This Document Contains Chapters 9 to 12 Chapter 9 1. A test designed to measure the skills, abilities, and knowledge accumulated over a lifetime would be properly called a(n): a. achievement test. b. aptitude test. c. maximum performance test. d. power test. Answer: b. aptitude test. 2. The ______________ is an example of a popular aptitude test. a. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, 4th edition b. Wide Range Achievement Test 4 c. Wechsler Individual Achievement Test, 2nd edition d. Stanford Achievement and Intelligence Scales 5th edition Answer: a. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, 4th edition 3. The abilities measured by ___________ are specifically linked to instruction, whereas the abilities measured by ___________ are gained through life experience. a. achievement tests; aptitude tests b. aptitude tests; achievement tests c. aptitude tests; intelligence tests d. intelligence tests; aptitude tests Answer: a. achievement tests; aptitude tests 4. Which country initiated a required education program in the late 1800s and commissioned Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon to develop a test to predict academic performance? a. Canada b. England c. France d. United States Answer: c. France 5. The first Binet-Simon scale was released in: a. 1900. b. 1905. c. 1910. d. 1915/ Answer: b. 1905. 6. What was the first intelligence test designed to assess both verbal and nonverbal ability? a. Army Alpha b. Binet-Simon Scale c. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale d. Wechsler-Bellevue I Answer: d. Wechsler-Bellevue I 7. The RTI model has been primarily evaluated in regards to which type of learning disability? a. ADHD b. Mathematics c. Reading d. Writing Answer: c. Reading 8. At this time, the authors of this text _________ recommend using RTI as a stand-alone method for identifying students with a learning disability. a. do b. do not c. occasionally Answer: b. do not 9. The more severe categories of moderate, severe, and profound mental retardation apply when the IQ is: a. less than 25. b. less than 35. c. less than 45. d. less than 55. Answer: d. less than 55. 10. One criterion for the diagnosis of mental retardation is performance on an individually administered test of intelligence more than _______ standard deviations below the mean. a. one b. two c. three d. four Answer: b. two 11. Harcourt Assessment publishes which of the following aptitude/ intelligence tests? a. Cognitive Abilities Test, Form 6 b. In View c. Otis-Lennon School Ability Test, 8th edition d. Tests of Cognitive Skills, 2nd edition Answer: c. Otis-Lennon School Ability Test, 8th edition 12. Tests of Cognitive Skills, 2nd edition is designed to assess students in which grades? a. Kindergarten – 1st grade b. Kindergarten – 2nd grade c. 1st grade – 12th grade d. 2nd grade – 12th grade Answer: d. 2nd grade – 12th grade 13. The Cognitive Abilities Test, Form 6 is designed to be administered with which achievement test? a. In View b. Iowa Tests of Basic Skills c. Stanford Achievement Test Series, 10th edition d. Terra Nova, 2nd edition Answer: b. Iowa Tests of Basic Skills 14. Which test are you most likely to encounter when applying for a new job at a managerial or professional level? a. Iowa Tests of Basic Skills b. Miller Analogies Test c. Stanford Achievement Test Series, 10th edition d. Wechsler Individual Achievement Test, 2nd edition Answer: b. Miller Analogies Test 15. The first SAT was developed in: a. 1916 b. 1926 c. 1946 d. 1956 Answer: b. 1926 16. As a newly trained psychologist, you are tasked with administering a group intelligence test to a group of inmates at Bradshaw State Jail. Which of the following tests is most likely to be appropriate in this situation? a. Beta-III Test b. Iowa Tests of Basic Skills c. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale d. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale Answer: a. Beta-III Test 17. The WISC-IV subtest Coding is classified by the text author as primarily a measure of: a. processing speed. b. verbal comprehension. c. short-term auditory memory. d. abstract concept formation. Answer: b. verbal comprehension. 18. The WISC-IV subtest Block Design is a good measure for most examinees of: a. auditory memory. b. nonverbal concept formation. c. short-term auditory memory. d. visual attention. Answer: b. nonverbal concept formation. 19. Which of the following subtests is a supplementary measure on the WISC-IV? a. Arithmetic b. Picture Concepts c. Similarities d. Symbol Search Answer: a. Arithmetic 20. In what situation may a supplemental subtest be substituted for a core subtest on the WISC-IV? a. The core subtest is seen as being inappropriate for the examinee. b. The examiner prefers this subtest over one of the core subtests. c. The examiner is tired. d. The examinee’s performance would likely be enhanced by using the supplementary measure. Answer: a. The core subtest is seen as being inappropriate for the examinee. 