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Chapter 5: Data Collection: Exploratory and Conclusive Research
1) Qualitative techniques are noted for their ability to provide statistically and scientifically
accurate data.
Answer: False
Qualitative techniques are used to complement conclusive, quantitative, or survey-based
research by offering a fuller portrait of the decision environment.
2) The depth interview may be defined as an unstructured personal interview that uses
extensive probing to get a small group of respondents to talk freely and to express detailed
beliefs and feelings on a topic.
Answer: False
Depth interviews are with a single respondent, not a small group of respondents.
3) Focus group interviews are often used for conclusive research purposes.
Answer: False
Focus group interviews are used for exploratory research purposes.
4) Managers often believe they can use quantitative research as a substitute for qualitative
research on the premise that “listening to the voice of the customer” is always superior to
numerical results, no matter how rigorous.
Answer: False
It is just the opposite; managers believe they can use qualitative research as a substitute for
quantitative research.
5) To provide a good mixture of people, a focus group should consist of various age groups,
races, and economic backgrounds of people.
Answer: False
Focus groups are often designed to be fairly homogenous (of the target segment).
6) For nonconsumer goods research, a group of approximately 15 individuals is best for a
focus group to ensure maximum interaction among participants.
Answer: False
For nonconsumer goods research (pertaining to architects, doctors, industrial purchasers,
engineers, investors, contractors, and so on), a group of 6 or 7 people may be best for
maximum interaction among participants, because these products and services have longer
purchase cycles, are more costly, and have less tangible attributes, those that benefit from
extended discussion.
7) Focus group participants who have already done a session make good candidates for
another session due to their expertise in the process.

Answer: False
Respondents who have participated in a group session in the recent past generally should not
be included. Among the reasons for this restriction are that former participants often play the
role of “expert” by dominating the discussion and trying to show off, and that they have some
idea of the intended question flow, anticipating and short-circuiting the discussion.
8) The person who leads and manages the focus group session is called a facilitator.
Answer: False
The person who leads and manages the focus group session is called the moderator of the
9) The problem with using unskilled moderators for focus groups is that they typically
conduct individual interviews with each of the participants rather than stimulating interaction
among the group participants.
Answer: True
Most unskilled moderators do not have the skills necessary to encourage group interaction.
10) The first step in the analysis of focus group data is to thoroughly study the group
Answer: False
The first step in the analysis of focus group data is to review the research purpose.
11) In analyzing focus group sessions, the analyzer should develop categories for responses
before any of the sessions are viewed.
Answer: False
The researcher analyzing focus group sessions should thoroughly study the sessions,
watching them several times, before making categories for responses.
12) Conclusive research involves a systematic and objective process through which a target
market is sampled and responses are measured using a structured data collection technique.
Answer: True
By definition, conclusive research involves quantitative techniques including structured data
collection and analyses procedures.
13) Respondent data can be classified into three types: past behavior, attitudes, and future
Answer: False
Respondent data falls into the general categories of past behavior, attitudes, and respondent
14) A popular way of describing a respondent is in terms of lifestyle, which is defined as a
distinctive mode of living of a society or a segment of society.

Answer: True
Lifestyle includes activities, interests, and opinions as well as demographic characteristics.
15) The potential for bias as a result of the interviewing process is reduced if communication
techniques are used.
Answer: False
The influence of the questioning process can bias the data obtained by communication
16) Controlling non-response rates is an important concern in choosing among
communication media.
Answer: True
In evaluating which communication approach best meets the needs of a research project,
several criteria are relevant, namely, versatility, cost, time, sample control, quantity of data,
quality of data, and response rate.
17) Of the four communication methods, mail surveys typically have the greatest elapsed
time from the beginning of the research project to completion of the study.
Answer: False
Personal interviews typically require the most time from beginning to end because it is so
labor intensive.
18) Sample control refers to the ability of the communication approach to reach the
designated units in the sample plan effectively and efficiently.
Answer: True
Sample control involves reaching the units to be studied in an effective and efficient manner.
19) Generally, the largest amount of data can be collected using mail surveys, followed by
personal interviews, Web-based surveys, and the telephone.
Answer: False
Web-based surveys allow for the largest amount of data collection followed by personal
interview, mail, and telephone.
20) When the subject matter is not emotional and the questionnaire is properly designed and
administered, personal interviews are generally preferred because they offer higher quality
Answer: False
Under these conditions, quality data will result regardless of which communication approach
is used.
21) The advantage of a natural environment observation versus a contrived observation
setting is an increased probability that the exhibited behavior in the natural setting will more
accurately reflect true behavior patterns.

