CH-7-9 Managing Employee Retention and Separation – Human Resource Management: Linking Strategy to Practice : Exam Guide

This Document Contains Chapters 7 to 9 Chapter 07: Managing Employee Retention and Separation True/False 1. The loss to an organization from an employee leaving employment is captured in the costs to hire a replacement employee. Answer: False 2. Ensuring that nonproductive employees leave an organization is just as important as retaining productive workers. Answer: True 3. Maximizing employee retention is a strategy that should be followed by all organizations. Answer: False 4. Turnover tends to be greatest among high and low performers. Answer: True 5. Dysfunctional turnover only occurs when low performing employees remain with the organization. Answer: False 6. When a high or low performing employee chooses to leave it is highly disruptive for an organization. Answer: False 7. Employees usually do not reflect much concerning a decision to quit; rather, quitting is in response to immediate events. Answer: False 8. Employees who are dissatisfied are likely to come to a calculated decision to leave or to conduct a search and make comparisons with other job opportunities. Answer: True 9. Organizational climate has no impact on employee quit rates. Answer: False 10. When work is consistent with employees’ values and needs, job satisfaction is likely to be high. Answer: True 11. Overall, job satisfaction varies among organizations as well as among individuals. Answer: True 12. Organizations with more satisfied employees tend to be more productive. Answer: True 13. All dissatisfied employees eventually quit their jobs. Answer: False 14. Some people are predisposed toward either high or low levels of satisfaction regardless of the work environment. Answer: True 15. People with chronically low job satisfaction tend to experience negative moods in all aspects of their lives. Answer: True 16. People who are dissatisfied with their jobs experience an initial temporary increase in satisfaction when they move to a new position. Answer: True 17. Employees who change jobs and initially experience high levels of satisfaction are likely to continue at the same level or satisfaction or even increase their satisfaction over time. Answer: False 18. Organizations seeking to reduce employee turnover frequently measure their employees’ job satisfaction. Answer: True 19. Job satisfaction survey results will likely make things appear more positive than they are. Answer: True 20. Effective socialization begins when employees are given critical information that helps them understand the organization. Answer: True 21. Job analysis training is often used to help newcomers to an organization adjust. Answer: False 22. As employees acquire information about an organization through socialization they are more likely to experience increased feelings of fit with the organization. Answer: True 23. Layoffs are employee terminations related specifically to job performance. Answer: False 24. Firms that downsize have higher performance in subsequent years because they have reduced labor costs. Answer: False 25. Layoffs generate improved performance from most remaining employees because these employees wish to retain their jobs. Answer: False 26. An employee who is laid off who perceives that the layoff was not related to their behaviors is likely to have a more optimistic outlook for finding a new job. Answer: True 27. Employees who survive a layoff who are the primary wage earners in their households are more likely to voluntarily begin searching for a new job. Answer: True 28. When an organization needs to lay off employees, it is best to lay off employees across the board, regardless of their level of performance. Answer: False 29. Not replacing people who leave an organization is a quick and effective means for downsizing. Answer: False 30. Plans to lay off employees should be announced to employees and the media simultaneously. Answer: False 31. It is important that employees be notified of consequences for inappropriate behaviors. Answer: False 32. In most disciplinary cases, due process requires the organization to allow employees to correct their misbehavior. Answer: True 33. A dismissal meeting will usually be quite lengthy in order to allow time for detailed discussion and so an employee understands what they should have done differently. Answer: False 34. During a dismissal meeting the manager should not directly tell the employee that he/she is being dismissed or terminated; rather the message should be upbeat to allow the employee to save face. Answer: False 35. Severance compensation is payment so a dismissed employee will not file a lawsuit against the organization. Answer: False Multiple Choice 36. Benefits of an emphasis on employee retention include all of the following EXCEPT: a) reduced recruiting expenses b) retaining employees supports HR strategy, regardless of an organization’s strategy c) employees have a sense of security that persuades them to work for slightly lower wages than they may be able to earn elsewhere d) fewer interruptions of operations for turnover, which results in higher organizational productivity Answer: b 37. The Committed Expert HR Strategy: a) utilizes short-term relationships and little emphasis on retention b) does not emphasize retention because jobs require little unique expertise c) uses retention to help build a workforce with unique skills d) employs an external labor orientation and emphasizes retention Answer: c 38. For an organization with a Free Agent HR strategy: a) the organization seeks to attract a large number of applicants who may have the characteristics that are needed to perform the specific job b) some employee turnover is desirable, since those who leave can be replaced by individual with more-up-to-date knowledge and skills c) employee retention is of primary importance for the organization d) the organization emphasizes employee commitment to avoid turnover Answer: b 39. For organizations pursuing a differentiation strategy: a) employee retention is not an issue because the organization hires the lowest cost labor b) retaining employees is extremely important c) employee separations can be an important part of the strategy d) there’s little emphasis on removing low performers Answer: c 40. An organization pursuing a Loyal Soldier HR strategy: a) is not concerned with employee separations b) usually puts little emphasis on employee retention c) can benefit from employee separations d) seeks to minimize employee separations Answer: d 41. An organization with a Bargain Laborer HR strategy: a) is not especially concerned with effective management of employee separation b) places emphasis on retaining high performing employees c) places emphasis on retention because of recruiting and hiring costs d) places emphasis on removing low performers Answer: a 42. Functional retention: a) occurs when high and low performing employees remain with an organization b) occurs when low performing employees remain with an organization c) occurs when high performing employees remain employed d) is an important part of the Bargain Laborer HR strategy Answer: c 43. Functional turnover: a) occurs when an employee whose performance is at least adequate voluntarily quits b) occurs when low performing employees quit c) occurs when all turnover is low d) occurs when high performing employees remain employed Answer: b 44. Employee dissatisfaction with their current state at work: a) does not influence tendency to quit b) is unlikely to lead to quitting c) can lead to withdrawal and thoughts of quitting d) usually leads to immediate quitting Answer: c 45. Which of the following is NOT true about employee satisfaction? a) satisfaction increases when employees are able to pursue goals and activities that are truly important to them b) employees experience greater satisfaction when they are able to do work that fits with their interests and life plans c) employee satisfaction sentiment is consistent for all aspects