Chapter 05: Selection
1. Which of the following are considered to be "hidden" costs of a poor selection process?
A. the cost of beginning the selection process over again when an unsuccessful employee is
terminated
B. the cost of orienting a newly selected employee to replace the unsuccessful employee who
was terminated
C. strategic objectives will not be met
D. customer alienation and internal disorganization when an unsuccessful employee is
terminated
E. customer alienation only
Answer: D. customer alienation and internal disorganization when an unsuccessful employee
is terminated
2. Yung is the manager of human resources at a credit union. Following an incident where a
former employee was convicted for theft of customer account information, she has become
increasingly concerned about negligent hiring lawsuits. Which of the following steps would
be the most helpful in addressing her concern?
A. ensuring selection criteria are based on job descriptions
B. ensuring selection criteria are based on job specifications
C. carefully scrutinizing application forms and checking references
D. obtaining consent to check references
E. adequately assessing the applicant's ability to meet performance standards
Answer: C. carefully scrutinizing application forms and checking references
3. A selection ratio of 1:3 generally means that
A. there are many applicants from whom to select.
B. there are high quality recruits and many applicants from whom to select.
C. there are low quality recruits, but many applicants, from whom to select.
D. there are a limited number of applicants from whom to select.
E. there are a limited number of applicants from whom to select who are also likely low
quality recruits.
Answer: E. there are a limited number of applicants from whom to select who are also likely
low quality recruits.
4. The multiple hurdle strategy is an approach to selection involving
A. a selection of instruments for selection purposes.
B. a series of interviews.
C. a reliability and validity analysis.
D. a series of successive steps or hurdles.
E. none of the above.
Answer: D. a series of successive steps or hurdles.
5. Which of the following is true of the interview question, "How would you handle an angry
customer?"
A. It tests intellectual capacity.
B. It tests knowledge and experience.
C. It is an example of behavioural interviewing.
D. It is a situational question.
E. It is a situational question which tests knowledge and experience.
Answer: E. It is a situational question which tests knowledge and experience.
6. Selection is a strategic activity in that the ideal individual will possess the
A. required skills and fit for the organizational culture.
B. ability to fit with the strategic direction of the organization.
C. required skills, technical ability, and knowledge.
D. required KSAs, excellent performance, and fit for the organizational culture.
E. required KSAs with the right experience.
Answer: B. ability to fit with the strategic direction of the organization.
7. Strategic selection is important because of
A. ethical reasons.
B. the time and costs involved.
C. the costs involved, impact on performance, and legal implications.
D. the employment equity plan.
E. the budget required and legal implications.
Answer: C. the costs involved, impact on performance, and legal implications.
8. Employers are increasingly being held liable for damages stemming from their
A. use of invalid selection tests.
B. discriminatory practices in the selection process.
C. failure to abide by employment equity legislative requirements.
D. negligent hiring of workers who subsequently commit criminal acts on the job.
E. use of unreliable selection tests.
Answer: D. negligent hiring of workers who subsequently commit criminal acts on the job.
9. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The HR department staff members generally screen and test applicants, perform reference
checking, and make the final selection decision.
B. The types of selection instruments and screening devices used are fairly standardized.
C. Selection strategies should be continually refined, regardless of cost.
D. The organization's strategic plan places major constraints on selection decisions.
E. Selection plays a relatively minor role in the achievement of employment equity goals.
Answer: D. The organization's strategic plan places major constraints on selection decisions.
10. Suggested guidelines to avoid negative legal consequences include all of the following
except
A. adequately assessing each applicant's ability to meet performance standards.
B. keeping careful records documenting each stage of the selection process.
C. rejecting applicants who make false statements on their application forms.
D. checking references very carefully.
E. none of the guidelines above are exceptions.
Answer: E. none of the guidelines above are exceptions.
11. A selection ratio is
A. the ratio of the number of interviews successfully completed to the total number of
applicants.
B. the ratio of the total number of applicants hired to the total number of applicants.
C. the ratio of the total number of applicants to the number of applicants hired.
D. the ratio of the number of offers extended to the total number of applicants.
E. the cost per hire.
Answer: B. the ratio of the total number of applicants hired to the total number of applicants.
12. Sandeep Gill is the manager of a busy local branch of a provincial credit union,
Envirobank. The branch recently had to hire 5 new tellers to meet the rise in demand for
branch services. The branch relied mainly on candidate interviews as a selection tool.
