called endometriosis. Answer: True 62. At the time of birth, females have 400 to 500 mature ova in their ovaries. Answer: False 63. Prolactin and oxytocin are critical hormones for successful breast-feeding. Answer: True 64. The pituitary gland stimulates other glands to produce hormones when it is stimulated by a signal from the hypothalamus. Answer: True Short Answer 65. Describe the process of female erection. Answer: During sexual arousal, two columns and bulbs of spongy tissue become engorged with blood. This causes the clitoris to become hard and erect. As arousal continues, the clitoris retracts. 66. Why do so many individuals oppose clitoridectomy and infibulation? Answer: Many see these as traditions that seek to subjugate women and control their sexuality. In addition, these practices pose a serious threat to women's health because of the danger of infections. 67. Why is douching a potentially harmful procedure? Answer: Douching can force bacteria and viruses into the uterus, increasing the risk of uterine and vaginal infections. Women who douche frequently are at much greater risk for pelvic inflammatory disease and ectopic pregnancy. The vagina has its own natural cleansing processes. 68. Can visual inspection of the introitus reveal whether a woman has had intercourse or not? Answer: No, the presence or absence of the hymen does not indicate whether intercourse has occurred. Only the presence of sperm in the vagina indicates whether intercourse has recently occurred. 69. Describe the function of the endometrium of the uterus. Answer: During the first stage of the menstrual cycle, it thickens gradually. Later, the endometrium secretes nutrients that can nourish an embryo if pregnancy occurs. If no ovum is fertilized, it degenerates and becomes part of the menstrual fluid. 70. Explain the role of the fallopian tubes in reproduction. Answer: Every month the cilia of the fallopian tubes move an ovum from the ovary to the uterus. Ova are fertilized in the fallopian tubes. 71. Describe polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Answer: It is the most common female endocrine disorder and a leading cause of infertility. It can result in abnormal production of male hormones which interferes with the menstrual cycle and can lead to diabetes, heart disease, and other long-term health problems. 72. Summarize the findings of recent research on the genetic bases of certain types of breast cancer. Answer: About a third of breast cancer cases identified in women before age 30 are attributable to a susceptibility based on inherited genetic mutations; breast cancer later in life is far less likely to be tied to genetic susceptibility. The defective genes, BRCA1 and BRCA 2, occur on chromosomes 17 and 13. 73. Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the menstrual cycle. Answer: The hypothalamus produces the gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This hormone signals the pituitary gland to secrete FSH and LH, which then signals the ovaries to produce estrogen and eventually progesterone. 74. What is the difference between PMS and PMDD? Answer: PMS—premenstrual syndrome—is a set of unpleasant, uncomfortable symptoms that some women experience just before or during menstruation; possible symptoms include headaches, backaches, fatigue, and cramps as well as irritability and various types of emotional distress. If the emotional distress is severe, the set of symptoms is sometimes diagnosed as PMDD—premenstrual dysphoric disorder. 75. List and describe three uterine disorders besides cancer. Answer: Disorders include endometrial hyperplasia, which is excessive growth of the endometrium; endometriosis, which is outward growth of the endometrium into organs surrounding the uterus; and benign fibroid tumors. Essay 76. Lisa's HMO stresses the importance of having annual Pap smears performed. Why? Answer: Pap smears have been credited with being responsible for a 70-percent decline in deaths from cervical cancer, which is particularly dangerous because no symptoms may appear for several years. A Pap smear may detect both the precancerous or early cancer cells of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia [CIN] and the more advanced malignancy known as invasive cancer of the cervix [ICC]. 77. How would you explain the process of breast self-examination to a young woman? Answer: The American Cancer Society recommends that women perform a breast self-examination monthly, approximately 12 to 16 days after the beginning of the last period. The self-examination consists of (a) a visual inspection for any changes in the contour or skin of either breast, and (b) a manual examination while the skin is wet, or while lying down, in which one moves several fingers in clockwise circles around the outer regions several times (to detect lumps, hard knots, or unusual thickening) and squeezes the nipples (to see if there is any discharge). 78. Your middle-aged friend, Beth, is fearful about the physical and psychological effects of menopause. What factual information can you offer her to separate truth from fiction? Answer: Menopause brings decreased production of estrogen and progesterone, an end to menstruation, and an end to the possibility of conception. Her breasts and uterus will decrease in size. The inner walls of the vagina will thin, and the number of small blood vessels in the pelvic area will decline. Some women also experience other changes; possibilities include an increased tendency to gain weight, changes in skin color and texture, osteoporosis, hot flashes, and mood changes. Menopause may bring temporary changes in her level of sexual desire, but it need not markedly affect her sexual functioning. She may feel sad to mark the end of one phase of life, but she may also feel liberated by the end of menstruation and the possibility of pregnancy. Chapter 3: Male Sexual Anatomy and Physiology Multiple Choice 1. At birth, the testes are normally contained in the a. abdominal cavity. b. epididymis. c. inguinal canal. d. scrotum. Answer: d 2. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of male physiology for which the testes are directly or indirectly responsible? a. ICSH production b. Secondary sex characteristics c. Sperm production d. Testosterone production Answer: a 3. In which of these sexual organs are sperm actually formed? a. Interstitial cells b. Seminiferous tubules c. The epididymis d. The inguinal canal Answer: b 4. In which male sexual structure are immature sperm stored and readied for eventual emission? a. Epididymis b. Interstitial cells c. Vas deferens d. Seminal vesicle Answer: a 5. Healthy sperm production should have a scrotal temperature that is a. higher than body temperature. b. independent of body temperature. c. lower than body temperature. d. the same as body temperature. Answer: c 6. In which of the following situations would you predict a man's testes to hang low and away from his body? a. During a romantic dinner date b. During a typical college class c. While in a sauna d. While skiing Answer: c 7. Which of the following statements about male sexual self-examination is NOT accurate? a. If detected early, the survival rate from testicular cancer is excellent. b. It is best to perform the self-examination after a hot shower or bath. c. Testicular cancer is relatively common among men aged over 50. d. Testicular lumps are typically painless. Answer: c 8. If Nick is typical, he is probably most aroused by very gentle stimulation to the a. shaft of the penis. b. corpora cavernosa. c. epididymis. d. glans. Answer: d 9. Which of the following is located within the scrotum? a. Corona b. Glans c. Frenulum d. Vas deferens Answer: d 10. The two most sensitive areas of the penile glans are the a. corona and frenulum. b. foreskin and urethral opening. c. frenulum and foreskin. d. urethral opening and corona. Answer: a 11. What physiological process underlies erection of the penis? a. Emptying of the epididymis b. Engorgement of the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum c. Spasm of the cremasteric muscles d. The build-up of fluid in the urethra Answer: b 12. What is meant by the "equalizing effect" of erections? a. All men enjoy the sensation of erection equally. b. No matter their normal social or economic status, men with longer penises have greater sexual abilities. c. Shorter and narrower flaccid penises gain more in length and circumference than do longer and wider penises. d. When erect, all penises are the same size. Answer: c 13. In the locker room, Jim notes that his penis appears smaller and narrower than those of many of the other men. If Jim is typical, what will happen when