Answer: True
Natural observations are more likely to reflect true behavior patterns.
22) Structured observation is more appropriate for exploratory research while unstructured
observation is more appropriate for conclusive research.
Answer: False
Structured observation is more appropriate for conclusive research.
23) The psychogalvanometer can be used to measure reactions to stimuli presented, as
indicated by changes in the diameter of the pupil of the eye.
Answer: False
The psychogalvanometer measures changes in perspiration rate. The pupilometer measures
changes in the diameter of the pupil of the eye, where increases tend to reflect a favorable
reaction to a visual stimulus.
24) One of the main disadvantages of the observation method is respondent’s unwillingness
to provide data.
Answer: False
Its lack of reliance on respondents’ willingness to provide data is a prime advantage of the
observation method.
25) Personal interviews are used extensively in international research.
Answer: True
In many countries, cultural and infrastructure constraints preclude telephone, mail, and web
interviews as research options. Interviews in the home are typical in most of the world.
1) Qualitative research techniques can be identified by all of the following characteristics
a. small convenience or quota sample
b. information sought relates to respondents’ motivations, beliefs, feelings, and attitudes, not
to facts about their lives and behavior
c. objective scientific approach to data gathering
d. data collection format is open ended
Answer: C
Qualitative techniques are characterized by intuitive, subjective approach to data gathering,
not objective.
2) The depth interview differs from the focus group interview in that
a. it is less focused

b. it lasts longer
c. it requires less direction by the moderator/interviewer
d. attempts to gain more complete understanding of a respondent’s position
Answer: D
The depth interview uses extensive probing to encourage a single respondent to talk freely in
order to express detailed beliefs and feelings on a topic.
3) The depth interview is used primarily
a. for conclusive research
b. for exploratory research
c. to test specific hypotheses
d. to reduce costs when focus groups are not deemed necessary
Answer: B
Like focus groups, depth interviews are an exploratory research technique. Costs are
generally higher per respondent, not lower.
4) The _______________ survey is a type of depth interview where the researcher is
interested in the views of a selective cross section of people associated with the research
a. client-participant
b. extra-deep
c. preferred participant
d. experience
Answer: D
With experience surveys, individuals are selected based on expertise or knowledge of a topic.
5) All of the following are purposes for focus groups except
a. to help generate hypotheses that can be further tested quantitatively
b. to generate information helpful in structuring consumer questionnaires
c. to provide overall background information on a product category
d. to conclusively identify causes of specific marketing problems
Answer: D
Focus groups can provide insight into marketing problems, but it would take quantitative
research to identify causes.
6) Focus groups can be used for all of the following except

a. to eliminate extraneous variables
b. to understand emotional reactions to brands
c. to interpret previously obtained quantitative results
d. to generate ideas for new creative concepts
Answer: A
Focus groups cannot control for the effect of extraneous variables.
7) For consumer goods research, the focus group should be
a. 4 or 5 individuals
b. 6 or 7 individuals
c. between 8 and 12 individuals
d. between 13 and 15 individuals
Answer: C
Research indicates that groups for consumer good research should be between 8 and 12
individuals for the best interaction.
8) Careful screening of respondents is essential to the success of the focus group. Screening
criteria include all of the following except
a. respondents with direct experience with the object or issue being discussed should not be
b. respondents who have participated in the recent past should not be included
c. respondents who are participating only for the money should be avoided
d. respondents who have a relative or friend already in the group should not be used
Answer: A
For an effective focus group, respondents must have adequate experience with the object or
issue being discussed.
9) A focus group typically lasts
a. 45 minutes to just over an hour
b. 1 to 2 hours
c. 2 to 3 hours
d. 3 to 3(1/2) hours
Answer: B
For best results, focus groups should last 1 to 2 hours. Longer times may be needed for
complex or expensive products.