Although Sandeep thought he had planned the candidate interviewing process well and had
designed effective questions for assessing the candidates, the 3 candidates who were rated the
highest in the interview did not meet basic performance expectations following their hire. The
primary problem with the selection tool chosen and designed by Sandeep is one of
A. validity.
B. integrity.
C. reliability.
D. impression management.
E. nothing. There is no problem with this selection tool.
Answer: A. validity.
13. The consistency of scores obtained by a person when he or she is retested on the identical
test or an equivalent version is an example of
A. reliability.
B. construct validity.
C. criterion-related reliability.
D. content validity.
E. validity.
Answer: A. reliability.
14. Each of the following is a potential source of unreliability except
A. tiredness of the applicant.
B. the conditions under which the instrument is administered.
C. changes within the applicant.
D. chance response tendencies.
E. none of the above. There are no exceptions listed there.
Answer: E. none of the above. There are no exceptions listed there.
15. Answering the question, "Does this predictor measure what it's supposed to measure?" is
an assessment of
A. differential validity.
B. validity.
C. reliability.
D. aptitude and achievement.
E. personality and behaviour.
Answer: B. validity.
16. The extent to which a selection tool predicts or significantly correlates with important
elements of work behaviour is known as
A. reliability.
B. predictive validity.
C. criterion-related validity.
D. differential validity.
E. content validity.
Answer: C. criterion-related validity.
17. Differential validity is
A. the extent to which a selection tool predicts or significantly correlates with important
elements of work behaviour.
B. confirmation that the selection tool accurately predicts the performance of all possible
employee subgroups, including white males.
C. the accuracy with which a predictor measures what it is supposed to measure.
D. the extent to which a selection tool measures a theoretical construct or trait deemed
necessary to perform the job well.
E. none of the above.
Answer: B. confirmation that the selection tool accurately predicts the performance of all
possible employee subgroups, including white males.
18. Which of the following is true of preliminary applicant screening?
A. The use of technology is becoming increasingly popular at this stage of the selection
process.
B. It involves eliminating candidates lacking the "nice to have" selection criteria.
C. Initial applicant screening is generally performed by the line managers.
D. It may involve selection testing.
E. It may involve candidate interviews.
Answer: A. The use of technology is becoming increasingly popular at this stage of the
selection process.
19. Initial applicant screening is typically performed by
A. computer technology.
B. HR professionals.
C. line managers.
D. an external recruitment agency.
E. voice-response technology.
Answer: B. HR professionals.
20. Which of the following statements about selection testing is true?
A. Studies have shown that approximately two-thirds of Canadian organizations use tests for
hiring.
B. The use of tests has been declining in recent years.
C. Selection testing generally involves a demonstration of skills.
D. Testing is more prevalent in small organizations.
E. Personality and aptitude tests are not commonly used for selection purposes.
Answer: A. Studies have shown that approximately two-thirds of Canadian organizations use
tests for hiring.
21. Intelligence tests measure all of the following traits except
A. verbal fluency.
B. memory.
C. extrasensory perception.
D. numerical ability.
E. vocabulary.
Answer: C. extrasensory perception.
22. Tests that measure an individual's potential to perform a job, provided he or she is given
proper training, are known as
A. aptitude tests.
B. interest inventories.
C. achievement tests.
D. personality tests.
E. intelligence tests.
Answer: A. aptitude tests.
23. A number of tests commonly used in selection can conveniently be classified according to
whether they measure each of the following characteristics except
A. personal attractiveness and suitability.
B. motor and physical abilities.
C. memory.
D. monitoring one's own emotions.
E. general intellectual abilities.
Answer: A. personal attractiveness and suitability.
24. Motor abilities a firm might want to measure include all of the following except
A. reaction time.
B. speed of arm movement.
C. manual dexterity.
D. finger dexterity.
E. spatial visualization.
Answer: E. spatial visualization.
25. The following are physical abilities that an employer might want to measure except
A. climbing.
B. verbal abilities.
C. pulling/pushing strength.
D. lifting strength.
E. stamina.
Answer: B. verbal abilities.
26. Personality tests can measure basic aspects of an applicant's personality, which includes
all of the following except
A. neurotic tendency.
B. stability.
C. introversion.
D. motivation.
E. dexterity.
Answer: E. dexterity.