of an employee’s employment d) not every aspect of job satisfaction is equally important to every employee Answer: c 46. Which of the following is NOT a dimension of job satisfaction? a) satisfaction with job fulfillment b) satisfaction with security c) satisfaction with pay d) satisfaction with social relationships in the organization Answer: d 47. Which of the following is NOT true of employee withdrawal? a) employee withdrawal is usually the result of one specific event or issue b) employee withdrawal results in short-term increases in productivity as an employee tries to make a decision about remaining with an employer c) employee withdrawal occurs when employees put less effort into their work activities and become less committed to the organization d) early signs of withdrawal are increased tardiness and absenteeism Answer: b 48. Which of the following is NOT true about an employee’s decision to leave their employment? a) once an employee decides to quit, offering a significant pay raise will likely result in them remaining employed with the organization b) the decision to quit is influenced significantly by the availability of desirable job alternatives c) people are more likely to stay with their current job when they perceive high economic and psychological costs of quitting d) some employees are simply more likely than others to leave organizations Answer: a 49. Which of the following is NOT true about employees who leave an organization? a) people low on agreeableness are more likely to leave so they can do things their own way b) individuals who are highly open to new experiences are more likely to leave their organizations c) organizations are highly successful when they take actions designed to change an individual’s mind about leaving d) employees who are less risk averse are more likely to actually quit Answer: c 50. Which of the following is NOT likely to reduce turnover? a) developing fair pay practices b) offering educational or tuition reimbursement c) providing growth and promotion opportunities d) the use of idealistic job previews Answer: d 51. Which of the following is NOT true about employee satisfaction? a) a common survey that measures satisfaction is the Job Descriptive Index b) job satisfaction is another component of job analysis c) job satisfaction data provides insight into areas of concern and helps an organization determine which aspects of the work experience might need improvement d) job satisfaction surveys include questions to assess facets of work such as satisfaction about work tasks, pay, promotions, co-workers and supervision Answer: b 52. Job satisfaction surveys: a) should ask routine questions such as length of time worked at the organization near the beginning of the survey b) are oftentimes not completed by the least satisfied employees c) are usually not completed by very satisfied employees d) should not contain questions concerning the organization’s strategic objectives as these questionnaires should focus on the individual Answer: b 53. Socialization: a) begins during the job analysis process b) is best accomplished outside of work hours c) should not occur between an employee and supervisor d) is the process of acquiring knowledge and behaviors needed to be a member of an organization Answer: d 54. Which of the following statements is NOT true about employee perceived organizational support? a) perceived organizational support is employees’ beliefs about the extent to which an organization values their contributions and cares about their well-being b) employees who perceive organizational support are more committed to remaining with an organization c) the actions of top level organizational leaders are not important; rather, the actions of the Human Resource personnel are more critical d) better compensation practices, better-designed jobs, fairness of procedures, and absence of politics are critical for building positive perceptions of organizational support Answer: c 55. Which of the following is NOT true about computer-based socialization? a) computer-based socialization is as effective as in person socialization for conveying information about an organization’s goals, politics and people b) computer-based socialization results in lower levels of employee satisfaction c) computer-based socialization results in lower levels of employee commitment d) computer-based socialization is not helpful in developing social relationships in the organization Answer: a 56. Layoff survivors: a) are grateful to retain their jobs so are not likely to suffer any or very few of the same problems as employees actually laid off b) are likely to experience some of the same reactions as those employees who are actually laid off c) are not likely to work harder because they feel they are not going to be laid off in the future d) are not concerned with processes or fairness; rather only that they have retained their job and livelihood Answer: b 57. Which factor(s) influence positively how an individual will cope with job loss? a) low work-role centrality b) perceptions that the layoff process was unfair c) finding a job immediately, regardless of what it is d) perception that the job loss resulted from something they did wrong Answer: a 58. When layoffs are necessary all of the following are true EXCEPT: a) being honest and giving employees access to information can help alleviate many of the negative consequences of downsizing b) honest communication from supervisors can result in less perception among victims that there has been discrimination c) an organization should conduct an analysis to ensure there are no employees laid off who are members of protected classes (women, members of minority groups and older workers) d) effective communication about downsizing decisions and plans is critical Answer: c 59. Which of the following is NOT a viable alternative to layoffs? a) using financial incentives to induce employees near retirement age to retire early b) having employees perform work tasks that might have been outsourced to other firms c) having employees share jobs so that neither works a full-time week d) flexible schedules and benefits Answer: d 60. Which of the following would NOT help minimize the negative effects of layoffs? a) plan the process for communicating information b) tell employees about layoffs before the media is told c) advise employees of layoffs using electronic technologies such as e-mail so they can hear the news in private d) share information that is available but don’t speculate Answer: c 61. Due process: a) is markedly different for different organizations b) requires that every level of disciplinary action be in writing c) ensures that layoff notices are given in a timely fashion d) is a set of procedures carried out in accordance with established rules and principles Answer: d 62. Employee discipline: a) has the ultimate goal of terminating an employee from employment b) generally results in the organization working with the union in a unionized organization c) does not require formalized processes or procedures d) is a set of procedures carried out in accordance with established rules and processes to ensure employees are treated fairly Answer: b 63. Which of the following provides a set of principles for due process that is supported by court cases and labor arbitrators? a) communication of clear expectations for acceptable performance, allowing an employee to present their case and consistent discipline b) communication of consequences for inappropriate behaviors, careful investigation, confirmation by witnesses, and punishment consistent with the nature of the offense c) communication of clear expectations for acceptable performance, careful investigation of facts and circumstances, an opportunity for employees to provide their version of events, and punishment consistent with the nature of the offense d) communication of consequences for inappropriate behaviors, an investigation, presentation of witnesses, consistent punishment and the opportunity for an employee to