he is sexually aroused? a. He is more likely to maintain an erection for a longer time compared to men with larger penises. b. He will become erect more quickly and be able to maintain his erection for a longer time. c. His smaller penis will be more sensitive than longer penises. d. His smaller penis will gain more in length and circumference than will penises that are larger in a flaccid state. Answer: d 14. In male circumcision, a. a minor surgical technique makes the penis appear fatter. b. a small surgical incision is made in the frenulum. c. phimosis occurs and the foreskin retracts. d. the glans is exposed by surgically removing the foreskin. Answer: d 15. Semen contains all of the following substances EXCEPT a. enzymes. b. proteins. c. smegma. d. sperm. Answer: c 16. Both the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland a. are important in producing and maintaining erections. b. contribute much of the fluid that makes up semen. c. produce secretions that provide lubrication. d. secrete alkalis to neutralize the acids in the urethra. Answer: b 17. Which is the correct pathway for the sperm? a. Testes, prostate, vas deferens, urethra b. Testes, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, urethra c. Testes, vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, urethra d. Testes, vas deferens, ureter, urethra Answer: b 18. When Antonio and Tamara have intercourse, he often inserts his penis in her vagina until he feels that ejaculation is close. Then, he puts on a condom. Why is this behavior risky? a. Preejaculatory fluids are meant to serve as a lubricant. b. Preejaculatory secretions of the Cowper's glands often contain sperm. c. Such behavior may cause semen to become thick and gelatinous. d. The interruption in sexual arousal may reduce the motility of sperm. Answer: b 19. In males, FSH works to stimulate a. Cowper's glands to produce preejaculatory fluid. b. spermatocytes to produce sperm. c. the prostate gland to secrete fluid. d. the testes to produce testosterone. Answer: b 20. During intercourse, Nathan experiences orgasm, but no semen appears. His physician diagnoses his problem as retrograde ejaculation. This means that a. muscles that normally close off the bladder fail to contract and semen enters the bladder. b. no contractions have occurred in the muscles that surround the ejaculatory duct. c. the erect penis has not sent a sufficient number of impulses to the ejaculatory center of the spinal cord. d. the prostate and seminal vesicles fail to secrete their fluids, so no semen is created. Answer: a 21. Which of the following factors has NOT been hypothesized as a possible cause of reduced sperm counts? a. Chemical pollutants in the environment b. Differing methods of sperm count analysis c. Frequent masturbation d. Tobacco smoking Answer: c 22. The equivalent of menopause in men is called a. free testosterone syndrome. b. menarche. c. testosterone replacement syndrome. d. the male climacteric. Answer: d 23. Which of the following statements about midlife is NOT true? a. Men do not lose the ability to reproduce and usually continue to produce sperm cells throughout their lives. b. Men experience predictable changes in hormonal levels that have effects comparable to those experienced by women. c. Stresses and physiological changes may feed into one another to produce the set of symptoms called the male climacteric. d. Testosterone levels decline. Answer: b Fill in the Blank 24. A condition in which the penile foreskin is too tight to retract easily is known as __________________. Answer: phimosis 25. Sperm are stored in a coiled tubing network folded against the back and top part of each testis called the _________________. Answer: epididymis 26. The duct that transports sperm up to the seminal vesicle is called the _____________________. Answer: vas deferens 27. A disorder in which both testes are completely lacking at birth is called _____________________. Answer: anorchism 28. The function of Cowper's glands is to secrete _____________________ fluid into the _____________________. Answer: alkaline, urethra 29. The erectile cylinders in the shaft of the penis are called the __________________ and the __________________. Answer: corpora cavernosa, corpus spongiosum 30. The surgical procedure in which the foreskin is removed is called _____________________. Answer: circumcision 31. The development of tough, fibrous tissue around the corpora cavernosa within the penis is called _________________. Answer: Peyronie's disease 32. When semen enters the bladder instead of exiting through the penis, this is called a(n) _________________. Answer: retrograde ejaculation 33. Another term for the male midlife crisis is _____________________. Answer: andropause or male climacteric or ADAM 34. A dry male orgasm, in which there is a total absence of semen is called _____________________. Answer: anejaculation. True or False 35. Testosterone is produced in the seminiferous tubules. Answer: False 36. The interstitial cells produce FSH. Answer: False 37. The vas deferens transport sperm to the epididymis. Answer: False 38. The seminal vesicles secrete fluids that make up about 70 percent of semen. Answer: True 39. Suction devices used to enlarge the penis are perfectly safe. Answer: False 40. The medical problem known as phimosis is an unusually long and tight foreskin. Answer: True 41. Regular prostate examinations are generally recommended only when men reach the age of 60. Answer: False Short Answer 42. As David goes about his normal daily activities, where are his mature sperm stored? Where will they go during sexual arousal? Answer: They are stored in the epididymis, and during sexual arousal they will be transported up to the seminal vesicles. 43. Why are hard plastic cup supporters recommended for male athletes? Answer: As body temperature rises during exertion, the testicles may be lowered away from the body, and this increases susceptibility to testicular injury. Severe testicular injury may be associated with later infertility. Thus use of a hard plastic cup is recommended for protection during contact sports. 44. Discuss epididymitis and how it can be treated. Answer: Epididymitis is an inflammation of the epididymis. It can be caused by a wide variety of bacteria, and it is treated with antibiotics. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary. 45. What are the two most sensitive areas of the glans? Answer: The two most sensitive areas of the glans are the frenulum—a thin, tightly stretched band of skin on its underside connecting the glans with the shaft of the penis and the corona, which is the ridge around the edge of the penis. 46. Explain the function of cyclic GMP. Answer: Cyclic GMP, a type of nitric oxide, causes the smooth muscles that surround the penile arteries to relax. This allows the arteries to open so that blood flows into the open spaces in the erectile tissues. 47. What makes up semen? Answer: Semen is largely made up of secretions from the seminal vesicles. Other ingredients are sperm, proteins, citric acid, calcium, fats, and some enzymes. 48. What is the average sperm count associated with the term infertility? Answer: A sperm count of 20 million sperm per milliliter or lower is associated with male infertility. 49. Discuss changes in testosterone levels as a man ages. Answer: The concentration of male hormones in the body declines very gradually through a man's mid-forties, and by age 75 his testosterone levels often have dropped as much as 90 percent compared with his testosterone levels before the age of 30. Furthermore, as a man ages, more testosterone becomes chemically bound to blood proteins, or plasma, reducing the free, unbound testosterone. Essay 50. Describe similarities and differences between the penis and clitoris in sexual functioning. Answer: The glans clitoris and glans penis are the most sensitive parts of the genitalia. During arousal, similar vascular processes cause the penis and the clitoris to enlarge, harden, and become erect. However, as a woman approaches orgasm, the glans retracts under the prepuce. In contrast to the female urethra, which carries only urine, the urethra of the penis carries both urine and semen. 51. How would you explain the process of genital self-examination to a young man? Answer: It should be performed at least monthly in a well-lit area; using a mirror can help. It is best done after a hot bath or shower so that the testicles are lowered away from the body. Examine the head and shaft of the penis carefully. Pull back the foreskin if not circumcised. Examine the underside of the penis. Roll each testicle between thumb and fingers, looking for any small hard lumps. 