27. A test in which an ambiguous stimulus is presented and the person taking the test is
expected to interpret or react to it, is a common type of
A. achievement test.
B. interest inventory.
C. intelligence test.
D. personality test.
E. aptitude test.
Answer: D. personality test.
28. The screening tool which is most often used by employers in the selection process is
A. working sampling.
B. an assessment centre.
C. an interview.
D. a personality test.
E. an interview and personality test.
Answer: C. an interview.
29. Which of the following statements about personality testing is true?
A. The "Big Five" personality dimensions include extroversion, emotional stability,
agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience.
B. Attainment of the full potential of personality testing relates primarily to the careful
analysis of test results.
C. Personality tests are not very useful for hiring purposes.
D. The predictive power of personality tests is generally quite low.
E. Extroversion is a valid predictor of performance for all occupations.
Answer: A. The "Big Five" personality dimensions include extroversion, emotional stability,
agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience.
30. Tests used to measure knowledge and/or proficiency acquired through education, training,
and experience are known as:
A. achievement tests.
B. intelligence tests.
C. personality tests.
D. interest inventories.
E. aptitude tests.
Answer: A. achievement tests.
31. Work samples focus on measuring
A. hypothetical situations.
B. expert appraisers' evaluations.
C. the "Big Five" personality dimensions.
D. physical abilities only.
E. job performance directly.
Answer: E. job performance directly.
32. Interest inventories are tests that
A. measure basic elements of personality.
B. compare a candidate's interests with those of people in various occupations.
C. measure job performance directly.
D. apply to extroversion and emotional stability.
E. measure knowledge and/or proficiency.
Answer: B. compare a candidate's interests with those of people in various occupations.
33. The two- to three-day strategy used to assess candidates' management potential is known
as
A. a leaderless group discussion.
B. a managerial aptitude test.
C. a management assessment centre.
D. a supervisory interest inventory.
E. an in-basket exercise.
Answer: C. a management assessment centre.
34. Examples of strategies used in a typical assessment centre include all of the following
except
A. an in-basket exercise.
B. a leaderless group discussion.
C. on-the-job training.
D. individual presentations.
E. objective tests.
Answer: C. on-the-job training.
35. Assessment centres are
A. useful for predicting success in jobs of all levels.
B. a better predictor of performance than any other selection tool.
C. a tool that assesses management potential using a special room with a one-way mirror.
D. an inexpensive selection strategy.
E. characterized by all of the above.
Answer: C. a tool that assesses management potential using a special room with a one-way
mirror.
36. Micro-assessment focuses on
A. individual performance.
B. paper-based questions.
C. verbal questions.
D. group performance.
E. computer-based questions.
Answer: A. individual performance.
37. All of the following are reasons that employers may include a medical examination as a
step in the selection process except
A. to provide documentation to justify not hiring a qualified individual with a physical
disability that would prevent him or her from performing the essential job duties.
B. to reduce absenteeism and accidents.
C. to determine that the applicant qualifies for the physical requirements of the position.
D. to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims.
E. none, there are no exceptions listed above.
Answer: A. to provide documentation to justify not hiring a qualified individual with a
physical disability that would prevent him or her from performing the essential job duties.
38. The purpose of pre-employment substance abuse testing is to
A. determine that the applicant qualifies for the physical requirements of the position.
B. address absenteeism.
C. test mental abilities.
D. avoid hiring employees who would pose unnecessary risks to themselves or others.
E. reduce accidents.
Answer: D. avoid hiring employees who would pose unnecessary risks to themselves or
others.
39. All of the following statements about selection interviews are true except that
A. interviews significantly affect job applicants' views of the job and firm.
B. the interview is used by virtually all organizations for selection purposes.
C. interviews are conducted following testing in a majority of firms.
D. interviews enable the employer to fill in information gaps.
E. interview objectives include providing job applicants with information about expected
duties of the position.
Answer: C. interviews are conducted following testing in a majority of firms.
40. All of the following are common interviewer objectives except
A. selling their skills.
B. assessing applicants' qualifications.
C. providing candidates with information about the job.
D. promoting the organization.
E. observing interpersonal skills.
Answer: A. selling their skills.
41. The interview technique that involves questions being asked as they come to mind is
known as
A. directive.
B. mixed.
C. unstructured.
D. sequential.
E. structured.
Answer: C. unstructured.