appeal any decision Answer: c 64. Progressive discipline a) provides successively more severe punishment for each occurrence of negative behavior b) always has a follow-up action c) never results in termination of employment d) always results in termination of employment Answer: a 65. Most progressive discipline systems include the following steps: a) written warning, suspension, discharge, and appeal of discharge b) verbal warning by first level supervisor, verbal warning by second level supervisor, written warning by second level supervisor, and discharge c) verbal warning, suspension, discharge and appeal of discharge d) verbal warning, written warning, suspension and final written warning that a repeat of behavior will result in discharge Answer: d 66. Which of the following is a common problem with progressive discipline? a) a pattern of constructive discipline b) an inappropriate channel is used c) supervisors are sometimes unwilling to take the first step in the process d) employee appeals delay implementation Answer: c 67. Managers’ perceptions concerning the fairness of discipline are influenced by all of the following EXCEPT: a) when they believe that the employee knew the offending behavior was wrong b) when they believe the offending employee expected to be punished for the offending behavior c) when they feel the consequence is appropriate given the seriousness of misbehavior d) when they have been trained to deliver discipline properly Answer: d 68. Outplacement services: a) are usually paid for by an employee union b) are generally more effective if an outside firm is employed c) are generally more effective if provided by the organization’s human resource professionals d) are not allowed to include actual job leads Answer: b 69. Notification that an employee is being dismissed: a) is best delivered in person b) is best delivered using e-mail so an employee learns the news in a private setting c) is best delivered on a Friday d) is best delivered in a private meeting with only the employee and supervisor present Answer: a 70. Severance compensation a) is only given if an employee agrees not to file a lawsuit after dismissal b) is only given if an employee agrees not to file a discrimination complaint c) provides money to an employee to help cover living expenses during a period of unemployment d) is usually paid during the dismissal meeting so it is easier to dismiss an employee and to allow the employee to save face Answer: c Short Answer 71. _____________ ___________ occurs when an employee makes a decision to leave an organization. Answer: Voluntary turnover 72. _____________ ___________ represents a person’s emotional feelings about his or her work. Answer: Job satisfaction 73. An interview with an employee who is leaving to determine why the employee decided to quit is called the ____________ ___________. Answer: exit interview 74. Employees are more _____________ in an organization when they have strong connections to others, when they have values and goals that fit with their environment, and when they feel leaving would result in monetary or psychological losses. Answer: embedded 75. Large-scale terminations of employees, which are not related to job performance, are ________________. Answer: layoffs 76. When an organization engages in widespread layoffs intended to permanently reduce the size of its workforce, it is said to be ___________. Answer: downsizing 77. _____________ is instruction with the purpose of correcting inappropriate behavior. Answer: Discipline 78. A process which involves management providing successively more severe punishment for each occurrence of negative behavior is ______________ _________________. Answer: progressive discipline Essays 79. Discuss and explain what steps an organization can take to reduce voluntary turnover? Answer: A. effective staffing that includes realistic job previews and the selection of employees who fit with the organization and job B. provide training and development such as tuition reimbursement for formal education programs and offer sabbaticals and other learning opportunities C. have career paths that provide growth and promotion opportunities for employees D. develop fair pay practices and competitive compensation and pay employees for learning new skills E. facilitate conflict resolution among employees and establish quick and fair grievance procedures F. try to understand why employees choose to leave the organization—e.g., use exit interviews to gather information and use information to improve the organization and processes G. during the selection process, emphasize employee fit with the organization and the job so they can pursue goals and activities important to them and do work that fits with their interests and life plans H. try to meet employee needs continuously because once an employee has decided to quit, it is often too late to change the employee’s mind I. keep track of employee satisfaction levels, what issues are important to employees and which facets of the work experience might need improvement, J. effectively socialize employees so they develop social relationships within the organization and become embedded 80. Discuss progressive discipline—what is it, why do employers use it and what are the most common four steps in a progressive discipline process? Answer: A. progressive discipline is a due process that provides successively more severe punishment for each occurrence of negative behavior B. organizations use progressive discipline to provide a due process that allows an employee to correct misbehavior C. most progressive discipline systems include the following steps: 1. a verbal warning when the supervisor clearly communicates what the employee did wrong and consequences for future inappropriate behaviors 2. a written warning, usually placed in the employee’s personnel file for a period of time 3. a suspension that is usually without pay 4. discharge from the organization Chapter 08: Measuring Performance and Providing Feedback True/False 1. Performance management is the process of assessing employee performance on an annual basis. Answer: False 2. Measuring performance and providing feedback does improve employee performance. Answer: True 3. During the performance appraisal process, a focus on clear goals that encourage an employee to stretch and improve help provide clear direction for employees to improve performance. Answer: True 4. Establishing and accomplishing important goals helps employees see areas where they are clearly contributing to the organization Answer: True 5. All performance appraisal systems should differentiate high and low performers. Answer: False 6. Parity-based performance appraisal systems usually require a forced distribution, which involves placing a certain percentage of employees in each rating category. Answer: False 7. Parity based systems encourage all employees to be high performers. Answer: True 8. Parity-based performance management systems are usually preferred by the top performers in an organization. Answer: False 9. Merit-based performance systems are appropriate for organizations pursuing a Free Agent or Committed Expert HR strategy. Answer: True 10. Under a parity-based performance appraisal system, evaluating most employees as high performers encourages the development of long-term employee relationships and a strong sense of loyalty. Answer: True 11. Citizenship performance deals only with helping the organization as a whole, not helping individual employees of the organization. Answer: False 12. When an employee makes an extra effort to keep her company assigned automobile clean and in good repair it is an example of organizational citizenship behavior. Answer: True 13. Interpersonal citizenship behavior has the effect of benefiting the entire organization. Answer: False 14. Employees engage in more organizational citizenship behavior when they have close relationships with coworkers. Answer: False 15. Citizenship behaviors make an organization a better place to work but are not a critical