10) The purpose of a moderator’s guide is to
a. provide the participants an outline to follow along with
b. serve as memory aid for the moderator
c. serve as a key component in the analysis of the focus group session
d. all of the above
e. a and b only
Answer: B
The moderator’s guide provides a detailed outline of the issues to be addressed in the
discussion and serves as a memory aid for the moderator so that all groups follow the same
general sequence and no topics of interest are inadvertently omitted.
11) Key qualifications for a moderator include
a. conveyance of incomplete understanding
b. rigid structure
c. detachment from group
d. both a and c
Answer: A
A useful skill for a group moderator is the ability to convey lack of complete understanding
of the information being presented. This allows participants to elaborate, without having to be
asked directly, in the spirit of clarification.
12) When choosing a moderator for a focus group, all of the following key skills should be
explicitly checked for except
a. a combination of empathy and firmness
b. permissiveness
c. ability to engage one-on-one with participants
d. creativity
Answer: C
Moderators need the ability to encourage involvement, not to engage with participants on a
one-on-one basis.
13) When one person tries to dominate the discussion in a focus group, the moderator can
a. demonstrate permissiveness by allowing the group to self-correct.
b. remind the dominant person of the guidelines in the moderator’s guide and gently ask for
greater restraint.
c. repeat the dominant person’s sentences in a mocking tone until the behavior is altered.

d. stop the proceedings and poll each participant regarding the issue at hand.
Answer: D
When one person tries to dominate the discussion, the moderator can stop the proceedings
and poll each participant regarding the issue at hand. This technique is also useful to
encourage reluctant, reticent, or shy participants to express their views.
14) The raw data of focus groups include all of the following except
a. emotions
b. answers to questionnaire
c. body movements
d. verbatim comments
Answer: B
Focus groups involve group interactions, not the use of questionnaires.
15) Relationships in a qualitative data matrix from a focus group can be identified and
explored with
a. linear regression
b. conjoint analysis
c. segmentation analysis
d. cross-tabulations of variables
Answer: D
Once the researcher has classified the various comments made by individual respondents,
they can be analyzed as nominal variables. Relationships in this qualitative data matrix can be
explored with simple cross-tabulations of variables.
16) A variation on the standard focus group is the _______________, which is a group that
consists of a moderator and 4 to 5 participants.
a. mini-group
b. two-way focus group
c. dual-moderator group
d. client-participant group
Answer: A
The minigroup is especially effective for private or sensitive issues or for greater in-depth
17) In comparison to other data collection techniques, the focus group interview has all of the
following tangible advantages except

a. synergy among members
b. high level of structure
c. snowballing of responses
d. stimulation of ideas and thoughts
Answer: B
Focus groups have the advantage of a flexible structure, not a high level of structure.
18) A major disadvantage of the focus group interview is that
a. the decision maker cannot use the evidence as part of conclusive research
b. participants feel uncomfortable in groups and are therefore less willing to express their
c. data is not provided for analysis
d. scientific scrutiny is not possible
Answer: A
The focus group interview can be part of exploratory research, but cannot serve as conclusive
research. Participants usually find comfort in the group and become more willing to express
their ideas and feelings. Group interviews allow closer scrutiny of the data collection process,
because several observers can witness the session, and it can be recorded for later playback
and analysis.
19) Synergism, one of the advantages of focus group interviews, refers to which of the
a. Ideas are generated spontaneously.
b. Ideas are freely expressed by group members.
c. Ideas are more likely to be expressed once the general level of excitement over the topic
d. A wider range of information is expressed as a group than accumulation of separate
individual responses.
Answer: D
Synergism refers to the idea that the combined effect of the group will produce a wider range
of information, insight, and ideas than will an accumulation of the responses of a number of
individuals when these replies are secured privately.
20) In terms of conclusive research, data on _______________ are among the most soughtafter respondent data in marketing research.
a. past behavior
b. current behavior