42. The interview format that may seem quite mechanical to all concerned is known as
A. nondirective.
B. structured.
C. mixed.
D. unstructured.
E. stress-producing.
Answer: B. structured.
43. The interview format that yields comparable answers and in-depth insights is known as
A. mixed.
B. behavioural.
C. stress-producing.
D. situational.
E. patterned.
Answer: A. mixed.
44. Which interview format involves a series of preset questions asked of all candidates and a
series of preset candidate-specific questions?
A. mixed
B. situational
C. structured
D. nondirective
E. behavioural
Answer: A. mixed
45. Asking an applicant how he or she would handle a situation where his or her manager
assigned work with competing deadlines would be an example of which interview technique?
A. stress
B. behavioural
C. situational
D. nondirective
E. structured
Answer: C. situational
46. While ________ interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react in a given
situation, ________ interviews ask candidates to describe how they did react in that situation
in the past.
A. stress; situational
B. behavioural; situational
C. structured; situational
D. situational; behavioural
E. nondirective; behavioural
Answer: D. situational; behavioural
47. Behavioural questions describe
A. hypothetical situations.
B. various situations experienced in the past.
C. future behaviour.
D. candidate personality.
E. preset candidate reactions.
Answer: B. various situations experienced in the past.
48. An example of a behavioural question is,
A. "What type of work do you want to be doing in five years?"
B. "Tell me about a time when you managed a situation requiring negotiation."
C. "If a co-worker hurt her back, what would you do?"
D. "What are the skill areas you must develop?"
E. None of the above are behavioural questions.
Answer: B. "Tell me about a time when you managed a situation requiring negotiation."
49. An example of a situational question is,
A. "Tell me about a time when you managed numerous priorities in a short period of time."
B. "Tell me about a time when you had to discipline an employee arriving late for work three
days in a row."
C. "How would you handle an irate boss who was just told that the output in the department
was below standard?"
D. "What type of computer skills are you proficient in?"
E. None of the above.
Answer: C. "How would you handle an irate boss who was just told that the output in the
department was below standard?"
50. A serialized interview occurs when
A. a candidate's oral and/or computerized responses are obtained in response to computerized
oral and written questions.
B. a panel simultaneously interviews several candidates.
C. each interviewer rates the candidate on a standard evaluation form and the ratings are
compared before the hiring decision is made.
D. each interviewee only attends one interview.
E. each interviewer evaluates the applicant from his or her own point of view.
Answer: C. each interviewer rates the candidate on a standard evaluation form and the ratings
are compared before the hiring decision is made.
51. Most interviews are administered
A. simultaneously by a group.
B. by computers.
C. simultaneously by several candidates.
D. one-on-one.
E. on a standard evaluation form.
Answer: D. one-on-one.
52. The interviewing method in which the applicant is interviewed by a number of people at
once is known as a ___________ interview.
A. panel
B. mass
C. sequential
D. serialized
E. behavioural
Answer: A. panel
53. Advantages of a panel interview include all of the following except that
A. they require less time overall.
B. they include varied questions pertaining to each interviewer's area of expertise.
C. the likelihood of human rights or employment equity violations is greatly reduced.
D. there is less likelihood of interviewer error.
E. there are no exceptions listed above.
Answer: E. there are no exceptions listed above.
54. When several candidates are interviewed simultaneously by a panel, this is referred to as a
________ interview.
A. mass
B. panel
C. sequential
D. stress
E. patterned
Answer: A. mass
55. To comply with human rights laws, an interviewer should not ask questions about any of
the following except
A. ethnic background.
B. childcare arrangements.
C. marital status.
D. workers' compensation history.
E. educational qualifications.
Answer: E. educational qualifications.
56. All of the following are common interviewing mistakes except
A. poor knowledge of job.
B. poor planning.
C. too little talking.
D. asking discriminatory questions.
E. making snap judgments.
Answer: D. asking discriminatory questions.
57. The halo effect related to selection is
A. a negative initial impression that distorts an interviewer's rating.
B. a positive initial impression that distorts an interviewer's rating.
C. a negative impression made at the end of the interview that will distort an interviewer's
rating.
D. a positive impression made at the end of the interview that will distort an interviewer's
rating.
E. none of the above.
Answer: B. a positive initial impression that distorts an interviewer's rating.