contribution to an organization. Answer: False 16. Employees with motivational personality traits such as dependability, cooperativeness and empathy are generally more likely to go beyond minimum expectations and help both the organization and coworkers. Answer: True 17. Production deviance occurs when an employee does things that put other employees at a disadvantage. Answer: False 18. Sexual harassment is an example of political deviance. Answer: True 19. When employees feel they are being treated fairly by the organization, they are less likely to engage in counterproductive performance. Answer: True 20. Employees who are more conscientious, more agreeable, and less anxious are less likely to engage in counterproductive behavior. Answer: True 21. According to estimates, less than half of employers monitor employee Internet connections. Answer: False 22. Employees are more accepting of electronic monitoring of their computer usage when they are given advance notice that it will be used. Answer: True 23. Managers dislike preparing performance appraisals primarily because they are just one more assignment that keeps them from dealing with task matters. Answer: False 24. Contamination occurs when things that should not be measured in a performance appraisal are included in an employee’s performance evaluation. Answer: True 25. A performance evaluation that fails to include citizenship behavior is deficient because it does not recognize actions that contribute to organizational success. Answer: True 26. Objective and subjective performance measures will always agree so one can be used to reinforce the other. Answer: False 27. When faced with a choice whether to use objective or subjective measures, it is always best to use objective measures, as they are more reliable. Answer: False 28. A significant problem with objective performance measures is that they can hold employees accountable for things they cannot control. Answer: True 29. Outcome measures assess employee behaviors and end results. Answer: False 30. A performance appraisal that focuses on outcomes allows an employee more autonomy than one based on behavioral measures. Answer: True 31. Making managers aware of the kinds of performance appraisal errors can improve the accuracy of their ratings. Answer: True 32. There is no evidence to support claims that raters give lower performance ratings to employees who are members of minority groups. Answer: False 33. Raters tend to assume that women should be more helpful and cooperative than men and, as a result, women receive lower ratings when they do not engage in citizenship behaviors. Answer: True 34. All types of performance ratings can suffer from inconsistency, because employee performance at one point in time is likely different from performance at another time. Answer: True 35. Over time, employee performance will almost always improve as the employee learns the job and in such cases, recency should not be a problem. Answer: False Multiple Choice 36. Which of the following is NOT true of performance management? a) measuring performance and providing feedback improves employee performance b) organizations where top management encourages supervisors to set goals, assess performance, and provide feedback to employees have higher productivity c) appraisals that include employee participation are linked with lower levels of job satisfaction d) trust in management increases when performance is accurately measured and adequately rewarded Answer: c 37. A merit-based performance appraisal system: a) encourages cooperation among employees b) usually involves relative measures c) uses pre-defined criteria/standards to rate the performance of employees d) usually has a free distribution, which allows any number of employees to be rated at any level Answer: b 38. If an organization wants to ensure individual performance is very high: a) the organization should establish a merit-based performance appraisal system b) the organization should implement a performance management system that is parity-based c) the organization should use absolute measures that compare employees to an established benchmark d) the organization should ensure a cooperative organizational climate Answer: a 39. Which of the following is NOT true of a parity-based performance appraisal system? a) the objective of the system is to encourage cooperation b) the system allows everyone who meets a predetermined standard to be classified as a high performer c) a parity-based system encourages all employees to perform above a certain standard d) the parity-based system uses a forced distribution Answer: d 40. Which performance appraisal system is best suited for an organization pursuing a differentiation strategy? a) a merit-based system with free distribution b) a parity-based system with free distribution c) a merit-based system with forced distribution d) a parity-based system with forced distribution Answer: c 41. Merit-based performance appraisal systems are preferred by: a) organizations pursuing a Bargain Laborer HR strategy b) employees who are the top performers in an organization c) organizations pursuing a Loyal Soldier HR strategy d) employees who are satisfactory performers and committed to the organization Answer: b 42. Parity-based performance appraisal systems are preferred by: a) organizations pursuing a Bargain Laborer or Free Agent HR strategy b) organizations pursuing a Free Agent or Committed Expert HR strategy c) organizations pursuing a Bargain Laborer or Loyal Soldier HR strategy d) organizations pursuing a Loyal Soldier or Committed Expert HR strategy Answer: c 43. Which of the following is NOT true of the general performance factor? a) the general performance factor includes task performance, citizenship performance and parity performance b) the general performance factor represents overall contributions an employee makes to an organization c) people who do well at one aspect of performance tend to do well in other aspects d) the general performance factor includes task performance, citizenship performance and counterproductive performance Answer: a 44. The three important factors for satisfactory employee task performance are: a) knowledge, skill and motivation b) procedural knowledge, process skill and declarative knowledge c) citizenship behaviors, declarative knowledge and motivation d) process knowledge, procedural knowledge and motivation Answer: a 45. Which of the following types of behaviors is the most obvious form of behavior that contributes to an organization? a) declarative behaviors b) task behaviors c) organizational citizenship behaviors d) general performance behaviors Answer: b 46. Which of the following is NOT true about citizenship behaviors? a) citizenship behaviors contribute by building a positive organizational climate b) citizenship behaviors can be focused on one’s job or the organization as a whole c) citizenship behaviors contribute directly to organizational success by creating goods and services d) an example of citizenship behavior is following organizational procedures even when it is not convenient Answer: c 47. Which of the following is NOT true about counterproductive behaviors? a) organizations whose employees engage in more counterproductive behaviors are more likely to have lower productivity b) employees who engage in counterproductive behaviors are very unlikely to engage in citizenship behaviors c) an employee who contributes high task and citizenship performance may still engage in counterproductive behaviors d) counterproductive behaviors can be directed at the organization or individual level Answer: b 48. Production deviance: a) includes actions that destroy the assets of an organization b) includes counterproductive behaviors that are targeted to particular individuals c) includes aggression towards coworkers d) occurs when employees do things that reduce the speed and accuracy at which goods and services are produced Answer: d 49. Which of the following is NOT an example of political deviance? a) taking