52. Explain the physiological mechanisms that produce and maintain penile erection. Answer: Two perineal muscles become active before erection. This is related to increases in arterial blood flow to the penis. The nervous system stimulates the linings of the penile blood vessels and nerve endings to produce nitric oxide. This substance relaxes the muscle cells, opening arteries to allow blood into the erectile tissues (corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum). A subsequent rise in blood pressure squeezes the veins so blood does not drain out of the penis. Chapter 4: Human Sexual Arousal and Response Multiple Choice 1. The most accurate information regarding how the body responds during sexual stimulation has been provided by a. Alfred Kinsey. b. Margaret Mead. c. Sigmund Freud. d. William Masters and Virginia Johnson. Answer: d 2. The phase of Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle in which blood flow is concentrated in the pelvic region and the body begins to show signs of arousal is called a. excitement. b. plateau. c. refraction. d. resolution. Answer: a 3. The sequence of phases in Masters and Johnson's model of sexual response is a. excitement, orgasm, plateau, resolution. b. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution. c. plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution. d. plateau, orgasm, excitement, resolution. Answer: b 4. Some sex scholars have suggested that an important flaw in the Masters and Johnson research on human sexual response is a. the lack of gay males and lesbians in their original sample. b. the unequal number of males and females in their sample. c. their inclusion of only orgasmic subjects in their sample. d. their over-reliance on verbal self-reports from their subjects. Answer: c 5. Which statement most accurately describes Helen Singer Kaplan's model of sexual response? a. Males and females have distinct sexual response cycles, with females experiencing a lengthy plateau phase. b. Sexual response begins with psychological desire, which then begins a physiological cycle of vasocongestion and eventually orgasmic release. c. Sexual response is a fragile process and there may be dysfunctions at any of the stages of excitement, plateau, orgasm, or resolution. d. While desire and vasocongestion appear to be human universals, orgasmic response is not. Answer: b 6. A major difference between the Kaplan model of sexual response and the Masters and Johnson model is that the former model a. gives equal emphasis to male and female sexual patterns. b. includes the psychological factor of desire. c. is based on a more demographically balanced sample. d. relies on laboratory observation rather than verbal reports. Answer: b 7. Kaplan's model of sexual response emphasizes a. a neurological basis of sexual behavior. b. gender differences in sexual response. c. psychological factors in sexual motivation. d. sexual responses during masturbation. Answer: c 8. The correct sequence of Kaplan's model of sexual response is a. desire, vasocongestion, orgasm. b. excitement, vasocongestion, orgasm. c. plateau, vasocongestion, orgasm. d. resolution, vasocongestion, orgasm. Answer: a 9. The key differences between between sexual desire and sexual response are a. sexual desire refers to the psychological motivation for sex, while sexual response refers to the excitation of the body b. sexual desire refers to a person’s sexual energy, while sexual response refers to a person’s attachment to their partner c. sexual desire refers to the activation of the peripheral arousal system, while sexual response refers to activation of the central arousal system. d. All of the above are true. Answer: a 10. Kaplan's model of human sexual response has been especially useful in a. distinguishing male and female sexual response cycles. b. determining why some individuals do not experience orgasm. c. understanding sexual dysfunctions. d. understanding the brain systems that underlie all sexual response. Answer: c 11. Frank sees a therapist because he believes his interest in sexual activity is well below that of an average male. According to the Kaplan model, Frank's problem involves which phase of the sexual response cycle? a. Desire b. Excitement c. Plateau d. Vasocongestion Answer: a 12. Nick sometimes experiences difficulty maintaining his erection. According to the Masters and Johnson model, Nick's sexual dysfunction involves which phase of the sexual response cycle? a. Excitement phase. b. Desire phase. c. Plateau phase. d. Vasocongestion phase. Answer: a 15. Jane almost always finds intercourse a painful experience because of inadequate lubrication. The Kaplan model would describe Jane's problem as involving a. desire. b. excitement. c. plateau. d. vasocongestion. Answer: d 16. Many women tend to reach orgasm most quickly through a. heterosexual intercourse. b. lesbian sexual activity. c. masturbation. d. oral-genital stimulation. Answer: c 17. During intercourse, men probably reach orgasm more quickly than women because a. men have higher levels of sexual desire. b. of the kind of stimulation and past learning. c. the vasocongestion that men experience is more concentrated in the genital area. d. their greater muscular development leads to faster orgasmic release of muscle tension. Answer: b 18. Studies of individual differences in sexual response suggest that a. male orgasmic experiences are very varied. b. there is great variability in human sexual response. c. women consider sexual activity without orgasm rather unsatisfying. d. women typically fake orgasm. Answer: b 19. Which of the following statements about male and female patterns of sexual response is NOT accurate? a. Both vasocongestion and muscular tension are more intense among men. b. During masturbation, females reach orgasm almost as quickly as males. c. The male orgasmic experience appears relatively standard, but orgasm is more varied among women. d. There are more similarities than differences in how males and females respond sexually. Answer: a 21. In terms of sexual arousal, the central arousal system a. is activated by an innate human sex drive. b. is located primarily in the emotional and pleasure centers of the brain. c. originates in the spinal cord and various nervous system mechanisms. d. responds more to romantic imagery than to explicit imagery. Answer: b 22. In terms of sexual arousal, the peripheral arousal system a. is located in the emotional and pleasure centers of the brain. b. picks up cues from the skin, genitals, and other sense organs. c. responds to stimulation from our innate sex drive. d. regulates the excitement phase but not the plateau phase. Answer: b 23. Amanda often thinks about others in sexual terms. She responds sexually to many of the people and events around her. Her friend, Chris, seldom thinks about sex or responds to others in sexual terms. These two individuals may be said to differ a. in the functioning of their peripheral arousal system. b. in the intensity of their sex drive. c. in their orientation toward orgasm. d. in their sexual arousability. Answer: d 24. People's perceptions of their sexual arousal a. are determined by the peripheral arousal system. b. determine their physiological responses. c. do not always coincide with the ways their sex organs are responding. d. mirror physiological conditions such as heart rate. Answer: c 25. According to most theorists, the mental process of defining a response as sexual a. is important to sexual arousal for women but not for men. b. is irrelevant to sexual arousal. c. is part of sexual arousal. d. merely delays the sexual response. Answer: c 26. Which of the following statements does NOT represent a traditional stereotype about gender differences in sexual arousal? a. Men are generally less aware than women of their true levels of sexual arousal. b. Men become more sexually aroused by pictures of sexual acts than by the romantic aspects of relationships. c. Women are more aroused by the romantic aspects of loving relationships than by pictures of sexual acts. d. Women become sexually aroused less often than do men. Answer: a 27. The general conclusion of researchers studying male and female responses to sexually oriented material (e.g. photographs or literature) is that a. controlled processes are weaker than automatic processes among females. b. females have been socialized not to respond positively to such materials. c. males have learned not to respond to pornographic images. d. the central arousal system of females is simply less responsive to visual imagery. Answer: b 29. In the research laboratory, groups of