21. The WISC-IV is designed for use in which age group? a. 2 years 6 months – 7 years 3 months b. 7 years 3 months – 16 years c. 6 years – 16 years d. 6 years – 18 years Answer: c. 6 years – 16 years 22. A mother presents at a psychologist’s office and desires to have her very gifted child tested. You suspect that the 6-year-old may have an IQ over 4 standard deviations above the mean. Which intelligence test would best allow you to assess the child’s ability? a. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, 5th edition b. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, 4th edition c. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence, 3rd edition d. Woodcock-Johnson III Tests of Cognitive Abilities Answer: a. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, 5th edition 23. Which of the following WISC-IV Indexes is a composite of the Digit Span and Letter- Number Sequencing subtests and measures abilities such as attention, concentration, and mental control? a. Perceptual Reasoning Index b. Processing Speed Index c. Verbal Reasoning Index d. Working Memory Index Answer: d. Working Memory Index 24. According to adoption studies, what is the maximum gain in IQ points due to environmental interventions? a. None b. 5-10 points c. 10-12 points d. 20-30 points Answer: c. 10-12 points 25. What would be indicated by an examinee receiving an “A” profile on the Cognitive Abilities Test? a. The examinee has no relative strengths or weaknesses b. The examinee has a relative strength or a relative weakness on one subtest c. The examinee has both a relative strength and a relative weakness d. The examinee has a severe weakness Answer: a. The examinee has no relative strengths or weaknesses 26. Surveys have shown that the most popular individual IQ test currently being used in clinical and school settings is: a. Cognitive Abilities Tests b. Stanford-Binet Scales c. Tests of Cognitive Skills d. One of the Wechsler Scales Answer: d. One of the Wechsler Scales 27. Narrow abilities are reflected on which stratum of the CHC theory three-stratum model? a. Stratum I b. Stratum II c. Stratum III Answer: a. Stratum I 28. CHC theory incorporates _____ broad ability domains. a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11 Answer: c. 9 29. Deductive and inductive logic are considered the hallmarks of which broad ability domain under CHC theory? a. Comprehension-knowledge b. Fluid reasoning c. Processing ability d. Static reasoning Answer: b. Fluid reasoning 30. The broad ability domain defined as the ability to automatically and fluently perform easy mental tasks especially when high mental efficiency is required over a long period of time is: a. Cognitive processing speed b. Comprehension-knowledge c. Fluid reasoning d. Fluid processing speed Answer: a. Cognitive processing speed 31. The Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales is normed for individuals between the ages of _____ and _____. a. 2; 85 b. 3; 94 c. 6; 16 d. 16; 89 Answer: b. 3; 94 32. In the CHC Theory of Intelligence, intellectual abilities are organized according to: a. brain area specialty. b. concurrent versus sequential processes. c. degree of generality (broad vs. narrow). d. sensory modality (visual, auditory, etc). Answer: c. degree of generality (broad vs. narrow). 33. Regarding research on intelligence, Cattell is best known for: a. identifying seven Primary Mental Abilities. b. P-A-S-S Theory c. C-H-C Theory d. Two Factor Theory, which hypothesizes the existence of g (general intelligence) and s (specific intelligences). e. Two-Factor Theory, which hypothesizes the existence of crystallized and fluid intelligence Answer: e. Two-Factor Theory, which hypothesizes the existence of crystallized and fluid intelligence 34. According to the research, IQs are __________ over time and are __________ predictors of school performance. a. stable; good b. stable; poor c. unstable; good d. unstable; poor Answer: a. stable; good 35. Which intelligence theory has served as the foundation for most modern IQ tests? a. CHC Theory b. PASS Theory c. Spearman’s two-factor model d. Wechsler’s theory of general and fluid intelligence Answer: a. CHC Theory 36. Which intelligence test can be used to obtain a valid measure of intelligence and incorporates verbal and nonverbal abilities in the briefest period of time? a. Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales b. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, 5th edition c. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale, 4th edition d. Woodcock-Johnson III Tests of Cognitive Abilities Answer: a. Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales 37. Which intelligence test is co-normed with a supplementary memory scale? a. Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales b. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, 5th edition c. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence, 3rd edition d. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, 4th edition Answer: a. Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales 38. Who translated and standardized the Binet-Simon Scales in the United States? a. Alfred Binet b. David Wechsler c. Louis Terman d. Theodore Simon Answer: c. Louis Terman 39. The Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales produces which of the following factor scores? a. Fluid reasoning b. Short-term memory c. Verbal Intelligence Index d. Verbal IQ Answer: c. Verbal Intelligence Index 40. Which of the following is considered a group intelligence/aptitude test? a. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, 5th edition b. Tests of Cognitive Skills, 2nd edition c. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence, 3rd edition d. Woodcock-Johnson III Tests of Cognitive Abilities Answer: b. Tests of Cognitive Skills, 2nd edition Chapter 10 1. The relatively consistent patterns of thought, feeling, and behaviors that characterize each person as a unique individual define: a. attitude. b. behavior. c. mindset. d. personality. Answer: d. personality. 2. Typical response tests best measure: a. achievement. b. aptitude. c. intelligence. d. interests. Answer: d. interests. 3. Who is credited with the development of the first formal personality assessment? a. Freud b. Terman c. Woodworth d. Wechsler Answer: c. Woodworth 4. Personality is a ____________ construct and __________ be summarized in a total score. a. multi-dimensional; can b. multi-dimensional; cannot c. unitary; can d. unitary; cannot Answer: b. multi-dimensional; cannot 5. A substantially elevated “F Index” on the Behavior Assessment for Children – Self-Report of Personality most likely would indicate: a. an intentional desire to “fake bad”. b. an individual with a “social desirability” response set. c. an open and honest response style. d. a tendency to endorse all items as “False.” Answer: a. an intentional desire to “fake bad”. 6. What validity scale would you expect to be elevated if the examinee was overly careless while answering the items on the Behavior Assessment for Children – Self-Report of Personality? a. F index b. L index c. V index Answer: c. V index 7. A _________ is a stable internal characteristic that is manifested as a tendency to behave in a particular manner whereas a ________ is a transient emotional state that fluctuates over time. a. constant; variable b. variable; constant c. trait; state d. state; trait Answer: c. trait; state 8. Extraversion is an example of a(n): a. attitude. b. feeling. c. state. d. trait. Answer: d. trait. 9. Test-retest reliability coefficients will typically be ________ when measuring state-related relative to trait-related constructs. a. about the same. b. higher. c. lower. Answer: c. lower. 10. Which approach to developing personality scales involves developing items based on their apparent relevance to the construct being measured? a. Content/rational approach b. Empirical keying c. Factor analytic d. Theoretical Answer: a. Content/rational approach 11. Which personality test was developed using the empirical criterion keying approach? a. MMPI. b. Symptom Checklist – 90 c. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet d. NEO Personality Inventory – Revised Answer: a. MMPI. 12. The ______________ approach is a process in which a large pool of items is administered to a clinical group with a specific diagnosis and a control group. These items are then statistically examined to determine which ones discriminate between the two groups. a. content/relational b. empirical keying c. factor analytic d. theoretical Answer: b. empirical keying 13. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory – Adolescents is designed for use with which age group? a. 12 – 16 b. 12 – 18 c. 14 – 18 d. 14 – 19 Answer: c. 14 – 18 14. ______________ is often credited with being a leader in the use of factor analysis to understand the structure of the normal personality, and also published the original 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire. a. Cattell b. Cronbach c. Freud d. Woodworth Answer: a. Cattell 15. Which factor is contained in the contemporary Five Factor Model of personality? a. Anxiety b. Conscientiousness c. Independence d. Tough-mindedness Answer: b. Conscientiousness 16. An individual with a high score on this factor would tend to be courteous, tolerant, and compassionate. a. Agreeableness b. Conscientiousness c. Extraversion d. Neuroticism e. Openness to experience Answer: a. Agreeableness 17. An individual with a low score on this factor would tend to be unreliable and display less self-control. a. Agreeableness b. Conscientiousness c. Extraversion d. Neuroticism e. Openness to experience Answer: b. Conscientiousness 18. Which personality inventory is based largely on factor analytic studies? a. MMPI b. Symptom Checklist – 90 c. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet d. NEO Personality Inventory – Revised Answer: d. NEO Personality Inventory – Revised 19. Which personality assessment does not include formal validity scales? a. BASC-SRP b. MMPI-2 c. MMPI-2- RF d. NEO Personality Inventory – Revised Answer: d. NEO Personality Inventory – Revised 20. Which personality test is based on a theory by C.G. Jung? a. MMPI-2 b. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator c. NEO Personality Inventory – Revised d. Symptom Checklist – 90 Answer: b. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator 21. In terms of performance on the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, ________ indicates a preference for structure and decisiveness. a. Judging b. Perceiving c. Sensing d. Thinking Answer: a. Judging 22. The ____________ contains personality and clinical syndrome scales that parallel the DSM-IV-TR diagnostic categories. a. MMPI-2 b. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator c. MCMI-III d. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet Answer: c. MCMI-III 23. The BASC-SRP produces _______ as an index of global psychopathology. a. the Emotional Symptoms Index b. Inattention/ Hyperactivity c. Internalizing Problems d. Personal Adjustment e. School Problems Answer: a. the Emotional Symptoms Index 24. A high score on the Personal Adjustment composite scale of the BASC-SRP indicates: a. difficulty adjusting. b. a high IQ. c. negative behaviors. d. positive behaviors. Answer: d. positive behaviors. 25. The Beck Depression Inventory has __________ test-retest reliability with a one week interval. a. good b. poor c. zero Answer: a. good 26. The central hypothesis of projective techniques is that clients will interpret ambiguous material in a way that reveals important and often ___________ aspects of their personality. a. congruent b. incongruent c. negative . d. positive e. unconscious Answer: e. unconscious 27. The most widely used projective drawing technique is the: a. Bicycle Drawing Task b. Draw-A-Person test. c. House-Tree-Person. d. Kinetic Family Drawing. Answer: b. Draw-A-Person test. 28. The test in which a person is shown a picture and asked to make up a story about it is appropriately called a(n): a. apperception test. b. drawing test. c. Rorschach test. d. objective test. Answer: a. apperception test. 29. Who developed a comprehensive system that integrated the most empirically supported features of the existing systems for scoring the Rorschach Inkblot test? a. Binet. b. Exner. c. Freud. d. Woodworth. Answer: b. Exner. 30. A high score on the Masculinity-Femininity scale on the MMPI-2 clinical scale would indicate a tendency: a. to reject stereotypical gender roles. b. toward acceptance of stereotypical gender roles. c. toward more masculine gender roles. d. toward more feminine gender roles. Answer: a. to reject stereotypical gender roles. 31. Which collaboration between a client and a psychologist begins with the client identifying the questions they need answered in their life to better deal with their current struggles, then attempts to answer those questions using psychological tests? a. Ipsative Assessment b. Oblique Assessment c. Practical Assessment d. Therapeutic Assessment Answer: d. Therapeutic Assessment 32. In the early days of personality assessment, one common validation technique was to have people take the test and then have a clinician write a description of the examinee’s personality structure based on the test results. The description would then be provided to the examinee who would rate how much they agreed with the description. What is the major threat to this technique? a. Flynn effect b. Forer effect c. Projective effect d. Content invalidation Answer: b. Forer effect 33. The _________ is an example of a theoretically based contemporary objective personality test. a. MMPI-2 b. Rorschach Inkblot Test c. MMPI-2-RF d. MCMI-III e. NEO Personality Inventory – Revised Answer: d. MCMI-III 34. What statistical method was primarily used in developing the revised clinical scales on the MMPI-2-RF? a. Analysis of Variance b. Correlational analysis c. Cluster analysis d. Factor analysis Answer: d. Factor analysis 35. Which personality test contains scales such as neuroticism and agreeableness? a. MCMI-III b. Thematic Apperception Test c. MMPI-2 d. NEO Personality Inventory Answer: d. NEO Personality Inventory 36. Which personality test includes a Lie Scale, Infrequency Scale, and Correction scale? a. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator b. MMPI-2 c. Neo Personality Inventory d. Thematic Apperception Test Answer: b. MMPI-2 37. Which personality test examines dichotomies, such as Thinking – Feeling, that are thought to reflect personal preferences? a. Rorschach Ink Blot Test b. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator c. MMPI-2 d. Neo Personality Inventory Answer: b. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator 38. Which of the following is considered to be a projective personality test? a. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator b. MMPI-2 c. NEO Personality Inventory d. Rorschach Ink Blot Test Answer: d. Rorschach Ink Blot Test 39. There is __________ research supporting the psychometric properties of projective personality tests. These instruments remain ____________ among clinicians. a. considerable; unpopular b. considerable; popular c. little; unpopular d. little; popular Answer: d. little; popular 40. The __________ is a projective technique designed for use in those 6 – 18 years of age and includes a standardized scoring system and normative data. a. BASC-SRP b. Roberts-2 c. Rorschach Ink Blot Test d. Thematic Apperception Test Answer: b. Roberts-2 Chapter 11 1. One way that behavioral assessment DIFFERS from personality assessment is that behavioral assessment: a. emphasizes what a person does. b. emphasizes a person’s covert thoughts. c. is more subjective than objective. d. is seen as having a higher level of inference for its interpretations. Answer: a. emphasizes what a person does. 2. Which of the following items would most likely appear on a behavioral rating scale as opposed to a self-report personality scale? a. I feel lonely most of the time. b. I feel like I have no friends. c. I am alone. d. Complains of being lonely. Answer: d. Complains of being lonely. 3. Test answers that misrepresent a person’s true characteristics are referred to as: a. a threat to reliability. b. fake answers. c. response sets. d. rating sets. Answer: c. response sets. 4. _________ are one method test developers use to detect dissimulation. a. Alter-response scales. b. Reliability scales. c. Response scales. d. Validity scales. Answer: d. Validity scales. 5. What federal law mandates that schools provide special education services to students with emotional disorders? a. American Disabilities Act b. Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act c. No Child Left Behind Act d. Public Education Act Answer: b. Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act 6. Behavioral assessments are most commonly used with which of the following populations? a. Children b. Young adults c. Middle-age adults d. Elderly Answer: a. Children 7. Engaging in professional practices that have clear support in the scientific methodology that underlies the profession is termed: a. ethical practice. b. evidence-based practice. c. research-based practice. d. scientific practice. Answer: b. evidence-based practice. 8. Typically a behavioral assessment begins with: a. a clinical interview. b. a preliminary diagnosis. c. the completion of an objective assessment instrument. d. the presentation of a projective instrument. Answer: a. a clinical interview. 9. Once the primary issue to be addressed has been established, the next step in the behavioral interview is to: a. focus on the antecedents and consequences of the behavior. b. develop a plan to modify the behavior. c. develop a plan to modify current reinforcers of the behavior. d. establish and implement the plan. Answer: a. focus on the antecedents and consequences of the behavior. 10. One of the main goals of the behavioral interview is to: a. formulate an action plan to modify the behavior. b. minimize the levels of inference used to obtain and interpret information. c. maximize the levels of inference used to obtain and interpret information. d. stress subjectivity in the evaluation. Answer: b. minimize the levels of inference used to obtain and interpret information. 11. What is the primary reason children have difficulty reporting their own feelings and/or behaviors? a. Limited insight b. Limited verbal abilities c. Limited reading ability d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above 12. One advantage of behavior rating scales is that they are: a. particularly useful in diagnosing externalizing problems. b. particularly useful in diagnosing internalizing problems. c. not subject to response sets. Answer: a. particularly useful in diagnosing externalizing problems. 13. Which subscale of the BASC-2 Teacher Rating Scale would be indicative of the display of antisocial behavior? a. Atypicality b. Learning Problems c. Conduct Problems d. Somatization e. School Problems Answer: c. Conduct Problems 14. What is the new feature of the BASC-2? a. Composite scores b. Content scales c. Primary scales d. Subscales Answer: b. Content scales 15. What statistical method was used to develop the composite scores on the original BASC and the BASC-2? a. Analysis of Variance b. Factor Analysis c. Linear Regression d. Multivariate Analysis of Variance Answer: b. Factor Analysis 16. Which subscale of the BASC-2 Parent Rating Scale would reflect how well one expresses ideas in a way that others understand? a. Adaptability b. Functional Communication c. Speech Problems d. Learning Problems Answer: b. Functional Communication 17. The most global measure of the BASC-2 is the: a. Behavioral Symptoms Index. b. School Problems. c. Adaptive Skills. d. Atypicality. Answer: a. Behavioral Symptoms Index. 18. Which of the following scores appears on the Adaptive Profile of the BASC-2 TRS? a. Atypicality b. Somatization c. Leadership d. Behavioral Symptom Index Answer: c. Leadership 19. The second level of analysis on the BASC-2 involves the: a. Behavioral Symptoms Index. b. composite scores. c. clinical scales. d. individual items. Answer: b. composite scores. 