unauthorized breaks b) demonstrating favoritism c) gossiping about coworkers d) nonproductive competition Answer: a 50. Which of the following does NOT help employees be more accepting of electronic monitoring? a) when employees feel general support from the organization b) when data from monitoring is used to improve employee performance c) when employees are not made aware it is being used d) when they are given advance notice that electronic monitoring will be used Answer: c 51. In which situation are employees LESS likely to engage in counterproductive behaviors? a) when the organization uses behavior monitoring software b) when employees’ performance appraisal ratings may be influenced by counterproductive behaviors c) when employees feel the organization has an interest in their well-being d) when the organization does not tolerate personal aggression Answer: c 52. Which of the following are errors that interfere with performance appraisals accurately representing an employee’s true contributions to the organization? a) contamination and deficiency b) counterproductive behaviors and citizenship behaviors c) graphic rating scales and contamination d) personal bias and deficiency Answer: a 53. An organization using a performance appraisal with behavioral measures: a) allows employees high levels of autonomy for completing work b) typically has preferred ways and means of accomplishing work c) is probably pursuing a Free Agent or Loyal Soldier HR strategy d) is probably pursuing a Committed Expert HR strategy Answer: b 54. An organization using a performance appraisal with outcome measures: a) allows employees high levels of autonomy for completing work b) should provide employees with a great deal of training dealing with how to accomplish work c) is likely pursuing a Free Agent or Loyal Soldier HR strategy d) is likely pursuing a Bargain Laborer HR strategy Answer: a 55. A manager preparing performance appraisals is reluctant to give an employee a low rating because the employee’s performance is not as bad as the performance of another member of the work group. This is an example of which performance rating error? a) central tendency b) primacy error c) halo effect d) contrast error Answer: d 56. An employee is the unit expert on work processes and is recognized throughout the organization for this competency. As a result the manager rates all aspects of the employee’s performance as exceptional. The manager’s actions are an example of: a) halo error b) recency error c) primacy error d) central tendency error Answer: a 57. Which rater errors are related to the time of performance? a) primacy and contrast errors b) primacy and recency errors c) recency and contrast errors d) central tendency and recency errors Answer: b 58. Which of the following is NOT true of frame-of-reference training? a) this training helps raters see different performance episodes in the same way b) it is one of the most effective types of training to improve rater accuracy c) it improves rater performance by minimizing central tendency rater errors d) this training helps raters become aware of the kinds of errors that can arise in the performance appraisal process Answer: c 59. When a rater consistently rates people with certain characteristics lower: a) it is a primacy rater error b) it is a frame-of-reference rater error c) it is a contrast error d) it is rater bias Answer: d 60. Which of the following is NOT true about the impact of citizenship behaviors on performance ratings? a) the performance of citizenship behaviors have the same effect on performance ratings for men and women b) when women engage in citizenship behaviors by helping others, their performance ratings don’t necessarily improve c) when men engage in citizenship behaviors they get higher ratings d) when men withhold citizenship behaviors, they do not receive lower ratings, but when women withhold citizenship behaviors they receive lower ratings Answer: a 61. Which of the following is NOT true about situational influences? a) subjective ratings are frequently contaminated and deficient because raters fail to account for situational influences b) situational factors can only inhibit performance outcomes c) situational influences present a greater problem for objective, outcome-oriented performance measures d) situational influences are factors outside the control of workers that influence performance Answer: b 62. Which of the following is a situational factor for performance appraisal? a) in a unit where all employees perform the same duties, the organization provides only one employee training which enhances that employee’s performance outcomes b) a supervisor receives training to effectively conduct employee performance meetings so employees are at ease during the performance appraisal meeting c) an employee is unable to meet production standards because she is too tired to work effectively d) an employee forgets to have routine maintenance performed on her company car and as a result, she misses the opportunity to finalize a large sale Answer: a 63. What steps can an organization take to minimize possible situational influences? a) use only behavioral based measures of performance b) combine information from a variety of different measures c) provide managers with frame-of-reference training d) do not take into account any situational variables so all employee are treated the same in the performance appraisal process Answer: b 64. Performance over time: a) is usually stable and consistent b) for a new employee is almost always a pattern of continually increasing performance c) usually increases to a point, then performance declines rapidly d) can vary over time because of differences in motivation Answer: d 65. Narrative ratings: a) are most useful in comparing the performance of individuals such as in the case of selecting employees to be promoted b) allow reviewers to easily compare employees c) are most useful for providing feedback to employees d) allow organizations to easily determine which employees are high and low performers Answer: c 66. Which of the following is NOT true of graphic ratings? a) graphic ratings are the most common rating format b) graphic ratings can be developed to measure either outcomes or behaviors c) graphic ratings make it easy to compare employees with one another d) graphic ratings help minimize rater errors, especially the central tendency rater error Answer: d 67. Forced rankings: a) provide clear guidance for organizations that want to give promotions and pay raises to top performers b) is the preferred performance method of most managers c) are best for organizations that want employees to work together towards mutual goals d) is best for organizations that want to pursue a parity system for performance appraisal Answer: a 68. Which of the following is NOT true about multisource performance ratings? a) multisource ratings involve obtaining performance information from multiple raters who have different perspectives b) multisource rating requires that forced distribution be used c) ratings can be obtained from supervisors, coworkers, customers and the employee d) multisource ratings provide better guidance about what an employee can do to improve performance Answer: b 69. Which of the following is NOT true about self-ratings? a) self-ratings from white women and younger, less experienced employees tend to be more similar to ratings provided by others b) experienced, non-white males tend to underrate their own performance more than others c) self-assessments tend to differ significantly from ratings provided by others d) self-ratings tend to more closely agree with ratings from others when employees have more knowledge about the performance appraisal system Answer: b 70. When employees receive feedback: a) they are less likely to become dissatisfied and perform at suboptimal levels b) performance usually declines because of the feedback c) only in writing they are more likely to improve their performance d) it can result in a lasting long-term