58. A common interviewing mistake is to make the interview itself mostly a search for
A. negative information.
B. information about medical history.
C. personal information.
D. positive information.
E. the ideal candidate.
Answer: A. negative information.
59. Interviewers who don't know precisely what the job entails and what sort of candidate is
best suited for it usually make their decisions based on
A. incorrect stereotypes.
B. applicant screening.
C. letters of reference.
D. employment test results.
E. candidate responses.
Answer: A. incorrect stereotypes.
60. Which error is of particular concern from a human rights law perspective?
A. influence of nonverbal behaviour
B. too little talking
C. playing attorney
D. contrast (candidate-order) error
E. telegraphing
Answer: A. influence of nonverbal behaviour
61. Nonverbal behaviours often account for more than ________ percent of the applicant's
rating.
A. 60
B. 50
C. 80
D. 70
E. 40
Answer: C. 80
62. Research has shown that those rated as more physically attractive than other candidates
are also rated as
A. equally suitable for employment.
B. suitable for temporary employment.
C. unsuitable for employment.
D. more suitable for employment.
E. less suitable for employment.
Answer: D. more suitable for employment.
63. According to the 30/70 rule,
A. interviewees should remain silent 30 percent of the time.
B. interviewers should speak 70 percent of the time and interviewees should speak 30 percent
of the time.
C. interviewers should remain silent 30 percent of the time.
D. the interview should be structured to begin with 30 minutes of questions from the
interviewer followed by 70 minutes of questions from the interviewee.
E. interviewers should speak 30 percent of the time and interviewees should speak 70 percent
of the time.
Answer: E. interviewers should speak 30 percent of the time and interviewees should speak
70 percent of the time.
64. Hints for conducting an effective panel interview include all of the following except
A. plan the interview.
B. evaluate the candidate.
C. build rapport.
D. listen carefully rather than taking notes.
E. ask questions.
Answer: D. listen carefully rather than taking notes.
65. Suggestions to ensure that questioning is effective include all of the following except
A. prepare questions in advance.
B. listen to the candidate and encourage the full expression of his or her thoughts.
C. interrogate the applicant.
D. ask questions in order.
E. record the candidate's answers briefly but thoroughly.
Answer: C. interrogate the applicant.
66. Toward the end of the interview, time should be allotted to do all of the following except
A. advocate for the firm, if appropriate.
B. politely advise a candidate if it has been determined that he or she will not be given further
consideration.
C. advocate for the position, if appropriate.
D. thank the interviewee.
E. answer any questions the candidate may have.
Answer: B. politely advise a candidate if it has been determined that he or she will not be
given further consideration.
67. Each of the following statements about the legal issues involved in obtaining and
providing reference information is true except
A. failure to check references can lead to negligent or wrongful hiring suits.
B. as long as reference information is honest, fair, and candid, reference givers are legally
protected.
C. many companies are adopting a "no reference" policy.
D. the defence of "qualified privilege" protects reference givers, regardless of the
circumstances.
E. even if negative information is given, if it is imparted in a fair and honest manner, the
reference giver is legally protected.
Answer: D. the defence of "qualified privilege" protects reference givers, regardless of the
circumstances.
68. The immediate supervisor is generally responsible for making the final selection decision.
Reasons for this include all of the following except that
A. he or she is generally best qualified to assess job knowledge and skills.
B. he or she is often highly skilled in the selection process.
C. it is important that the individual selected fits in with current department members.
D. if he or she is not committed to the selected individual, that person can easily be set up for
failure.
E. he or she must provide guidance and assistance to the new hire.
Answer: B. he or she is often highly skilled in the selection process.
69. The best strategy for creating appropriate expectations about the job is
A. providing a realistic job preview.
B. using realistic testing.
C. providing an in-depth interview.
D. giving each applicant a copy of the job description.
E. using simulations.
Answer: A. providing a realistic job preview.
70. The selection decision-making technique which involves identifying the most valid
predictors and weighting them through statistical methods, such as multiple regression, is
called
A. multiple-evaluation approach.
B. statistical strategy.
C. multiple-hurdle strategy.
D. benchmark approach.
E. clinical strategy.
Answer: B. statistical strategy.