men and women read explicit stories while connected to vasocongestion recording devices. They are asked to report how aroused they feel while reading the stories. On the basis of previous research, what results would you expect? a. Men and women will report equal levels of arousal. b. Men will report higher levels of arousal than indicated by the measures of vasocongestion. c. Women and men will report higher levels of arousal than indicated by the measures of vasocongestion. d. Women will report lower levels of arousal than indicated by the measures of vasocongestion. Answer: d 30. During sexual arousal, the first noticeable changes in the female body occur a. around the breasts. b. at the clitoris. c. in the vagina. d. on the skin. Answer: c 31. Which of the following is NOT a typical physical change during the female excitement phase? a. Lengthening and enlargement of the inner part of the vagina b. Seepage of an alkaline fluid through the lining of the vagina c. Swelling and elongation of the clitoris d. Vasocongestion of the walls of the uterus Answer: d 32. The term sex flush refers to a. darkening of the labia majora and minora. b. darkening of the skin of the neck, breasts, and upper abdomen. c. pulling up of the uterus from its usual position. d. vaginal lubrication flowing out to the clitoris. Answer: b 33. The clitoris retracts under the clitoral hood during a. excitement. b. plateau. c. orgasm. d. resolution. Answer: b 34. During which phase of sexual response does the outer third of the vaginal wall become swollen, narrowing the vagina? a. Desire b. Excitement c. Plateau d. Orgasm Answer: c 35. While performing oral sex on his partner, Brad notices that her clitoris has retracted under the foreskin. This indicates that she a. has already had an orgasm. b. is becoming less aroused. c. is in the plateau stage. d. is in the resolution phase. Answer: c 36. The term orgasmic platform refers to the a. expansion of the breasts and the extended erection of the nipples. b. increased tension created by the swelling of the outer vagina and minor lips. c. peak of flushing, muscular tension, and heart rate that occurs just before orgasm. d. retraction of the clitoris under the clitoral hood. Answer: b 37. Orgasm in females is physiologically based on a. a sudden increase of tension in the vulva. b. increased vasocongestion of the clitoris and prepuce. c. muscular contractions of the outer vagina and anal area. d. rhythmical contractions of the ovaries. Answer: c 38. In terms of female sexual response, which of the following is NOT characteristic of the orgasmic phase? a. A sensation of suspension of mental processes b. A sensation of throbbing in the lower pelvic area c. Rhythmic contractions in the vagina and anal area d. The sudden retraction of the glans clitoris Answer: d 39. In females, the resolution phase is characterized by a. ballooning of the inner third of the vagina. b. redistribution of blood from the pelvic region. c. retraction of the glans clitoris. d. rising up of the uterus. Answer: b 40. According to recent research, multiple orgasms among women appear to depend on a. how much love is felt for a partner. b. the level of previous sexual experience. c. the type of stimulation involved. d. whether the plateau phase lasts a long time. Answer: c 41. Presenting single orgasms as the human norm is an example of a. a male-centered bias. b. a more Eastern approach to sexuality. c. our lack of knowledge regarding ejaculation. d. overapplication of the Masters and Johnson model of sexual response. Answer: a 42. Some researchers believe that the various types of orgasms reported by women may result from the a. activity of the Bartholin's glands. b. age of the women. c. different nerve pathways that serve the genitals. d. presence or absence of a G spot. Answer: c 43. An ongoing controversy that surrounds female orgasm is whether or not a. females of other species experience orgasm. b. female orgasms are more intense than those of males. c. several types of orgasm really exist. d. women can really experience multiple orgasms. Answer: c 44. During intercourse, Camille prefers really deep penetration that stimulates her cervix. Camille's resulting orgasmic experience is called a. a uterine orgasm. b. multiple orgasms. c. a blended orgasm. d. a vaginal orgasm. Answer: a 45. What have researchers concluded regarding the existence of a G spot? a. Even during the initial stages of excitement, stimulation of this area of the vagina results in intense orgasm. b. The pudendal nerves that serve the vagina cannot produce the sensation of orgasm, so no G spot exists. c. There are nerves that connect the clitoris to the walls of the vagina, so clitoral stimulation creates the illusion of vaginal orgasm. d. There is clear evidence that many women respond to vaginal stimulation. Answer: d 46. Which of the following statements best reflects current research regarding female ejaculation? a. Any release of fluids during orgasm is clearly urine expelled by a weakened bladder. b. It is not clear whether the liquid substance that some women expel during orgasm is urine or a semen-like secretion. c. Skene's glands clearly produce a semen-like substance that is released only during orgasm. d. The G spot constitutes a secretory gland during stimulation of the pelvic nerves. Answer: b 47. There is some evidence that regular Kegel exercise of the pubococcygeal (PC) muscle a. can assist in locating and stimulating the Grafenberg spot. b. decreases the likelihood of menstrual discomfort. c. increases the likelihood of multiple orgasms among women. d. results in greater likelihood of orgasmic satisfaction. Answer: d 48. To locate your pubococcygeal (PC) muscle, you should a. examine an anatomical chart. b. examine your genital area in a mirror. c. look at nude photographs. d. practice stopping and starting your urine flow. Answer: d 49. During the excitement phase in males, a. a quickly disappearing sex flush is typically exhibited. b. secretions of Cowper's glands may occur. c. the inner diameter of the urethra decreases substantially. d. the testes quickly descend and remain there. Answer: b 50. Which of the following does NOT occur during the plateau phase of sexual arousal in men? a. Elevation in heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration b. Increased muscular tension and involuntary body movements c. Shrinking of the testes d. Swelling and darkening of the glans penis Answer: c 51. During intercourse, Rick typically reaches a point when he feels he cannot keep orgasm from occurring. This point is called a. ejaculatory inevitability. b. ejaculatory refraction. c. pubococcygeal ejaculation. d. retrograde ejaculation. Answer: a 52. Among men, orgasm can occur without ejaculation probably because a. both the penis and the anal area contract during orgasm. b. pelvic thrusting may interfere with the expulsion of semen. c. the testes are at their maximum elevation during orgasm. d. two different nerve pathways serve the glans and the base of the penis. Answer: d 53. The term "refractory period" refers to the a. period of time during which men cannot be re-stimulated to ejaculation. b. relaxation and drowsiness that follow orgasm in men and often lead to sleep. c. result of resisting ejaculatory inevitability. d. urethra's returning to its normal diameter. Answer: a 54. Tom masturbates to orgasm. He is able to do so again within 15 minutes. Which of the following is probably true of Tom? a. He does not experience ejaculatory inevitability. b. He is a teenager. c. He is taking drugs. d. He makes use of pornography. Answer: b 55. Can men have multiple orgasms? a. No, the physiological processes involved in male orgasm and ejaculation make this impossible. b. No, these are myths supported by pornography. c. Yes, a small number can avoid ejaculating and thus have repeated orgasms. d. Yes, if they are truly motivated to please their partners. Answer: c 56. Recent research indicates that deficiencies of androgens in women a. are associated with a lack of interest in sex. b. are associated with abnormally high levels of sexual desire. c. are irrelevant to their sexual behavior. d. have the same effects as deficiencies of estrogen. Answer: a 57. Usually, as women age, their physiological responses to sexual arousal a. are moderated. b. are unchanged, but sexual pleasure declines dramatically. c. cease. d. occur more quickly, but they are short-lived. Answer: a 58. Which of the following is NOT associated with increasing age among women? a. Decrease in orgasmic ability among women who are not very active sexually b. Possible loss of the capacity for multiple orgasms