decline in performance Answer: a Short Answer 71. ___________ ___________ compare employees with each other. Answer: Relative measures 72. ______ ___________ represents the contribution that individuals make to the organization that employs them. Answer: Job performance 73. _____________ performance is behavior that contributes to the actual production of goods and services by the organization. Answer: Task 74. When employees choose to expend effort by engaging and persisting in production tasks, they are demonstrating ____________. Answer: motivation 75. When an employee engages in behavior that is harmful to the organization, they are engaging in ___________ ____________. Answer: counterproductive performance 76. ___________ is the use of company computers for purposes other than work performance. Answer: Cyberloafing 77. The process of measuring what an employee contributes to the organization is called ____________ ___________. Answer: performance appraisal 78. A manager does not like to differentiate employee performance because doing so may impact employee morale, so he rates all employees’ performance as acceptable. This is an example of the _____________ ___________ rating error. Answer: central tendency Essays 79. Discuss the two types of feedback and the usual employee performance outcomes from each. Describe the components for effectively communicating feedback for performance improvement. Answer: A. Positive feedback includes messages that communicate high performance Outcomes: higher motivation when employees expect to receive benefits from continued high performance; positive feedback can increase motivation when it is linked to future goals; and create a sense of accomplishment that encourages sustained effort B. Negative feedback includes messages about low performance and a need to improve Outcomes: if negative feedback is received as criticism, employees become less motivated and more likely to experience conflict with others; initially, employees may increase effort but will continue effort only when they are confident they can do what is necessary to improve. C. Components of effective feedback for improvement 1. feedback must be perceived as accurate, so the person providing feedback must be seen as credible 2. build a relationship so the receiver has confidence in the ability of the person providing feedback to provide helpful advice 3. supervisors should clarify the behaviors they are looking for when providing feedback 4. employees should be treated as individuals and personal circumstances should be taken into account 80. Discuss general performance factors that represent overall contribution to the organization. Answer: A. Task performance is behavior that contributes to the actual production of goods or services. In order to make significant contributions an employee must have the required knowledge, skill and motivation. B. Citizenship performance is voluntary behavior that contributes to the social and psychological environment of the organization. Citizenship behaviors contribute by building a positive organizational environment. Research indicates that citizenship performance is what separates top performers from everyone else. Citizenship behaviors can be focused to help the organization as a whole (organizational citizenship behaviors) or to help individual employees (interpersonal citizenship behaviors). Employees engage in more organizational citizenship behavior when they feel that they receive reasonable pay, are praised for doing a good job, and have pleasant working conditions. Interpersonal citizenship behaviors are more likely to occur when employees have close relationships with coworkers. Chapter 09: Training for Improved Performance True/False 1. Training is a planned effort by a company to help employees learn and develop so they can advance in the company. Answer: False 2. Informal methods of learning are always the most appropriate learning methods. Answer: False 3. Training increases employee commitment, which results in increased retention for an organization. Answer: True 4. Training is a key element for an organization pursuing a commitment based HR strategy. Answer: True 5. Training benefits organizations by helping them meet strategic objectives. Answer: True 6. In order for training to be effective in an organization pursuing a cost leadership strategy, employees should believe in efficiency and cost reduction and have a positive attitude toward working quickly. Answer: True 7. Companies pursuing a differentiation strategy are likely to offer employees training that teaches efficiency and cost reduction. Answer: False 8. Companies with an external labor orientation are more likely to spend money and time to train employees. Answer: False 9. A company with an external labor orientation would be more likely to acquire a new company to gain employee expertise than would a company with an internal labor orientation. Answer: True 10. Employees with an external labor orientation are likely to offer little if any employee training. Answer: False 11. In order to enhance the transfer of learning, training should operate as a partnership among employees, their managers and human resource professionals. Answer: True 12. In the rapid model of instructional design, training design begins while needs assessment is still being conducted. Answer: True 13. Needs assessment should always be completed on a regular basis before training is developed and again when budgets are set. Answer: False 14. Employees who perceive that their organization has a supportive climate are more likely to succeed in the transfer of training. Answer: True 15. If an employee is not performing effectively, then training is necessary. Answer: False 16. Employees generally overestimate their knowledge and skills and underestimate the need for training. Answer: True 17. Training is likely to be more effective if it is adjusted for particular groups of trainees with particular characteristics. Answer: True 18. Training is appropriate if a causal analysis reveals that employee motivation is the reason for a difference between actual and desired performance. Answer: False 19. Training is helpful for dealing with any type of performance problem. Answer: False 20. The best all-purpose means for prioritizing training needs is the use of task analysis. Answer: False 21. An essential output of the assessment process is a list of training objectives. Answer: True 22. Specifying the intended organizational results of training programs helps to ensure that the training provides value to the organization as a whole and that each program is linked to the strategy of the firm. Answer: True 23. Research suggests that people can and do learn from lectures. Answer: True 24. The case method is NOT an effective training method for improving motivation and changing attitudes. Answer: False 25. Discovery is a passive method of training that presents trainees with a task that offers rich opportunities to learn new skills. Answer: False 26. The best discovery training opportunities are structured and include guidance from an instructor. Answer: True 27. Role playing is an active training method that works well for developing skills. Answer: True 28. Effective use of role playing as a training method should include debriefing—an opportunity for trainees to get feedback on how well they did and where they need more practice. Answer: True 29. Behavior modeling is only effective when the model demonstrates positive examples of work related behavior. Answer: False 30. Pairing up inexperienced employees with experienced employees to learn work tasks is one of the most effective training methods because employees learn actual work knowledge and skill. Answer: False 31. Research has demonstrated that carefully designed training can be equally effective whether it is presented via technology (e.g. using computers or videoconferencing) or face to face by an instructor. Answer: True 32. Computer delivered training can actually be less expensive than other delivery