20. One unique feature of the BASC Teacher Rating Scales and Parent Rating Scales is: a. the exclusion of validity scales. b. that they assess adaptive and negative behaviors. c. that they assess only negative behaviors. d. the inclusion of criterion-referenced comparisons. Answer: b. that they assess adaptive and negative behaviors. 21. Which behavioral assessment contains a Child Behavior Checklist and a Teacher Report Form? a. Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment b. BASC-2 c. BASC Monitor for ADHD d. Childhood Autism Rating Scale e. Pediatric Behavior Rating Scale Answer: a. Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment 22. Which clinical subscale of Child Behavior Checklist would show evidence of obsessions and compulsions? a. Attention Problems b. Internalizing c. OCD tendency d. Thought Problems Answer: d. Thought Problems 23. The BASC-2, CBCL, and TRF are categorized as which type of rating scales? a. Collective b. Omnibus c. Syndrome specific d. Universal Answer: b. Omnibus 24. What behavioral rating scale is designed to detect early onset bipolar disorder? a. BASC-2 b. BASC Monitor for Bipolar Disorder c. Childhood Bipolar Disorder Scale d. Pediatric Behavior Rating Scale Answer: d. Pediatric Behavior Rating Scale 25. The Childhood Autism Rating Scale is designed to assist in identifying autism in children over the age of: a. 1 year. b. 2 years. c. 3 years. d. 6 years. Answer: b. 2 years. 26. Which assessment is considered a syndrome-specific assessment? a. Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment b. BASC-2 c. Childhood Behaviors Checklist d. Pediatric Behavior Rating Scale Answer: d. Pediatric Behavior Rating Scale 27. Conceptual skills and practical skills both are examples of: a. adaptive behavior. b. daily Living skills. c. practical behavior. d. useful behavior. Answer: a. adaptive behavior. 28. According to the American Association of Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities, quantitative skills such as telling time and using money would be encompassed by which broad category? a. Conceptual skills b. Practical skills c. Social skills Answer: a. Conceptual skills 29. The Vineland – II Expanded Interview Form is recommended for use with which population? a. Low functioning individuals b. High functioning individuals c. Secondary school students Answer: a. Low functioning individuals 30. The Clinical Assessment Scales for the Elderly primarily focuses on _________ disorders. a. Axis I b. Axis II c. Axis III d. Axis IV Answer: a. Axis I 31. Dr. Hancock plans to administer the CASE to an 82 year old female that he suspects may have intelligence and neuropsychological deficits. Which screening scale should he look at to determine if further neuropsychological testing is warranted? a. Adaptive scale b. Cognitive Competency scale c. Daily Functioning scale d. Intelligence scale Answer: b. Cognitive Competency scale 32. Which of the following behavioral assessments contains a Substance Abuse scale? a. Achenbach System of Assessment for Adults b. Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment c. BASC-2 d. Clinical Assessment Scales for the Elderly Answer: d. Clinical Assessment Scales for the Elderly 33. The screening version of the CASE does not include the ________ scale. a. Infrequency b. Social Desirability c. Validity scale Answer: a. Infrequency 34. _______________ is the oldest method for behavioral assessment. a. The Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment b. The BASC c. Direct observation d. Psychoanalysis Answer: c. Direct observation 35. An advantage of direct observation over behavior rating scales is that direct observation provides: a. true nominal scale data. b. true ordinal scale data. c. true interval scale data. d. true ratio scale data. Answer: d. true ratio scale data. 36. Continuous Performance Tests have long been associated with the assessment of _________, but are in fact sensitive to symptoms present in a wide range of disorders. a. anxiety b. conduct disorder c. depression d. hyperactivity Answer: d. hyperactivity 37. A crucial component of a direct observation system that contributes to good inter-rater reliability is: a. momentary time sampling. b. multiple observers. c. specific operational definitions of behavior. d. well defined antecedents and consequences. Answer: c. specific operational definitions of behavior. 38. Continuous performance tests were originally designed to measure: a. attitudes. b. behavior. c. performance. d. vigilance. Answer: d. vigilance. 39. Continuous performance tests are highly sensitive to symptoms associated with abnormalities of the: a. auditory cortex. b. executive control system. c. primary motor cortex. d. visual cortex. Answer: b. executive control system. 40. A polygraph exam is an example of: a. an authentic exam. b. biodata assessment. c. an imaging exam. d. psychophysiological assessment. Answer: d. psychophysiological assessment. Chapter 12 1. Tests used for personnel selection are regulated by which federal agency? a. American Association of Employment b. Department of Health and Human Services c. Equal Rights Commission d. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission Answer: d. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission 2. Industrial/Organizational Psychology received a major boost during __________ when psychologists helped the United States Army in the selection of officers. a. the Korean War b. the Vietnam War c. World War I d. World War II Answer: c. World War I 3. The Psychological Corporation was founded in: a. 1901. b. 1921. c. 1941. d. 1961. Answer: b. 1921. 4. The studies conducted to improve the operating efficiency of the Western Electric Company were commonly known as: a. Alpha/ Beta Studies. b. Efficiency Studies. c. Hancock Studies. d. Hawthorne Studies. Answer: d. Hawthorne Studies. 5. Which of the following constructs is typically assessed by cognitive ability tests? a. Attitude b. Behavior c. Feeling d. Reasoning Answer: d. Reasoning 6. According to Hunter and Schmidt, cognitive ability is a ________ predictor of job performance. a. negative b. weak c. moderate d. strong Answer: d. strong 7. In 1984, the estimated single-year economic impact of using of cognitive ability tests for hiring entry level jobs for the Federal government was: a. $5 million b. $15 million c. $5 billion d. $15 billion Answer: d. $15 billion 8. One concern with cognitive ability tests is known performance differences between minority groups and white applicants, with minority groups performing up to _____ standard deviation(s) below. a. one b. two c. three Answer: a. one 9. According to meta-analytic studies conducted to date, I/O psychologists have concluded that cognitive ability test are: a. invalid but fair. b. invalid and not fair. c. valid and fair. d. valid but not fair. Answer: c. valid and fair. 10. The ___________ is a widely used cognitive ability test. a. Spearman’s Test of Cognitive Abilities b. Employee Cognitive Screener c. Wonderlic Personnel Test d. Zimmerman Cognitive Test Answer: c. Wonderlic Personnel Test 11. _________ is made up of the unique characteristics that define an individual and that are used by the individual when interacting with others. a. Attitude b. Behavior c. Belief d. Personality Answer: d. Personality 12. Which of the following personality tests is considered a medical examination and CANNOT be used before a job offer is extended? a. Hogan Personality Inventory, Revised b. MMPI-2 c. Conner’s Personality Inventory d. Wonderlic Personnel Test Answer: b. MMPI-2 13. A personality measure that inquiries about a person’s innermost thoughts and feelings _________ be acceptable for use prior to a job offer. a. might b. would c. would not Answer: c. would not 14. According to research conducted by Barrick and Mount (1991), which personality trait did NOT appear to be a valid predictor of job performance? a. Agreeableness b. Conscientiousness c. Extraversion d. Openness to experience Answer: a. Agreeableness 15. The Hogan Personality Inventory - Revised provides a dimension score for: a. Agreeableness. b. Introversion. c. Inner Drive. d. Prudence. Answer: d. Prudence. 16. Integrity test are typically divided into what two groups? a. Honest and Dishonest b. Latent and Open c. Overt and Personality oriented d. Overt and Covert Answer: c. Overt and Personality oriented 17. Sackett and colleagues report ___________ correlations between integrity test scores and job performance. a. moderate and negative b. moderate and positive c. strong and negative d. strong and positive Answer: b. moderate and positive 18. One limiting factor of work sample tests is: that they: a. do not typically discriminate well. b. are more expensive than other selection methods. c. have the poorest correlations of all the selection methods. d. they discount applicants’ previous experience. Answer: b. are more expensive than other selection methods. 19. ___________ refers to an applicant’s personal experiences and background. a. Background b. Biodata c. Personal history d. Work history Answer: b. Biodata 20. Biodata has been shown to be a _______ predictor of job performance. a. biased b. poor c. valid Answer: c. valid 21. Hausknecht et al. (2004) reported that perspective employees perceived which employee selection methods most favorably? a. biodata instruments b. cognitive ability tests c. honesty tests d. work sample tests Answer: d. work sample tests 22. Prior to choosing a selection method, one must have a firm understanding of the: a. knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to do the job. b. pool of applicants. c. time allotted for employee selection. d. various employee selection methods and expense of each. Answer: a. knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to do the job. 23. What is one primary characteristic of a job analysis? a. It describes work behavior that is independent of the personal characteristics of those that perform the job. b. It describes work behavior that is dependent on the personal characteristics of those that perform the job c. It includes all non-verifiable observations. d. It focuses on covert behaviors. Answer: a. It describes work behavior that is independent of the personal characteristics of