c. Possible uterine cramping during and after orgasm d. Reduced lubrication that may lead to burning or itching after intercourse Answer: b 59. Among women, the key factor in the relationship between aging and sexual vitality appears to be a. how many children were birthed. b. The availability of sex partners and how sexually active they remain as they age c. testosterone levels during adulthood. d. their religious attitudes. Answer: b 60. An important factor in the sexual response of aging men is a. their fear of erectile failure. b. their increased ability to have orgasm without ejaculation. c. the increasing sexual demands of their female partners. d. their lowered levels of testosterone. Answer: a 61. How does the phrase "use it or lose it" apply to the relationship between aging and sexuality? a. Aging individuals envy younger people and their greater sexual responsiveness. b. Little sexual responsiveness and interest are lost over the lifespan. c. The loss of sexual responsiveness over the years often results in inappropriate or even dangerous sexual behavior among the aging. d. Those who remain sexually active appear to retain their sexual capacity and responsiveness. Answer: d 62. Which of the following is NOT a predictable change in the sexual response of aging males? a. Greater difficulty in regaining erection after partial loss b. Lengthening of the refractory period c. Longer time required to reach orgasm d. Quicker orgasmic response Answer: d Fill in the Blank 63. The phase of Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle in which a stable state of arousal is maintained is the _____________________ phase. Answer: plateau 64. The phase of Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle that lasts anywhere from a few seconds to slightly less than a minute is called the _____________________ phase. Answer: orgasm 65. The phase of Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle in which respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure return to unexcited levels is the _____________________ phase. Answer: resolution 66. In females, the plateau phase is characterized by retraction of the _____________________. Answer: glans clitoris 67. In Kaplan's three-phase model, the _____________________ phase represents a psychological component that can lead to physical response. Answer: desire 68. The orgasmic platform forms in the _____________________ phase. Answer: plateau 69. During the excitement phase, vaginal secretions function as a(n) _____________________ for sexual activity. Answer: lubricant 70. A mass of spongy tissue in the anterior vagina that swells during sexual arousal has been called the _____________________. Answer: G spot 71. It has been hypothesized that _____________________ glands may secrete a semenlike substance that can be ejaculated from the female's urethra during orgasm. Answer: Skene's 72. Kegel exercises were developed to strengthen the _____________________. Answer: PC muscles 73. Testosterone is one of the classes of "male" hormones, produced by both males and females that are known as _____________________. Answer: androgens True or False 74. The Masters and Johnson model offers a cyclical view of sexual responsiveness that is based on the assumption that orgasm is a built-in response programmed to repeat itself over and over during a person's lifetime. Answer: True 75. For many women, sexual desire requires feelings of emotional intimacy with a partner. Answer: True 76. There are more physiological similarities than differences in the sexual responses of men and women. Answer: True 77. In women, the orgasmic platform is created by the swelling of the minor lips and outer third of the vagina. Answer: True 78. Female orgasm consists of muscular contractions in the uterus and inner third of the vagina. Answer: False 79. Sexologists have consistently ignored solid scientific evidence regarding the existence of a highly sensitive area of the vagina whose stimulation brings about intense orgasms. Answer: False 80. Different but interacting sets of nerves are involved in male orgasm, depending on whether erection is generated by direct touching of the genitals or by psychological stimuli. Answer: True 81. After orgasm, most males pass through a refractory period during which ejaculation is impossible. Answer: True 82. Researchers are beginning to demonstrate some correlations between sexual arousal and levels of sex hormones. Answer: True Short Answer 83. List and briefly explain the stages of Masters and Johnson's model of human sexual response. Answer: This model includes four phases: excitement (physiological arousal), plateau (leveling off of arousal), orgasm (climax with release of muscle tension), and resolution (with return of the body to the unaroused state). 84. List and explain the phases of Helen Singer Kaplan's model of human sexual response. Answer: This model proposes three phases: desire (which is psychologically based and precedes physiological responses), vasocongestion (a build-up of blood in the pelvic area and an accumulation of muscular tension), and orgasmic release. 85. Why is Kaplan's model considered useful to sex therapists? Answer: This model explicitly includes psychological factors and proposes that a desire phase precedes physiological responses. Thus Kaplan's model focuses attention on factors that are the source of important sexual dysfunctions such as inhibited sexual desire and sexual aversion. 86. How true is the belief that men reach orgasm more quickly than women? Answer: Men do typically reach orgasm more quickly than women during intercourse, but women reach orgasm just about as quickly as men during masturbation. The difference during intercourse might reflect past learning or male control of the type and intensity of stimulation available. 87. Are there several types of female orgasms? Support your answer. Answer: Masters and Johnson concluded that, however they are produced, all female orgasms proceed physiologically in the same way. However, other researchers report that women distinguish among orgasms produced by clitoral, vulval, or vaginal stimulation. Some women report a "uterine orgasm" brought about by stimulation of the cervix; others report a "blended orgasm." These differences may be due to the two different nerve pathways that serve the sex organs. 88. List three controversies regarding female sexual response. Answer: (a) Are there several types of female orgasms? (b) Does the G spot really exist? (c) Do females ejaculate during orgasm? 89. What is the refractory period? Answer: It is the period after orgasm and ejaculation during which males cannot be restimulated to ejaculation. 90. Can men have multiple orgasms? Answer: Yes, men who have learned not to ejaculate during orgasm can have multiple orgasms. About 5 percent of men do seem able to have several orgasms before ejaculating. Some men may just have very brief refractory periods. 91. What have researchers discovered about the relationship between testosterone and sexual interest and activity? Answer: Testosterone is the hormone that appears to have the greatest effect on sexual desire and sexual behavior. Only a minimal amount of testosterone is required to "switch on" sexual interest; this minimal amount varies among individuals. Beyond this minimal level, more testosterone does NOT appear to increase sexual activity. 92. What is the self-fulfilling prophecy associated with sex and aging? Answer: The belief that sexual interest and activity diminish or cease with age may result in changes in behavior which in fact lead to a diminution or cessation of sexual activity, thus making the "prophecy" come true. 93. How do the hormonal changes associated with menopause affect the physiological aspects of women's sexual responses? Answer: Reduced vaginal lubrication may produce burning or itching after intercourse. Some women experience uterine cramping during and after orgasm. 94. How do men's sexual responses change with aging? Answer: Age brings changes to three aspects of the physiological response in men: (a) erection, which requires more time and might require direct penile stimulation; (b) orgasm, which also requires more time; and (c) the refractory period, which may require 12-24 hours before a man can achieve erections again. 