media if a large number of employees must be trained. Answer: True 33. If training is effectively designed and delivered, transfer to the job will naturally occur. Answer: False 34. Where the transfer of training climate is poor, if training includes a discussion that addresses the transfer process, including potential obstacles and strategies to overcome obstacles, there is likely to be better transfer of training. Answer: True 35. Measuring employees’ reactions to training effectively captures how much they learned in the training. Answer: False Multiple Choice 36. Learning: a) involves experiences that change one’s knowledge, skills or attitudes b) involves the development of knowledge c) involves the development of knowledge and skills d) involves the development of knowledge and attitudes Answer: a 37. Training can improve the overall effectiveness of an organization in all of the following ways EXCEPT: a) training can boost employees’ motivation b) training can foster employee commitment c) training helps employees perform their work more effectively and efficiently d) training allows an organization to identify employees who are unable to learn so they can be reassigned or let go Answer: d 38. A disadvantage of delivering training via CD ROM is: a) employees must complete the training during work hours b) employees must travel to complete the training c) there is typically a large up-front cost d) CD-ROM training takes more employee time Answer: c 39. A company pursuing a differentiation strategy would likely train employees: a) to work efficiently b) how to offer high-quality service c) in detail how to perform tasks d) to avoid waste in production processes Answer: b 40. Which of the following is NOT true about an organization with an external labor orientation? a) these companies are not willing to spend any money to train employees b) these companies would tend to offer training to help employees learn company-specific knowledge c) these organizations tend to hire or acquire new employees to fill their needs for knowledge and skills d) HR Management strives to keep training costs low Answer: a 41. Which of the following is NOT true about the transfer of training? a) transfer of training occurs when trainees apply what they have learned in training when back on the job b) for transfer of training to occur, an employee must actually use what they learned in training back on the job c) training should be a partnership among employees and human resource trainers d) organizations must use a systematic process for designing and developing training to maximize the transfer of training Answer: c 42. The fundamental components of a systematic process to develop training are: a) needs assessment, design and delivery, and evaluation of training b) transfer of training, needs assessment, and organizational analysis c) needs assessment, delivery, and transfer of training d) organizational analysis, delivery and evaluation Answer: a 43. The rapid model of instructional design should be used: a) when there is only one opportunity to train a group of employees b) when the cost of employees doing the wrong thing is high c) when employees need at least some knowledge quickly d) when training must be right the first time Answer: c 44. A systematic process for determining and prioritizing the training programs to be developed and delivered by an organization: a) is known as the rapid model of instructional design b) is proactive needs assessment c) begins with program design d) is organization analysis Answer: b 45. Proactive needs assessment: a) consists of organizational analysis and person analysis b) consists of task and person analysis c) consists of needs assessment, design and delivery, and evaluation d) consists of organizational analysis, task analysis, and person analysis Answer: d 46. Organization analysis: a) measures characteristics of the work environment b) is appropriate for an organization pursuing a Free Agent HR strategy c) is appropriate for an organization pursuing a Bargain Laborer HR strategy d) considers only internal factors Answer: a 47. Task analysis: a) focuses on the individual employee and his/her training needs b) is a viable alternative to organization analysis c) needs to be repeated when the organization’s external environment changes d) involves identifying the tasks performed by trainees and the knowledge and skills necessary to perform the tasks effectively Answer: d 48. When conducting task analysis in the process of developing training: a) only data from incumbents should be used b) multiple sources of input should be used c) only data from incumbents and HR professionals should be used d) only data from HR professionals and managers should be used Answer: b 49. Competency modeling: a) is most frequently used for specific positions with precise duties b) results in more specific training needs than other methods c) is frequently used for managerial jobs d) is usually more costly than other methods of task analysis Answer: c 50. Cognitive task analysis: a) is most frequently used for specific positions with precise duties b) focuses on observable tasks and behaviors c) frequently costs less than other task analysis methods d) examines goals, decisions and judgments that employees make on the job Answer: d 51. Team analysis: a) is used where the performance of interest to the organization is largely determined by coordinated efforts b) focuses on the goals, decisions, and judgments that employees make on the job c) is most frequently used to understand specific positions with precise duties d) is mostly worker-focused rather than work-focused Answer: a 52. Person analysis considers all the issues below EXCEPT: a) is training necessary to ensure that employees can perform tasks effectively? b) if training is necessary, who needs training? c) what is the cost of employee lost time? d) are potential trainees ready for training? Answer: c 53. All of the following are indicators of employee readiness for training EXCEPT: a) individuals with higher levels of general mental ability are more likely to benefit from training b) individuals who already have necessary basic skills are more likely to benefit from training c) individuals with higher levels of motivation are more likely to benefit from training d) individuals who have recently received a negative performance appraisal are likely to benefit from training Answer: d 54. The reactive needs assessment approach to training involves three main steps: a) needs assessment, design and delivery, and evaluation b) problem definition, causal analysis, and solution implementation c) needs assessment, problem identification, and solution implementation d) problem definition, needs assessment, and solution implementation Answer: b 55. Once a gap between desired and actual performance is identified: a) the next step is problem definition b) the next step is solution implementation c) causal analysis is used to determine reasons for the gap d) task analysis is used to determine the reasons for the gap Answer: c 56. Which of the following is NOT true about learning objectives? a) learning objectives should be used to determine the content of training b) learning objectives should be used to determine the methods of training c) learning objectives should be used to determine the media used in training d) learning objectives should be used to determine appropriate solutions Answer: d 57. What are the components of effective learning objectives? a) performance, content and outcomes b) performance, conditions and criteria c) performance, collaboration requirements and outcomes d) performance, methods and criteria Answer: b 58. Once learning objectives have been identified, decisions must be made about: a) content, methods, media and transfer-enhancement techniques b) organizational objectives, methods and media c) performance, conditions and transfer-enhancement techniques d) needs assessment, design, delivery, and evaluation Answer: a 59. The material that needs to be