c. attitudes
d. respondent characteristics
Answer: C
Because of the presumed relationship between attitudes and behavior, it is the most soughtafter respondent data.
21) All of the following are components of attitude except
a. cognitive
b. affective
c. behavioral
d. lifestyle
Answer: D
The three components of attitude are cognitive, affective, and behavioral.
22) _______________ is a quantitative research procedure that attempts to explain why
people behave as they do and why they hold their current attitudes.
a. Psychographics
b. Lifestyles
c. AIO
d. Depth interviews
Answer: A
Psychographics is a quantitative tool with the goal of helping to categorize and measure
aspects of how people behave, believe, and reason.
23) The advantages of the communication method, as compared to the observation method,
are all of the following except
a. respondents willingness to participate
b. higher versatility
c. faster data collection
d. lower cost
Answer: A
Respondents’ unwillingness to participate is a disadvantage of communication methods.
24) Basic limitations of the telephone interview include all of the following except
a. limited amount of data that can be obtained
b. lack of scalability

c. cannot record nonverbal information
d. potential bias that can result from an incomplete listing of the target population
Answer: B
Scalability is an advantage; additional interviewers can be hired and trained, allowing for
quicker expansion of a project.
25) When evaluating which communication approach best meets the needs of a research
project, all of the following criteria are relevant except
a. versatility
b. cost
c. knowledge of respondents
d. quantity of data
Answer: C
Criteria relevant to evaluate include versatility, cost, time, sample control, quantity of data,
quality of data, and response rate.
26) The largest application of online marketing research analysis is for
a. propensity matching
b. customer surveys
c. neuromarketing
d. metadata analysis
Answer: B
By far, the largest application of online marketing research analysis is for standard consumer
and customer surveys.
27) The most versatile of the four communication methods is
a. personal interviews
b. telephone interviews
c. mail interviews
d. Internet-based methods
Answer: A
Personal interviews provide the most versatility because of the fact-to-face relationship
between the respondent and interviewer.
28) The most expensive approach per completed interview of the four communication
methods is generally

a. personal interviews
b. telephone interviews
c. mail interviews
d. Internet-based methods
Answer: A
Personal interviews are typically the most expensive, due to labor costs for skilled
29) Of the four communication methods, _______________ is by far the fastest way to
obtain large quantities of data.
a. personal interviews
b. telephone interviews
c. mail interviews
d. Internet-based methods
Answer: D
Web-based surveys are the speediest means of collecting large quantities of data, especially if
a dedicated online panel is used.
30) Of the four communication methods, _______________ offer the greatest degree of
sample control.
a. personal interviews
b. telephone interviews
c. mail interviews
d. Internet-based methods
Answer: A
Because it is relatively easy to verify information and select respondents based on specific
criteria, personal interviews offer the highest level of sample control.
31) The sampling frame is the
a. group of respondents used for the research project
b. list of population units from which the sample will be drawn
c. target population represented by the sample
d. framework of consumer segments targeted by the sample
Answer: B

The sampling frame is a list developed from the population, from which the sample will be
32) When considering the three traditional approaches of communication, when sensitive or
embarrassing questions are involved, evidence indicates that _______________ will produce
the highest quality data.
a. personal interviews
b. telephone interviews
c. mail interviews
d. all of the communication methods
Answer: C
Mail interviews tend to work the best, because there is no personal contact with the
respondent by the interviewer.
33) A low response rate from a survey
a. indicates low non-response error
b. indicates high non-response error
c. indicates high sampling error
d. does not necessarily mean non-response error
Answer: D
Non-response error exists when those who respond are somehow different from those who do
not respond. A low response rate increases the chances of non-response error, but does
necessarily mean that it will occur
34) Methods for estimating the degree of non-response error include all of the following
proposed methods except
a. segmentation analysis
b. sensitivity analysis
c. trend projection
d. subsample measurement
Answer: A
The fourth method is subjective estimate.
35) In estimating the degree of non-response error, _______________ determines how
different each successive callback group is from the previous respondent group and evaluates
the relevance of this difference to the management decision.
a. subjective estimate
b. sensitivity analysis