95. What should aging individuals do to maintain the intensity of their sexual responsiveness? Answer: Continued sexual activity helps to maintain sexual responsiveness. The watchword is, "Use it or lose it." Essay 96. Explain two key reasons for Kaplan's modifications of the Masters and Johnson model of human sexual response. Answer: Kaplan's work with people with sexual dysfunctions led her to believe that the model of human sexual response should include a psychological component – the desire phase – that sets the stage for the physical responses described by the Masters and Johnson model. In addition, Kaplan proposed that the neurophysiological mechanisms involved in the physical responses described by Masters and Johnson can be described in terms of just two stages: vasocongestion and orgasmic release. 97. Imagine that a fiber-optic camera was inserted into the vagina of a woman who was masturbating to orgasm. Describe the changes that the camera would observe as the woman passed through the various phases of the sexual response cycle. Answer: As vasocongestion occurs in the genital region, the walls of the vagina darken, and a slippery fluid begins to seep through the lining of the vagina. The part closest to the cervix lengthens and enlarges. During the plateau phase, the walls swell, narrowing the outer third of the vagina. During orgasm, there are repeated muscular contractions in the outer third of the vagina. During resolution, the vagina returns to its normal size and color as blood leaves the region. 98. Marcia and John make love and both have orgasms. Describe the similarities and differences in their passage through the resolution phase. Answer: Resolution is a gradual process in both. Respiration, pulse, and blood pressure soon return to normal levels. As Marcia's body returns to its unexcited state, the vagina, labia, and breasts gradually return to their usual size and color; the glans clitoris resumes its regular position; the uterus lowers to its prearoused state. Her muscles relax, and she may feel drowsy. Marcia can be re-stimulated to orgasm again at any point during resolution. As John's body returns to its unexcited state, the urethra returns to its usual width, and the scrotum and testes return to their normal state. Five minutes after orgasm, all muscular tension will be gone and John may fall asleep. During a refractory period, rearousal is impossible. 99. What psychosocial factors are associated with continuing sexual activity among older people? Answer: These factors include (a) continuing availability of a partner; (b) recognition of continued sexual capabilities; (c) continuing good health; (d) an environment that allows privacy for sexual expression; (e) awareness of the changes normally associated with aging; (f) attitudes that value and give priority to sexual activity. Chapter 5: Developmental and Social Perspectives on Gender Multiple Choice 1. A female pseudohermaphrodite possesses a. female external genitalia, but male internal structures. b. one ovary and one testis. c. two ovaries and some male genitals but no testes. d. two testes and some female genitals but no ovaries. Answer: c 2. The terms berdache and hijra refer to a. gender roles for a "third sex" recognized in particular societies. b. individuals in various societies who have a same-sex sexual orientation. c. malformed genitalia in newborn infants. d. women who choose to live as males in their respective societies. Answer: a 3. Which of the following best describes the traditional view of intersexuality in modern Western culture? a. Modern Western culture generally has welcomed intersexed individuals and created a special social role for them. b. Modern Western culture has generally embraced a one-sex model in which both females and intersexed individuals are considered less developed versions of males. c. Modern Western culture has tended to view intersexuality as a biological accident or disease. d. Unlike many other cultures, modern Western culture generally has been unconcerned with gender roles and the sexual categorization of individuals and so has not recognized intersexuality. Answer: c 4. A person's genetic sex is determined a. at birth. b. at conception. c. during gestation. d. during the fetal period. Answer: b 5. At birth, people are usually categorized on the basis of a. body sex. b. brain sex. c. genetic sex. d. social sex. Answer: a 6. Anatomical structures at birth define a person's a. body sex. b. gender identity. c. gender role. d. sexual orientation. Answer: a 7. Robin feels deep inside herself that she is female. In other words, she has a clear sense of her a. brain sex. b. gender identity. c. gender role. d. secondary sex characteristics. Answer: b 8. Chris wears clothes and acts in ways identified as feminine in her society. Such behavior is one aspect of a. brain sex. b. gender identity. c. gender role. d. sexual orientation. Answer: c 9. The process by which an embryo or fetus develops into a male, female, or intersexual organism is called a. gender identity development. b. gender role adherence. c. ongoing socialization. d. sexual differentiation. Answer: d 10. Sexual differentiation is determined a. at birth by external genital structures. b. at puberty by hormones secreted by the gonads. c. before birth by the chromosomes. d. by an interaction of biological, sociocultural, and psychological factors. Answer: d 11. If an individual has at least one X chromosome, that individual a. cannot be a boy. b. might be a boy. c. must be a boy. d. must be a girl. Answer: b 12. The term SRY refers to a. factors during infancy and childhood that contribute to sexual differentiation. b. one of several chromosomal disorders that affect the gender assignment of the newborn. c. the region of the Y chromosome that seems to trigger the development of male sex organs. d. the sensitivity of the young child to factors that can influence gender role development. Answer: c 13. Preliminary research focused on the DAX-1 gene suggests that a. genetic determinants of sex may be overturned during postnatal development. b. sexual differentiation begins during the middle fetal stage of development. c. the X chromosome may also carry a sex-determining gene. d. toxic substances ingested by the mother during fetal development may result in a chromosomal disorder. Answer: c 14. Which of the following is characteristically present in individuals with Turner syndrome? a. Female external genitalia b. Female internal genitalia c. The XXX chromosome combination d. Traits of a true hermaphrodite Answer: a 15. Which of the following genetic combinations has NOT been identified among humans? a. XO b. XXY c. XYY d. YO Answer: d 16. Jane has a miscarriage during the sixth week of pregnancy. Which of the following statements about the genetic sex of the embryo is true? a. Because chromosomal disorders are so common, it was probably an intersexual individual. b. It was more likely a girl than a boy because more girls are conceived. c. It would be impossible to tell the sex of the embryo by visually inspecting the embryo. d. The sex of the embryo would not have been determined until the twelfth week of gestation. Answer: c 17. In fetal development, it is not possible to determine the sex of a human embryo by its appearance until at least a. 5 weeks. b. 8 weeks. c. 12 weeks. d. 16 weeks. Answer: b 18. The embryonic structures that develop into ovaries are called the a. genital tubercles. b. Müllerian ducts. c. ovarian ducts. d. Wolffian ducts. Answer: b 19. The embryonic structures that develop into testes and related reproductive structures are called the a. genital tubercles. b. H-Y antigens. c. Müllerian ducts. d. Wolffian ducts. Answer: d 20. The chemical agent that helps change the fetal gonads into testes is called a. DAX-1. b. FSH. c. H-Y antigen. d. testosterone. Answer: c 21. During fetal development, the SRY gene activates a. an increase in the level of DSS. b. expression of DAX-1. c. production of anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH). d. the development of the penis. Answer: c 23. If you were able to closely examine a 12-week-old fetus, you would a. be able to determine if DHT-deficiency syndrome is present. b. be able to distinguish male or female genitalia. c. be able to observe changes in the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. d. not be able to tell the sex of the fetus. Answer: b 24. Recent research suggests that a. fetal sex hormones only affect the functioning of the peripheral nervous system. b. fetal sex hormones affect the number and location of nerve synapses in the hypothalamus. c. fetal sex hormones have an effect on behavior only after the organism has reached sexual maturity. d. the presence of male hormones has an effect on brain development only after birth. Answer: b 25. Recent studies of fetally androgenized females suggest that a. corrective surgery can override genetic sex in assigning a person to a particular gender. b. fetal androgen exposure during the second trimester of pregnancy is associated with masculine behavior in early childhood c. in the absence of masculinizing hormones, sex and reproductive structures take on a female form. d. prenatal sex hormones influence adult sexual orientation. Answer: b 26. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the core problem in AIS? a. A build-up of androgenic hormones in XX females produces masculinized genitals and masculine traits. b. Developing cells of XY males fail to respond normally to testosterone, and female genitals and incomplete female internal structures develop. c. Prenatal exposure to synthetic testosterone results in greater aggression and individualism in both females and males. d. The absence of DHT results in undescended testes and an underdeveloped penis. Answer: b 27. Studies of DHT-deficient individuals in the Dominican Republic and New Guinea demonstrated a. how parents can influence the gender identity and sexual preferences of their children. b. how socialization and hormonal factors interact in the development of gender identity. c. that modern medical interventions can disrupt normal sexual differentiation. d. that sex assignment at birth and the resulting gender identity cannot be altered at puberty. Answer: b 28. Which statement most accurately reflects the concept of the multiplier effect? a. Being genetically male can lead to a great many development-related problems. b. Biological and socioenvironmental factors increasingly build on each other as a person grows up. c. Genetic factors override hormonal factors in determining the shape of the external genitalia. d. The presence of sex hormones during prenatal development influences a multitude of organs and functions. Answer: b 29. Using different disciplinary techniques with girls and boys, interacting with boys more roughly than with girls, and selecting different types of toys for boys and girls are all examples of the impact of a. differential socialization. b. secondary sexual characteristics. c. sexual differentiation. d. the multiplier effect. Answer: a 30. The child's earliest sense of his or her own masculinity or femininity is his or her a. core gender identity. b. process of sexual differentiation. c. socially assigned sex. d. ultimate sexual orientation. Answer: a 31. In boys, puberty typically begins at around age a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15. Answer: c 32. In girls, puberty typically begins at around age a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15. Answer: b 33. What is gynecomastia? a. Delay in the onset of menstruation in females b. Development of an enlarged clitoris in females c. Failure of the male larynx to grow and deepen the voice d. Slight breast enlargement in males Answer: d 34. Harry believes that if he is aggressive, competitive, and brave in dangerous situations, he cannot also be conciliatory, cooperative, and fearful in dangerous situations. What model of masculinity/femininity does he appear to believe in? a. Androgynous b. Bipolar c. Oblique d. Orthogonal Answer: b 35. A person whose behavior encompasses both traditionally feminine and masculine presentations, might be described as a. androgynous. b. oblique. c. orthogonal. d. undifferentiated. Answer: a 36. In the __________ and __________ models, individuals may have varying levels of both masculine and feminine traits. a. bipolar; oblique b. bipolar; orthogonal c. oblique; androgynous d. orthogonal; oblique Answer: d 37. Even though professional views about the pathology of transgenderism are changing, a person who does not conform with a traditional male or female gender role would traditionally be diagnosed as displaying a. androgyny. b. gender dysphoria. c. hypermasculinity. d. same-sex sexual orientation. Answer: b 38. Although he lives a fairly conventional masculine lifestyle, Louis feels he was born into the wrongly sexed body. He is seeking hormonal treatment and surgery in order to live as a woman. Louis would be considered a a. cross-dresser. b. homosexual. c. transsexual. d. transvestite. Answer: c 39. Gender differences in mechanical aptitude, mathematical reasoning, and writing ability are believed by some researchers to be due to a. differences in the degree of cerebral lateralization. b. differing unconscious motivations. c. sociobiological forces. d. the social construction of gender. Answer: a 40. The theory of gender role development that includes concepts such as penis envy and castration anxieties is a. cognitive-developmental theory. b. gender schema theory. c. psychoanalytic theory. d. social learning theory. Answer: c 41. Processes such as observation, imitation, and lifelong learning are important concepts in which theory of gender role development? a. Cognitive-developmental theory b. Gender schema theory c. Psychodynamic theory d. Social learning theory Answer: d 42. Which of the following statements is NOT an assertion of the cognitive-developmental theory of gender role development? a. Boys and girls come to perceive the masculine gender role and male genitals as more powerful and desirable. b. Gender role development begins with the child's self-categorization as a boy or girl. c. The child comes to identify with the same-sex parent and becomes more attached to things related to that masculine or feminine model. d. The child comes to value things that are associated with his or her self-label as a boy or girl. Answer: a 43. The complex cognitive network of associations and ideas through which the individual perceives and interprets information about gender is called a a. gender schema. b. gender stereotype. c. sex difference. d. sex role. Answer: a 44. Nina, a 6-year-old, states that she won't play softball, soldier, or explorer because they are boys' games. She will only play school, house, or ballet dancer, stating that these are girls' games. Nina could therefore be described as a. androgynous. b. gender aschematic. c. gender schematic. d. independent. Answer: c 45. Which of the following has NOT been a theme in the socialization of girls in U.S. society? a. Acceptance of dependence on others for a sense of self-worth b. Acceptance of dependence on others for comfort c. Rewards for compliant behavior d. Strong criticism for stepping out of the female gender role Answer: d 46. Which of the following has NOT been a theme in the socialization of boys in U.S. society? b. Devaluing of female roles c. Criticism for not adhering to a narrow definition of their gender role c. Greater emphasis on obedience than achievement d. Pressure to become self-controlling and independent Answer: c 47. An important finding of the AAUW survey of boys and girls at different ages was that a. although all adolescent girls developed lower self-esteem, this was especially true of African-American girls. b. girls expressed anger and all other emotions more frequently as they grew older. c. girls were strongly discouraged from pursuing athletic interests. d. the self-esteem of girls dropped significantly during adolescence, especially among white and Hispanic girls. Answer: d 48. Aspects of the traditional male role that tend to make men uncomfortable include a. the male as competent worker and provider. b. the male as emotionally controlled stoic. c. the male as sexual aggressor and sexual educator of women. d. All of these Answer: d Fill in the Blank 49. Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by the chromosomal combination ______________________. Answer: XXY 50. Turner syndrome is characterized by the chromosomal combination ______________________. Answer: XO 51. A genetic disorder that masculinizes chromosomal females and seems to lead to a masculinization of behavior is known as ______________________. Answer: CAH (Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia) 52. A condition in which cells of genetic males are unable to respond normally to testosterone secreted by the fetal testes is known as ______________________. Answer: AIS (Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome) 53. A condition in which a boy is born with undescended testes and an underdeveloped penis that may be mistaken for a clitoris is known as ______________________. Answer: DHT-deficiency syndrome 54. ______________________ theory suggests that gender identity results from social and cultural models and influences during the early years of development. Answer: Social learning 55. ______________________ is a term used to describe the presence of high levels of both masculine and feminine traits. Answer: Androgyny 56. The most extreme form of transgenderism is ______________________. Answer: transsexualism 57. _______________________ explain