71. All of the following statements pertaining to the final steps in the selection process are
true except that
A. the initial offer is made by telephone.
B. the immediate supervisor generally handles the offer of employment.
C. candidates should be given a reasonable length of time to think over the job offer.
D. a written offer of employment should always be extended.
E. the offer specifies the starting salary.
Answer: B. the immediate supervisor generally handles the offer of employment.
72. There are legal implications associated with ineffective or incompetent selection.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
73. In many instances, a small selection ratio also means a low quality of recruits.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
74. Reliability is the accuracy with which a predictor measures what it purports to measure.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. False
75. Intelligence, verbal skills, analytical ability, and leadership skills are examples of
constructs.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
76. Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection instrument, such as a test,
samples the knowledge and skills needed to perform the job.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
77. IQ tests are tests that measure a single "intelligence" trait.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
78. Management assessment centres include activities and exercises that involve interviews
and individual presentations.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
79. Complicating the entire issue of substance abuse testing are the protections under human
rights codes in Canada.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
80. The hiring manager asked a candidate how he has conducted a performance appraisal
interview for an underperforming report in the past. This is an example of a behavioural
interview question.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
81. It is common for interviewers to turn interviews into a search for negative information.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
82. A final selection decision should not be reached until all assessments, including reference
checking, have been completed.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
83. Most organizations use the statistical strategy to arrive at a selection decision, since this
strategy is generally more reliable and valid.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
84. There are typically six steps in the selection process that results in the hiring decision
(which is step number six). Identify and briefly describe the five steps that typically lead up
to the hiring decision.
Answer: 10 points for correct identification and brief description of:
1. Preliminary screening
2. Selection testing
3. Selection interview
4. Background/reference checking
5. Supervisory interview and realistic job preview.
85. You are the director of human resources at an accounting firm and are preparing to advise
the hiring manager in interviewing candidates for articling positions with the firm. You've
already identified key selection criteria for the position, which include excellent analytical
skills, ability to work under pressure, and the ability to interact well with clients and
coworkers. Generate one situational interview question and one behavioural interview
question for the positions. Be sure to explain how each of the questions is relevant to any of
the selection criteria identified. Complete answers are worth 5 points for each question—10
total.
Answer: Situational interview question
- The question must ask about a hypothetical situation. It should also address one or more of
the competencies listed (i.e., have analytical skills, work under pressure, interact well).
- Example: "Assume you got a call from one of your clients at 1 a.m. on Sunday. The client
said he had something he needed to discuss immediately. You were in bed when you received
the call. How would you handle the client's request?" The question should set up a specific
hypothetical situation.
- For the relevance of the question, the there must be justification that the question examines
one or more of the competencies. (In the case of the example, the question tests knowledge of
best practices in handling client interactions and, to a certain extent, ability to work under
pressure.)
Behavioural interview question
- The question must ask about the candidate's past experience.
- Example: "Tell me about a time when you had a dispute or disagreement with a coworker.
How did you resolve the issue?"
- For the relevance of the question, there must be justification that the question examines one
or more of the competencies. (In the case of the example, the question tests ability to interact
well with coworkers and resolve differences.)
86. Astrid is considering using a selection test for the position of line cook in a hotel kitchen.
This position must prepare meals to the specifications of the executive chef and follow
instructions exactly. Astrid wants to make sure her test is both reliable and valid. Give Astrid
some help by explaining what it means for a selection test to be both reliable and valid AND
provide an example of a test she can use for the line cook that will be both reliable and valid.
10 points total—5 for accurate description of what "reliable" means and how the test you
devise is reliable and 5 for accurate description of what "valid" means and how the test you
devise is valid.
Answer: Reliability is the degree to which tests yield comparable data over time—the
stability of the measures used. Validity is the accuracy with which a predictor measures what
it is intended to measure (in this case, successful performance as a line cook). An example of
a reliable and valid test would be to ask the applicant to prepare a meal from the recipe/notes
of the executive chef.
87. Interviews are subject to many common errors, which may limit the reliability or validity
of the interview. Identify and describe five (5) common interviewing mistakes.
Answer: 2 points for correctly identifying and describing any five of the following: poor
planning, snap judgments, negative emphasis, halo effect, poor knowledge of the job, contrast
error, influence of non-verbal behaviour, leading, too much/too little talking, and similar to
me bias.
Test Bank for Management of Human Resources: The Essentials
Nina D. Cole, Gary Dessler, Nita Chhinzer
9780133807332, 9780134305066