delivered to trainees is? a) organizational objectives b) learning goals c) content d) media Answer: c 60. Which of the following is NOT a recognized method of selecting training content? a) the person responsible for training can create it from scratch b) subject-matter experts can be consulted c) content can be purchased in off-the-shelf materials d) the passive method can be used Answer: d 61. The case study training method: a) is extremely expensive to develop b) can effectively be used to develop knowledge, skills and attitudes c) has a high likelihood of transfer to the job d) is extremely expensive to administer/deliver Answer: b 62. Lectures: a) are one of the most widely used active methods of instruction b) are an effective method to develop employee skills c) are an efficient way for many learners to receive the same content and gain the same knowledge d) rarely result in learning according to research finding Answer: c 63. All of the following are true of the discussion training method EXCEPT: a) discussion cannot help improve motivation or change attitudes b) discussion can help an individual recognize what they do not know but should know c) discussions can be used to build critical thinking skills d) discussions can effectively improve motivation Answer: a 64. Case analysis: a) is NOT an effective training method to teach basic principles b) is NOT an effective training method to improve motivation c) is an effective method for changing attitudes d) is only moderately effective in developing skills in analysis, communication and problem solving Answer: c 65. Effective on-the-job training: a) involves pairing up an inexperienced employee with an experienced employee so the inexperienced employee can watch and learn actual job knowledge and skills b) is unstructured so the trainee can advance at his/her own pace to successively more responsible assignments c) is structured and systematic—mirroring the application of behavior modeling d) occurs away from the job/work site Answer: c 66. All of the following are concerns about e-learning EXCEPT: a) the up-front cost can be substantial b) interaction among peers is limited c) training content is standardized so all trainees have to see the same material d) control is in the hands of learners, and not all learners make choices that help them learn Answer: c 67. All of the following enhance transfer of training EXCEPT: a) management involvement with trainees prior to training, such as briefing trainees on the importance of training b) send coworkers to training separately so they are not distracted by the presence of their coworkers c) the use of a behavioral contract which spells out what both the manager and employee want to happen during and after training d) managers encouraging trainees to attend training and trainees actively participating in all training sessions Answer: b 68. Ways to enhance the transfer of training after training has been completed include all of the following EXCEPT: a) arranging practice sessions and providing positive reinforcement b) supporting training reunions and publicizing successes in the use of the trained skills c) providing trainees an opportunity to perform as soon as possible after training is completed d) conducting a formal appraisal of performance immediately after training so it can be formally noted that the employee attended training and is able to apply training on-the-job Answer: d 69. Post-test only training evaluation designs: a) can demonstrate with certainty that training caused the results observed in the post-test b) are not used frequently because of costs c) are most useful if the evaluator is primarily concerned that trainees reach a certain level of proficiency d) involve gathering data before and after training Answer: c 70. Pre-test and post-test with a control group: a) is the most frequently used evaluation design b) is most useful if a training program is being considered that will be expensive and there is uncertainty about whether to do it c) is a relatively less sophisticated training evaluation design d) is best used to provide feedback to trainers Answer: b Short Answer 71. ___________ __ ___________ occurs when trainees apply what they have learned in training to their jobs. Answer: Transfer of training 72. Determining who should be trained and what training should cover is a part of ____________ ___________. Answer: needs assessment 73. ___________ _________ __________ is a problem-solving process that begins with defining the problem and then moves to identifying the root cause of the problem and designing an intervention to solve the problem. Answer: Reactive needs assessment 74. ___________ ____________ are the intended individual learning outcomes from training. Answer: Learning objectives 75. _____________ _____________ are companies whose primary business is to design and deliver training programs. Answer: Training vendors 76. A training method that reproduces events, processes and circumstances that occur in the trainee’s job is called ________________. Answer: simulation 77. An add-on to training that addresses situations in which trainees may have difficulty applying training on the job and provides strategies for overcoming relapses into old patterns of behavior is called ___________ ___________ training. Answer: relapse prevention 78. ___________ is a change that occurs from experience. Answer: Learning Essays 79. Describe at least five training methods and the types of training objectives each is well suited to achieve. Answer: A. Presentation is a passive method of instruction for providing content directly to learners. It is an efficient way for many learners to receive the same content and gain the same knowledge. B. Discussions allow two-way communication between trainer and trainees and between trainees. Discussions can be used to build knowledge and critical-thinking skills, but they are best used to help improve motivation and change attitudes. C. Case analysis is an active training method in which trainees discuss, analyze, and solve problems based upon real or hypothetical situations. Cases can be used to help teach basic principles and to improve motivation and change attitudes. It is also effective in developing skill in analysis, communication and problem solving. D. Discovery is an active method that involves presenting trainees with a task that offers opportunities to learn new skills. Discovery can be highly motivating for trainees. E. Role-playing involves each participant acting out a part in a simulated situation. It is most useful in helping trainees acquire interpersonal and human relations skills. F. Simulations are active methods that reproduce events, process, and circumstances that occur in the trainee’s job. Simulations give trainees the opportunity to experience some aspects of their job in a safe and controlled environment and are most effective in building skills relevant to those aspects of the job. G. Behavior modeling draws together principles of learning from many different areas and is most effective for improving job skills. 80. Discuss the steps for designing evaluations for training. Answer: A. Decide the purpose of evaluation 1. Providing feedback to designers, trainers and trainees 2. Providing input for decision making about the value of continuing the training 3. Providing information that can be used to market the training program B. The purpose of the evaluation helps determine how to design evaluations C. To provide feedback, training content and design can be examined before, during and after training D. To provide input into decisions about training, changes in learners and organizational payoffs can be examined to determine if training is effective at producing desired changes E. To provide marketing information, information about training design, learners and organizational payoffs can be crafted into stories about the benefits of training Test Bank for Human Resource Management: Linking Strategy to Practice Greg L. Stewart, Kenneth G. Brown 9780471717515