those that perform the job. 24. Which of the following jobs would be best suited for direct observation? a. Assembly line worker b. Mechanical engineer c. Graphic artist d. Screen writer Answer: a. Assembly line worker 25. Which of the methods of collecting information for a job analysis does the author describes as more costly to implement? a. Interviews b. Direct observation c. Questionnaires d. Subject matter expert panels Answer: d. Subject matter expert panels 26. The difficulty in conceptualizing and measuring performance items that are multidimensional, situational, and organization dependent describes the “__________ Problem.” a. Criterion b. Job Analysis c. Validity d. Multi-trait Multi-method Answer: a. Criterion 27. The most common source for gathering performance ratings is: a. peers. b. self. c. subordinates. d. supervisor(s). Answer: d. supervisor(s). 28. Which source for method of gathering performance ratings data is reported to have above average predictive validity evidence, but is perceived negatively by employees? a. Peers b. Self c. Subordinates d. Supervisor(s) Answer: a. Peers 29. What is one method that can improve the effectiveness of self-ratings? a. Ensure confidentiality of ratings. b. Instruct individuals to rate themselves in absolute terms. c. Provide only one opportunity for self-appraisal. d. None – they should not be used or should be used with extreme caution. Answer: a. Ensure confidentiality of ratings. 30. In a meta-analysis of performance ratings conducted by Harris and Schaubroeck (1988), the results indicated: a. a relatively high amount of redundancy across scores. b. different rating formats provide a substantial amount of unique information. c. that all rating formats provide little useful information. d. that there is little agreement between peer and supervisor ratings. Answer: b. different rating formats provide a substantial amount of unique information. 31. When validating selection methods and tools, Hoffman, et al (1991) found that __________ showed correlations around zero. a. self-appraisals b. supervisor rankings c. supervisor ratings d. work samples Answer: a. self-appraisals 32. A rater is evaluating a group of seven employees and systematically compares each employee to all of the others before determining where each one ranks. This type of rating system is: a. absolute. b. criterion based. c. invalid. d. relative. Answer: d. relative. 33. A rater completes a Likert-type scale on an employee’s performance. This type of rating system is: a. absolute. b. highly biased. c. criterion based. d. relative. Answer: a. absolute. 34. One federal agency that has adopted the guidelines from the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures is the: a. American Employment Commission. b. Department of Justice. c. National Alliance for Mental Health. d. Texas Department of Health and Human Services. Answer: b. Department of Justice. 35. Which set of guidelines was developed by the Society of Industrial and Organizational Psychology? a. Guidelines for the Validation of Selection Procedures b. Principles for the Validation and Use of Personnel Selection Procedures, 4th edition c. Strong Interest Inventory, Revised Edition d. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures Answer: b. Principles for the Validation and Use of Personnel Selection Procedures, 4th edition 36. Which career assessment was developed in 1927 and recently revised? a. Career Decision-Making System – Revised b. Self-Generated Search Revised c. Strong Interest Inventory – Revised Edition d. Ogden-Morgan Inventory –- Revised Answer: c. Strong Interest Inventory – Revised Edition 37. Which prominent female psychologist, who worked for Aetna Life Insurance Company, was one of the first to note the potential advantages of using a battery of tests, rather than a single test? a. Dr. Elsie Oschrin Bregman b. Dr. Lillian Moller Gilbreth c. Dr. Marion A. Bills d. Dr. Mary H.S. Hayes Answer: c. Dr. Marion A. Bills 38. ____________ was hired by The Psychological Corporation to develop and publish revisions of the Army Alpha General Intelligence Examinations. a. Dr. Elsie Oschrin Bregman b. Dr. Lillian Moller Gilbreth c. Dr. Marion A. Bills d. Dr. Mary H.S. Hayes Answer: a. Dr. Elsie Oschrin Bregman 39. Which of the Big 5 Personality Dimensions refers to being imaginative, cultured, and artistically sensitive? a. Agreeableness b. Conscientiousness c. Extraversion d. Emotional Stability e. Openness to Experience Answer: e. Openness to Experience 40. One dimension reflected on the Personnel Selection Inventory is: a. Agreeableness b. Conscientiousness c. Employee attitude d. Nonviolence Answer: d. Nonviolence 41. Which personnel selection method is most likely to result in differences by race or gender? a. Assessment Centers b. Cognitive Ability Tests c. Interviews d. Work Sample Tests Answer: b. Cognitive Ability Tests Test Bank for Mastering Modern Psychological Testing: Theory and Methods Cecil R. Reynolds, Ronald B. Livingston 9780205886081
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