gender roles by describing how these roles might help the species reproduce and survive. Answer: Evolutionary psychologists 58. Fertilization of the ovum by a Y-bearing sperm produces an XY combination, resulting in a(n) ______________________ child. Answer: male True or False 59. There is recent evidence that intersex children frequently develop emotional and psychological problems. Answer: True 60. Hermaphroditism is defined as the presence of high frequencies of both masculine and feminine behaviors and physical traits in the same individual. Answer: False 61. Pseudohermaphrodites have both testes and ovaries. Answer: False 62. Human beings have an inner sense of themselves as female, male, or a position between the two, known as gender identity. Answer: True 63. Transvestitism is a sociocultural expression of cross-genderism. Answer: True 64. The gene that appears to trigger the development of male organs is called the DSS gene. Answer: False 65. In females, the Müllerian ducts develop into the uterus, fallopian tubes, and part of the vagina. Answer: True 66. Research has found gender differences in the number and location of in the hypothalamus. Answer: True 67. Individuals diagnosed as having AIS are genetic males who have developed normal-appearing female genitals and incomplete internal organs. Answer: True 68. Giving soft, cuddly toys to infant girls and hard, cold toys to infant boys is an example of differential socialization. Answer: True 69. The term androgyny refers to a type of gender neutrality ― that is, displaying neither traditionally feminine personality traits nor traditionally masculine ones. Answer: False 70. Carol Gilligan's study in 1990 found that girls enter a repression phase during adolescence. Answer: True 71. Feminists are women whose primary aim is to improve the status of feminine traits. Answer: False 72. Because transgendered people cross socially determined barriers relating to gender expression, they may be met with harsh judgment and prejudice. Answer: True Short Answer 73. Distinguish between the terms gender identity and gender role. Answer: Gender identity is the inner sense of being male or female or some position between the two. Gender role is the outward expression of gender identity. 74. Briefly describe how chromosomes combine under normal conditions to begin the process of sexual differentiation. Answer: Both male and female gametes contain 23 chromosomes, one of which is a sex chromosome. The sperm carries either an X or a Y chromosome. The egg carries an X chromosome. If an X-bearing chromosome fertilizes an egg, the result is an XX combination, which produces a female. If a Y-bearing chromosome fertilizes an egg, the result is an XY combination, which produces a male. 75. What are the functions of SRY and DHT? Answer: SRY, a region of the Y chromosome, controls the process by which testes are formed in males. DHT — dihydrotestosterone — is a chemical that must be present for the development of the testes, scrotum, and penis in the fetus. 76. What is the difference between true hermaphrodites and pseudohermaphrodites? Answer: True hermaphrodites have one ovary and one testis. Pseudohermaphrodites have either testes or ovaries but not both, along with some genitals of the other sex. 77. What are berdaches and hijras? Answer: Berdache was a role given to males among the Native American Plains Indians who did not have the skills or interests required by the traditional male role in that culture. Berdaches were said to have special powers and often were shamans. The hijras of India are given elements of both male and female roles and are considered sacred. 78. What is the function of the H-Y antigen? Answer: This chemical agent helps transform the undifferentiated fetal gonad into testes. 79. What hormones are necessary for the undifferentiated fetal genital tubercle to take on the characteristic shape of the female external genitals? Answer: It appears that no hormones are necessary for this development and that in the absence of DHT, tubercles take on the female shape. 80. Explain what is meant by differential socialization. Answer: This is the process of treating boys and girls differently as they grow up. 81. Explain the concept of androgyny and offer at least one example. Answer: Androgyny refers to the strong presence of both masculine and feminine traits and behaviors in one person. In traditional U.S. culture, a person who is both aggressive and gentle would be considered androgynous, as Bem uses the term. 82. Name at least three cognitive or motor functions in which gender differences have been identified and indicate whether, on average, females or males appear to possess superior abilities in performing that function. Answer: Females, on average, appear to have superiority in verbal fluency, spelling, reading speed, understanding social interactions and emotional information, fine motor skills, and arithmetic calculations. Males on average appear to have superiority in field independence, mathematical reasoning, understanding spatial relations, target-directed motor skills, and mechanical reasoning. 83. How does social learning theory account for gender role development? Answer: To explain the development of gender roles, social learning theory emphasizes socialization through observation, imitation, and instruction by parents, peers, and others. Modern social learning theorists see this socialization as a dynamic process in which children play an active role. 84. What are the characteristics of societies in which men are less likely to affirm themselves through boasting, aggression, and demonstrations of sexual process? Answer: In such societies, men generally maintain close relationships with children, and women have significant control over property. 85. According to recent cross-cultural studies, what characteristics are seen as most important and desirable in potential mates? Answer: Across cultures, preferred qualities of a mate are being kind, understanding, and intelligent; having an exciting personality; being healthy; and being religious. 86. Describe the four biological levels of sexual development. Answer: (a) Genetic sex, which is determined at conception by the combination of the parents' chromosomes and establishes a map for the development of the other levels of biological sex. (b) Gonadal sex, which involves the development of ovaries or testes which secrete hormones that shape sexual development. (c) Body sex, or anatomical structures, which plays a major role in the sexual assignment of individuals as well as in their development of a gender identity. (d) Brain sex, which refers to differences in the brains of males and females. Essay 87. Describe four theories of gender role development. Answer: The psychodynamic approach explains gender role development in terms of complex unconscious interactions between children and their parents. In contrast, social learning theory describes how children learn gender roles through socialization and modeling. Cognitive-developmental theory adapts social learning theory by emphasizing the role that human thought processes and identification play in children's adoption of gender roles. Finally, gender schema theory focuses on how people come to define themselves as masculine or feminine and emphasizes the importance of the complex network of associations and ideas that people hold with regard to gender. 88. Distinguish between transvestitism and transsexualism. Answer: Transvestitism refers to cross-dressing — that is, wearing the clothing associated with the other sex. It may occur for a variety of reasons — from playing a joke to establishing an alternative identity. Transsexualism represents an extreme form of cross-genderism. Typically, transsexuals are anatomically normal males or females who report that even at an early age they felt they had been born into the wrong-sexed body. They often pursue hormonal and surgical intervention to "correct" this error. 89. A survey of 2,000 adult men finds they have had an average of 8.5 sexual partners. A similar sample of adult women reports an average of 3.5 sexual partners. How would evolutionary psychologists explain these findings? Answer: To explain these findings, evolutionary psychologists would probably look for a way in which this pattern of sexual activity might give the species an evolutionary advantage and might have a genetic basis. For example, they might hypothesize that when males have many sex partners and females have fewer, the chances increase that the species will produce many children who can be adequately cared for. Test Bank for Sexuality Today Gary F. Kelly 9780078035470