c. trend projection
d. segmentation analysis
Answer: B
With sensitivity analysis, each succeeding group of respondents is compared to the previous
group of respondents. If the management decision is insensitive to this difference, cease
further callbacks.
36) _______________ involves creating an artificial environment and observing the behavior
patterns exhibited by people put in this environment.
a. Contrived observation
b. Disguised observation
c. Undisguised observation
d. Indirect observation
Answer: A
Natural observation involves observing behavior in its normal environment, whereas
contrived observation occurs in an artificial environment.
37) _______________ observation refers to whether or not respondents are aware they are
being observed.
a. Natural or contrived
b. Disguised or undisguised
c. Structured or unstructured
d. Direct or indirect
Answer: B
Disguised or undisguised refer to whether or not subjects know they are being observed. In
disguised they are not aware.
38) _______________ observation refers to observing some indicator of past behavior.
a. Contrived
b. Disguised
c. Indirect
d. Unstructured
Answer: C
Direct observation involves observing the actual behavior while indirect observation involves
observing some indicator of past behavior.
39) A pantry audit would be an example of _______________ observation.

a. contrived
b. disguised
c. indirect
d. unstructured
Answer: C
Because a pantry audit involves observation of an indicator of past behavior rather than the
behavior itself, it is an indirect observation method.
40) The _______________ measures the movement of the eye and is used to determine how
a person reads printed material.
a. psychogalvanometer
b. pupilometer
c. eye-camera
d. audimeter
Answer: C
The eye-camera tracks how a person reads a magazine, newspaper, advertisement, package,
or other printed material. Both the sequence of what is observed and the time spent looking at
various sections are measure.
1) What is an experience survey, and when would it be used?
Answer: The experience survey is a type of depth interview of a selective cross section of
people associated with the research problem. Participants are sought for their ability to
articulate responses, as well as their familiarity with the problem. It is used to seek insights
into the problem at hand.
2) “Listening to the voice of the consumer” is a premise of what kind of research?
Answer: “Listening to the voice of the consumer” is a premise of qualitative or exploratory
3) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using the communication method to collect
Answer: Advantages include speed, cost of communication, and versatility. Disadvantages
include unwillingness to provide the desired data, inability to provide the data, and influence
of the questioning process on the responses.
4) What does versatility mean in regard to communication methods with respondents.
Answer: Versatility refers to the ability to adapt the data collection process to the special
needs of the study’s information needs or the particular respondent.
5) Which data collection method is disintermediated? What does this mean?

Answer: Web-based methodology is disintermediated; this means that no interviewer is
1) Discuss the characteristics of qualitative research.
Answer: Characteristics include:
1) small convenience or quota samples are often used, rather than rigorous, statistically
meaningful samples
2) the information sought relates to respondents’ motivations, beliefs, feelings, and attitudes,
not to facts about their lives and behavior
3) an intuitive, subjective approach is used in gathering the data
4) the data collection format is open ended, allowing respondents to express themselves in
their own words at a length they deem appropriate
5) the approach is not intended to provide statistically or scientifically accurate data, but often
to guide further investigation
2) Discuss the group design issues to consider when designing an effective focus group and
give typical guidelines where possible.
Answer: Guidelines include:
1) homogeneity: generally homogenous
2) size: 8-12 for consumer goods and 6-7 for nonconsumer goods
3) screening of applicants: adequate experience, not in focus group in past year
4) duration: 1-2 hours
5) number of sessions: at least one for each segment being studied
6) environment: comfortable to encourage participation
7) costs: within budget
8) moderator: meets required skill set
3) What skills should a moderator of a focus group possess?
Answer: Skills should include:
1) combination of empathy and firmness
2) permissiveness
3) ability to encourage involvement
4) ability to convey incomplete understanding
5) flexibility

6) sensitivity
7) knowledge of subject matter or willingness to obtain it
8) creativity
4) Outline the steps in analyzing focus group sessions.
Answer: Step 1) review the research purpose
Step 2) thoroughly study the group discussions
Step 3) create categories
Step 4) identify potential relationships
Step 5) add the finishing touches
5) Discuss the advantages of focus group interviews compared to other data collection
Answer: 1) synergism among group members
2) snowballing of responses
3) stimulation of thinking and ideas
4) security in providing insights
5) spontaneity of answers and responses
6) serendipity of ideas
7) specialization of an interviewer
8) scientific scrutiny through multiple observers and recording of session for future analysis
9) flexible structure
10) speed of data collection and analysis

Test Bank for Modern Marketing Research: Concepts, Methods, and Cases
Fred M. Feinberg, Thomas Kinnear, James R. Taylor
9781133188964, 9781133191025, 9780759391710

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